Sbi Po & Ibps Po Mains Day - 11 e 169409153911

SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 11 (Eng)
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-5): Study the following information c) “!Q6$” and “Reference”
carefully and answer the given questions. d) “#F21*” and “Explain”
In a certain code language, e) None of the above
“Please turn the page” is coded as
“@E1µ” “#Q34µ” “@P13¥” “&E3¥” 4. Match the following as per the given code
“Babies are very little” is coded as language:
“&M6µ” “&E23€” “@I18µ” “!P35*”
“Complete the exercise first” is coded as “%I23$”
“@P13¥” “@M16*” “!N23*”
“Embrace your inner peace” is coded as
“@E23*” “%K31¥” “!J19µ” “@E6¥”
1. What is the code for the phrase “Dictionary” in
the given code language?
a) &E20? a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D
b) @W19µ b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
c) @E15$ c) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D
d) !E19? d) 1C, 2A, 3D, 4B
e) None of these e) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A.
2. Which of the following phrase represent the 5. What is the code for the phrase “Symbol
code “%E26*” “%I32$” “&E19* in the given code makes sense” in the given code language?
language? a) “@E19* !P14€ &E6$”
a) Motivate yourself always b) “%F10$ &O16µ @J19µ”
b) Play cricket everyday c) “@E17* #O16µ &J18µ”
c) Great country India d) “#G35€ !R17$ %S23¥
d) Bring fruits tomorrow e) None of the above
e) Cannot be determined
Direction (6-10): Each of the questions below
3. What is the code for the phrase “Signature” consists of a question and two statements
and the phrase for the code “@J23$” as per the numbered I and II given below it. You have to
given code language? decide whether the data provided in the
a) “@Q7¥” and “Reinforcement” statements are sufficient to answer the
b) “&E32€” and “Captain” questions.
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(A) If the data given in statement I alone is Statement I: S goes shopping before Thursday.
sufficient to answer the question. Only two persons go between S and U. As many
(B) If the data given in statement II alone is persons go before U as after R. The number of
sufficient to answer the question. persons goes between R and S is one less than
(C) If the data given in either statement I alone or the number of persons goes between R and T. Q
in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the goes shopping three persons before T.
question. Statement II: Only four persons go between S
(D) If the data given in both statements I and II and R. As many persons goes between V and S
together are not sufficient to answer the as between V and Q. T goes shopping four
question. persons after R, who goes either immediately
(E) If the data given in both statements I and II after P or immediately after U.
together are necessary to answer the question.
6. Six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F are staying 8. What is the code for the phrase “Honest
in a six storey building such that the lowermost practice gives a success journey” from the given
floor is numbered as one and the floor code language?
immediately above it is numbered as 2 and so Statement I: If “Good exam results” is coded as
on. Who stays immediately below E? “fg% ks$ er@”, “Practice makes a man perfect”
Statement I: C stays on an odd numbered floor. is coded as “rj% ma% vg* np& sj$”, “Honest
Only two floors are between C and A. As many gives success” is coded as “aj& ts! mm*”,
persons stay above A as below F. B stays three “Knowledge is power” is coded as “jh% gb? vt#”.
floors above F. D neither stays immediately Statement II: If “Haste makes things waste” is
below B nor stays on an even numbered floor. coded as “dk? ph# sh$ ma% ”, “Good practice
Statement II: E stays on an even numbered floor good results” is coded as “np& er@ ks$ er@”,
but below third floor. Only one person stays “Success is a journey” is coded as “vt# vg* mm*
between E and A. B is an immediate neighbour mo@”, “First things first” is coded as “ph# st$
of neither E nor A. F, who doesn’t stay in the st$”.
lowermost floor, stays two floors below D.
9. What is the direction of Dance studio with
7. Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are respect to Home and what is distance between
going for the shopping on seven different days of the Tuition centre and the Dance studio?
the same week starting from Sunday to Statement I: A person starts walking from School
Saturday. Who goes for the shopping two for 5m towards north and takes a right turn and
persons after P? walks for 6m to reach the Tuition centre. Then,
he takes a left turn and walks for 6m to reach the

Park. Then, he turns 135◦ clockwise direction Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

and walks for 10m to reach the Dance studio, travelled on the train on the same day. Each
which is to the east of the tuition centre. Finally, person booked in different coaches i.e. EC, 1AC,
he walks for 4m towards south and takes a left 2AC, 3AC, FC, CC, SL, 2S and UR. Each person
turn and walks for 3m to reach Home. travelled for one hour. The train starts at 6 am
Statement II: A person starts walking from and ends at 5 pm.
School for 5m towards east and takes a right turn Note: There is no train run between 9 am-10 am
and walks for 4m. Then, he takes a left turn and and 2 pm-3 pm and consider these times as a
walks for 6m to reach park and again he turns break time.
towards the left and walks for 4m to reach the B, who booked 2AC travelled after 1pm. Only
Tuition centre. Then, he turns 180◦ clockwise three persons travelled between B and the one
direction and walks for 7m and takes left turn and who booked FC coach. As many persons
walks for 5m to reach the Dance studio. Finally, travelled before the one who booked FC as after
he turns towards the right and walks for 4m to E. G, who booked CC coach, travelled before E
reach Home. at a gap of 4 hours. The one who booked SL
coach travelled five persons after G. There is a
10. Eight persons-I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are gap of 1 hour between the travelling time of the
sitting around a circular table and facing towards one who booked SL and 2S. Only one person
the centre. What is the position of N with respect travelled between the one who booked 2S and
to P? 3AC. The one who booked 2S coach travelled
Statement I: I sits opposite to L. Two persons are 180 minutes after A. The travelling time gap
sitting between L and K. M sits second to the left between A and C is same as the travelling time
of K. As many persons sit between M and O as gap between the one who booked 2AC and the
between P and O. P is an immediate neighbour one who booked UR. C doesn’t travel
of J. immediately before any of the break times. F,
Statement II: K sits two places away from L. M who booked EC, travelled before H, who does
sits opposite to K. M and J are immediate not book 1AC. As many persons travelled
neighbours of I. O sits second to the left of I. As between F and the one who booked UR as
many persons sit between L and O as between between I and the one who booked 1AC.
M and N. 11. Which of the following person booked UR
coach and at what time did he travelled?
Directions (11-15): Study the following a) E and 1pm-2pm
information carefully and answer the given b) D and 3pm-4pm
questions. c) E and 12pm-1pm

d) I and 6am-7am c) Same as between G and the person who

e) D and 12pm-1pm booked 1AC
d) Same as between A and the person who
12. Who among the following person travelled booked SL
between the two breaks time? e) Both b and c
a) C and the person who booked FC coach
b) The one who booked 2S and A Directions (16-20): Study the following
c) H and the one who booked UR coach information carefully and answer the given
d) Both a and b questions.
e) Both a and c Ten persons-A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J in a
family are sitting in two parallel rows containing
13. The number of persons travelled between C five persons each in such a way that there is an
and B is _______ the number of persons travelled equal distance between adjacent persons. The
between I and ___. persons sit in the row 1 facing south and the
a) Two less than, F persons sitting in the row 2 facing north, but not
b) One less than, D necessarily in the same order. Each person in
c) Two more than, B row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
d) One more than, G Note: The consecutive alphabetically named
e) None of these persons are not sitting adjacent to each other.
E, who doesn’t sit at the extreme ends, sits third
14. If the coach 3AC is related to I and the coach to the left of his grand-daughter, B.
2S is related to H in a certain way, then the Only one person sits between the one who faces
coach ____ is related to __. E and D, who is the son-in-Law of E.
a) 1AC, E The number of person sitting to the left of D is
b) UR, H one less than the number of person sitting to the
c) 2S, A right of the one who is the brother of B. Only two
d) EC, G persons sit between A and H, who is the paternal
e) EC, A aunt of C, who doesn’t face north. I, who is the
paternal grand-mother of G, sits immediate left of
15. What is the time (hrs) gap between the the one who faces H. No one sits between I and
travelling time of F and the one who booked 2AC G, who is the nephew of F. C, who is unmarried,
coach? is the brother-in-law of J. J is the daughter-in-law
a) 7 hours of A and doesn’t have any siblings. F, who is the
b) 8 hours

sister-in-law of J, faces the one who is the son of 18. Which of the following pair of persons faces
A. A has only three children. each other?
16. Who among the following person is the a) DA
father-in-law of the one who sits immediate right b) BI
of D? c) JC
a) C d) CF
b) The one who sits immediate right of F e) EJ
c) G
d) The one who faces the one who sits second to 19. How is C related to the one who sits in the
the left of I middle of row 1?
e) D a) Maternal uncle
b) Paternal uncle
17. Which of the following statement is/are not c) Nephew
true with respect to the final arrangement? d) Father
a) G and the one who sits immediate right of A e) Paternal aunt
are of same gender
b) Only one person sits to the right of the one 20. As many persons sit between E and __ as
who is sister-in-law of H. between J and __.
c) No one sits between J and the one who is a) C, F
father of G b) I, D
d) Both a and b c) G, A
e) Both a and c d) B, D
e) C, H
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Answer Key with Explanation
Directions (1-5): I. For symbols:

1. Answer: D  First symbol represents the first
2. Answer: A vowel from the left end of the word.
3. Answer: C  Last symbol represents the number
4. Answer: C of consonants in the word.
5. Answer: B Vowel  A-&, E-@, I-!, O-%, U-#

Consonant 1-€, 2-¥, 3-µ, 4-*, 5-$

II. For letters:
 If the third letter from the right end
of the word is in the first half of the
English alphabetical series, then
the fourth succeeding letter of the
corresponding letter (as per the
English alphabetical series) is
taken. From statement I, we can determine that F lives
 If the third letter from the right end immediately below E.
of the word is in the second half of Statement II:
the English alphabetical series,
then the fourth preceding letter of
the corresponding letter (as per the
English alphabetical series) is
taken.
III. For numbers:
 If the total number of letters in the
word is odd, then five is added to
the place value (as per the English From statement II, we can determine that C lives
alphabetical series) of the middle immediately below E.
letter of that word.
 If the total number of letters in the 7. Answer: D
word is an even number, then five Data in both statements I and II together are not
is subtracted from the sum of the sufficient to answer the question.
place value (as per English
alphabetical series) of the exact
middle two letters of that word.
6. Answer: C
Statement I:

8. Answer: E Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer

Data in both statements I and II together are the question.
necessary to answer the question.
Directions (1-5):
11. Answer: C
12. Answer: E
13. Answer: D
14. Answer: E
15. Answer: E
Final arrangement:
9. Answer: C
Data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
We have,
 B, who booked 2AC travelled after 1pm.
 Only three persons travelled between B
10. Answer: B and the one who booked FC coach.

 As many persons travelled before the one

who booked FC as after E.
 G, who booked CC coach travelled before
E at a gap of 4 hours.
From the above conditions, there are two
possibilities
Again, we have
 F, who booked EC, travelled in one of the
time before H, who does not booked 1AC.
 As many person travelled between F and
the one who booked UR as between I and
the one who booked 1AC.
After applying the above conditions, case-2a get
Again, we have
eliminated because there is no possibility to
 The one who booked SL coach travelled
place H and case 2 gets eliminated, because
five persons after G.
there is no possibility to place I. Hence case-1
 There is a gap of 1 hour between the
shows the final arrangement.
travelling time of the one who booked SL
and 2S.
 Only one person travelled between the
one who booked 2S and 3AC.
 The one who booked 2S coach travelled
180 minutes after A.
 The travelling time gap between A and C
is same as the travelling time gap
between the one who booked 2AC and
the one who booked UR.
 C doesn’t travel immediately before any of
the breaks time. Directions (16-20):
After applying the above conditions one more 16. Answer: D
possibility is added for case-2 17. Answer: A

18. Answer: D
19. Answer: B
20. Answer: C
Final arrangement:
Again, we have
 Only two persons sit between A and H,
who is the paternal aunt of C, who doesn’t
face north.
 I, who is the paternal grand-mother of G,
sits immediate left of the one who faces
We have, H.
 E, who doesn’t sit at the extreme ends,  No one sits between I and G, who is the
sits third to the left of his grand-daughter, nephew of F.
B.
 Only one person sits between the one
who faces E and D, who is the son-in-Law
of E.
 The number of person sitting to the left of
D is one less than the number of person
sitting to the right of the one who is the
brother of B. Again, we have
From above conditions, we have four  C, who is unmarried, is the brother-in-law
possibilities: of J.
 J is the daughter-in-law of A and doesn’t
have any siblings.
 F, who is the sister-in-law of J, faces the
one who is the son of A.
 A has only three children.

After applying the above conditions and the

given note, case 2 and 4 gets eliminated,
because G cannot be the son of A and case 1
gets eliminated, because can’t place F and J.
Thus, case 3 gives the final arrangement.

Quantitative Aptitude Day -11 (Eng)
Quantitative Aptitude
Direction (1 – 4): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are six trains – T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, and T6. The line graph given below shows the distance covered
by these trains in kilometers. The table given below shows the speed of these trains in km/hr.
Notes:
a. Speed of Train T5 is 50% more than the speed of Train T1.
b. Speed of Train T2 is 60% of the speed of Train T4.
c. b = 2 (c + a)
1. Train T1 covers ‘a’ km with its actual speed, A. 380 km
and the remaining distance it covers with 4/5th of B. 418 km
its actual speed. Train T1 completes the total C. 408 km
journey in 10 hours and 36 minutes. Find the D. 480 km
value of a. E. None of these

2. Train T3 crosses a bridge of length 340 B. 102.20 km/h

meters in 30 seconds and Train T6 crosses the C. 120.20 km/h
same bridge in 38 seconds. Find the time taken D. 112.22 km/h
by Train T3 to cross Train T6 when running in E. None of these
the same direction.
A. 48 (8/11) seconds 4.
B. 48 (6/11) seconds Quantity I: Time taken by train T1 to cover 3/5th
C. 48 (5/11) seconds of the given distance at 3/4th of its actual speed.
D. 48 (9/11) seconds Quantity II: Time taken by train T2 to cover 1/3rd
E. 47 (9/11) seconds of the given distance at 2/3rd of its actual speed.
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
3. Train T5 stops for 5 minutes every 50 B. Quantity I < Quantity II
kilometers. Find the average speed of train T5 C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
for covering a given distance. D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
A. 100.22 km/h E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
There are five cities named A, B, C, D, and E. The radar graph given below shows the GDP of five cities
in lakhs in 2022. The table given below shows the population of five cities in hundred in 2022.

Notes:
i. Population of city C is 4.5 hundred less than the population of city D.
ii. Population of city D is 6.5 hundred more than the population of city E.
iii. GDP per Capita = GDP/ (Total Population)
5. If the GDP per capita in 2021 City C is Rs. ‘a’ D. Rs. 30300.333
per person and the population of City C in 2021 E. None of these
is 3/4th of the population of City C in 2022. The
GDP of City C in 2021 is Rs. 8145 lakhs. Find 7.
the value of a. Quantity I: In 2023, the population of City C is
A. 915000 25% more than the previous year, and the GDP
B. 905000 of City C was Rs. 1200 lakhs. Find the GDP per
C. 950000 capita of city C in 2023.
D. 955000 Quantity II: In 2021, the population of City B is
E. None of these 25% less than the total population of City B in
2022, and the GDP of City B was Rs. 1350 lakhs
6. In 2022, In city D 20% of the total population in 2021. Find the GDP per capita of city B in
contributed to the agriculture sector and 50% of 2022.
the GDP of city D is contributed to the agriculture A. Quantity I > Quantity II
sector. Find the per capita GDP of the agriculture B. Quantity I < Quantity II
sector in city D. C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
A. Rs. 33330.333 D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
B. Rs. 30303.300 E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
C. Rs. 3,33,333.33

8. In 2023, If the population of city A is ____ and A. i and ii are correct

the GDP of city A is ____ then the GDP per B. i and iii are correct
capita of city A is 1,60,000 per person. C. ii and iii are correct
i. 1250, 2000 lakhs D. All statements are correct
ii. 1000, 1600 lakhs E. None of these
iii. 800, 1280 lakhs
There are four partners – A, B, C, and D in a business. They have invested different amounts in every
quarter of a year in the business. The table graph given below shows the investment of four partners in
every quarter of a year.
Notes:
i. Value of m is 1000.
ii. Amount invested by C in Q1 is 3000 less than the amount invested by C in Q4.
iii. Amount invested by B in Q4 is 25% less than the amount invested by D in Q1.
iv. Amount invested by A in Q1 is equal to the amount invested by B in Q2.
9. If A got 20% of the whole profit for his 10. If C invested Rs. 2000 more in the 3rd quarter
manager position and the rest of the profit is of the year then the profit share of C is what
distributed among them as proportional to their percent of the total profit at the end of the year.
investment. If C got Rs. 85500 then find the A. 24.68%
amount A got at the end of the year. B. 26.48%
A. 167900 C. 24.60%
B. 169500 D. 26.40%
C. 167250 E. None of these
D. 165900
E. 165700 11.

Quantity I: If B gets a profit share of Rs. 77500 years, and if he lends his amount at compound
then find the total amount of profit. interest, he accrues Rs. 4400 more than when
Quantity II: If C gets a profit share of Rs. 99750 he lends his amount at simple interest for the
then find the total amount of profit. same period. A lends his sum at 2.5% more
A. Quantity I > Quantity II interest than C’s interest rate. When A lends his
B. Quantity I < Quantity II sum at simple interest for 2 years he gets Rs.
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 11000 as interest and when A lends his sum at
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II compound interest for 2 years he gets Rs.
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 11687.5. The difference between compound
interest and simple interest for 5 years on C’s
12. If at the end of the 2nd quarter, D left the sum is Rs. 6906.25. The interest rate for E’s sum
business and a new partner E comes with an is double the interest rate for C’s sum. The
investment of Rs. 35000 and Rs. 27000 for Q3 period for E to lend his sum is 4 years.
and Q4 respectively. At the end of the year, D 13. If A divided his principal sum into two equal
got a profit of Rs. 58500. Find the profit share of parts and lent the first part at a given rate of SI
E. for 3 years, and lent the second part of the sum
A. 50753 at CI for 2 years at the given rate. Find the
B. 50250 difference between the interest received from
C. 53750 both parts of the sum.
D. 50375 A. 2464.25
E. None of these B. 2406.25
C. 2460.50
Direction (13 – 16): Study the given information D. 2640.50
carefully and answer the given questions. E. None of these
There are five persons – A, B, C, D, and E. All
five persons have different sums, and they lend 14. A person F lends Rs. ____ at compound
their sum at different rate of interest for different interest at the rate of 17.5% for 3 years and gets
periods. an interest of Rs. ____
The principal of A is Rs. 10000 less than the i. 64000, 39823
principal of D. The principal amount of C and E ii. 48000, 29867.25
are equal. The amount received for the principal iii. 32000, 19911.5
of D in compound interest at the rate of 16 (2/3) A. Only ii and iii are correct
% for 2 years is Rs. 11000 more than the B. Only i and iii are correct
principal of C. B lends his sum at 14 (2/7) % for 3 C. Only i and ii are correct

D. All i, ii, and iii are correct gold is increasing at a rate of 5% every year. At
E. None of these the end of 3 years, when he withdraws the total
amount from the scheme, the government
15. If D invests 1.5 times his sum at the same deducts a tax of 2% on the whole amount. Find
rate of compound interest for 3 years, Find the the amount D gets at the end of 3 years after all
total amount he got after 3 years. tax deductions.
A. 125100 A. 71621.15
B. 121500 B. 61261.52
C. 128625 C. 72100.50
D. 122500 D. 71126.51
E. None of these E. None of these
16. If D invests his sum in Sovereign Gold Bond
(SGB) scheme for 3 years in which the value of
There are 5 teams – A, B, C, D, and E. Each team scored a different number of goals in a hockey match.
The table given below shows the number of goals scored by these teams and the number of points
scored by these teams.
Notes: iii. The number of goals scored by Team Q from

i. The number of goals scored by Team P from a a distance of 2 feet is equal to the number of
distance of 2 feet is double the number of goals goals scored by Team P from a distance of 6
scored by Team Q from a distance of 2 feet. feet.
ii. The ratio of the number of goals scored by Statement i. Every team got 2 points for each
Team S from a distance of 6 feet to the number goal from a distance of 2 feet, 4 points for each
of goals scored by Team T from a distance of 2 goal from a distance of 4 feet, 6 points for each
feet is 3 : 7.

goal from a distance of 6 feet, and 8 points for yellow card penalties for Team R are 3 more
each goal from a distance of 8 feet. than the red card penalties for Team R.
Statement ii. The average of total points scored A. 9
by all teams together is 80 and the ratio of points B. 11
scored by Team S to points scored by Team T is C. 5
15: 16. D. 7
Statement iii. The number of goals scored by E. None of these
Team P from a distance of 4 feet is 50% more
than the number of goals scored by Team P from 19. If A = 2, B = 3, and C = 5. Which of the
a distance of 8 feet. following statements given below is equal to the
Statement iv. The number of goals scored by average of the total points of Team Q, Team S,
Team S from a distance of 8 feet is 4/15th of the and Team T together?
total points scored by Team S in the match. i. C2 + 2BA
17. If every team is provided Rs. 500 for each ii. A3 (2B + C)
goal from a distance of 2 feet, Rs. 1000 for each iii. 10BC + A2
goal from a distance of 4 feet, Rs. 2000 for each iv. B4 + A + C
goal from a distance of 6 feet, and Rs. 5000 for A. Only ii and iv are correct
each goal from the distance of 8 feet. Find the B. Only i, ii, and iv are correct
total amount received by Team Q is what percent C. Only i, ii, and iii are correct
of the total amount received by Team S. D. All are correct
A. 150 % E. None of these
B. 100 %
C. 200 % 20. If Team P scored ‘d’ more goals from a
D. 125 % distance of 2 feet and scored d% more goals
E. None of these from a distance of 6 feet then its total points are
12 less than double of its previous points. Find
18. If 1 point was deducted for every yellow card the value of d.
penalty and 4 points were deducted for every red A. 25
card penalty. After all deductions Team R had 55 B. 20
points left. Find the sum of the total yellow card C. 10
penalties and red card penalties for Team R. The D. 15
E. None of these


Directions (1 – 4): a = 408 km
Speed of train T5 = (abc) / 2
Speed of train T1 = ba 2. Answer: B
Then, (abc) / 2ba = 3 / 2 Length of train T3 = X
c=3 Length of train T6 = Y
And, Speed of Train T3 = 78 km/hour or 65/3 m/sec
Speed of train T2 = 2ac2 (X+340) / (65/3) =30
Speed of train T4 = 2a2c X+340 = 650
Then, 2ac2 / 2a2c = 3 / 5 X = 310
c/a=3/5 Length of train T3 =310 meters
a=5 Speed of train T6 = 45km/hour or 25/2 m/sec
And, b = 2 (3 + 5) (Y+340) / (25/2) = 38
b = 16 Y+340 = 475
Y = 135
Length of train T6 = 135 meters
Time taken by Train T3 to cross Train T6 in
same direction
= (310 + 135) / ((65/3) - (25/2))
= 445 / (55/6)
= 534/11
= 48 (6/11) seconds
1. Answer: C
3. Answer: A
Actual speed of train T1 = 80 km/h
Number of stops taken by Train T5 = 1470/50
New speed of train T1 = 64 km/h
= 29
According to the question,
A total of 29 stops are taken by Train T5 and the
(a/80) + ((760 – a)/64) = 10 (3/5)
next stop is its final destination.
(4a + 3800 – 5a) / 320 = 53 / 5
Total time taken by Train T5 to cover total
19000 – 5a = 16960
distance = (1470/120) + 29 * (5/60)
5a = 2040

= 12 (3/12) + 2 (5/12) Subtracting eqn. 1 from eqn. 2

= 14 (8/12) hours a=2
Total distance covered by Train T5 = 1470 km Putting the value of a in eqn. 1
Average speed of Train T5 = 1470/ (176/12) b=5
= 100.22 km/h
4. Answer: A
Quantity I:
New distance for Train T1 to cover = 760 (3/5) =
456 km
New speed of Train T1 = 80 (3/4) = 60 km/h
Time taken by Train T1 to cover new distance
with new speed = 456/60
= 7 (36/60)
GDP per capita of city A = 2500 lakhs / 1000
The total time taken is 7 hours 36 minutes.
= Rs. 2,50,000
Quantity II:
GDP per capita of city B = 1800 lakhs / 1200
New distance for Train T2 to cover = 1140 (1/3)
= Rs. 1,50,000
= 380 km
GDP per capita of city C = 1500 lakhs / 1200
New speed of Train T2 = 90 (2/3) = 60 km/h
= Rs. 1,25,000
Time taken by Train T2 to cover new distance
GDP per capita of city D = 2200 lakhs / 1650
with new speed = 380/60
= Rs. 1,33,333.33
= 6 (20/60)
GDP per capita of city E = 1250 lakhs/ 1000
The total time taken is 6 hours 20 minutes.
= Rs. 1,25,000
Quantity I > Quantity II
5. Answer: B
Solution:
Direction (5 – 8):
GDP per capita of city C in 2021 = a
The population of city D = 3b + 0.75a
Population of city C in 2021 = 1200(3/4)
The population of city C = 2b + a
= 900
Then, 3b + 0.75a – 2b – a = 4.5
GDP of city C in 2021 = 8145 lakhs
b – 0.25a = 4.5 …. (1)
Then, a = 8145 lakhs/ 900
The population of city E = 2b
GDP per capita of city C in 2021, a = Rs.
Then, 3b + 0.75a = 2b + 6.5
9,05,000
b + 0.75a = 6.5 …. (2)

6. Answer: C GDP per capita = 2000 lakhs / 1250= Rs.

In city D the total population contributed to the 1,60,000
agriculture sector =1650 (1/5) Statement I is true.
= 330 Statement ii:
The GDP of city D is contributed by the GDP of city A in 2023 = 1600 lakhs
agriculture sector The population of city A in 2023 = 1000
= 2200 lakhs (1/2) GDP per capita in 2023 = 1600 lakhs/ 1000= Rs.
= 1100 lakhs 1,60,000
GDP per capita of the agriculture sector of city D Statement ii is correct.
= 1100 lakhs / 330 Statement iii:
= Rs. 3,33,333.33 GDP of city A in 2023 = 1280 lakhs
The GDP per capita of the agriculture sector of The population of city A in 2023 = 800
city D is Rs. 3,33,333.33 GDP per capita in 2023 =1280 lakhs/ 800= Rs.
1,60,000
7. Answer: B Statement iii is correct.
Quantity I: All statements are correct.
The population of city C in 2023 =1200 (5/4)
= 1500 Direction (9 – 12):
GDP of city C in 2023 = 1200 lakhs Amount invested by C in Q1 = (ba + a) m
GDP per capita of city C in 2023 = 1200 lakhs/ Amount invested by C in Q4 = (ba + c) m
1500 =Rs. 80,000 Then, (ba + c) m – (ba + a) m = 3000
Quantity II: c–a=3 …. (1)
The population of city B in 2021 = 1200 (3/4) And, Amount invested by B in Q4 = (b2 + b) m
= 900 Amount invested by D in Q1 = (2ab) m
GDP of city B in 2021 = 1350 lakhs Then, (b2 + b) m / (2ab) m = 3 / 4
GDP per capita of city B in 2021 = 1350 lakhs / (b + 1) / 2a = 3 / 4
900 =Rs. 1,50,000 4b + 4 = 6a …. (2)
Quantity II > Quantity I And, Amount invested by A in Q1 = (ca + a) m
Amount invested by B in Q2 = 2a2m
8. Answer: D Then, (ca + a) m = 2a2m
Statement i: c + 1 = 2a
GDP of city A in 2023 = 2000 lakhs Putting the value of c from eqn. 1
The population of city A in 2023 = 1250 3 + a + 1 = 2a

a=4 Total amount A got at the end of the year =

Then, putting the value of a in eqn. 2 87750 + 79500 =Rs. 167250
4b + 4 = 6 * 4
4b = 24 – 4 10. Answer: A
b=5 Total amount invested by C in the year = 24000
And c = 7 + 30000 + 35000 + 27000
= Rs. 116000
Ratio of investment of A, B, C, and D = 106000:
124000: 116000: 124000
= 53: 62: 58: 62
Total amount invested by A in the year = 32000 Profit share of C = 58 / (53 + 62 + 58 + 62)
+ 24000 + 29000 + 21000 = 58 / 235
= 106000 Reqd. percentage = (58/235) * 100
Total amount invested by B in the year = 36000 Reqd. percentage = 24.68 %
+ 32000 + 26000 + 30000
= 124000 11. Answer: B
Total amount invested by C in the year = 24000 Quantity I:
+ 30000 + 33000 + 27000 The profit share of B = Rs. 77500
= 114000 Then, total profit = (77500/62) * 234
Total amount invested by D in the year = 40000 = Rs. 292500
+ 32000 + 24000 + 28000 Quantity II:
= 124000 The profit share of C = 99750
The ratio of investment of A, B, C, and D = Then, total profit = (99750/57) * 234
106000: 124000: 114000: 124000 = 409500
= 53: 62: 57: 62 Quantity II > Quantity I
9. Answer: C
Profit share C got = Rs. 85500 12. Answer: D
Profit share A got = Rs. 79500 According to the question,
Profit share B got = Rs. 93000 Total amount invested by A in the year = 32000
Profit share D got = Rs. 93000 + 24000 + 29000 + 21000
Total profit = (85500 + 79500 + 93000 + 93000) = 106000
= Rs. 351000 Total amount invested by B in the year = 36000
Amount that A got for his manager position = + 32000 + 26000 + 30000
(20/80) *351000 = Rs. 87750

= 124000 = 12.5%
Total amount invested by C in the year = 24000 Principal of A = (5500/12.5) * 100
+ 30000 + 33000 + 27000 = 44000
= 114000 Principal of D = 44000 + 10000
Total amount invested by D in the year = 40000 = 54000
+ 32000 The amount received by D after lending his sum
= 72000 at compound interest for 2 years = (54000 (1 +
Total amount invested by E in the year = 35000 (50/300))2)
+ 27000 = 73500
= 62000 Principal of C = 73500 – 11000
Ratio of investment of A, B, C, D, and E = = 62500
106000: 124000: 114000: 72000: 62000 Principal of E = 62500
= 53: 62: 57: 36: 31 As, rate of interest of A is 2.5% more than
The profit share of D = Rs. 58500 interest rate of C (given)
Profit share of E = (58500/36) * 31 = Rs. 50375 So, Rate of interest for C = 10%
The profit share of E is Rs. 50375. Rate of interest on the sum of E = 2 * 10%
= 20%
Direction (13 – 16): The amount received by E after lending his sum
Let the principal of B be p. at compound interest for 4 years = 62500 (1 +
According to the question, (20/100))4
(p (1+ (100/700))3) – (p + ((p * r * t)/100) = 4400 = 129600
(p (8/7)3) – p – ((p * 100/7 * 3)/100) = 4400 The amount received by E after lending his sum
(51200p – 34300p – 14700p)/34300 = 4400 at simple interest for 4 years = 62500 + ((62500
2200p = 4400 * 34300 * 20 * 4)/100)
p = 68600 = 112500
This means the principal of B is Rs. 68600.
Simple interest for A’s sum for 2 years = 11000
Simple interest for A’s sum for 1 year = 5500
Compound interest on A’s sum for 2 years =
11687.5
Rate of interest for A’s sum = ((11687.5 –
11000)/5500) * 100 13. Answer: B
= (687.5/5500) * 100 Each part of the A’s sum = 44000/2
= 22000

Simple interest accrued on the first part of A’s The amount received by D after investing his
sum = (22000 * 12.5 * 3) / 100 new sum at compound interest for 3 years =
= 8250 81000 (1 +(50/300))³
Compound interest accrued on the second part = 81000 (7/6)3
of A’s sum = 22000 (1 + (12.5/100))2 – 22000 = 128625
= 27843.75 – 22000 The total amount D got after 3 years is 128625.
= 5843.75
Reqd. difference = 8250 – 5843.75 = 2406.25 16. Answer: B
Amount invested by D in SGB = 54000
14. Answer: D Total amount at the end of 3 years =
From statement i, 54000*(105/100)*(105/100) (105/100)
64000 (1 + (17.5/100))3 – 64000 = 39823 = Rs. 61261.52
64000 (47/40)3 – 64000 = 39823 Amount after deducting 2% tax on the whole
103823 – 6400 = 39823 amount = 62511.75*(98/100)
39823 = 39823 = Rs. 61261.52
Statement i is correct. The amount D gets at the end of 3 years after
From statement ii, deducting all taxes is Rs. 61261.52
48000 (1 + (17.5/100))3 – 48000 = 29867.25
48000 (47/40)3 – 48000 = 29867.25 Direction (17 – 20):
77867.25 – 48000 = 29867.25 Number of goals scored by Team P from the
29867.25 = 29867.25 distance of 2 feet = N3
Statement ii is correct. Number of goals scored by Team Q from the
From statement iii, distance of 2 feet = N2
32000 (1 + (17.5/100))3 – 32000 = 19911.5 Then, N3/N2 = 2/1
32000 (47/40)3 – 32000 = 19911.5 N=2
51911.5 – 32000 = 19911.5 And, the number of goals scored by Team S
19911.5 = 19911.5 from the distance of 6 feet =N + 1
Statement iii is correct. Number of goals scored by Team T from the
All i, ii, and iii are correct. distance of 2 feet = M + N
Then, (N + 1) / (M + N) = 3 / 7
15. Answer: C 7N + 7 = 3M + 3N
New principal of D = 54000 * 1.5 Putting the value of N
= 81000 14 + 7 = 3M + 6

3M = 15 Points scored by Team S from the distance of 4

M=5 feet = 9 * 4 = 36
And, the number of goals scored by Team Q Points scored by Team S from the distance of 6
from the distance of 2 feet = N2 feet = 3 * 6 = 18
Number of goals scored by Team P from the According to the question,
distance of 6 feet = O + 1 12 + 36 + 18 = (11/15) Total points scored by
Then, N2 = O + 1 Team S
4=O+1 Total points scored by Team S = 90
O = 31 Points scored by Team S from the distance of 8
feet = 90 – 66 = 24
Number of goals scored by Team S from the
distance of 8 feet = 24/8 = 3
Total points scored by Team T = 90 (16/15)
= 96
Points scored by Team T from the distance of 6
feet = 96 – (7 * 2 + 11 * 4 + 8 * 1) = 30
Total points scored by all teams together = 80 *
Number of goals scored by Team T from the
5
distance of 6 feet = 30/6
= 400
=5
Let the total points scored by Team S and Team
Total Points scored by Team Q = 78
T be 15x and 16x respectively.
Points scored by Team Q from the distance of 6
Total point scored by Team Q = 400 – (68 + 68 +
feet = 78 – (4 * 2 + 5 * 4 + 4 * 8) = 18
15x + 16x)
Number of goals scored by Team Q from the
= 264 – 31x
distance of 6 feet = 18 / 6 = 3
Let the number of goals scored by Team P from
Points scored by Team R from the distance of 2
the distance of 8 feet be 2y.
feet = 68 – (8 * 4 + 2 * 6 + 0 * 8)
Then the number of goals scored by Team P
= 24
from the distance of 4 feet = 3y
Number of goals scored by Team R from the
8 * 2 + 3y * 4 + 4 * 6 + 2y * 8 = 68
distance of 2 feet = 24/2 = 12
16 + 12y + 24 + 16y = 68
28y = 28
y=1
Points scored by Team S from the distance of 2
feet = 6 * 2 = 12

C2 + 2BA = 52 + 2 * 3 * 2
= 25 + 12
= 37
Statement I is incorrect.
From statement ii,
A3 (2B + C) = 23 (2 * 3 + 5)
= 8 (11)
17. Answer: B = 88
Total amount received by Team Q = 4 * 500 + 5
Statement ii is correct.
* 1000 + 3 * 2000 + 4 * 5000 = 33000 From statement iii,
Total amount received by Team S = 6 * 500 + 9 * 10BC + A2 = 10 * 3 * 5 + 22
1000 + 3 * 2000 + 3 * 5000 = 33000 = 150 + 4
Reqd. percentage = (33000/33000) * 100 = 154
100% Statement iii is incorrect.
From statement iv,
18. Answer: D B4 + A + C = 3 4 + 2 + 5
Let the number of red card penalties be a. = 81 + 2 + 5
The number of Yellow card penalties = a + 3 = 88
68 – (4 * a + 1 * (a + 3)) = 55 Statement iv is correct.
4a + a + 3 = 13 Only ii and iv are correct.
5a = 10
a= 2 20. Answer: A
Number of Red card penalties = 2 According to the question,
Number of Yellow card penalties = 2 + 3 = 5 (8 + d) * 2 + 3 * 4 + (4 ((100 + d)/100)) * 6 + 2 * 8
Reqd. sum = 5 + 2 = 7 = (68 * 2) – 12
16 + 2d + 12 + (4 ((100 + d)/100)) * 6 + 16 = 124
19. Answer: A
2d + (4 ((100 + d)/100)) * 6 = 80
Average of total points of Team Q, Team S, and
(200d + 2400 + 24d)/100 = 80
Team T = (78 + 90 + 96)/3
d = 25
=264/3 = 88 The value of d is 25.
From statement i,

ENGLISH Day - 11
English Language
Directions (1-7): Read the following passage strategic retreat and ended (B) a more primacy
carefully. Some words and phrases have been (C) foreign policy under Mr. Putin, partly in
highlighted and blanks have been put in lines to response to NATO expansion into Eastern
help you locate the place from where the Europe, the West saw it as a threat to its
question has been given. assertive (D). The 2008 Georgia war practically
The Geneva summit between U.S. President Joe ended the romance between democratic Russia
Biden and his Russian counterpart Vladimir and the West. The annexation of Crimea in 2014
Putin, on Wednesday, has set a pragmatic tone renewed tensions. Russia was thrown out of the
for engagement between the two competing G8, and western sanctions followed. But such
powers. Mr. Biden had, in the past, called Mr. steps did not deter Mr. Putin.
Putin “a killer”. Relations have hit the lowest point Ties hit rock bottom after allegations that
in recent years since the end of the Cold War. Russian intelligence units had carried out cyber
The U.S. has accused Russia of interfering in its attacks and run an online campaign to get
elections and launching cyber-attacks and Donald Trump elected President in the 2016 U.S.
criticised its stifling of internal dissent, while election. Mr. Biden and Mr. Putin cannot resolve
Moscow has slammed America’s “interventionist” these geopolitical and bilateral issues in one
foreign policy. Despite these differences, the summit. But they can certainly take measures to
leaders held talks on all critical issues, bringing prevent relations from worsening. For the U.S.,
diplomacy to the centre stage. After the summit, the cyber attacks are a red line. Russia, which
they have struck cautious optimism that is rooted had amassed troops in the Ukraine border earlier
in self-interest. Mr. Biden sought a more this year, sees NATO’s expansion into its border
predictable, rational engagement, while Mr. Putin region as a threat. Both countries should be
said relations were primarily pragmatic. They ready to address their critical concerns and
have decided to return their Ambassadors to the agree to a cold peace, which would help in
Embassies and announced “a strategic stability addressing other geopolitical problems such as
dialogue” to discuss terms of arms control Syria. The U.S. should be less pessimistic about
measures. While there was no major Russia’s foreign policy goals. Whether the
breakthrough, which was not expected any way, Americans like it or not, Russia, despite its
they could at least demonstrate willingness to weakened economic status, remains a great
strengthen engagement and reduce tensions. power. Mr. Putin should also realise that if his
There are structural issues in the U.S.-Russia goal is to restore Russia’s lost glory in global
ties. When Russia adopted (A) its post-Soviet politics, he should be ready to cooperate with the

ENGLISH Day - 11
West. Permanent hostility with other powers 4. Which of the following is true according to the
cannot be of much help to Russia. given context?
1. Which of the following words is a synonym to I) the 2008 Georgia war practically ended the
the word STIFLING according to the passage? romance between democratic Russia and the
A. Suffocate East
B. Exposed II) The French summit was held between the U.S
C. Facile and its Russian counterpart in a practical way
D. Temperate between two competing powers
E. None of the above III) The U.S. should be less optimistic about
Russia’s foreign policy goals
2. In a sentence four words are highlighted. You A. Only I
have to arrange the four words to make a B. Only II
sentence contextually and grammatically correct C. Only III
When Russia adopted (A) its post-Soviet D. Both I & II
strategic retreat and ended (B) a more primacy E. None of the above
(C) foreign policy under Mr. Putin, partly in
response to NATO expansion into Eastern 5. What should be done to restore Russia’s lost
Europe, the West saw it as a threat to its glory in global politics as per the context?
assertive. (D) A. Putin should be ready to cooperate with the
A. A-C west
B. C-D B. Putin should be ready to cooperate with the
C. A-B, C-D east
D. A-C, B-D C. He can take measures to prevent relations
E. None of the above from worsening
D. He should not continue any breakthrough
3. The sentence given below is divided into four between two countries
parts. Out of four, one part may or may not have E. None of the above
an error in it. Find out the erroneous part
A. Russia, which had amassed troops 6. Which of the following had happened after the
B. in the Ukraine border earlier this year summit in the passage?
C. sees NATO’s expansion into its I) Putin led in a practical way
D. border region as a threat II) They have struck cautious optimism which is
E. No Error rooted in self-interest
III) Biden bought a rational agreement

ENGLISH Day - 11
A. Only I remain ______(3) the radar and can lead to an

B. Only II ‘outbreak-likesituation.’ The meeting was not
C. Only III attended by West Bengal CM Mamata Banerjee
D. Both I & II and Chhattisgarh CM BhupeshBaghel. While
E. All of the above ‘Didi’ reportedly conveyed that she was skipping
the meet due to some pre-scheduled
7. Which of the following cannot help Russia in appointments, no message was released by the
the context? Bagheladministration. Interestingly, Didi did raise
A. focusing for cold peace the issue of ‘free corona vaccine’ at a poll rally in
B. weakened economic status Bengal. It ______ (4) with the PM’s COVID
C. Being in practical way meet.So the big question is – will the total
D. Permanent hostility with other powers lockdown return? That only time will tell. PM
E. None of the above Modi has clearly stated that there is no need to
panic the citizens and mask discipline should
Directions (8-12): In the following passage, some come from within. However, he has asked the
of the words have been left out, each of which is states to take whatever steps
indicated by a number. Find the suitable word necessary.Maharashtra’s State Surveillance
from the options given against each number and Office Dr. PradipAwate told the Indian Express
fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make on March16 that it is in fact true that the entire
the paragraph meaningful and complete. nation is________ (5) the second wave.
India is witnessing the second wave of 8. Which of the following words fill the blank
coronavirus. Days after health experts and some given (1)?
officials spoke about it; the confirmation of the A. Critical
second wave came from the highest office of the B. Seriousness
Modi government with the Prime Minister himself C. Lethargic
stating it. During an important, ______ (1) virtual D. Complimentary
meeting with all Chief Ministers, PM Modi said E. Solace
that it was necessary to stop the ‘emerging
second wave’ of the coronavirus. From ______ 9. Which of the following words fill the blankgiven
(2) up the vaccination to increasing the RT-PCR (2)?
testing (instead of antigen testing), PM Modi told A. Hiker
the states to do whatever necessary to halt this B. Descending
viral surge.PM Modi also said that the states C. Increment
should focus on smaller towns as these places D. Ramping

ENGLISH Day - 11
E. Setting (A) Further, it has been legally sanctioned by all

jurisdictions in the world for the maintenance of
10. Which of the following words fill the blank public health and to control the transmission of
given (3)? diseases.
A. On (B) However, a constructive alternative method
B. Under of treating patients exposed to infectious
C. Over diseases is an imperative need in the arena of
D. somebody public health.
E. Flying (C) Since ancient times, societies have practised
isolation, and imposed a ban on travel or
11. Which of the following words fill the blank transport and resorted to maritime quarantine of
given (4)? persons.
A. Concludes (D) It was about 196 years ago (1824) that the
B. Coincided U.S. Supreme Court, in an en banc sitting led by
C. Coincide Chief Justice John Marshall, affirmed the powers
D. Protesting of the state to enact quarantine laws and impose
E. Contrite health regulations.
(E) These measures were often forcibly enforced
12. Which of the following words fill the blank to prevent or reduce the wider spread of disease
given (5)? and to safeguard the health of citizens not yet
A. Enjoying exposed to such diseases.
B. Transmitting (F) This is considered the oldest mechanism to
C. Suffered reduce the rapid spread of bacterial infections
D. Dealing and viral onslaughts.
E. Experiencing 13. Which of the following statements does not
form a part of a coherent paragraph, after
Directions (13-17): Rearrange the following rearranging the given statements?
sentences in the proper sequence to form a A.D
meaningful paragraph and then answer the B.F
questions given below. (Note: The highlighted C.A
sentence ‘E’ has been correctly placed and does D. C
not require any rearrangement and one of the E. All are coherent.
sentences may or may not be odd.)

ENGLISH Day - 11
14. Which of the following pair of statements will Directions (18-20): In a sentence given below
appear in a similar sequence after divided into four parts. Out of four parts one may
rearrangement, as given in the option? or may not have an error. You have to find the
A. A-E erroneous part.
B.C-B 18. I know you claim not (a) /to care about the
C. F-B breakup; (b)/ even as, you (c) /keep talking about
D.D-E it.(d) /No error(e)
E. A-C A. a
B. b
15. Which of the following is the LAST statement C. c
after rearrangement? D. d
A.D E. No error
B. B
C.F 19. During the Diwali period messages attributed
D. A to deputy chief minister Nitin Patel (A)/ and
E. C minister of state of health Kumar Kanani began
to circulate suggesting various (B)/ kinds of
16. Which of the following is the SECOND lockdowns that could be coming in the state, (C)/
statement after rearrangement? especially in cities like Ahmedabad and Surat
A.B that have witnessed a surge in cases (D)/
B. C A. A
C. D B. B
D. F C. C
E. A D. D
E. No Error
17. Which of the following is the THIRD
statement after rearrangement? 20. The Ghaziabad police sent another notice to
A. D Twitter (A)/ India’s head to appear before it in the
B.A case (B)/ of a video of an elderly Muslim man
C.F who claimed (C)/ he was beated up and made to
D.B chant Jai Shri Ram (D)/ No Error (E)
E. C A. A
B. B
C. C

ENGLISH Day - 11
D. D E. No Error
1. Answer: A restore Russia’s lost glory in global politics, he

Stifling – to stop something happening, should be ready to cooperate with the West
developing, continuing Suffocate - to impede or Hence option A is answer
stop the development of Here suffocate is the
synonym of stifling Hence option A is the correct 6. Answer: E
answer. Facile –easily accomplished or attained By first paragraph Option I, II and III are
explained correctly Hence option E is answer.
2. Answer: C
The correct arrangement of the sentence is A-B, 7. Answer: D
CD When Russia ended (A) its post-Soviet By Last line Permanent hostility with powers
strategic retreat and adopted (B) a more cannot help Russia Hence option D is answer
assertive (C) foreign policy under Mr. Putin,
partly in response to NATO expansion into 8. Answer: A
Eastern Europe, the West saw it as a threat to its Critical- Vital, of great consequence, serious
primacy (D)
9. Answer: D
3. Answer: B Ramping- To speed up, increase.
In part B ‘in’ is wrongly used and the correct Phrase- Ramp up (increase the level or amount
usage is ‘on’ Hence option B is answer of something sharply)
4. Answer: E 10. Answer: B

From the whole paragraph we can know that Under the radar- not getting attention, unnoticed
Options I, II and III are given wrongly Hence
option E is answer. 11. Answer: B
Coincided- Happened at the same time as
5. Answer: A something else
From the second paragraph we understand that;
Putin should also realise that if his goal is to 12. Answer: E

ENGLISH Day - 11
Experiencing- to have something happen, for a long time now. Here, (C) will be placed after
feeling, and having (A) and before (E), which is the fifth sentence
after rearrangement (as given in instructions).
13. Answer: E Here, (E) mention ‘these measures’ which have
Among the given sentences, (D) is the most been used for the measures stated in (C).
appropriate sentence to begin the paragraph as Finally, (B) will be the concluding sentence as it
it is an independent statement and sets the mentions the need for an improved health
theme for further sentences which is about infrastructure. Therefore, the correct sequence
enacting quarantine. Here, the next sentence will of the sentences will be DFACEB
be (F) where ‘this is considered’ is used for
referring to ‘quarantine’. Statement (A) will follow 15. Answer: B
(F) as both these sentences are about the actual Among the given sentences, (D) is the most
purpose of quarantine which has been practiced appropriate sentence to begin the paragraph as
for a long time now. Here, (C) will be placed after it is an independent statement and sets the
(A) and before (E), which is the fifth sentence theme for further sentences which is about
after rearrangement (as given in instructions). enacting quarantine. Here, the next sentence will
Here, (E) mention ‘these measures’ which have be (F) where ‘this is considered’ is used for
been used for the measures stated in (C). referring to ‘quarantine’. Statement (A) will follow
Finally, (B) will be the concluding sentence as it (F) as both these sentences are about the actual
mentions the need for an improved health purpose of quarantine which has been practiced
infrastructure. Therefore, the correct sequence for a long time now. Here, (C) will be placed after
of the sentences will be DFACEB (A) and before (E), which is the fifth sentence
after rearrangement (as given in instructions).
14. Answer: E Here, (E) mention ‘these measures’ which have
Among the given sentences, (D) is the most been used for the measures stated in (C).
appropriate sentence to begin the paragraph as Finally, (B) will be the concluding sentence as it
it is an independent statement and sets the mentions the need for an improved health
theme for further sentences which is about infrastructure. Therefore, the correct sequence
enacting quarantine. Here, the next sentence will of the sentences will be DFACEB
be (F) where ‘this is considered’ is used for
referring to ‘quarantine’. Statement (A) will follow 16. Answer: D
(F) as both these sentences are about the actual Among the given sentences, (D) is the most
purpose of quarantine which has been practiced appropriate sentence to begin the paragraph as

ENGLISH Day - 11
it is an independent statement and sets the for a long time now. Here, (C) will be placed after
theme for further sentences which is about (A) and before (E), which is the fifth sentence
enacting quarantine. Here, the next sentence will after rearrangement (as given in instructions).
be (F) where ‘this is considered’ is used for Here,
referring to ‘quarantine’. Statement (A) will follow (E) mention ‘these measures’ which have been
(F) as both these sentences are about the actual used for the measures stated in (C). Finally, (B)
purpose of quarantine which has been practiced will be the concluding sentence as it mentions
for a long time now. Here, (C) will be placed after the need for an improved health infrastructure.
(A) and before (E), which is the fifth sentence Therefore, the correct sequence of the
after rearrangement (as given in instructions). sentences will be DFACEB
Here, (E) mention ‘these measures’ which have
been used for the measures stated in (C). 18. Answer: C
Finally, (B) will be the concluding sentence as it Correct usage- ‘Even so’
mentions the need for an improved health EVEN SO-(used for introducing a new idea, fact,
infrastructure. Therefore, the correct sequence etc. that is surprising)in spite of that;
of the sentences will be DFACEB nevertheless
EVEN AS-at the same time as.
17. Answer: B
Among the given sentences, (D) is the most 19. Answer: B
appropriate sentence to begin the paragraph as Part B is erroneous as, it uses incorrect
it is an independent statement and sets the preposition ‘of’ prior to ‘health’. It should be
theme for further sentences which is about replaced with ‘for’, to express possessiveness.
enacting quarantine. Here, the next sentence will
be (F) where ‘this is considered’ is used for 20. Answer: D
referring to ‘quarantine’. Statement (A) will follow In part D ‘beated’ is wrongly used and the
(F) as both these sentences are about the actual correct usage is ‘beaten’.
purpose of quarantine which has been practiced Hence option D is the Answer.

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SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023

Reasoning Ability Day - 11 (Eng)

b) @W19µ b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C

c) @E15$ c) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D

d) !E19? d) 1C, 2A, 3D, 4B

e) None of these e) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A.

language? a) “@E19* !P14€ &E6$”

a) Motivate yourself always b) “%F10$ &O16µ @J19µ”

b) Play cricket everyday c) “@E17* #O16µ &J18µ”

c) Great country India d) “#G35€ !R17$ %S23¥

d) Bring fruits tomorrow e) None of the above

given code language? decide whether the data provided in the

a) “@Q7¥” and “Reinforcement” statements are sufficient to answer the

b) “&E32€” and “Captain” questions.

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Park. Then, he turns 135◦ clockwise direction Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

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d) I and 6am-7am c) Same as between G and the person who

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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-5): I. For symbols:

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Consonant 1-€, 2-¥, 3-µ, 4-*, 5-$

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8. Answer: E Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer

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 As many persons travelled before the one

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sits third to the left of his grand-daughter, nephew of F.

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After applying the above conditions and the

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2. Train T3 crosses a bridge of length 340 B. 102.20 km/h

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8. In 2023, If the population of city A is ____ and A. i and ii are correct

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Notes: iii. The number of goals scored by Team Q from

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Answer Key with Explanation

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= 12 (3/12) + 2 (5/12) Subtracting eqn. 1 from eqn. 2

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6. Answer: C GDP per capita = 2000 lakhs / 1250= Rs.

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a=4 Total amount A got at the end of the year =

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3M = 15 Points scored by Team S from the distance of 4

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A. Only I remain ______(3) the radar and can lead to an

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E. Setting (A) Further, it has been legally sanctioned by all

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