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Question
1 ecessary. Adjust and monitor environmental factors like room temperature and bed
n
1 point(s) linens as indicated. Room temperature may be accustomed to near normal body
Patient X is diagnosed with constipation. As a knowledgeable nurse, which nursing temperature and blankets and linens may be adjusted as indicated to regulate the
intervention is appropriate for maintaining normal bowel function? temperature of the patient.
● A. Assessing dietary intake ● Option B:Fluids should be encouraged, not restricted to compensate for
insensible losses. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. If the patient is
● B. Decreasing fluid intake
unconscious, central venous pressure or pulmonary artery pressure
● C. Providing limited physical activity should be measured to monitor fluid status. Fluid resuscitation may be
● D. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing required to correct dehydration. The patient who is significantly
orrect
C dehydrated is no longer able to sweat, which is necessary for evaporative
Correct Answer: A. Assessing dietary intake cooling.
Assessing dietary intake provides a foundation for the client’s usual practices and may ● Option C:Tympanic or rectal temperature measurements are generally
help determine if the client is prone to constipation or diarrhea. Check out usual dietary accepted and are more accurate than axillary measurements. Monitor the
habits, eating habits, eating schedule, and liquid intake. Irregular mealtime, type of food, patient’s HR, BP, and especially the tympanic or rectal temperature. HR
and interruption of the usual schedule can lead to constipation. Assist the patient to take and BP increase as hyperthermia progresses. Tympanic or rectal
at least 20 g of dietary fiber (e.g., raw fruits, fresh vegetables, whole grains) per day. temperature gives a more accurate indication of core temperature.
● Option B:Fluid intake should be increased to aid bowel elimination. ● Option D:Antipyretics, and not antiemetics, are indicated to reduce
Encourage the patient to take in fluid 2000 to 3000 mL/day, if not fever. Give antipyretic medications as prescribed. Antipyretic medications
contraindicated medically. Sufficient fluid is needed to keep the fecal lower body temperature by blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins that
mass soft. But take note of some patients or older patients having act in the hypothalamus.
cardiovascular limitations requiring less fluid intake. 3. Question
● Option C:Limited physical activity may contribute to constipation due to 1 point(s)
decreased peristalsis. Assess the patient’s activity level. Sedentary Tom is ready to be discharged from the medical-surgical unit after 5 days of
lifestyles such as sitting all day, lack of exercise, prolonged bed rest, and hospitalization. Which client statement indicates to the nurse that Tom understands the
inactivity contribute to constipation. discharge teaching about cellular injury?
● Option D:Turning, coughing and deep breathing help promote gas ● A. "I do not have to see my doctor unless I have problems."
exchange. Urge the patient for some physical activity and exercise. ● B. "I can stop taking my antibiotics once I am feeling better."
Consider isometric abdominal and gluteal exercises. Movement
● C. "If I have redness, drainage, or fever, I should call my healthcare
promotes peristalsis. Abdominal exercises strengthen abdominal
rovider."
p
muscles that facilitate defecation.
2. Question ● D. "I can return to my normal activities as soon as I go home."
1 point(s) orrect
C
A 12-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital two days ago due to hyperthermia. His Correct Answer: C. “If I have redness, drainage, or fever, I should call my
attending nurse, Dennis, is quite unsure about his plan of care. Which of the following healthcare provider.”
nursing interventions should be included in the care plan for the client? The knowledge that redness, drainage, or fever — signs of infection associated with
● A. Room temperature reduction cellular injury — require reporting indicates that the client has understood the nurse’s
discharge teaching. If a cell is unable to adapt to increased stress, injury results. Cell
● B. Fluid restriction of 2,000 ml/day
injury is reversible until a certain threshold where it progresses to cell death. Historically,
● C. Axillary temperature measurements every 4 hours cell death has been designated into two classes: necrosis and apoptosis. Necrosis is
● D. Antiemetic agent administration often coined as accidental death as it is generally seen as not controlled by the cell.
orrect
C Apoptosis, on the other hand, is typically viewed as programmed cell death, regulated
Correct Answer: A. Room temperature reduction and controlled.
For the patient with hyperthermia, reducing the room temperature may help decrease ● Option A:Follow-up checkups should be encouraged. Cell growth,
the body temperature. Tepid baths, cool compresses, and cooling blankets may also be division, and death are all important parts of this regulation, and each is
ighly regulated. Loss of this balance is seen in tumor cells where
h ● O ption D:Use a footboard or pillows to keep the feet in the correct
mechanisms of cell death are avoided, resulting in uncontrolled cell position. This avoids foot drop and too much plantar flexion or tightness.
growth. Conversely, conditions where extensive cell death is seen also Maintain feet in a dorsiflexed position.
result in loss of homeostasis, such as in the case of neuronal loss in ● Option E:Assess the strength to perform ROM to all joints. This
Alzheimer’s disease. assessment provides data on the extent of any physical problems and
● Option B:The nurse should place an emphasis on antibiotic compliance guides therapy. Testing by a physical therapist may be needed. Execute
even if the client feels better. The understanding of cell death and the passive or active assistive ROM exercises to all extremities.
players involved is a subject of constant research. The better one 5. Question
understands the mechanism of cell death, the more likely it is that 1 point(s)
knowledge can be integrated into clinical medicine. A 36-year-old male client is about to be discharged from the hospital after 5 days due to
Option D:There are usually activity limitations after cellular injury.
● surgery. Which intervention should be included in the home health care nurse’s
Chemotherapy treatments with radiation can manipulate these pathways instructions about measures to prevent constipation?
more directly by causing DNA damage that drives the cell to apoptosis. ● A. Discouraging the client from eating large amounts of roughage-containing
Understanding the basics of cell death allows for a better understanding foods in the diet.
of how tumor cells may evade death and counter-evade clinically.
● B. Encouraging the client to use laxatives routinely to ensure adequate bowel
4. Question
limination.
e
1 point(s)
Nurse Katee is caring for Adam, a 22-year-old client, in a long-term facility. Which ● C. Instructing the client to establish a bowel evacuation schedule that changes
nursing intervention would be appropriate when identifying nursing interventions aimed very day.
e
at promoting and preventing contractures?Select all that apply. ● D. Instructing the client to fill a 2-L bottle with water every night and drink
● A. Clustering activities to allow uninterrupted periods of rest. it the next day.
● B. Maintaining correct body alignment at all times. orrect
C
Correct Answer: D. Instructing the client to fill a 2-L bottle with water every night
● C. Monitoring intake and output, using a urometer if necessary.
and drink it the next day.
● D. Using a footboard or pillows to keep feet in the correct position. Adequate fluids and fiber in the diet are key to preventing constipation. Having the client
● E. Performing active and passive range-of-motion exercises. fill a 2-L bottle with water every night and drink it the next day is one method for ensuring
the client receives at least 2,000 ml of water daily. The client also should be instructed to
● F. Weighing the client daily at the same time and in the same clothes.
drink any other fluids throughout the day.
orrect
C
● Option A:High fiber or roughage foods are encouraged. Assist the
Correct Answers: B, D, & E
patient to take at least 20 g of dietary fiber (e.g., raw fruits, fresh
Correct body alignment, preventing foot drop, and range-of-motion exercises will help
vegetables, whole grains) per day. Fiber adds bulk to the stool and
prevent contractures. Clustering activities will help promote adequate rest. Monitoring
makes defecation easier because it passes through the intestine
intake and output and weighing the client will help maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
essentially unchanged.
● Option A:Provide the patient with rest periods in between activities.
● Option B:Laxatives should not be used routinely for bowel elimination.
Consider energy-saving techniques. Rest periods are essential to
They should be used only as a last resort, because clients may become
conserve energy. The patient must learn and accept his/her limitations.
dependent on them. The use of laxatives or enemas is indicated for the
● Option B:Help the patient develop sitting balance and standing balance.
short-term management of constipation.
This helps out in retraining neural pathways, promoting proprioception
● Option C:A regular bowel evacuation schedule should be established.
and motor response. Keep limbs in functional alignment with one or more
Encourage a regular period for elimination. Most people defecate
of the following: pillows, sandbags, wedges, or prefabricated splints.
following the first daily meal or coffee, as a result of the gastrocolic reflex.
● Option C:Assess input and output record and nutritional pattern.
6. Question
Pressure ulcers build up more rapidly in patients with nutritional
1 point(s)
insufficiency. Encourage a diet high in fiber and liquid intake of 2000 to
3000 ml per day unless contraindicated.
r. McPartlin suffered abrasions and lacerations after a vehicular accident. He was
M nti-inflammatory agents help reduce edema and relieve pressure on nerve endings,
A
hospitalized and was treated for a couple of weeks. When planning care for a client with subsequently reducing pain. The burned patient may require around-the-clock
cellular injury, the nurse should consider which scientific rationale? medication and dose titration. IV method is often used initially to maximize drug effect.
● A. Nutritional needs remain unchanged for the well-nourished adult. ● Option B:Elevating the injured area increases venous return to the
heart. Elevation may be required initially to reduce edema formation;
● B. Age is an insignificant factor in cellular repair.
thereafter, changes in position and elevation reduce discomfort and risk
● C. The presence of infection may slow the healing process. of joint contractures.
● D. Tissue with inadequate blood supply may heal faster. ● Option C:Maintaining clean, dry skin aids in preventing skin breakdown.
orrect
C Cover wounds as soon as possible unless an open-air exposure burn
Correct Answer: C. The presence of infection may slow the healing process. care method is required. Temperature changes and air movement can
Infection impairs wound healing. Adequate blood supply is essential for healing. If cause great pain to exposed nerve endings.
inadequate, healing is slowed. Simplistically, cell injury disrupts cellular homeostasis. ● Option D:Cool packs, not warm packs, should be used initially to cause
Cells are injured by numerous and diverse causes (etiologic agents) from intrinsic and vasoconstriction and reduce edema. Altered tissue perfusion and edema
extrinsic sources; however, all of these causes and they number in the thousands, formation impair drug absorption. Injections into potential donor sites may
activate one or more of four final common biochemical mechanisms leading to cell injury. render them unusable because of hematoma formation.
● Option A:Nutritional needs, including protein and caloric needs, 8. Question
increase for all clients undergoing cellular repair because adequate 1 point(s)
protein and caloric intake is essential to optimal cellular repair. Nutritional Lisa, a client with altered urinary function, is under the care of nurse Tine. Which
deficiencies, excesses, and imbalances all predispose the cell to injury. intervention is appropriate to include when developing a plan of care for Lisa who is
● Option B:Elderly clients may have decreased blood flow to the skin, experiencing urinary dribbling?
organ atrophy and diminished function, and altered immunity. These ● A. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter.
conditions slow cellular repair and increase the risk of infection. Cells and ● B. Having the client perform Kegel exercises.
tissues age because of accumulated damage to their proteins, lipids, and
● C. Keeping the skin clean and dry.
nucleic acids. Much of the damage of aging is attributed to ROS, DNA
mutations, and cellular senescence ● D. Using pads or diapers on the client.
● Option D:Anything that decreases the supply of oxygen and other orrect
C
nutrients to the cell or that damages mitochondria directly halts oxidative Correct Answer: B. Having the client perform Kegel exercises.
phosphorylation, leading to rapid depletion of ATP, even in those cells Kegel exercises, which help strengthen the muscles in the perineal area, are used to
that can switch to anaerobic glycolysis. The ATP depletion results in maintain urinary continence. To perform these exercises, the client tightens pelvic floor
additional cell damage by causing failure of energy-dependent enzymes, muscles for 4 seconds 10 times at least 20 times each day, stopping and starting the
in particular, the cell membrane adenosine triphosphatase ion pumps that urinary flow.
control cell volume and electrolyte balance. ● Option A:Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter increases the risk for
7. Question infection and should be avoided. Begin bladder retraining per protocol
1 point(s) when appropriate (fluids between certain hours, digital stimulation of
A 22-year-old lady is displaying facial grimaces during her treatment in the hospital due trigger area, contraction of abdominal muscles, Credé’s maneuver).
to burn trauma. Which nursing intervention should be included for reducing pain due to ● Option C:Proper perineal hygiene decreases the risk of skin irritation or
cellular injury? breakdown and the development of ascending infection. The nurse
● A. Administering anti-inflammatory agents as prescribed. should encourage the client to develop a toileting schedule based on
normal urinary habits. However, suggesting bathroom use every 8 hours
● B. Elevating the injured area to decrease venous return to the heart.
may be too long an interval to wait.
● C. Keeping the skin clean and dry. ● Option D:Pads or diapers should be used only as a resort. Refer to the
● D. Applying warm packs initially to reduce edema. urinary continence specialist as indicated. Collaboration with specialists
orrect
C is helpful for developing an individual plan of care to meet a patient’s
Correct Answer: A. Administering anti-inflammatory agents as prescribed specific needs using the latest techniques, continence products.
. Question
9 edications, diet, therapy, and follow-up appointments, must be explained in detail to all
m
1 point(s) patients and then presented in written form to take home upon discharge.
Jeron is admitted to the hospital due to bacterial pneumonia. He is febrile, diaphoretic, ● Option A:The discharge plan begins at the admission time and includes
and has shortness of breath and asthma. Which goal is themostimportant for the the patients and their families’ needs prediction, and a plan to fulfill their
client? requirements after discharge from the hospital. A practical discharge plan
● A. Prevention of fluid volume excess helps to provide continuous care with the least amount of stress for
patients.
● B. Maintenance of adequate oxygenation
● Option C:Nurses, as key members of the treatment team, play a critical
● C. Education about infection prevention role in training and taking care of the patients. One of the most basic
● D. Pain reduction nursing responsibilities is to provide continuous care. In this regard, the
orrect
C inclusion of a discharge plan for all admitted patients could be a symbol
Correct Answer: B. Maintenance of adequate oxygenation of such care.
For the client with asthma and infection, oxygenation is the priority. Maintaining adequate ● Option D:Basically, any significant change or poor performance requires
oxygenation reduces the risk of physiologic injury from cellular hypoxia, which is the physical, social, and psychological adjustment. Patients are concerned
leading cause of cell death. The purpose of oxygen therapy is to maintain PaO2 above about their discharge and are preoccupied with their ability in performing
60 mmHg. Oxygen is administered by the method that provides appropriate delivery their own duties and the way to handle themselves as well as joining the
within the patient’s tolerance. family. Therefore, self-care training is of utmost importance for the
● Option A:A fluid volume deficit resulting from fever and diaphoresis, not patients and their families.
excess, is more likely for this client. Assess respirations: note quality, 11. Question
rate, rhythm, depth, use of accessory muscles, ease, and position 1 point(s)
assumed for easy breathing. Mrs. dela Riva is in her first trimester of pregnancy. She has been lying all day because
● Option C:Teaching about infection control is not appropriate at this time her OB-GYN requested her to have a complete bed rest. Which nursing intervention is
but would be appropriate before discharge. Observe the color of skin, appropriate when addressing the client’s need to maintain skin integrity?
mucous membranes, and nail beds, noting the presence of peripheral ● A. Monitoring intake and output accurately.
cyanosis (nail beds) or central cyanosis (circumoral). ● B. Instructing the client to cough and deep breathe every 2 hours.
● Option D:No information regarding pain is provided in this scenario.
● C. Keeping the linens dry and wrinkle-free.
Monitor body temperature, as indicated. Assist with comfort measures to
reduce fever and chills: addition or removal of bedcovers, comfortable ● D. Using a footboard to maintain correct anatomic position.
room temperature, tepid or cool water sponge bath. orrect
C
10. Question Correct Answer: C. Keeping the linens dry and wrinkle-free.
1 point(s) Keeping the linens dry and wrinkle-free aids in preventing moisture and pressure from
Rogelio, a 32-year-old patient, is about to be discharged from the acute care setting. interfering with adequate blood supply to the tissues, helping to maintain skin integrity.
Which nursing intervention is themostimportant to include in the plan of care? Encourage the implementation of a turning schedule, restricting time in one position to 2
● A. Stress-reduction techniques hours or less, if the patient is restricted to bed.
● Option A:Monitoring intake and output aids in assessing and
● B. Home environment evaluation
maintaining bladder function. Assess patient’s nutritional status, including
● C. Skin-care measures weight, weight loss, and serum albumin levels. An albumin level less than
● D. Participation in activities of daily living 2.5 g/dL is a grave sign, indicating severe protein depletion and at high
orrect
C risk of skin breakdown.
Correct Answer: B. Home environment evaluation ● Option B:Coughing and deep breathing help promote gas exchange.
After discharge, the client is responsible for his own care and health maintenance Reinforce the importance of turning, mobility, and ambulation. These will
management. Discharge includes assessing the home environment for determining the enhance their sense of efficacy and can improve compliance with the
client’s ability to maintain his health at home. All instructions for care at home, including prescribed interventions.
● O
ption D:Using a footboard is appropriate for maintaining a normal ● C. Using therapeutic conversation to try to discourage pain medication.
body function position. Encourage the patient to change position every
● D. Attempting to rule out complications before administering pain
15 minutes and change chair-bound positions every hour. Use pillows or
edication.
m
foam wedges to keep bony prominences from direct contact with each
orrect
C
other. Keep pillows under the heels to raise off the bed.
Correct Answer: D. Attempting to rule out complications before administering pain
12. Question
medication.
1 point(s)
When intervening with a client complaining of pain, the nurse must always determine if
Maya, who is admitted to a hospital, is scheduled to have her general checkup and
the pain is expected pain or a complication that requires immediate nursing intervention.
physical assessment. Nurse Timothy observed a reddened area over her left hip. Which
This must be done before administering the medication. Perform a comprehensive
should the nurse dofirst?
assessment of pain. Determine via assessment the location, characteristics, onset,
● A. Massage the reddened area for a few minutes.
duration, frequency, quality, and severity of pain.
● B. Notify the physician immediately. ● Option A:Perform a history assessment of pain. Additionally, the nurse
● C. Arrange for a pressure-relieving device. should ask the following questions during pain assessment to determine
its history: (1) effectiveness of previous pain treatment or management;
● D. Turn the client to the right side for 2 hours.
(2) what medications were taken and when; (3) other medications being
orrect
C
taken; (4) allergies or known side effects to medications.
Correct Answer: D. Turn the client to the right side for 2 hours
● Option B:Guided imagery should be used along with, not instead of,
Turning the client to the right side relieves the pressure and promotes adequate blood
administration of pain medication. Guided imagery involves the use of
supply to the left hip. Encourage the patient to change position every 15 minutes and
mental pictures or guiding the patient to imagine an event to distract from
change chair-bound positions every hour. During sitting, the pressure over the sacrum
the pain.
may exceed 100 mm Hg. The pressure needed to close capillaries is around 32 mm Hg;
● Option C:The nurse should medicate the client and not discourage
any pressure above 32 mm Hg leads to ischemia.
medication. Nurses have the duty to ask their clients about their pain and
● Option A:A reddened area is never massaged, because this may
believe their reports of pain. Challenging or undermining their pain
increase the damage to the already reddened, damaged area. Massage
reports results in an unhealthy therapeutic relationship that may hinder
only around the affected area. This is to increase tissue perfusion.
pain management and deteriorate rapport.
Massaging the actual reddened area may damage the skin further.
14. Question
● Option B:The health care provider does not need to be notified
1 point(s)
immediately. However, the health care provider should be informed of
Nurse Martha is teaching her students about bacterial control. Which intervention is the
this finding the next time he is on the unit. Educate the patient and
mostimportant factor in preventing the spread of microorganisms?
caregiver about the causes of pressure. This information can assist the
● A. Maintenance of asepsis with indwelling catheter insertion.
patient or caregiver in finding methods to prevent skin breakdown.
● Option C:Arranging for a pressure-relieving device is appropriate, but ● B. Use of masks, gowns, and gloves when caring for clients with infection.
this is done after the client has been turned. Use pillows or foam wedges ● C. Correct handwashing technique.
to keep bony prominences from direct contact with each other. Keep
● D. Cleanup of blood spills with sodium hydrochloride.
pillows under the heels to raise off bed. These measures reduce
orrect
C
shearing forces on the skin.
Correct Answer: C. Correct handwashing technique.
13. Question
Handwashing remains the most effective procedure for controlling microorganisms and
1 point(s)
the incidence of nosocomial infections. According to the Centers for Disease Control and
Pierro was noted to be displaying facial grimaces after nurse Kara assessed his
Prevention (CDC), hand hygiene is the single most important practice in the reduction of
complaints of pain rated as 8 on a scale of 1 (no pain) 10 10 (worst pain). Which
the transmission of infection in the healthcare setting. According to the CDC, hand
intervention should the nurse do?
hygiene encompasses the cleansing of your hands with soap and water, antiseptic hand
● A. Administering the client's ordered pain medication immediately.
washes, antiseptic hand rubs such as alcohol-based hand sanitizers, foams or gels, or
● B. Using guided imagery instead of administering pain medication. surgical hand antisepsis.
● O ption A:Aseptic technique is essential with invasive procedures, kin of elderly patients loses elasticity, hence skin turgor should be
S
including indwelling catheters. The purpose of creating a sterile field is to assessed over the sternum or on the inner thighs. Longitudinal furrows
reduce the number of microbes present to as few as possible. The sterile may be noted along the tongue.
field is used in many situations outside the operating room as well as ● Option D:Monitoring albumin and protein levels are appropriate for
inside the operating room when performing surgical cases. clients experiencing inadequate nutrition. Monitor and document
● Option B:Masks, gowns, and gloves are necessary only when the hemodynamic status including CVP, pulmonary artery pressure (PAP),
likelihood of exposure to blood or body fluids is high. Personal protective and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) if available in a
equipment serves as a barrier to protect the skin, mucous membranes, hospital setting. These direct measurements serve as an optimal guide
airway, and clothing. It includes gowns, gloves, masks, and face shields for therapy.
or goggles. 16. Question
● Option D:Spills of blood from clients with acquired immunodeficiency 1 point(s)
syndrome should be cleaned with sodium hydrochloride. Standard Khaleesi is admitted to the hospital due to having a lower than normal potassium level in
precautions apply to the care of all patients, irrespective of their disease her bloodstream. Her medical history reveals vomiting and diarrhea prior to
state. These precautions apply when there is a risk of potential exposure hospitalization. Which foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase?
to blood; all body fluids, secretions, and excretions, except sweat, ● A. Whole grains and nuts
regardless of whether or not they contain visible blood; non-intact skin,
● B. Milk products and green, leafy vegetables
and mucous membranes.
15. Question ● C. Pork products and canned vegetables
1 point(s) ● D. Orange juice and bananas
A patient with tented skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urinary output orrect
C
is under nurse Mark’s care. Which nursing intervention should be included in the care Correct Answer: D. Orange juice and bananas
plan of Mark for his patient? The client with hypokalemia needs to increase the intake of foods high in potassium.
● A. Administering I.V. and oral fluids. Orange juice and bananas are high in potassium, along with raisins, apricots, avocados,
● B. Clustering necessary activities throughout the day. beans, and potatoes. Encourage high potassium diet such as oranges, bananas,
tomatoes, coffee, red meat, and dried fruits. Discuss the use of potassium chloride salt
● C. Assessing color, odor, and amount of sputum.
substitutes for a client receiving long-term diuretics. Potassium may be replaced and
● D. Monitoring serum albumin and total protein levels. level maintained through the diet when the client is allowed oral food and fluids.
orrect
C ● Option A:Whole grains and nuts would be encouraged for the client with
Correct Answer: A. Administering I.V. and oral fluids hypomagnesemia. Encourage intake of dairy products, meat, fish, green
The client’s assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is leafy vegetables, and whole grains. Provides an oral replacement for mild
dehydrated. Administering I.V. fluids is appropriate. Administer parenteral fluids as magnesium deficits; may prevent a recurrence.
prescribed. Consider the need for an IV fluid challenge with immediate infusion of fluids ● Option B:Milk products and green, leafy vegetables are good sources of
for patients with abnormal vital signs. Fluids are necessary to maintain hydration status. calcium for the client with hypocalcemia. Encourage the client to eat
Determination of the type and amount of fluid to be replaced and infusion rates will vary foods high in calcium such as dark leafy greens, cheese, low-fat milk,
depending on clinical status. yogurt, eggs, oranges, green beans, and sardines. Avoid intake of
● Option B:Clustering activities help with energy conservation and phosphorus-rich foods such as bran, chocolates, nuts, whole wheat, and
promote rest. Aid the patient if he or she is unable to eat without barley.
assistance, and encourage the family or SO to assist with feedings, as ● Option C:Pork products and canned vegetables are high in sodium and
necessary. Dehydrated patients may be weak and unable to meet are encouraged for the client with hyponatremia. Encourage fluids and
prescribed intake independently. foods high in sodium such as meat, milk, beets, celery, eggs, and carrots.
● Option C:Assessing sputum would be appropriate for a client with Use fruit juices and bouillon instead of water. Unless sodium deficit
problems associated with impaired gas exchange or ineffective airway causes serious symptoms requiring immediate IV replacement, the client
clearance. Assess skin turgor and oral mucous membranes for signs of may benefit from slower replacement by oral method or removal of
dehydration. Signs of dehydration are also detected through the skin. previous salt restriction.
7. Question
1 he fluid intake includes 8 oz (240 ml) of apple juice, 850 ml of water, 2 cups (480 ml) of
T
1 point(s) beef broth, and 900 ml of I.V. fluid for a total of 2,470 ml intake for the shift. Monitoring of
Mary Jean, a first year nursing student, was rushed to the clinic department due to intake helps caregivers ensure that the patient has a proper intake of fluid and other
hyperventilation. Which nursing intervention is themostappropriate for the client who is nutrients. Monitoring of output helps determine whether there is adequate output of urine
subsequently developing respiratory alkalosis? as well as normal defecation.
● A. Administering sodium chloride I.V.
9. Question
1
● B. Encouraging slow, deep breaths.
1 point(s)
● C. Preparing to administer sodium bicarbonate. Marie Joy’s lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. Which assessment
● D. Administer low-flow oxygen therapy. data does the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a
orrect
C carpopedal spasm after the blood-pressure cuff is inflated?
Correct Answer: B. Encouraging slow, deep breaths. ● A. Positive Trousseau's sign
The client who is hyperventilating and subsequently develops respiratory alkalosis is ● B. Positive Chvostek's sign
losing too much carbon dioxide. Measures that result in the retention of carbon dioxide
● C. Tetany
are needed. Encourage slow, deep breathing to retain carbon dioxide and reverse
respiratory alkalosis. Encourage the patient to breathe slowly and deeply. Speak in a ● D. Paresthesia
low, calm tone of voice. Provide a safe environment. May help reassure and calm the orrect
C
agitated patient, thereby aiding the reduction of respiratory rate. Assists the patient to Correct Answer: A. Positive Trousseau’s sign
regain control. In a client with hypocalcemia, a positive Trousseau’s sign refers to carpopedal spasm
● Option A:Administering sodium chloride is appropriate for metabolic that develops usually within 2 to 5 minutes after applying and inflating a blood pressure
alkalosis. Demonstrate appropriate breathing patterns, if appropriate, and cuff to about 20 mm Hg higher than systolic pressure on the upper arm. This spasm
assist with respiratory aids or a rebreathing mask/bag. Decreasing the occurs as the blood supply to the ulnar nerve is obstructed.
rate of respiration can halt the “blowing off” of CO2, elevating Pco2 level ● Option B:Chvostek’s sign refers to twitching of the facial nerve when
and normalizing pH. tapping below the earlobe. In the late 1800s, Dr. Chvostek noticed that
● Option C:Administering sodium bicarbonate is appropriate for treating mechanical stimulation of the facial nerve (as with the fingertip of the
metabolic acidosis. Provide comfort measures; encourage the use of examiner, for example) could lead to twitching of the ipsilateral facial
meditation and visualization. Use a tepid sponge bath/cool cloths. muscles. The long-accepted explanation is that this resulted from
Promotes relaxation and reduces stress. Control and reduction of fever hypocalcemia, and this relationship became known as the Chvostek sign.
reduce the potential for seizures and helps reduce respiration rate. ● Option C:Tetany is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia denoted by
● Option D:Administering low-flow oxygen therapy is appropriate for tingling in the tips of the fingers around the mouth and muscle spasms in
chronic respiratory acidosis. Administer CO2, or use a rebreathing mask the extremities and face. Tetany is generally induced by a rapid decline in
as indicated. Reduce respiratory rate and tidal volume, or add additional serum ionized calcium. Tetany is usually most dangerous and most
dead space (tubing) to a mechanical ventilator. commonly seen in the presence of respiratory alkalosis causing
18. Question hypocalcemia.
1 point(s) ● Option D:Paresthesia refers to numbness or tingling. Paresthesia is an
Nurse John Joseph is totaling the intake and output for Elena Reyes, a client diagnosed abnormal sensation of the skin (tingling, pricking, chilling, burning,
with septicemia who is on a clear liquid diet. The client intakes 8 oz of apple juice, 850 numbness) with no apparent physical cause. Paresthesia may be
ml of water, 2 cups of beef broth, and 900 ml of half-normal saline solution and outputs transient or chronic and may have any of dozens of possible underlying
1,500 ml of urine during the shift. How many milliliters should the nurse document as the causes.
client’s intake?Fill in the blank and write your answeras a whole number. 20. Question
● Answer: mL. 1 point(s)
orrect
C Lab tests revealed that patient Z’s [Na+] is 170 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation
Correct answer:2470 mL. would nurse Natty expect to assess?
Rationale: ● A. Tented skin turgor and thirst
● B. Muscle twitching and tetany chronically elevated PCO2 level (above 50 mmHg) is associated with inadequate
A
response of the respiratory center to plasma carbon dioxide. The major stimulus to
● C. Fruity breath and Kussmaul's respirations
breathing then becomes hypoxia (low PO2). High PCO2 and normal pH and HCO3
● D. Muscle weakness and paresthesia levels would not be the primary stimulus for breathing in this client.
orrect
C ● Option A:The inability to fully exhale also causes elevations in carbon
Correct Answer: A. Tented skin turgor and thirst dioxide (CO2) levels. As the disease progresses, impairment of gas
Hypernatremia refers to elevated serum sodium levels, usually above 145 mEq/L. exchange is often seen. The reduction in ventilation or increase in
Typically, the client exhibits tented skin turgor and thirst in conjunction with dry, sticky physiologic dead space leads to CO2 retention. Pulmonary hypertension
mucous membranes, lethargy, and restlessness. Most patients present with symptoms may occur due to diffuse vasoconstriction from hypoxemia.
suggestive of fluid loss and clinical signs of dehydration. Symptoms and signs of ● Option C:An acid-base disturbance arises when arterial pH lies outside
hypernatremia are secondary to central nervous system dysfunction and are seen when that range. If pH is less than 7.35 an acidosis is present, if pH is greater
serum sodium rises rapidly or is greater than 160 meq/L. than 7.45 the alkalosis is present. Tight control on blood pH is achieved
● Option B:Muscle twitching and tetany may be seen with hypercalcemia by a combination of blood buffers and the respiratory and renal systems
or hyperphosphatemia. CNS features include delirium, coma, seizures, which make adjustments to return pH toward its normal levels.
neuromuscular hyperexcitability, (Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s ● Option D:Acidosis can be caused by either a rise in PaCO2 or a fall in
phenomenon), hyperreflexia, muscle cramping (e.g., carpopedal spasm), HCO3. Alkalosis can be caused by either a fall in PaCO2 or a rise in
or tetany. HCO3. When the primary change is in CO2 we name the disturbance
● Option C:Fruity breath and Kussmaul’s respirations are associated with respiratory, and when the primary change is in bicarbonate, we name the
diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul breathing, which is labored, deep, and disturbance metabolic.
tachypneic, may occur. Some providers may appreciate a fruity scent to 22. Question
the patient’s breath, indicative of the presence of acetone. Patients may 1 point(s)
have signs of dehydration, including poor capillary refill, skin turgor, and A client with a very dry mouth, skin, and mucous membranes is diagnosed with
dry mucous membranes. dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse perform when caring for a client
● Option D:Muscle weakness and paresthesia are associated with diagnosed with fluid volume deficit?
hypokalemia. Significant muscle weakness occurs at serum potassium ● A. Assessing urinary intake and output.
levels below 2.5 mmol/L but can occur at higher levels if the onset is
● B. Obtaining the client's weight weekly at different times of the day.
acute. Similar to the weakness associated with hyperkalemia, the pattern
is ascending in nature affecting the lower extremities, progressing to ● C. Monitoring arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
involve the trunk and upper extremities, and potentially advancing to ● D. Maintaining I.V. therapy at the keep-vein-open rate.
paralysis. orrect
C
21. Question Correct Answer: A. Assessing urinary intake and output.
1 point(s) For the client with fluid volume deficit, assessing the client’s urine output (using a
Mang Teban has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and has the urometer if necessary) is essential to ensure an output of at least 30 ml/hour. Assess
following arterial blood gas results: partial pressure of oxygen (PO2), 55 mm Hg, and color and amount of urine. Report urine output less than 30 ml/hr for 2 consecutive
partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), 60 mm Hg. When attempting to improve the hours. A normal urine output is considered normal not less than 30ml/hour.
client’s blood gas values through improved ventilation and oxygen therapy, which is the Concentrated urine denotes fluid deficit.
client’s primary stimulus for breathing? ● Option B:The client should be weighed daily, not weekly, and at the
● A. High PCO2 same time each day, usually in the morning. Weigh daily with the same
● B. Low PO2 scale, and preferably at the same time of day. Weight is the best
assessment data for possible fluid volume imbalance. An increase of 2
● C. Normal pH
lbs a week is considered normal.
● D. Normal bicarbonate (HCO3) ● Option C:Monitoring ABGs is not necessary for this client. Rather,
orrect
C serum electrolyte levels would most likely be evaluated. Monitor serum
Correct Answer: B. Low PO2 electrolytes and urine osmolality, and report abnormal values. Elevated
lood urea nitrogen suggests fluid deficit. Urine-specific gravity is
b ● D. Teaching the client the importance of early ambulation.
likewise increased. orrect
C
● Option D:The client also would have an I.V. rate of at least 75 ml/hour, if Correct Answer: A. Instituting seizure precaution to prevent injury.
not higher, to correct the fluid volume deficit. Administer parenteral fluids Instituting seizure precaution is an appropriate intervention because the client with
as prescribed. Consider the need for an IV fluid challenge with an hypomagnesemia is at risk for seizures. Changes in mentation or the development of
immediate infusion of fluids for patients with abnormal vital signs. seizure activity in severe low magnesium increase the risk of client injury. Provide a quiet
23. Question environment and subdued lighting. Reduces extraneous stimuli; promotes rest.
1 point(s) ● Option B:Hypophosphatemia may produce changes in granulocytes,
Which client situation requires the nurse to discuss the importance of avoiding foods which would require the nurse to instruct the client about measures to
high in potassium? prevent infection. Mild hypophosphatemia will not be clinically apparent.
● A. A 14-year-old who is taking diuretics. Severe hypophosphatemia may have the clinical presence of altered
● B. A 16-year-old with ileostomy. mental status, neurological instability including seizures and focal
neurologic findings such as numbness or reflexive weakness, a cardiac
● C. A 16-year-old with metabolic acidosis.
manifestation of possible heart failure, muscle pain, and muscular
● D. An 18-year-old who has renal disease. weakness.
orrect
C ● Option C:Avoiding the use of a tight tourniquet when drawing blood
Correct Answer: D. An 18-year-old who has renal disease. helps prevent pseudohyperkalemia. Assess the level of consciousness
Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high and neuromuscular function, including sensation, strength, and
in potassium. Clients receiving diuretics, with ileostomies, or with metabolic acidosis may movement. The client is usually conscious and alert; however, muscular
be hypokalemic and should be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium. Encourage paresthesia, weakness, and flaccid paralysis may occur.
intake of carbohydrates and fats and low potassium food such as pineapple, plums, ● Option D:Early ambulation is recommended to reduce calcium loss from
strawberries, carrots, cauliflower, corn, and whole grains. Reduces exogenous sources bones during hospitalization. Encourage frequent repositioning and
of potassium and prevents metabolic tissue breakdown with the release of cellular range-of-motion (ROM) and/or muscle-setting exercises with caution.
potassium. Promote ambulation as tolerated. Muscle activity may reduce calcium
● Option A:A client receiving diuretics may be hypokalemic. Encourage shifting from the bones that occur during immobilization.
high potassium diet such as oranges, bananas, tomatoes, coffee, red 25. Question
meat, and dried fruits. Discuss the use of potassium chloride salt 1 point(s)
substitutes for a client receiving long-term diuretics. Which electrolyte would the nurse identify as the major electrolyte responsible for
● Option B:Patients with ileostomies may have hypokalemia. Potassium determining the concentration of the extracellular fluid?
may be replaced and level maintained through the diet when the client is ● A. Potassium
allowed oral food and fluids. Dietary replacement of 40 to 60 mEq/L/day
● B. Phosphate
is usually sufficient if no abnormal losses are happening.
● Option C:Patients with metabolic disease may be hypokalemic. Note for ● C. Chloride
signs of metabolic alkalosis such as tachycardia, dysrhythmias, ● D. Sodium
hypoventilation, tetany, and changes in mentation. These are usually orrect
C
associated with hypokalemia. Correct Answer: D. Sodium
24. Question Sodium is the electrolyte whose level is the primary determinant of the extracellular fluid
1 point(s) concentration. Sodium a cation (e.g., positively charged ion), is the major electrolyte in
Genevieve is diagnosed with hypomagnesemia, which nursing intervention would be extracellular fluid. Sodium, which is an osmotically active anion, is one of the most
appropriate? important electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. It is responsible for maintaining the
● A. Instituting seizure precaution to prevent injury. extracellular fluid volume, and also for regulation of the membrane potential of cells.
● B. Instructing the client on the importance of preventing infection. Sodium is exchanged along with potassium across cell membranes as part of active
transport.
● C. Avoiding the use of tight tourniquet when drawing blood.
● O ption A:Potassium (a cation) is a major electrolyte in the intracellular s etting of cardiac toxicity. Calcium does not alter the serum concentration
fluid. Potassium is mainly an intracellular ion. The sodium-potassium of potassium but is a first-line therapy in hyperkalemia-related
adenosine triphosphatase pump has the primary responsibility for arrhythmias and ECG changes.
regulating the homeostasis between sodium and potassium, which ● Option D:Sodium bicarbonate infusion may be helpful in patients with
pumps out sodium in exchange for potassium, which moves into the metabolic acidosis. Bolus dosing of sodium bicarbonate is less effective.
cells. Loop or thiazide diuretics may be helpful in enhancing potassium
● Option B:Phosphate (an anion) is a major electrolyte in the intracellular excretion. They may be used in non-oliguric, volume overloaded patients
fluid. Phosphate is an essential electrolyte in the human body as it but should not be used as monotherapy in symptomatic patients.
constitutes about 1% of the total body weight. In an adult, the normal 27. Question
serum phosphate level ranges between 2.5 to 4.5 mg/d L. The normal 1 point(s)
serum levels of phosphate tend to decrease with age and its highest Which clinical manifestation would lead the nurse to suspect that a client is experiencing
levels i.e., 4.5 to 8.3 mg/dL are seen in infants, about 50% higher than hypermagnesemia?
adults; this is because infants and children need more phosphate for their ● A. Muscle pain and acute rhabdomyolysis
growth and development.
● B. Hot flushed skin and diaphoresis
● Option C:Chloride, an anion (e.g., negatively charged ion), is also
present in extracellular fluid, but to a lesser extent. Chloride is an anion ● C. Soft-tissue calcification and hyperreflexia
found predominantly in the extracellular fluid. The kidneys predominantly ● D. Increased respiratory rate and depth
regulate serum chloride levels. Most of the chloride, which is filtered by orrect
C
the glomerulus, is reabsorbed by both proximal and distal tubules Correct Answer: B. Hot, flushed skin and diaphoresis
(majorly by proximal tubule) by both active and passive transport. Hypermagnesemia is manifested by hot, flushed skin and diaphoresis. The client also
26. Question may exhibit hypotension, lethargy, drowsiness, and absent deep tendon reflexes. The
1 point(s) most frequent symptoms and signs may include weakness, nausea, dizziness, and
Jon has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which medication would nurse Wilma confusion (less than 7.0 mg/dL). Increasing values (7 to 12 mg/dL) induce decreased
anticipate? reflexes, worsening confusional state, drowsiness, bladder paralysis, flushing,
● A. Potassium supplements headache, and constipation.
● B. Kayexalate ● Option A:Muscle pain and acute rhabdomyolysis are indicative of
hypophosphatemia. Mild hypophosphatemia will not be clinically
● C. Calcium gluconate
apparent. Severe hypophosphatemia may have the clinical presence of
● D. Sodium tablets altered mental status, neurological instability including seizures and focal
orrect
C neurologic findings such as numbness or reflexive weakness, a cardiac
Correct Answer: B. Kayexalate manifestation of possible heart failure, muscle pain, and muscular
The client’s potassium level is elevated; therefore, Kayexalate would be ordered to help weakness.
reduce the potassium level. Kayexalate is a cation-exchange resin, which can be given ● Option C:Soft-tissue calcification and hyperreflexia are indicative of
orally, by nasogastric tube, or by retention enema. Potassium is drawn from the bowel hyperphosphatemia. Calcifications can also be present in skin, soft
and excreted through the feces. tissue, and periarticular regions. Prolonged bone demineralization can
● Option A:Because the client’s potassium level is already elevated, lead to bone fractures. CNS features include delirium, coma, seizures,
potassium supplements would not be given. Patients with neuromuscular neuromuscular hyperexcitability, (Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s
weakness, paralysis, or ECG changes and elevated potassium of more phenomenon), hyperreflexia, muscle cramping (e.g., carpopedal spasm)
than 5.5 mEq/L in patients at risk for ongoing hyperkalemia, or confirmed or tetany.
hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L should have aggressive treatment. ● Option D:Increased respiratory rate and depth are associated with
Exogenous sources of potassium should be immediately discontinued. metabolic acidosis. The physical exam reveals signs unique to each
● Option C:Neither calcium gluconate nor sodium tablets would address cause such as dry mucous membranes in the patient with diabetic
the client’s elevated potassium level. Calcium therapy will stabilize the ketoacidosis. Hyperventilation may also be present as a compensatory
cardiac response to hyperkalemia and should be initiated first in the respiratory alkalosis to assist with PCO2 elimination and correction of the
cidemia. Compensatory reactions do not completely correct a
a m Hg, and a bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L. Based on these results, which intervention
m
disturbance to the normal pH range. should the nurse implement?
8. Question
2 ● A. Instructing the client to breathe slowly into a paper bag.
1 point(s)
● B. Administering low-flow oxygen.
Joshua is receiving furosemide and Digoxin, which laboratory data would be themost
important to assess in planning the care for the client? ● C. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe.
● A. Sodium level ● D. Nothing, because these ABG values are within normal limits.
● B. Magnesium level orrect
C
Correct Answer: C. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe.
● C. Potassium level
The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis requiring improved ventilation and
● D. Calcium level increased oxygen to the lungs. Coughing and deep breathing can accomplish this.
orrect
C Encourage and assist with deep-breathing exercises, turning, and coughing. Suction as
Correct Answer: C. Potassium level necessary. Provide airway adjunct as indicated. Place in semi-Fowler’s position. These
Diuretics such as furosemide may deplete serum potassium, leading to hypokalemia. measures improve lung ventilation and reduce or prevent airway obstruction associated
When the client is also taking digoxin, the subsequent hypokalemia may potentiate the with the accumulation of mucus.
action of digoxin, placing the client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Most cases of hypokalemia ● Option A:Breathing into a paper bag is appropriate for a client
result from gastrointestinal (GI) or renal losses. Renal potassium losses are associated hyperventilating and experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Provide
with increased mineralocorticoid-receptor stimulation such as occurs with primary appropriate chest physiotherapy, including postural drainage and
hyperreninism and primary aldosteronism. breathing exercises. Aids in clearing secretions, which improves
● Option A:Diuretic therapy may lead to the loss of other electrolytes such ventilation, allowing excess CO2 to be eliminated.
as sodium, but the loss of potassium in association with digoxin therapy ● Option B:The nurse would administer high oxygen levels because the
is most important. Increased delivery of sodium and/or non-absorbable client does not have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Administer
ions (diuretic therapy, magnesium deficiency, genetic syndromes) to the oxygen as indicated. Increase respiratory rate or tidal volume of the
distal nephron can also result in renal potassium wasting. GI losses are a ventilator, if used. Prevents and corrects hypoxemia and respiratory
common cause of hypokalemia with severe or chronic diarrhea being the failure.
most common extrarenal cause of hypokalemia. ● Option D:Some action is necessary because the ABG results are not
● Option B:Hypomagnesemia generally is associated with poor nutrition, within normal limits. Monitor and graph serial ABGs, pulse oximetry
alcoholism, and excessive GI or renal losses, not diuretic therapy. readings; Hb, serum electrolyte levels. Evaluates therapy need and
Magnesium homeostasis involves the kidney (primarily through the effectiveness. Note: Bedside pulse oximetry monitoring is used to show
proximal tubule, the thick ascending loop of Henle, and the distal tubule), early changes in oxygenation before other signs or symptoms are
small bowel (primarily through the jejunum and ileum), and bone. observed.
Hypomagnesemia occurs when something, whether a drug or a disease 30. Question
condition, alters the homeostasis of magnesium. 1 point(s)
● Option D:Hypocalcemia is usually associated with inadequate vitamin D A client is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis, which would the nurse expect the health
intake or synthesis, renal failure, or the use of drugs, such as care provider to order?
aminoglycosides and corticosteroids. Calcitonin on the other hand lowers ● A. Potassium
levels of calcium. Hypocalcemia is a common cause of tetany and
● B. Sodium bicarbonate
neuromuscular irritability. An alkaline environment lowers calcium levels
and induces tetany, whereas an acidic environment is protective. ● C. Serum sodium level
29. Question ● D. Bronchodilator
1 point(s) orrect
C
Mr. Salcedo has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH of 7.34, partial Correct Answer: B. Sodium bicarbonate
pressure of arterial oxygen of 80 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide of 49 Metabolic acidosis results from excessive absorption or retention of acid or excessive
excretion of bicarbonate. A base is needed. Sodium bicarbonate is a base and is used to
treat documented metabolic acidosis. The management of metabolic acidosis should
address the cause of the underlying acid-base derangement. For example, adequate
fluid resuscitation and correction of electrolyte abnormalities are necessary for sepsis
and diabetic ketoacidosis. Potassium, serum sodium determinations, and a
bronchodilator would be inappropriate orders for this client.
● Option A:The chief indication for potassium administration is potassium
deficiency or hypokalemia, a condition in which serum potassium level
falls below a critical range. Hypokalemia can occur due to multiple
reasons, mainly inadequate intake of potassium. Metabolic alkalosis can
also cause hypokalemia by shifting potassium from the extracellular to
the intracellular compartment.
● Option C:Among the electrolyte disorders, hyponatremia is the most
frequent. Diagnosis is when the serum sodium level less than 135
mmol/L. Hyponatremia has neurological manifestations. Patients may
present with headache, confusion, nausea, delirium. Hypernatremia
presents when the serum sodium levels greater than145 mmol/L.
Symptoms of hypernatremia include tachypnea, sleeping difficulty, and
feeling restless. Rapid sodium corrections can have serious
consequences like cerebral edema and osmotic demyelination
syndrome.
● Option D:Bronchodilators are indicated for individuals that have lower
than optimal airflow through the lungs. The mainstay of treatment is
beta-2 agonists that target the smooth muscles in the bronchioles of the
lung. Various respiratory conditions may require bronchodilators,
including asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.