mA|Mat reo Set No. 1 Question BYoklet No. Roll No. Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet . Day and Date (Signature of Invigitator ) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only btue/Black bal-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) 1. Within 10 minutes of the issve of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it conteins ell the pages in correct sequence and that no page‘question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immedigtely to obtain & fresh Question Booklet 2. Do not bring any loose paper. written or blank. inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without les envelope. 3. A separate Answer Shert is given. It should nat be foided or mutilated, A second Anrwer Sheet ‘shall wot be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. 4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. + On the fron page ofthe Answer Sheet, wie by es you Roll Number in the space provided at the top and By darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Rott No., Question Booklet no. and Set mo. (if any) on OMB sheet and Roll No. and OMR sheet no. on the Question Booklet. 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfairmeans. 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you ‘are io record the correct option an the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponiting row of the Answer Sheet, by pen as sentioned In the guidelines given on the first page af the Answer Sheet. 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle ‘or darken a circie partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. 18. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do mot wish to attempt ‘question, Jeane all the circles in the corresponding row Blank (such question will be awarded zero marks). 11, For faugh work, ute the inner back page of the title cover and the biank page at the end of this 12. Deposit only OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test 13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test 14. ifacendidate attempts to use any form af unfair means, he/she shell be lisble the University may determine and impose on hizv/her. ‘Total No, of Printed Pages : 48 aves ater fe 3 sate aver ge i fea oe yy such punishment as15P/207/30 ROUGH WORK amar15P/207/30 No. of Questions : 150 weit at ae: 150 Time : 2 Hours Full Marks : 450 wna: 2 Woe yuig : 450 Note : (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three) marks, One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. aftenttre seit al et ae eT cae at aes wa 3 (aA) sit at Bi ade ver cae & Ree ee ote wet aT) wae ageite set ar arcs Yer SPT (2) If more than one alternative answers secm to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. cafe canfern Sepia Sax at soe & Prove sefter Sf, ot Peer ae sar Fh Q1. Which of the following is not an inner planct ? (1) Jupiter (2) Mars (3) Venus (@) Mercury Reafaftad 4 8 1 arate we we & ? OQ) yee (2) At 3) ae 4) oF 02. Out of the following, mark the ‘ringed planet’ : (1) Uranus (2) Pluto (3) Saturn (4) Neptune 3 P.T.O.18P/207/30 Previter % 8 ‘ace ze’ ot Paar ae : Q) ster 2) eae @) PT (4) ter 93. Who propounded the ‘Inter stellar Dust Hypothesis’ for the origin of solar system ? (Q) Littleton (2) Otto Schmidt (3) Hoyle (4) A.C Banerji Hei nega, at cefer & fra Peet ‘sree weer ate 98? * 0) fefere 42) arrey are @) Baer 4) Ua. ait 04. Who is considered to be the real profounder of the idea of Continental Drift > (1) Arthur Holmes — (2) FB. Taylor (3) Bullard (4) Alfred Wegener nerdtita freer a free ar arenes witar Pea erat over B 7 Q) are a (2) wet. Fae (3) gerd 4) sets Fae 08. Explaining the concept of Isostacy, who said ? ‘Bigger the column, lesser the density ; Smaller the column, greater the density (1) Sir George Airy @) JH, Pratt (3) JF. Hayford (4) W. Bowie Bafta a ager at deer at amen aa gm, BA wer fare Pre af Sen, oat sa A a, ered Array Ute, ser et aiftres” = Q) wert wrt 2) Sea. me (3) Fam. sare (4) seq. ddr15P/207/30 06. Name the ‘Light House of Mediterranean’ : ) Etna (2) Visuvius {3} Stramboli (4) Mount Kilminjaro geerernt & ‘senret (1) Tanganica (2) Caspian Sea (3) Baikal lake (4) Nyasa am waa nett ster 8? Q)) Snftrepr (2) Serer are (3) Samet iter (4) =e15P/207/30 14. Which of the following rivers flows in a rift valley ? (1) Danube 2) Rhine {3) Volga. (4) Thames Pra ae A A ater cae ot B trae sect B 7 a te (2) RT (3) ater (4) 25a 15. Which one of the following is an agent of chemical weathering ? (1) Frost (2) Oxygen (3) Temperature (4) Wind Prafates & @ ata carats orca ar ares @ ? Q) oT (2) Steir @) as 4) 16, Brahmaputra river is a good example of : (1) Consequent drainage pattern (2) Subsequent drainage pattern (3) Antecedent drainage pattern (4) Superimposed drainage pattern ABAGA AEE eee pmeda ar wep oTEOT GATE B+ Q) saad 2) wedi 3) wad (4) sreardfeet 17, Grand caniyan is an erosional topography by : (1) Wind (2) River (3) Underground water (4) Glacier 7 P.T.O.15P/207/30 18, 19. 21. irs Sher we soem eee B : () Taq arr Pa (2) adi are fafa (3) afer set arr Fafa (4) Ferre thtfer Nile river delta is a specific example of : (1) Arcuate delta (2) Truncated Delta (3) Bird foot delta (4) Estuarine delta ea aa an Seer om fafare saree & (1) amare Seer ar (2) Bese Seer ar (3) Sree Seer ar (4) sarTaqG Sear ar Who advanced the concept of Panplanation ? (1) Walter Penk 2) W.M. Davis (3) C.H. Crickmay (4) Wooldrige/Morgan reer’ (rer) at Serer BD Prey aT gre ? (1) weer ta (2) seq.uy, 3a (3) Se. fey 4) FAR ar . Which one of the following is an erosional land form by wind ? (1) Yardung (2) Sanddunes (3) Ripple mark (4) Sand drift. Prafafee 4 @ a cea err Pfft sere eererepia & 7 QQ) ae Q) ARB eT 3) offe Rae (4) Warts (fq) Land forms of arid flurial erosion are : (1) Blow-out Depressions (2) Mushroom rocks (3) Earth Pillars (Demoiselles) (4) Mesa & Buthe22. 18P/207/30 geet amen at qonepfrdt & : Q) arent (2) esrenfremtt 3) Fre (4) Fen og at Depositional Karst tapography is : (1) Lapies (2) Polje (3) Uvala (4) Cave pillars Raise ord erempia & : QQ) adr (2) Hest (rergrs) (3) Jaret (ars) 4) FET ST . ‘Nunatak’ is a land form created by : (1) Underground water (2) Glacier (3) river {4} Periglacial processes ‘Sea’ oH . oe Ee Pritier quaarpfer QQ) afer ster (2) Peart (3) et (4) Sear wa - Mar out the location of Merina Beach : (1) Mumbai Coast (2} Chennai Coast (3) Goa Coast (4] Kerala Coast aftr gf i srateate Pare afr - (ssn ate Q) Fe ae (3) eT ae 4) ae ae 9 P.T.0.18P/207/30 28. Hypsometric curve demonstrates : (1) Height of the land (2) Depth of Oceans (3) Height of the land & depth of Oceans (4) Extent of the land and Oceans soaenfird a cater & : (1) wrt a Hers at (2) eran at weed ar (3) wet at Seng cd werarnt at meas ar (4) tat od weraprt % faeae at 26, The deepest oceanic deep is : Q) Sunda (2) Qurile (3) Partorico (4) Mariana aaa TET wears at & : Q) 3st Q) Fst (3) Geter (4) afar 27. The time period of the Challenger Fxpedition was : Saar silat at arate et: (1) 1850-54 (2) 1872-76 (3) 1890-94 (4) 1901-1905 28, The highest amount of salinity is found in : (1) Arctic Sea (2) China Sea (3) Red Sea (4) Japan Sea 1030. 31 15P/207/30 aatiae aren od ont & () stem are Q) aa an F (3) wet are Ff (4) ST arre Which one of the following is deep oceanic deposits ? Qy silt (2) Sand {3} diatom ooze (4) Gravel Fra @ a met agh wera B 7 QQ) Fae (2) 7 (3) SqzH Gat (4 ret Who propounded the staticnary wave theory of the origin of tides ? (1) Newton (2) RA. Harris (3) Laplas (4) W. Whewell easter sere a ices ota fers fret cferaieet fea 7 Q) Sea Q) a... Bite (3) SST 4) sey. Ba Humboldt cold oceanic current flows along the coast of : Q) Peru (2) Brazil (3) Mexico (4) Argentina eaice TH UTAT ANT vee ae } wart aed & ay tes (2) atte (3) afreat 44) avifPent i P.T.O.18P/207/30 32. The maximum height of tropopause on the Equator is about : (1) 20-21 km 2) 25-26 km (@) 17-18km (4) 10-11 km Grea Rar oe erator (atreewscreten eaz) a sifre eng eet a 20-21 Pari. (2) 25-26 Fart. (3) 17-18 Pat. (4) 10-11 Pat. . Which of the following statement is wromg ? (1) Temperature of Earth's Surface is 5700°C. (2) Diametre of the Sun is 1382400 kms. (3) Light teavels at the rate of 297600 km. per second (4) Earth receives only 1/2,000,00,000 part of sun’s radiation Pret wer 8 a ae & 7 Q) af % eae oT aT 5700°Ho & @) Wa ara 1382400fh & (3) at samt A aR 297600 fet af Aare * (4) get qatay ax act 1/200000000af wrt et ret arett & Which one is 'Horse Latitudes ? (Q) Poiar Highs (2) Sub tropical High pressure Belt (3) Sub Polar Low pressure belt (4) Equatorial Low pressure belt ‘weg sterner a & ? () gat sea arg oe at (2) wen aferdita sera at (3) sogdita Preroa Ft 4) rete Freres Fh 1215P/207/30 35. ‘Ferrel's law’ explains : (1) Pattern of wind direction in Northern & Southern hemispheres (2) Pattern of wind direction in North Hemispheres (3) Pattern of wind direction in South Hemispheres (4) Relative locations of lows and highs in both- hemispheres ‘ete an Pea’ arent an & : Q) sere cet afar ateret gaq a fean ar ofrsT (2) sere aie A vert at Pan an oie (3) Set ere FH ser a Pew a Neer 4) 4h erat Pra a sea ag wre at artis feafer 36. The epiithet ‘Furious fifties’ refers to : (1) Polar Winds (2) Monsoon (3) Trade winds (4) Westerlies fader ‘qa cere’ ea sa Hee B ? (1) aarer warsit at Q) Arg at (3) rae sari at (4) Saar wersit AT 37. Which one of the following is mot correct by matched ? (1) Chinook - USA/Canada (2) Brick filder - Switzerland (3) Bora ° = northecn Italy (4) Blizzard - Polar ares/Siberia Prater % 8 ara qiferr wet & ? Ql) Ree - 9.84.0. AST (2) Prenfnese - Perea aes 3) arr - endl geet (4) Rees - qi aaa 13 P.T.O,15P/207/30 38. Tropical cyclones in China are especially called as 39, (1) Harvicane (2) Tornado (3) Typhoon (4) Tropicalsterms soreeaety aad at at # fads aq A ay wer oer & ? Q) Beer 2) erest (3) reaper (4) serafeedta qart Point out the region where maximum rainfall eccurs in winter (1) 20° to 30° Lat. (2) 35% to 45° Lat. (3) 45° to 70° Lat. (4) 5® to 20° Lat. 3a ser (Ha) ar Safar ALA oe sree sat sitet ae T At BR: (1) 20° & 30° aterfst (2) 35° 8 45° orarigr (3) 45° & 70° serfar (4) 5° & 209 statiar |. In the climatic classification by Koppen the letter 'B' stands for : (if Polar Climate 2) Tropical humid climate (3) Dryclimate (4) Mid latitude cold humid climete a are fa 7a smaraits aptinen A sex Bae wae B ? (1) gate serery (2) Sorafreiiq ott Tay, (3) eR were (4) Rea retisier after at srerary 1441. 42. In Biospher, plants are : 15 15P/207/30 (1) Abiotic elements (2) Producers (3) Consumers (4) Decomposers Fores H ha Bae: (1) stfaes er (2) See (3) sos (4) Rreist Who Girst used the term ‘ecology’ ? (1) Miwart (2) Hilayer (3) Ernest Hackel (4) F. Darling ‘saan? wet ar gar advert Prat Pear ? (1) Praré (2) feerax (3) artee Bart (4) op. sifeht . Which is not related to the group ? (1) Carkon cycle (2) Oxygen cycle (3) Life cycle (4) Nitrogen cycle aa at (aye) & cafe we 8 ? () ee a Q) ARs ae (3) sea aH (4) ATEgIo ae . Who divided the world into zoogeographical regions # (1) Baker @) Herbertson 13) A.R Wallace (4) Spencer fae fave @t soft aeeit A ferenfsier Prat ? (1) Far (2) wadert (3) U.S. ae a) SRR15P/207/30 45. 47, 46. Wild life species is a resource : (1) Re-cyclable (2) In exhaustible (3) Renewable (4) Exhaustible aa ofa oft ws dares & : (Q) greerite (2) oT (3) Aare 4) Breer tory » Which one is azonal soil ? (1) Chernozem (2) Latorite (3) Loess (4) Podzol =m srafeerdta gar (Pred) & ? (1) eter (2) Feage (3) aia (4) some Mark the year of Montrial Protocol regarding Ozone depletion : stein aferrern & wera ge Peo week der a ae amerget : Q) 1977 Q) 1987 ° (3) 1997 (4) 2007 ‘The most important ‘green house gas’ is : (1) Cloroflurecarbon (2) Carbon-di - oxide {3} Carbon monooxide (4) Sulhplur-di-oxide aetits aecapet ‘efter ha & : Q) Freer 2) ard anf thangs 8) ra AAT arreags 4) Fear og ores 1649. $1. $2. 16P/207/30 Who classified the contents of human geography into 3 major and 6 sub groups ? (1) Blache (2) Demongeon (3) Sranhes (4) D. Martone rer apts ot Peerage 3 goa oa 6 ay Prartt A att ? Q) =r (2) feaiferat (3) Fr (a) Ht. ani The propounder of Possibilism was : (1) Rittar (2) Henry Baulig (3) Blache (4) Ratzel eeHaare aT HeaT eT: (1) Rex Q) ee afer (3) =ATet 4) eset Which navigator belonged to England ? (1) Magellan (2) Tasman [3] Amerigo Vespucci (4) Jamescook ara Freres erties @ aisfer aT ? a) Ser Q) wear @) safe Feguett 4) Sree Who first divided Geography into systematic and regional groups ? {1) Hettner (2) Hartshorne (3) Kant (4) Varenius apie st arse ci ones att A aaa meet Peery Ter ? (1) Bere (2) wrésirt (3) re 4 eva 17 P.T.O.15P/207/30 53. 54. Who propogated the idea of ‘stop and go' determinism’ ? Q) Ec, Semple (2) Huntigton (3) Ratzel (4) G. Taylor “emt site onsit’ Praftrare ar farere Pred Rear ? 0) &a. Sega Q) een (3) Seer (4) of 2az Name the author of the book - ‘The land of Britan : Its use and mis use : {1} John Fleure (2) LD. Stamp @) Wooldridge (4) Chorley ‘2 Sve site fea: gee gH os Praga’ - gers & Aer at a were: () oT Fey (2) Ged. ay (3) gaftr (4) at G- Tayior divided the entire human races into oie A eget area genie at .., a) 4 Q) 6 (3) Indian races were divided into 6 groups by : () B.S. Guha (2) A.C. Haddon (3) H, Risley (4) J. H. Hutton cardia senieat 6 ait Pret oer Rrenfiner ait arr 2 (ate. ger (2) Qt. Bar (3) wer iter (4) Fewer 1815P/207/30 57. Which one of the following groups of tribes and the habitats is correctly matched ? (1) Savane region - Bushmen (2 Congo Basion - Masai (3) Malay Peninsula - Semang (4) Saudi Arab - Kirgoliz Prefafend ore one ote aad Prava ata & ait X ater Gafers e7 (Q) Barer sar - aarert (2) Rt afer - Fee (3) Fea radia - aatT (4) Beat oreg - Parefir 88. The largest tribal population reside in : a) MP. (2) Maharashtra (3) Odisha (4) Chhattisgarh aatfts craordta deat... H Rarer aeat B Q@) FST wear (2) AERTS (3) afar 4) etree 89. Name the tribes of Himachal Pradesh : (1) Toda (2) Gaddis (3) Tharus (4) Bhil React ter ft one ar aT FTE a) ts (2) wae (3) Te (a) ater 60. Shifting agriculture in Malaysia/Indonesia is known as : (1) Jhuming agriculture (2) Chena (3) Ladang (4) Milpa i9 PTO.18P/207/30 61, 62. 63. seer ererira FT earrrcey stir BP at wer arr B : Q) arr afr (2) @ar (3) Aer (4) Prear As per census, 2011 the percentage of urban to total population in India is : ATOM 2011 F STA, are Bt Ber ere A ares omen a aferart & : (1) 23.31 (2) 27,81 (3) 26,13 (4) 32.16 On the basis of poputation size, Indian cities are divided into classes numbering : yen sore & stare ae area IE ait & ae one a) 4 2) 5 3) 6 @) 8 ‘The ancient town of Indus valley - Lothal is located in : (1) Pakistan (2) Haryena @) Punjab (4) Gujarat Ferg are ar oreity re ater wet Rent B 7 QO) afer # (2) Barn F G3) tra + 4) Jere + Average population size of villages are largest in ; Q) UP, (2) Kerala (3) W. Bengal (4) Bihar meat ar othe wrew snare aya after ® : (1) Jodto + (2) Ber F 13) Yo wet (4) Pree # 2067- 68. Which is the oldest city ? (1) Prayag - Allahabad Pa) (3) Kashi-Varanasi (4) greta are TB ? () aT geTETATe Q) (3) aash-erereret (4) (1) Philbrick 2} 15P/207/30 Mathura Ayodhya agT sre .. Who propounded the theory of Agricultural location ? Walter Christalicer (3) Von Thunen (4) Alfred Weber apft arafeafes ar faeTeT Prae afer Pear ? Q) Resta (2) aIeet PRT 8) am at (a) aves Fat Which one is correctly matched ? (1), Mumbai - JhuggiJhopadi (2), Chennai - Cheri (3) Kanpur - Basti (4) Dethi - Ahata at Be? a Read - gohan (2) Bare - Be (3) age - wet (4) fest - ser ‘The largest slum area - Dharavi is located in + (1) Kolkata (2) Chennai (@) Mumbai (4) Delhi gaa adh afer (ret) aedt - avert att feet B 7 () ier Q) ae (3) Te (4) feet 21 P.T.O.15P/207/30 69. 3 7 7a, Who edited the book - ‘India - A Regional Geography’ ? Q) S.P. Chatterji 2) RP. Mishra (3) M. Shafi (4) RL, Singh ‘ePea- af Ramer mitre (Ao ~ cE MPs apiten) gees Pasa BRI aye at at ? Q) Gah. ast (2) otre.dt. Pra (3) Tart (4) oe.cRT. Pee The year of nationalization of Suez canal by Reypt : fiat arr emer & ugtraer aq af 0) 1869 (2) 1956 3} 1850 (4) 1900 The most important factor for localization of Cotton textile industry has been : (1) Raw material (2) Capital (3) Labour (4) Marker i oe sar & rantner & fee waa Aeayt are web: QQ) eae Q) gi GB) oF (4) apne Teaching and training activities belong to the group ; (1) Sceandery activities (2) Primery activities (3) Tertiary activities (4) Quatemary activities Freer ca sfert ard Ras at & water & 7 (1) faxcftees frant (2) sree frat (3) Betas rene (4) Ageia Rend 2215P/207/30 73. Which region is considered to be the holiest part of Himalayas ? () Kumaun (2) Garhwal (3) Himachal (4) Laddakh rt aa Renee ar aaa aaa art ara one B ? Bry, (2) gare (3) fesraet (4) Haare 74. Name the Southern most part of Andaman & Nicobar islands : (1) Little Andaman (2) Indira point (3) Lite Nicobar (4) Great Nicobar gormart Ue Rtas de are BTA ee aT aH ATT TATE: (1) fafee aresart Q) shox ae (3) Rates Prenat 4) Fe Pratare 48, ‘Three states a Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand (Uttaranchal) were formed in the year : aa Wa aes, untens, seas (seria) frat ad TT ? (4) 2000 (2) 1999 (3) 1998 (4) 2003 76. The most commercially sed coal is + (1) Anthracite (2) Peat (3) bituminous (4) Lignite ayaftes 6a 8 aad saftes seer SY Tot sre : (1) SaTeTgS (2) he (3) Faghtra (4) frre 23 P.T.O.18P/207/30 77. 78. Which country is the largest importer of Iran ore ? (1) United Kingdom (2) Germany (3) Canada. (4) Japan am Ser ateorres ot aaa ast omen B 7 Q) 3ag2s Peres (2) oR (3) Tet 4) aT Today, the largest tin producer is : (1) Malaysia (2) China (3) Indonesia (4) Thailand SM Bae wer a see Bs Q) aeaferar (2) a 3) SAR (4) erga A summer trip to Europe would be called : {1} Seasonal migration (2) Long period migration (3) Short period migration (41 Daily migration - Ge asec gay at ay ant opt : Q) Arent wert (2) éhhereita sareq @) Secreta cere (4) 3 sere . Sex ratio in India is calculated as ; (2) No, of females per 100 mates (2) No, of males per 1000 females (3) No. of females per 1000 males (4) No. of males per 100 females 2481, 18P/207/30 ara 4 feiemgae Pra wr # ofenfra fear oor & 7 (1) SY 100 gest ov Perit a dear (2) sf 1000 Rerat ox geet a tear (3) Sf 1000 godt ox Perit at dear (4) sf 100 Raat oe gest sf dear Mc Mahon line divides : (1) India - Pakistan (2) india - Afghanistan (3) India - China (4) India - Bangla Desh Re eat ores (ten) Preah wect 2B : Ql) Ae - Ufa ar Q) area - senha a (3) ama - aa a (4) ae - aera or Which is a wrong fact ? (1) india extends from 8°4' to 37%! N. Lat, (2) IST is ahead of GMT by 5 hours 30 minutes (3) Total land boundary is about 15,200 km. (4) It covers 3.6% area of the world OM meq Tat & ? (1) aie ar Pasa 8°4' @ 37%6 aerd serier aa B (2) AIeet ar opnPres ara area Ae cen @ 5 dz 30 frre art & (3) et tae Ae eTAT 15,200 fart B (4) qe fea or 3.8% aT arent He FE 25 P.T.O.15P/207/30 83, 84. 87. Which is known as the Silicon valley of India ? (1) Chennai (2) Banglucu (3) Mumbai (4) Hyderabad ara & fatter Sci & ea A Sr aT oe & 7 (3) ae Q) Fg 3) Ba (4) Serene North-East India consists of states numbering : war od art A ar fa tea S ? (5 Q) 4 (3) 6 4) 7 Which part of Uttar Pradesh is called ‘Harit Pradesh’ ? (1) Eastern U.P. (2) Bundelkhand (3) Western U.P. (4) Central U.P. aeat waar ar ara fear ‘afta waar Hera @ ? Q) gt goto QQ) yrcraes (3) vferht qotto (4) Her Jotio . The most notorious river for its devastating coarse changing is : (1) Ghagra (2) Gandak (3) Kosi (4) Tista art Preteen ger-art at set Hh fee wae Beat Tete: 0) ae Q) 1% (3) art | Rren Kaziranga Biosphere reserve is located in : Q) MP. 2} Meghalaya (3) Assam. (4) Andman & Nicobar island 2615P/207/30 aastron ‘ardfemac Read? wet safer ® ? (1) Fea seer QQ) Fare (3) aa4 4) arsam-Patar days . ‘Operation Flood’ is associated with : (1) Flood control {2} White revolution (3} Blue revolution (4) Production of Surplus Food grains ‘aM were’ Peaa ayaa & ? QQ) ae Feet & (2) wa aa a (3) ter safer & 4) aff arene sore & . Who divided India into 12 major crop association regions based on the dominant crop/crops ? (1) RL. Singh @) Randhawa (3) Jasbir Singh (4) M. Shafi nee Geer peet & are ot Peet AE aT 12 0a ea Sao uasit 4 faaact fear ? (1) sae.ca, Riz (2). tert (3) sae fie (4) UT, at ‘The only developed country of Asie is : () China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Philipines fare a cea ara faeftrr Bet B : Q) air Q) FoF (3) aa (4) Reefer 27 P.T.0.15P/207/30 91. 93. In USA, where is silicon valiey located ? (QQ) Texas (2) Masachusets (3) California (4) New England gaa wes orate H, fates Sait wet feet & ? (1) eer (2) FTES (3) &faenttar (4) = eres ‘The largest industrial region of Japan is : (1) Qwanto industrial region (2) Kinki industria! region (3) Nagoya industrial region (4) Kita - Kyushu industrial region ongrt at aes aer otenfirs a B (1) Farrel otrettren vest (2) Pett ofrehites weer (3) tar ote ster (4) Praga ohehitrs ster Coffee is the most important cash crop of : (1) Argentina (2) Indonesia (3) Brazil (4) Ghana re wae Teraget yea wae B () sera (2) 3shfrat (3) arse (4) aT at . Maya - Inca ceivlators flourished in : (1) Middle East Asia (2) South East Asia (3) Latin America (4) N.W, Europe95. 97. 15P/207/30 rat - ger eeraTd Peni Be Q) Req gf cera (2) afer ge rar # 3) Sea sateen 4 (4) Soto gaa F ASEAN- Association of South East Asian Nations was established in the year : efron oct UfRrarg Bait B eet (GouMogotoute) a eam Bre at SB? (1) 1960 (2) 1967 (3) 1970 (4) 1990 . Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant takes the maximum advantage of : (1) proximity to raw materials (2) export operations (3) modern technology (4) Sufficient labour force eeTeaA gene arcarn wate are sat Be (0) we ae st wie a 2) Prafees Pensif a (3) arate stethrat ar (4) vate avast eT Which of the following standard minerals stands 8th on the scale of hardness ? (1) Diamond (2) Quartz (3) Tale (4) Topaz Rrafiftrr aaa ahr Fa ate acta % arsH We sat TET &? () te (2) wares (3) oer @) aot 29 . P.T.O,15P/207/30 98, When was The Survey of India set up ? w4 site efter (urea ater Rr ) aa eenfter gor ? (1) 1792 (2) 1802 (3) 1767 44) 1843 99. Monthly temperature rainfall ratio is shown on : (1) Climograph (2) Hythergraph (3) Combined line & Bargraph (4) Water Balance graph weer atar-ast ar siya seta on & : (Farias oe (2) drama oe @) WaT eT ce ae ae ae a) TET BART oT 100. Who worked out 5 types of population resource regions in the world ? (1) Trewartha (2) Demca (3) Clarke (4) Zelinsky Fame fase 3 5 corse sieert utait at semnfte fera ? (1) fRareat (2) =r 3) Fears (4) Sifereat 101. Who said, ‘population grows in geometric progression, while Subsistence grows in arithmatical progression : (1) Robert Malthus (2) Notestein (3} Carl Sander (4) Dalton15P/207/30 Pret ser en, ‘Smear ena ax & aed B orate fader arr (orem onfe) ciara ae & aga BY (1) werd Arsene Q) Aes (3) aie arse 4) SReT 102. Who said, “The geographical distribution of man depends upon climate and weather more than on any other factor’ : (1) EC Semple (2) E. Huntington (3) Blache (4) Brunhes feet wer en, ara ar spies rercer Pret set wrest GET % omrarg aie Aras ot cafe Prete rer 2: a) $a. ayer Q) éeferer (3) fer 4) a 103. American farmstead is an examples of : (1) Clustered settlement (2) Composite settlement (3) Isolated settlement (4) Fragmented settlement ante ores (aff Te) .. Q) Sire stirrer (3) vara oftare 104, Morphology of rural Settlements in Ganga plain is generally = (1) Linear . {2} Oval (3) Triangular (4) Square & rectangular 31 P.T.O.15P/207/30 tir & Fer a oni after a oneaftet aera art & : Qy) tite 2) ssrA (3) Bryer 4) &t og sree 108. Which is the tributary of the river Ganga ? (Q) Chamba) {2} Betwa 3) Son (4) Ken Wn wet Bt aera adt aa & 7 Q) arr 2) acer (3) at 4) aa 406. For Quarter Degree or one-Inch map series, The metric scale (M.K.S,) would be : aga sie ar i” arafers aot (af) & fam, Af cba ert: (1) 1:25,000 (2) 150,000 43) 1:250,000 (4) 1:125, 090 107.Concept of Sustainable development is based on ; (Q) Agenda 21 of the Earth Summit (2) Human Devetopment Index 3] Brunt land Commission Report (4) Basic Needs approach 3a15P/207/30 daetta (Grecia ead) Reo at dees Prat oe arnfte 8 ? Q) vat weer F wreayq 219c (2) ama frre gerne oe 3) Aretos ordvr at fedté ae 4) ART strata SOTA TT 108.Total population of a region ~ is a population density knwon as Total cultivable land of the region (1) Arithmetic density (2) Physiological density (3) Agricuttural density (4) Economic density seer a aR oreo = Roe wae aT oem ATs ? wear at ger Be aha ahr () stamferita act (2) anftres oat (3) fF wat (4) orrféfes greet 109. National Atlas Organization (Now NATMO) was established under the directorship of : (1) RL Singh (2) George Kurien (3) S.P. Chatterji (4) Deshpandey asia ate are (ara Tet) fasech Preerr A centre gor : (1) ame. oe. Rie 2) at gtr (3) we. H. west 4) toe a3 PTO.18P/207/30 110. The largest meat market of the warld is : 0) China (2) Brazil (3) USA (4) Australia fava ar aaa eet AT ST ae eB : a) a (2) aisiter (3) 2aa.g. (4) sireeferar 111. The most traded mineral in ore form is : (1) Silver 2) Zinc (3) Tron ore (4) Mica amen ee F gale sana faq ats ar ater & ? a) até (2) Pa5-{sreon) (3) ae sae 4) sae 112. Which is the largest non- conventional source of energy ? (1) Solar Power (2) Tidat Pawer (3) Nuclear Power (4) Wind power feorenma sat ar aaa aera 2: a) ae oat 2) caer sft sat 3) armas ont 4) Gat oat 113. The statement - " high rainfall but no standing water’ holds good to the crop wheat : (1) Sugarcane (2) Wheat (3) tea (4) Rice 3415P/207/30 pert - ‘sifére ant fg ait ar seca + et-fee eet Ie ary eat a? (71 (2) 7% 3) WaT (4) SR /aret 114, Petro-chemical industry has developed most is : (1) Assam (2). Gujarat (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Tamilnadu Seieer- certs sett gat after frente gar B (} sna it Q) apr a (3) sire ser F 4) aBerng F 115, Which of the following does mot belong to the group ? (1) USA (2) UK (3) Germany (4) Mexico Prafefier 4 @ sty (ta) otvaqs @ qatar adt B 7 (I) 2.0a.g. 2) Ba. (3) FRR (4) Fifer 116. Krivoi Rag coal field is located in : (1) Russia {2} Ukran (3) Ujbeckistan (4) Latvia feats oe rae At aef Peers B 7 Q) ee 4 Q) ga (3) SaePrenrt A (4) @eferar 35 P.T.O.15P/207/30 117. Iron ore producing Mesabi range is located in : Q) Canada (2) USA (3) Mexico (4) Germany che sem oer Fart Boh (a) wet Rea BP (} FATST Q) ava. (3) AReaer (4) spt 118. Population pyramid illustrates : {1} temporal growth of population (2) spated distribution of population (3) occupational composition of population (4) Age & Sex structure of population orden froPrs asic & > (1) orate a antes aftr (2) sree aT eae PerereoT (3) see aT eran wae (4) Sere at ong wet fetr deat 119, Garden city concept was developed by : (1) L. Mumford (2) P. Geddes (3) EB, Howard (4) AE. Smailes ‘soar deer Pras arr fata st adt 2 (QQ) Ger. waar (2) ot. Fete , @) §. oe 4) 2g. Aer 3615P/207/30 120, Eucalyptus is a specific tree of : (1) Indonesia (2) Australia (3) Philippines (4) Malaysia ‘Given’ wef ar fasts gate & ? (1) sStARrar (2) sregferar (3) Referer (4) Feferar 121. Liberalization Policy in India was adopted in the year : aa # serene at fer Pea at arog Rt ? (1) 1981 (2) 1991 (3) 2001 (4) 1971 122. Mark out the country with a centrally planned economy : 1) South Korea Q) Japan {3} China (4) Egypt Settee Priirr steerer ara Ber a fethecr ane : (QL) afarett afar 2) sor 3) ar (4) Pree 123, The river that separates Telangana from Royalseema is : () Krishna (2) Kaveri (3) Tungbhadra (4) Godawari weed & Aen at siert Stat et arc B ? Q) aT (2) arate @) rast (4) ater 37 P.T.O.15P/207/30 124, Which group of rivers originates in Tibet ? (1) Brahmaputra - Sutlej - Jhelum (2) Indus - Ravi - Sutlej {3} Brahmaputra - Sutlej - Indus 4] Indus - Jhelum - Brahmputra afeat & Pre af ar gam freer 4B ? QQ) a@rga- aaert - ae (2) fey - adi - aaeet (3) ReAga - Geer - fey ja) ferg - Bam - wena 128.The state where women out number the men : (i) Temiinadu (2) Assam (3) Karnatak (4) Keral wey set Real a) cea goat A safe B : (1) afFerTy Q) aa4 (31 safear (4) deer 126.The strait of Gibralter connects (1) Mediterranean sea and Black sea (2) Mediterranean sea and Red sea (3) Mediterranean sea and Atlantic ocean (4) Mediterranean sea and sea of Marmaera15P/207/30 127.'A country of farmers for forty centuries’ is said to be : {1) india (2) Egupt (3). China (4) Greece carta senfeat @ qaret ar ter Pea wer orem ® ? Q) Are (2) Prev 3} dv (4) are 128. The famous centre of pear! culture is : (| Rameshwaram (2) Cochin (3) Tutikoran. (4) Puri ait year ai Adi H fore Se ox Hae FE? (TAs 2) ari (3) aia a) of 129. Approximate height at which the geostationary satellites orbit the Earth : (1) 2500 Kms. (2) 1500 Kms, (3) 1000 Kms. (4) 35,000 K. ys. ates gone eer fra send ae wedi ar weet OFT (1) 2500 Pref (2) 1500 Pref (3) 1000 Fant (4) 35,000 Pref 130. Indonesian capital Jakarta is located in : (1) Sumatra (2) Java (3) Celebes (4) Borneo (Kalimantan) 39 P.T.O.18P/207/30 Ssh a asart serat wet Ret & ? Q) qr Q) 3TaT (3) Setar (4) far (aretrrees) 131. Core-periphery model of regional development was advanced by : Q) Kuklinski (2) Walter Isard (3) Richardson (4) J. Friedman sree Peara ar ehts-ahY atser Pres are Prefer fear var B ? (ly) aefetett Q) ae rs (3) Reger, @ %. fear 192. Who first propounded Growth pole theory ? (1) Boudville (2) Perrowx (3) RP. Mishra (4) KV. Sundaram faara ga Reet gest Pret ofraite Pear 2 Q) are Re (2) ae (3) SIT. far 4 Sa. Fay 133,The terminology - 'Conurbation’ was coined by : (1) RE. Dickinson (2) AE Smails (3) L. Mumford (4) P. Geddes areraett “arrder’ Pres ara vet veh (aan ah) ? OQ) ar. €. Bier Q) Ve. sea (3) oer ARS (4) fh. Agere 4015P/207/30 134. Who developed concentric zone model for urbangrowth ? Q) C.D. Harris (2) Homer Hoyt (3) E.W. Burgess (4) EL. Ullman “rida Prom ar ada ues Rema Peat faite Pra ? ) GA. te Q) er eae 3) §. seq. ary 4) £0. am 15, Name the soil which Swells when wet, deveiops crades whendry : (2) Laterite (2) Alluvial (3) Red (4) Black SAB ore eee ot och A oe eB, EAA oe wae aga ara & : Q) wet Q) aT (3) are fret (4) pref Predt 136, Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (1) Coffee - Seed (2) Cotton - fruit {3} Tea - leaf (4) Jute - flower Prater 4 & at giant oat 8 7 Q) wrt - dr (2) are - tr (3) art - gaff (4) 3e - ar 137. The country which is not a millets producer is ; (1) China (2) Nigeria (3) Italy (4) Pakistan ae ter ott fiatee (arcvarreag onfe) a seaen ae B Q) de Q) aTesittar (3) seat (4) wife 41 P.T.O.15P/207/30 138, Which of the following is corretly matched ? (1) Argentina - Sao Paulo (2) Mauritius - Port Louis (3) Brazil - La plata (4) Bolivia - Bogota rea 8 & arr gif B ? Q) aiPeat - areit ost (2) "iewa- a gta (3) apita- arener (4) aifefrar - arirer 139. Mark the year when great Soviet Union was disintegrated ? warn tifa ae awed a ah acres : (1) 1994 (2) 1999 {3} 1991 (4) 2001 140. Which of the following has the highest Hyde! power potential ? (1) South America (2) Asia (3) North America (4) Africa frafafera AB wer stat reget anf See at erste Tea cafes a? gy) afr safer Q) war (3) Seer atta (4) sheer 141. Which of the following is known as ‘City of gold! ? (1) Kimberley (2) Cape town (3) Johanesburg (41 Pretoria fret a de eeberty & art & oe one B ? () Pret Q Frew (3) steraet (4) Breaar 4215P/207/30 142. Indian Pacific (trans Australia) Reil service connects Sydeny with : (1) Cannbera (2) Alis spring (3) Brisbane (4) Perth siete serr (are sireften) to Gar rest 3 SHE aee a sisdt (1) tert (2) Uferefesiar (3) fraata 4) we 143. Mark the Capital of Newzealand ? Q) Welington (2) Aukland (3) Hamilton (4) ChristChurch apites ot corer feted a : () Sire (2) stares (3) 2fteer (4) reg oh 144,The Head Quarter of the World Trade Organization is located at : (1) Rome (2). Geneva (3) Paris (4) Helsinki Rea ona sea a eae aet Rem BF a) a (2) Sar (3) aftr (4) teat 148. The most important water way is : (1) North Atlantic Route (2) Pacific Oceanic Route (3| Suez Canal Route (4) Panama Canal Route wae eat sie ant B - Q) Sent secnfte apf Q) SIRT Perera APT (3) rer art (4) Warn aee art 43 P.T.O,15P/207/30 146.Which is the ieading producer of cotton textiles ? () Usa * (2) Japan (3) India (4) Egypt aa ooh ah sea cere Ser 8? Q) Ure. (2) Star (3) are @) Pra 147. Which country has the largest petroleum reserves ? (1) Saudi Arab (2) Iran (3) Iraq (4) Russia Pra tat aaa often Fete BT grit Wat a? {1} aaa area Q) (3) Ts (4) Fe 148.In the study of economic geography, commodity approach comes with in: (1) Regional approach (2) Theoretical approach (3) Systematic approach (4) Behavioural approach ont phe & oweqaa 4, geq TeH Ga Paes orerter etre a? 0) meRrs Sarr @) fertre sorrr @) ears SIT (4) Saaere Re SATA 4415P/207/30 149. The term 'Fourth world’ was used for the countries : (1) Highly developed (2) Least developed (3) Developed (4) Deveioping “age fea sree fart Sait fare agua at ach 7 Q) wt e & Pete (2) =e Rreferear (3) Pentre . (4) Paeprasiter 180. J.C. weaver's method is related with ; (1) Cropping intensity (2) Crop rotation (3) Crop combination (4) Cropping pattern Sai. dtae at offer ara arate & 7 QO) Tet newt & (2) wat ae & 3) we dtr a 4) gem oer & 45 3,50018P/207/30 ROUGH WORK wart 4615P/207/30 ROUGH WORK mare 47 P.T.O.2 13. cy seated & fora Feet wer fittent Se ware srereer yes we wer set-u & ata Tet wT ‘aherer tent ret aver eargz de af Fores) sea oferer fret & 10 frre & ones Gl Be a Ae were A anh ys whyg ¢ site ate pea ag ae fees Seg we oy oe Pea Gre eae we Frchre Sea HTT meray af Gat oferta wa ae il cada ara Hirer ele miter-ow a anfften, ferent at aver aie sf eT eTTs aT awa gare erry 2 con ara had 7 nt site a Pega Pi ever TOe- ae TAF ew PAT aime aae-s ar aF eaters fer or SAP SRT TT SOT A APH FIR TOTS Oe a fear ee fer: wae-cew &e mane es ae Oa et arcar srgevaian Prantfte earrr ae fore wer thet fed get wt row nal ora? srrrpaes at erat wrrv- gfetenr ar pewter rar dz ar zor afte FETT a fr Slo re site Um aC agenie en, reryferes dee 7 de ear (me mie) eT apeyticer we aguwien sir Sito Gyo see ON Han we nfrfirat a safes a age wate aera fated ant wf etre cae Petar rer erator iar ei rarer ae Tar yf arery aa weber TY TTT r= gf Paras wea eT Be wre cba Tee fe ere he weiter ee He deters awe & Fre Sorcentt wre tee a aerate fee ae ered Yee re ger wet serene be wary yer oy At Tt Aiden te argent ta & gr wer ti seth rer 3 sae & fee thret we et ge st re a oe A nfl get aT TET ATT Te ST ER Ta a SUE ITA aE SAC Hee ATT STATI gaara & fae Tar are aT TT tf ere are TAY IT Fr fe er fase eT BT TAT saat ar aed at aati GN We eres fd ed at TOY ant are vie oh OA mea oT PT ata feed are oe ard & fore we gfe PUPS % set aren yE war saya & stem ys ar aT FE wie & sou bee at ea one aero Then war A oT aR aden aura 8 & geet ver ert Bat at at aqafer ai ett cafe aig arene citer A sqft ane area eet @, at oe fereafeeera ant frafite ge wat, art arretth -