Module 1 - 5 MCQ EVS

Sri Sai Vidya Vikas Shikshana Samithi ®
SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Affiliated to VTU, Recognized by Govt. of Karnataka)
RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA
Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (18CIV59)

MODULE – 1
1 Which of the following is a constituent of eco-system?
a) Plants b) Birds c) Animals d) All of these
2 An Eco-System comprises of
a) Living organisms b) Non-living c) Both living and d) Only
organisms non-living plants
organisms
3 Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a) Eco-Systems may b) Eco-Systems are c) Eco-Systems are . d) None
vary in size always very large always very small of these is true.
4 Which macro consumers has a non-vegetarian diet

a) Herbivores b) Omnivores c) Carnivores D)
Decomposers
5 What are the examples of Primary Consumers

a) Omnivores b) Animals c) Green plants and c)
algae Carnivores
6 All carnivore animals are

a) Scavengers b) predators c) inhibitors d)
competitors
7 Which are the Abiotic components of an ecosystem

a) Soil b) protein c) carbon d) all the above
8 Who proposed the term ecosystem

a) Grinnel b) Turesson c) A.G. Tansley d)
Lindeman
9 Which of the following uses maximum energy?

a) Primary b) Secondary c) Decomposer d) Primary
comsumer consumer Producers
10 Through, which of the following, energy enters in an ecosyslem?
Prof Raveendra R S/ Prof Bhagya N P/ Prof Anil kumara K V


a) Herbivores b) Producer c) Decomposer d) Primary

producers
11 In ecosystem the source of energy is....
(a) ATP (b) Sun (c) The Green plant (d) Sugar
12 Who is primary consumer of biotic community
a) Herbivores/ b) Omnivores c) Scavengers d) Carnivores.
Grazing animal
13 When does the energy flow start in an ecosystem?
a) When material cycle (b) When sun rises (c) When any living (d) When light
starts organism gainfood. energy is converted
in chemical energy.
14 It is correct for ecosystem.......
(a)(Plants, Animals, (b)Community formed by c)Animal, plants and (d) Abiotic
Microorganisms) + various species present in microorganisms. factors
Abiotic environment a particular region.
15 The functional efficiency of ecosystem is affected when decomposers are removed from it, because.
a) Energy flow will stop b) Rest components c)Herbivous will not d)Flow of nutrient
decomposition will become get sun light will stop.
faster
16 If earth is considered a unit region then it can be compared to.......

a) Eco- b) Population c) Biotic Community (d) Species
System
17 Who accepts the nutrient released in environment by decomposer
a) Consumers b) Producers c)Secondary d)None of the given
Consumers
18 Which of the following is not a functional unit of ecosystem?
a) Stratification b) Flow of energy c) Decomposer d)productivity
19 Important physical factor responsible for a good habitat of an organism

a) Light b) Temperature c) Humidity d) All the above
20 The objective of environmental education is

a) Raise consciousness b) To teach c)Create an d)All the above
about environmentally environmental
environmental conditions appropriate behaviour ethic
21 Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
a) Fungi b) Solar light c)Temperature d)Humidity


22 In an ecosystem, the flow

of energy is
a) Bidirectional b) Cyclic c)Unidirectional Multidirectional
23 Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem
a) Plants & some b) Animals c)Human beings d)Fish
bacteria capable of
producing their own
food
24 A predator is
a) An animal that is fed b) An animal that c)An animal that feeds d)A primary
upon feeds upon upon both plants and consumer
another animal animals
25 World environment day is on
a)5th May b)5th June c)18th July d)16th August
26 The following is not a type of Ecosystem.

a) Grassland Ecosystem b) Aquatic Ecosystem c)Desert Ecosystem d)Mountain
Ecosystem
27 In Desert Ecosystem, Shrubs or Bushes are

a) Producer organisms b) Consumers c)Decomposers D)None of the
above
28 -______ are Secondary consumers.
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores C)Omnivores d)All of the above
29 The following is(are) micro-consumers
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Flagellates (d) All of the above
30 Snake is a
a) Primary b) Secondary consumers c)Tertiary d)Quaternary
consumer consumers consumers
30 The following is a Secondary consumer

a) Goat b) Lizard c)Wolf Lion
31 In a pond, insects and small fishes are

a) Primary Micro- b) Secondary (c) Tertiary consumers (d) None of the
consumers consumers above


32 Every Ecosystem has ___ major component(s).

a) One b)Two c)Three d) Four
33 The set of ecosystems is called as

a) Biome b)Climate c)Subsystem d) Structure
34 How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?

a)One b)Two c)Three d) Four
35 Where plants and animals live in aquatic ecosystems?

a) Water b) Land c) Air d) Fire
36 Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?

a) Desert b) Forest c) Grassland d) Oceans
37.
The zooplanktonic forms are
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Carnivores d) Primary

consumers consumers producers
How can desert ecosystems be conserved?

38
a) By minimizing the b) By pouring water to c) By deforestation d) By killing
human activity desert area organisms
39 Which of the following is a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?

a) Western Ghats (b) Indo-gangetic plain (c) Eastern Ghats (d) Aravalli Hills
40 Which among the following is not a method of in-situ conservation?

a) National Park (b) Botanical garden (c) Wildlife (d) Ramsar sites
sanctuary
41 The enormous number of varieties of mango in India represents

(a) genetic diversity (b) species diversity (c) ecological (d) hybridisation
diversity programmes

42 Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots?
[NCERT Exemplar
a) Large number of (b) Abundance of (c) Large number of (d) Destruction of
species endemic species exotic species habitat
43 Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

(a) Destruction of (b) Invasion by alien (c) Keeping animals (d) Over-
habitat species in zoological parks exploitation of
natural resources
44 __________ is an example of an ex-situ conservation.
a) Sacred groves b) Wildlife c)Seed bank d) National park

sanctuary
45 __________ is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.
a) Endemism b) Species richness c)Loss of diversity

d) Lesser
interspecific
competition.
46 ____________ is defined as an ecological state of a species being unique to a specific
geographic location.
a) Exotic species b) Endemic c) Ecosystem d) None of the

species above
47 The term Alpha diversity refers to
a) Genetic b) Community and c) Species d) Diversity

diversity ecosystem diversity among the
diversity plants
48 The percentage of forest cover recommended by the National Forest policy (1988) is
a) 33% for plains b) 37% for plains c) 20% for d) 23% for
and 67% for and 63% for plains and plains and
hills hills 70% for hills 77% for
hills
49 Select the correct statement about biodiversity
a) The desert areas b) Large scale planting c)Western Ghats d)Conservation of
of Rajasthan and of BT cotton has no have a very high biodiversity in just
Gujarat have a adverse effect on degree of species a fad pursued by
very high level biodiversity


of desert animal richness and the developed

species as well endemism countries
as numerous
rare animals
50 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

a) Genetic diversity b) Species endemic to c) Endangered d)The diversity in
present in the dominant the region species found in the the organisms
species of the region region living in the
region
51 Because of deforestation, decreased transpiration leads to
a) less cloud B) more cloud c) more water d) more oxygen
formation formation storage
52 Term used for species which is in danger of being extinct in near future is
a) degradability b) extinct c) endangered d) global
biodiversity
53 Biodiversity
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) has no
towards the towards the throughout the effect on
equator equator planet change in
latitude
54 The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is
a) habitat pollution b) introduction of c) over- d) habitat
exotic species exploitation destruction
55 Which of the following statement correctly defined the term biodiversity hotspot?
a) It is a b) The term c)Only B d) Both B

biogeographic region biodiversity &C
that is both a hotspot
significant reservoir specifically
of biodiversity and is refers to
threatened with biologically rich
destruction. areas around the
world that have
lost at least 70 %
of their original
habitat.
56 Why biodiversity hotspots are important?


a) It important due b) The c) It is because it d) All of the

to the high identification of provides above
vulnerability of an area as a grants to
habitats and high biodiversity organizations
irreplaceability hotspot increases around the
of species found the likelihood of world that are
within large conservation working to
geographic investment. In help protect
regions. addition, other biodiversity
designations for hotspots.
biodiversity
conservation are
likely to be
present within
these broad areas
which may have
more formal
management
structures.
57 Following step(s) can conserve the forest cover
a) prevent forest b) prevention of c) hunting and d) all of the
fire overgrazing by poaching above
cattle should be
banned
58 Biodiversity is directly involved in
a) water b) recycling c) providing d) all of the
purification nutrients fertile soil above
59 A biodiversity hotspot
a) is a region with a b) that have c) both (A) and d) none of the
high level of experienced (B) above
endemic species great habitat loss
60 Biodiversity is a measure of variation at the ___ level.
a) genetic b) species c) ecosystem d) all of the

above
61 Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their
a) Stems b) Roots c) Leaves d) Buds


62 Major causes of deforestation are

a) Shifting b) fuel c) Raw materials d) All the
cultivation requirements for above
industries
63 Which of the following statements about forest is not correct?
a) Forests reduce b) Provides c) provides a d) None of the

soil erosion recreastional source of above
opportunities economic
development
64 The depletion of trees is causing accumulation of
a) NO2 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) O2
65 Forest rich area in karnataka is found in ____
a) Western ghats b) Bandipur c) Nagarhole d) Mangalore
66 ____ are referred to as earths lungs
a) Forests b) Carbon cycle c) water d) Mines

resources
MODULE-2
1 Solar energy is an ideal energy source because of
a) unlimited supply b) no air & water c) free of by d) all the
pollution products above
2 A solar cell generates electricity from sunlight by
a) flow of charge b) flow of heat c) flow of energy d) flow of
carriers electrolyte
3 Solar radiation consists of

a) UV b) visible light c) infra red d) all the
above
4 Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
a) fossil fuels b) solar energy c) tidal wave d) wind energy
energy
5 Which of the following source of energy is less ecofriendly?
a) biogas b) wind power c) solar d) nuclear
6 Which resources are inexhaustible?


a) renewable b) fossil fuel c) non renewable d) mineral
7 Identify the non- renewable source of energy from the following

a) coal b) fuel cells c) wind power d) wave power
8 Electromagnetic radiation can caus

a) plague b) malaria c) cancer d) dengue
fever
9 Harnessing the wind energy is done by
a) wind mill b) ball mill c) flour mill d)pig mill
10 Wind farms are located in

a) river basin b) plain area c) hilly area d) valley area
11 Wind energy generation depends on

a) direction of wind b) velocity of wind c) humidity d) precipitation
12 Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by

a) solar b) solar diesel c) solar thermal d) solar air
photovoltaic hybrid system system heater
system
13 In hydrothermal plants power is generated by

a) hotsprings b) wind c) sun d) water
14 Hydrogen energy can be tapped through

a) heat pumps b) fuel cells c) photovoltaic d) gasifiers
cells
15 Problems of hydrogen fuel cell is
a) storage and b) availability of c) creates d) none of
distribution hydrogen pollution these
16 Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented

a) Goa b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Tamilnadu
17 OTEC is an energy technology that converts

a) energy in large b) energy in ocean c) energy in d) energy in
tides of ocean to waves to ocean due to the fast-
generate generate thermal moving
electricity electricity gradient to ocean
currents to

generate generate
electricity electricity



MODULE – 3
1 Which of the following is the source of ground water
a) Oceans b) Springs c) Rivers d) All

2 Which of the following is the source of surface water
a) Streams b) Springs c) Deep wells d) All
3 Which of the following is the anthropogenic source of organic matter in water
a) Domestic b) Pulp mill c) Products of d) All
sewages effluent industrial
processes
4 Which of the following compounds may be toxic to human beings
a) Amino acids b) Polychlorinated c) Vitamins d) Proteins
biphenyls
5 Water is an excellent solvent because
a) It has high b) It is volatile c) Both a & b d) None of these
dielectric
constant
6 Many rivers of the world are polluted due to
a) Heavy flux of b) Industrial c) Agricultural d) All
sewage effluents wastes
7 Water bodies may be deteriorated by
a) Aquatic b) Phytoplankton c) Decomposed d) None of these
animals vegetables
8 Which of the following processes are anthropogenic source of water pollution?
a) Industrial b) Use of fertilizers c) Mining d) All
processes & pesticide processes
in agriculture
9 Which of the following property is indicative of water pollution
a) Colorless b) Odorless c) Oily and d) None of these
greasy
10 Physical pollution of water is due to
a) Dissolved b) Turbidity c) pH d) None of these
oxygen
11 Which of the following industry generate coloured wastes?
a) Software b) Textile industry c) Bio medical d) None of these
industry industry
12 Turbidity in water mainly arises from,


a) pH b) Dissolved solids c) Colloidal d) None of these

matter
13 Odour in water can be eliminated by
a) Changing pH b) Increasing c) Aeration d) None of these
dissolved
solids
14 Bacteriological pollution of water is due to the presence of
a) Silt and grit b) Parasitic c) Suspended d) Floating materials
worms particles
15 The effluents from urban areas contain
a) Oils and b) Detergents c) Nutrients d) All
greases
16 Polluted ground water is the major cause for the spread of epidemic and chronic diseases in man. It may
cause
a) Arthritis b) Diarrhea c) Anemia d) All
17 Which of the following statement is not true
a) Sewage b) The main source c) Sewage d) None of these

contains of nitrogen in contains large
nitrogen & water is the amount of
phosphorous agricultural run phosphate
off based
detergents
18 Accumulation of sewage and domestic wastes in water bodies
a) Increases the b) Retards the c) Makes water d) All

water level self-purifying useful for
ability of water agriculture
19 Which of the following statement about pesticide is wrong
a) They pollute b) They do not c) They are toxic d) None of these
the air pollute the to human
through aquatic beings
volatilization ecosystem
20 Which of the following is oxygen demanding waste?
a) Human b) Heavy metals c) Detergents d) All of these
waste
21 Lead poisoning may cause


a) Reduction in b) Kidney damage c) Mental d) All of these

haemoglobin retardation
22 Maximum dissolved oxygen is required by
a) Fish b) Bacteria c) Vertebrates d) All of these

23 The process of rainwater harvesting
a) Is detrimental b) Helps to c) Decreases the d) All of these
to improve collection
environment ground of water in
water quality dams
24 Recycled waste water can be used for
a) Crop b) Landscape c) Replenishing d) All
irrigation gardening fast
depletion
aquifers
25 What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the Indian standards
a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 8.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 7.5
26 Which of the following is a non- point source of water pollution

a) Factories b) Sewage c) Urban and d) All of the above
treatment plants suburban
lands
27 Which of the following is not a method for water conservation?
a) Rainwater b) Ground water c) Improving d) Avoiding water

harvesting extraction irrigation wastage
efficiency
28 Soils play an important role as an environmental agent. They are key links in global
a) Carbon cycle b) Nitrogen cycle c) Phosphrus cycle d) All

29 The most abundant element in the earth's crust is
a) Oxygen b) Silicon c) Sodium d) Iron

30 The primary source of organic matter in soil is
a) Plant tissues b) Litter such as c) Both a & b d) None of these

such as leaves and
growing branches that


and dead have fallen

plants on the surface
31 The extent of leaching depends on
a) Rainfall b) Irrigation c) Soil texture d) All of these
32 Which of the following is not a component of soil?
a) Mineral b) Organic matter c) Ozone d) Soil air
matter
33 Fly ash severely pollute air, water and soil. Which of the following is the source of fly ash.
a) Thermal b) Vehicular c) Sewage d) None of these
power plants exhaust
34 Road traffic noise varies depending on

a) Number & b) Traffic density c) The hour of the d) All of these
type of day
operating
vehicles
35 Which of the fllowing noise sources has maximum sound level in DB

a) Normal b) Average office c) Boiler factory d) Printing press
conservation
36 The sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as a pollutant
a) 40dB b) 80dB c) 120dB d) 150dB
37 Blaring sounds are known to cause

a) Mental b) High cholesterol c) Neurological d) All of these
distress problems
38
Noise pollution can be minimised by
a) Urbanization b) Maintaining c) Reducing noise d) None of these

silence at source
Noise is
39
a) Loud sound b) Unwanted c) Constant sound d) Sound of high
sound frequency
40 Environmental pollution is due to


a) Rapid b) Deforestation c) Afforestation d) a & b

urbanisation
41 Which of the following is air pollutant?

a) CO b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) All
42 Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution

a) Volcanic b) Solar flair c) Earth quake d) All
reuption
43 Which of the following is the source of fly ash?

a) Vehucukar b) Sewage c) Thermal d) All
exhaust power plant
44 Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting

a) Electrostatic b) Wet scrubber c) Catalytic d) All
precipitator converter
45 Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?
a) Factories b) Sewage c) Urban and d) a and b

treatment plants suburban
urban &
suburban lands
46 Noise pollution is controlled by
a) Reducing b) Preventing c) Protecting d) All of these

the noise its the receiver
at the transmission
source
47 Noise pollution limits at residential area

a) 45dB b) 80dB c) 55dB d) 90dB
48 Noise pollution limits in industrial area

a) 45dB b) 80dB c) 65dB d) 90dB
49 Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

a) CO b) Sulphur c) Ozone d) Carbondioxide
dioxide


50 Which of the following is the factor adversely influencing automobile pollution

a) Free b) High c) Broad and d) None of these
moving vehicular smooth
traffic density roads
51 The active period of landfill ranges from ____________ years.
a) 10-20 b) 20-30 c) 30-40 d) 40-50
52 A landfill should be constructed within __________ m of highway.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
53 Waste is any material that is not needed by the

a) Owner b) Producer c) Processor d) All of the above
54 Most disposable wastes are in the form of

a) Solids b) Liquids c) Slurries d) All of the
above
55 The simplest and most common method used in the cities is to collect and dump the waste in a __
a) Landfill b) River c) Ocean d) Any of the

above
56 As the matter inside the sanitary landfill breaks down, it generates gases including
a) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen c) Methane d) All of the above
57 A good way of dealing with the solid waste problem is
a) Landfilling b) Recycling c) Both (a) and d) None of the

(b) above
58 ____ can be produced from landfill waste
a) Natural gas b) Liquified c) Biogas d) Any of the above

petroleum gas
59 Following statement is not true for plastic waste.
a) Produces b) Can be used c) It lasts long d) All of the
toxic to make above
fumes compost


when
burnt
60 Which of the following solid wastes describe the term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’?
a) Toxic b) Hazardous c) Non-toxic d) Non-hazardous
61 Why are plastics difficult to recycle

a) Because it is a b) Because of the c) Because it is d) Because of
very hard different sizes of very adhesive in different types of
material plastic its nature polymer resins
62 Which integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level
a) Burning b) Disposal c) Recycling d) Source reduction
63 Which of the following plans are used as a waste management plan
a) Use a waste b) The integrated c) Recycling of d) Reducing the

management waste waste waste management
plan management management plan
plan plan
64 Which of the statements is true for the organic material in the buried solid waste that will decompose
a) By the flow of b) By the soil c) By the action of d) By the action of

water particles microorganisms oxidation
65 Which of the following wastes are called the Municipal Solid Waste (MSW)
a) Food wastes b) Wood pieces c) Plastic cans d) All of the above
66 The process of burning municipal solid wastes in a properly designed furnace under suitable
temperature and these operating conditions is called ______
a) Landfill b) Incineration c) Recycling d) Vermicomposting
67 The burning of the wastes is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management because


a) It is very b) It requires a lot c) It requires d) It causes several

costly of space modern environmental
technologies issues
68 Which of the following is the simplest and most common method used in the cities to dump the
collected wastes
a) River b) Ocean c) Landfill d) None of the above
69 Which of the following statements are the features of zero waste management?
a) Separate b) Separation of c) Involvement of d) All of the above

collection of garbage at the the community
each kind source in all activities
70 The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is

a) Air pollution b) Contamination c) Increased use of d) None of these
of groundwater land for
landfills.
71 Metals are produced as waste in industries like
a) Skiing b) Mining c) Electroplating d) Digging
72 What is the order of waste management hierarchy, from most to least favoured
a) Prevention- b) Prevention- c) Prevention- d) Prevention-
Recycle- Reuse-Disposal- Disposal -Reuse- Reuse-Recycle-
Reuse- Recycle Recycle Disposal
Disposal
73 Which of the following statement regarding recycling is wrong

a) Saves precious b) Require stable c) Improves d) Increases the
resources market efficiency of needs for mining
treatment virgin materials
processes
74 What is the most expensive component of solid waste handling
a) Collection b) Storage c) Treatment d) Separation
75 What is the process flow in an integrated solid waste management system

a) Generation- b) Generation- c) Generation- d) Generation-
Source Source Source Source separation-
separation- separation- separation- collection-


facility collection- collection- Landfill -facility

separation- Transfer and facility separationTransfer
collection- transport - separation- and transport
Transfer and facility Transfer and
transport- separation- transport-
Landfill Landfill Landfill
76 What is E-Waste
a) Edible Waste b) Easter Waste c) Electronic d) Eternal Waste
Waste
77 About how much e-waste is recycled
a) 70.2 b) 30.3 c) 12.5 d) 86.7

78 Which item is not an e-waste product?
a) Radio b) Phone c) Computer d) Vacuum

79 What country produces the most e-waste
a) United States b) Canada c) China d) Iraq



MODULE – 4
1 Acid rain means
a) heavy rain b) drizzle c) any precipitation d) none of these

2 The primary cause of acid rain around the world is
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) CO d) ozone
3 Which of the following is a source of SO2 in atmosphere?
a) volcanoes b) thermal power c) H2SO4 d) all of these
plants manufacturing
4 Acid rain is mainly influenced by
a) deforestation b) agriculture c) presence of d) none of these
particulates
5 The pH of unpolluted rain water is about
a) 8.7 b) 3.7 c) 5.7 d) none of these
6 Which of the following is the source of NO2 in the atmosphere
a) automobile b) microbial action c) HNO3 d) all of these
exhaust manufacturing
7 Which of the following statement is true?
a) acid rain results b) acid rain c) both a and b d) none of these
in acidification reduces soil
of water bodies fertility
8 Reduction in brightness of the famous Tajmahal is due to
a) global warming b) acid rain ozone depletion c) none of these

9 Which of the following is not the ill effect of acid rain
a) leaching of b) damage of c) killing of fishes d) increase in the
heavy metals to sculptures atmospheric
water bodies temperature
10 Acid rain can be controlled by
a) reducing SO2 b) reducing CO c) increasing number d) none of these
and NO2 and hydro of
emission carbon emission lakes
11 Which of the following is a part of atmosphere?
a) lithosphere b) hydrosphere c) stratosphere d) none of these
12 Which of the following is not present in the stratosphere
a) CO2 b) O2 c) O3 d) NOx
13 Which of the following is the unit for measuring the thickness of ozone layer?


a) decibles b) dobson units c) centimeter d) none of these

14 In the stratosphere, ozone is an effective filter capable of adsorbing UV radiation with wavelength between
a) 200 and 315 nm b) 315 and 400nm c) 100 and 150nm d) 400 and 600nm
15 Which of the following UV radiation can rapidly damage biota of all types?
a) UV - A b) UV - C c) UV - B d) none of these
16 UV-C radiation lies in the region
a) 315 to 400nm b) <280nm c) >280nm d) 280 to 315nm
17 Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) UV-A radiation b) UV-B radiation c) UV-B radiation is d) when conc. of ozone
is particularly can be partially absorbed in
harmful to living harmful to both by the stratosphere
species plants zone substantially
and animals’ reduced, dangerous
species. levels
of UV-B radiations
can
penerate into the
atmosphere
18 CFC's have been used as,
a) solvents b) refrigerants c) blowing agents for d) all of these
polymer foams
19 The formula of CFC-114 is
a) CF2ClCF2Cl b) CFCl2CF3 c) CF3CF2Cl d) none of these
20 Which of the following statement is not correct for CFC's?
a) they are almost b) they are very c) at higher altitude d) none of these
completely reactive in they
inert both chemically troposphere are capable of
and undergoing
biologically in the earth's UV photolytic
atmosphere decomposition
21 Ozone layer is present in
a) troposphere b) stratosphere c) mesosphere d) thermosphere
22 Which of the following statement about ozone is not true?
a) ozone is a major b) ozone protects c) ozone is not a d) ozone is highly
constituent us from green house reactive
of photochemical the harmful gas
smog UVradiation
of sun
23 Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is
a) oxygen b) CFC c) carbon dioxide d) dobson unit

24 Ozone layer thickness of stratopsheric ozone layer across the globe is around
a) 200DU b) 300DU c) 400DU d) 500DU
25 Formation of ozone layer is explained by
a) rosenmund b) henderson's c) chapman's d) perkin's reaction
reaction reaction reaction
26 Each chlorine fre radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules
a) 1000 b) 10000 c) 1,00,000 d) 100
27 Ozone depletion causes
a) snow blindness b) photochemical c) acid rain d) vomiting
smog
28 World ozone day is being celebrated on
a) Sep 5th b) Oct 15th c) Sep 16th d) Sep 11th
29 Bhopal gas tragedy caused due to leakage of
a) Methyl iso b) SO2 c) mustard gas d) methane

cyanate
30 Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to
a) urbanisation b) industrialization c) increase in vehicle d) none of these
population
31 Ozone hole was first discovered over
a) arctic b) antarctica c) tropical region d) africa
32 In the breakdown of the ozone layer, the ozone (O3) directly reacts with
a) Ultraviolet light b) Chlorine atoms c) Oxygen atoms d) CFC molecules
33 Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is
a) Chlorine b) Fluorine c) Carbons d) Nitrogen peroxide
34 Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of
a) Global warming b) Ozone depletion c) Acid rain d) Pollution
35 Which of the following are consequences of ozone depletion

a) Skin cancer and b) Reduced growth c) Shortening of d) All of the above
cataract in plants zooplanktons and
their breeding
period
36 pH of rainwater is
a) 5-6 b) 6-7 c) 7-8 d) 8-9


37 Fluoride is also added to water, which helps in preventing

a) infection b) sickness c) fever d) tooth decay
38 Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over
a) India b) Europe c) Antarctica d) Africa
The maximum permissible limit for fluoride in drinking water is

39
a) 0.1mg/lt b) 1.5mg/lt c) 5mg/lt d) 10mg/lt
40 The ground water is usually free from
a) Suspended b) Dissolved c) Both suspended d) None of the above

Impurity impurity and dissolved
impurity
MODULE – 5
1 Remote sensor detects
a) electromagnetic b) only visible c) only IR radiations d) only UV radiations
radiations radiations
2 GIS means
a) geographic b) geological c) geographic d) none of these
information information information
system satelite software
3 GIS does not monitor
a) deforestation b) ozone layer c) land cover d) none of these
deposition
4 First of the major environmental protection acts to be promulgated in India was
a) the wildlife b) the air act c) the environment d) noise pollution rules
protection act act
5 Environmental protection is the responsibility of

a) government b) non-government c) individuals d) all of these
6 Which of the following is empowered to take measures to protect and improve environment as per the
environment act


a) central b) state c) corporation d) municipal authority

government government
7 Which of the following is NGO

a) narmada b) CPCB c) KSPCB d) none of these
bachao
andolan
8 ISO 14000 standards deal with

a) pollution b) risk c) environmental d) none of these
management management management
9 An important NGO involved in global environmental protection is

a) UNICEF b) green peace c) WHO d) CPCB
10 More crop per drop related to increase in food production is an objective of

a) EIA b) FAO c) ICID d) EIS
11 The important goal of EIA is

a) Control b) Resource c) Stop development d) Provision of basic
pollution levels conservation needs of life
12 EIA can be expanded as

a) Environment b) Environment c) Environment d) Environmentally
& industrial & impact impact important
act activities assessment activity
13 EIA is related to
a) Resources b) Efficient c) Waste d) All the above
conservation equipment minimization
14 Which of the following statements is true about the capabilities of GIS

a) Data capture and b) Data c) Data manipulation d) All of the above
preparation management, and analysis
including
storage and
maintenance
15 Mapmakers use GIS to


a) store b) use c) view d) store, use and

geographic geographic geographic view geographic
information information information information
16 The information in GIS is entered and stored as

a) panels b) layers c) single panel d) dual-panel
17 The user can use GIS to make

a) complex b) display maps c) complex d) none of these
analyses only only analyses and
display maps
18 In which year did the ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) 1956 b) 1966 c) 1978 d) 1996
19 In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?
a) 2010 b) 2011 c) 2015 d) 2016
20 Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) Environmental b) Environment c) Life-cycle d) Quality
management auditing assessment management
system system
21 Which one of the following does not belong to the area of Organization Evaluation Standards in ISO 14000
series?
a) Environmental b) Environmental c) Environmental d) Environmental
management auditing performance labels and
system evaluation declarations
22 Environmental aspects in product standards belong to the area of Product Evaluation Standards in ISO 14000
series.
a) True b) False c) May be d) None of the above
23 Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental Management
System?


a) ISO 14001 and b) ISO 14010 and c) ISO 14011 and ISO d) ISO 14011 and ISO
ISO 14004 ISO 14001 14001 14004
24 What is ISO?
a) Indian b) Internal c) International d) None of the above

organization for organization for organization for
standard standard standard
25 EMS stands for

a) Environmental b) Employees c) Engineering d) Equipment
management management management management system
system system system
26 ISO emphasis on
a) Prevention b) Inspection c) Rejection d) All of the above
27 ISO – 14001 gives stress on

a) Plan – Do -check b) Environmental c) Prevention rather d) All of the above
-Act protection than detection
28 EMS is the component of an organization with primary responsibility for leading, planning, controlling, and
organizing as they relate specifically to
a) Processes b) Products c) Services d) All of the above

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Sri Sai Vidya Vikas Shikshana Samithi ®

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA

Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (18CIV59)

a) Plants b) Birds c) Animals d) All of these

4 Which macro consumers has a non-vegetarian diet

5 What are the examples of Primary Consumers

6 All carnivore animals are

7 Which are the Abiotic components of an ecosystem

8 Who proposed the term ecosystem

9 Which of the following uses maximum energy?

Prof Raveendra R S/ Prof Bhagya N P/ Prof Anil kumara K V

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA

Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in

a) Herbivores b) Producer c) Decomposer d) Primary

16 If earth is considered a unit region then it can be compared to.......

19 Important physical factor responsible for a good habitat of an organism

20 The objective of environmental education is

Prof Raveendra R S/ Prof Bhagya N P/ Prof Anil kumara K V

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA

Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in

22 In an ecosystem, the flow

26 The following is not a type of Ecosystem.

27 In Desert Ecosystem, Shrubs or Bushes are

29 The following is(are) micro-consumers

30 The following is a Secondary consumer

31 In a pond, insects and small fishes are

Prof Raveendra R S/ Prof Bhagya N P/ Prof Anil kumara K V

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA

Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in

32 Every Ecosystem has ___ major component(s).

33 The set of ecosystems is called as

34 How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?

35 Where plants and animals live in aquatic ecosystems?

36 Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?

a) Primary b) Secondary c) Carnivores d) Primary

How can desert ecosystems be conserved?

39 Which of the following is a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?

40 Which among the following is not a method of in-situ conservation?

41 The enormous number of varieties of mango in India represents

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA

Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in

43 Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

44 __________ is an example of an ex-situ conservation.

a) Sacred groves b) Wildlife c)Seed bank d) National park

a) Endemism b) Species richness c)Loss of diversity

a) Exotic species b) Endemic c) Ecosystem d) None of the

a) Genetic b) Community and c) Species d) Diversity

Prof Raveendra R S/ Prof Bhagya N P/ Prof Anil kumara K V

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA

Phone: 080-28468191/96/97/98 * E-mail: info@saividya.ac.in * URL www.saividya.ac.in

of desert animal richness and the developed

50 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

a) It is a b) The term c)Only B d) Both B

Prof Raveendra R S/ Prof Bhagya N P/ Prof Anil kumara K V

SAI VIDYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

RAJANUKUNTE, BANGALORE 560 064, KARNATAKA