Human Performance All

1. According to Annex 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation,

competency is defined as…
A) a collection of practical and theoretical knowledge, cognitive skills, behaviour and values
used to improve performance.
B) a mental state or quality of being adequately or well qualified, having the ability to perform
a specific role.
C) a combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to perform a task to the
prescribed standard.
D) a set of behaviours that provide a structured guide for the identification, evaluation and
development of the behaviours in individuals.

2. Competence of an individual pilot is based on…

A) focus, age, and knowledge.
B) rules, character, and upbringing.
C) age, skill, and determination.
D) knowledge, skill, and ability.

3. “A pilot becomes skilled when he/she:1. trains or practises regularly2.

knows how to manage himself/herself3. possesses all the knowledge
associated with the aircraft4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for
coping with the unexpected.”
A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2, 3, and 4

4. The percentage of aeroplane accidents caused by human error is

approximately…
A) 40 &.
B) 60 &.
C) 50 &.
D) 70 &.

5. As a cause of accidents, the human factor…

A) has increased considerably since 1980 & the percentage of accident in which this factor
has been involved has more than tripled since this date.
B) is cited in approximately 70 & & 80 & of aviation accidents.
C) which is cited in current statistics applies to flight crew and ATC only.
D) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in
general aviation.

6. The root causes of commercial aircraft accidents include mechanical failure,

human error, organisational factors, weather&related causes, etc. In general
terms, among these causes…
A) human factors represent the largest contributing cause.
B) aircraft technical failures are the biggest indirect contributor.
C) mismanagement of cockpit automation has been steadily increasing.
D) pilot training deficiencies rank among the leading root causes.

7. Threat and Error Management &TEM& is an overarching safety concept

regarding aviation operations and human performance. Within the TEM
framework, and according to ICAO Annex 1 on Personnel Licensing, error is
defined as…
A) an event that occurs beyond the influence of an operational person that must be
managed to maintain the margin of safety.
B) an erroneous, perception, belief or mental state by an operational person that does not
conform to an organisation’s objective reality.
C) an intentional deviation by an operational person from a known process or procedures
with undesired consequences.
D) an action or inaction by an operational person that leads to deviations from organisational
or the operational person’s intentions or expectations.

8. Which of the following is an environmental threat according to the TEM

&Threat and Error Management& model?
A) A crew&scheduling error.
B) A maintenance error.
C) Aircraft hardware design.
D) A contaminated runway.

9. The three basic components of the Threat and Error Management &TEM&
model are, from the perspective of flight crews, threats, errors and undesired
aircraft states. With regard to errors, the TEM model…
A) considers three categories of errors, namely aircraft handling, procedural and
communications.
B) differentiates between three kinds of errors, namely aircraft handling, navigation and
aircraft configuration.
C) distinguishes three classes of errors, namely operational, organisational and
environmental.
D) recognizes three types of human errors, namely anticipated, unanticipated and latent
errors.

10. Which of the following can be classified as a latent threat to flight crew?
A) An equipment design issue.
B) Flying into a known, congested airport.
C) An in&flight aircraft malfunction.
D) A predicted thunderstorm.

11. Between which two components of the SHELL model does pilot
misinterpretation of the analogue three&point altimeter occur?
A) Liveware & Software
B) Liveware & Liveware
C) Liveware & Hardware
D) Liveware & Environment

12. The errors resulting from an illogical indexing system in an operations

manual are related, according to the SHELL model, to a conflict between…
A) Liveware & Hardware.
B) Liveware & Environment.
C) Liveware & Liveware.
D) Liveware & Software.

13. A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL
concept of…
A) L and H.
B) L and L.
C) L and E.
D) L and S.

14. With reference to the SHELL Model, S represents…

A) Self&awareness &which includes safety&.
B) Security &which includes safety&.
C) Symbology &which includes safety&
D) Software &which includes checklists&.

15. Which of the following options lists the elements of the SHELL concept?
A) Software, hardware, environment, and liveware.
B) Concept. Software, hardware, economy, and liveware.
C) Software, hardware, environment, and location.
D) Software, harmony, environment, and location.

16. Thinking on human reliability is changing.

A) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
B) Human errors are now considered as being inevitable
C) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one’s knowledge
D) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety

17. Which answer only describes sub&categories of threats according to the

TEM concept?
A) Aircraft situation, communication.
B) Organisation, environment.
C) Ground navigation, aircraft configuration.
D) Aircraft handling, procedural.

18. According to James Reason, an organisation which collects and analyses

relevant data relates to which component of safety culture?
A) Reporting
B) Learning
C) Informed
D) Just

19. Which of the following factors contributes to a safety culture?

A) Developing trust through rewarding good employees and punishing those who make
mistakes.
B) Encouraging employees to report errors while taking minimum corrective action.
C) Safety being primarily an issue imposed on the employees by various administrative
systems.
D) The highest levels of management making the necessary resources available.

20. Civil aviation is generally recognised for being…

A) an open culture activity.
B) an open culture but restricted to maintenance personnel.
C) an open culture but restricted to cabin crew.
D) a closed culture activity.

21. Safety culture is…

A) NOT a sub&set of national culture.
B) NOT a product of national culture.
C) considered to be a sub&set of national culture.
D) considered to be independent of national culture.

22. When the opinions of members of society in a high power distance culture
contradict those of their superiors, they…
A) are likely to speak out.
B) are unlikely to speak out.
C) are required to speak out.
D) will be asked to speak out.

23. Confrontation in high power distance cultures is…

A) always avoided.
B) generally avoided.
C) generally promoted.
D) always promoted.

24. In an organisation where a good safety culture is predominant, the

accountability rests largely with…
A) the board members.
B) management.
C) share holders.
D) individuals.

25. An aircraft climbs from 0 to 50000 ft and the decrease in the pressure per
5000 ft is measured. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest
between…
A) 10000 ft and 15000 ft.
B) 0 ft and 5000 ft.
C) 45000 and 50000 ft.
D) 5000 ft and 10000 ft.

26. The atmosphere contains the following gases:

A) 78 & nitrogen, 21 & oxygen, 0.03 & carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases.
B) 78 & oxygen, 21 & nitrogen, 1 & carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases.
C) 78 & helium, 21 & oxygen, 0.03 & carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases.
D) 78 & helium, 21 & oxygen, 1 & carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases.

27. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21 &, which…

A) increases with increasing altitude.
B) is dependent on the present air pressure.
C) is constant at all altitudes for conventional aircraft.
D) decreases with increasing altitude.

28. The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34000 ft

is…
A) 21 &.
B) 5 &.
C) 42 &.
D) 10.5 &.

29. The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level
at…
A) 30000 feet.
B) 25000 feet.
C) 18000 feet.
D) 10000 feet.

30. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30000 feet remains
at 21 &, but the partial pressure of oxygen…
A) decreases with decreasing barometric pressure.
B) remains constant, independent from altitude.
C) increases by expansion.
D) decreases significantly with lower temperatures.

31. Air at an altitude of 18000 feet contains approximately…

A) 21 & oxygen.
B) 5 & oxygen.
C) 10 & oxygen.
D) 15 & oxygen.

32. Dry air is a mixture of gases whose volume percentage is about…

A) 21 & oxygen, 78 & nitrogen, 1 & other gases.
B) 18 & oxygen, 80 & nitrogen, 2 & other gases.
C) 19 & oxygen, 80 & nitrogen, 1 & other gases.
D) 25 & oxygen, 74 & nitrogen, 1 & other gases.

33. Boyle’s law is directly applicable in case of…

A) the occurrence of decompression sickness at high altitude.
B) the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude.
C) hyperventilation with increasing altitude.
D) the occurrence of hypoxia with increasing altitude.

34. Dalton’s law explains the occurrence of…

A) bends.
B) altitude hypoxia.
C) hyperventilation.
D) creeps.

35. The changes in atmospheric gas pressure…

A) decrease in a linear manner with altitude.
B) decrease more slowly at lower altitudes, compared with at higher levels.
C) rise with altitude.
D) with altitude are non&linear, with a higher rate of change at lower levels.

36. You can survive at any altitude, provided that…

A) pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude.
B) “the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10?” C.”
C) 21 & oxygen is available in the air you breath in.
D) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available.

37. Below 70000 ft, what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Ozone
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

38. What is the effect of increasing altitude on the total pressure and partial
pressure of the main gases in the atmosphere?
A) The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will increase.
B) The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will decrease.
C) The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will remain constant.
D) The total pressure remains constant and the partial pressures will decrease.

39. The percentage of oxygen in the troposphere in dry air…

A) is dependent of the partial pressure which is constant above sea level.
B) is variable because oxygen replaces water vapour.
C) is independent of altitude.
D) increases with longitude.

40. The percentage of oxygen in cabin air…

A) varies with cabin altitude.
B) is the same as at sea level.
C) will reduce during a rapid decompression.
D) is proportional to the cabin pressure.

41. At what International standard atmosphere &ISA& altitude is the

atmospheric pressure reduced by half?
A) 34000 ft
B) 18000 ft
C) 22000 ft
D) 10000 ft

42. Mark the physiological relevance of Dalton’s Law.

A) Decompression sickness because of dissolved nitrogen in the body.
B) Hyperventilation because of increased carbon monoxide level.
C) Barofunctionary deficiencies because of gas extension.
D) Oxygen deficiency because of decreased oxygen partial pressure.

43. How much does the barometric pressure decrease at 18000 ft in

comparison to the mean sea level?
A) 35 &
B) 50 &
C) 25 &
D) 65 &

44. Breathing 100 & oxygen at 40000 ft is equivalent to breathing ambient air
at…
A) 18000 ft
B) 14000 ft
C) 8000 ft
D) 10000 ft

45. At which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100 & oxygen under pressure
after a rapid decompression?
A) Approximately 40000 ft.
B) Approximately 20000 ft.
C) Approximately 50000 ft.
D) Approximately 14000 ft.

46. “Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during

flying.Which of the following statements is correct?”
A) Carbon monoxide has no affinity to haemoglobin.
B) Carbon monoxide is odourless and colourless.
C) With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning can be
compensated for.
D) Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood.
47. Carbon monoxide poisoning…
A) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT.
B) only occurs in jet&driven aeroplanes.
C) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes whose cabin is heated by passing cabin air over the
exhaust manifold&s&.
D) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin engines because of high engine efficiency.

48. Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?

A) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.
B) A very early symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.
C) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
D) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

49. Which gas most readily combines with haemoglobin?

A) Carbon monoxide
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

50. Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?

A) It combines five times faster to the haemoglobin than oxygen.
B) It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.
C) It can be readily detected by the smell.
D) It is found in the smoke of cigarettes, and raises the smoker’s physiological altitude.

51. Hypoxia is caused by…

A) reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung.
B) a higher affinity of the red blood cells &haemoglobin& to oxygen.
C) reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung.
D) an increased number of red blood cells.

52. A pilot may suffer from hypoxia…

A) after decompression to 30000 feet and using 100 & oxygen via an oxygen mask.
B) if the rate of climb exceeds 5000 ft/min.
C) if he/she is flying an unpressurised aeroplane at an altitude of 15000 feet and breathing
100 & oxygen.
D) after decompression at high altitude and not using additional oxygen in time.

53. Which of the following is/are the symptom&s& of hypoxia?

A) Pain in the joints.
B) Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area.
C) Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria.
D) Low blood pressure.

54. The symptoms of hypoxia include…

A) nausea and barotitis.
B) dull headache and bends.
C) dizziness and hypothermia.
D) visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.

55. Which statement applies to hypoxia?

A) Carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency.
B) It is possible to predict when, how, and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in.
C) Sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia vary from person to person.
D) You may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia.

56. The most dangerous symptom&s& of hypoxia at altitude is/are…

A) sensation of heat and blurred vision.
B) dehydration.
C) the bends.
D) euphoria and impairment of judgement.

57. Hyperventilation can lead to…

A) cyanosis, causing the finger nails and lips to turn blue.
B) exhalation of an increased amount of carbon dioxide, causing muscular spasms and
unconsciousness.
C) an improvement in peripheral and scotopic vision.
D) more oxygen reaching the brain.

58. Which of the following symptoms can mark the onset of hyperventilation?
A) Slow rate of breathing
B) Slow heart beat
C) Cyanosis
D) Dizzy feeling

59. What is/are the most effective measure&s& to counteract hyperventilation

in a person?
A) Get the person to hold their breath.
B) Speak soothingly and get the person to control his breathing.
C) Increase their rate of breathing.
D) Increase their activity levels.

60. Which of the following could a pilot experience when he/she is

hyperventilating?
A) Cyanosis
B) Blue lips
C) Improved visual performance
D) Dizziness

61. What is/are the most likely cause&s& of hyperventilation?

A) Fear, anxiety and distress
B) Abuse of alcohol
C) Extreme low rate of breathing
D) Fatigue
62. A pilot is most likely to experience hyperventilation when…
A) flying a tight turn.
B) there is a low CO pressure in the blood.
C) there is an increased blood flow to the brain.
D) emotionally aroused.

63. The most common symptom of decompression sickness is…

A) red&coloured cheeks and lips.
B) the chokes.
C) neurological damage to the CNS.
D) the bends.

64. Hypoxia is…

A) often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to
the direction in which the aircraft is turning.
B) a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate
by decreasing the heart rate.
C) a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while
hyperventilating.
D) a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues,
causing impaired thinking, poor judgement, and slow reactions.

65. Hyperventilation is caused by an excessive rate of breathing and can

produce…
A) a reduced heart rate and an increase in visual acuity.
B) blue finger&nails and lips.
C) dizziness, a tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea, and blurred vision.
D) a state of overconfidence, reduced heart rate, and a decrease in body temperature.

66. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe
flight?
A) The degradation of reasoning and perceptive functions.
B) Lack of accommodation.
C) Dizziness.
D) Lack of adaptation.

67. “A pilot, climbing in a non&pressurised aircraft and without using

supplemental oxygen, will pass the “”critical threshold”” at approximately…”
A) 16000 ft.
B) 12000 ft.
C) 38000 ft.
D) 20000 ft.

68. Breathing pure oxygen &without pressure& will be sufficient up to an

altitude of…
A) 45000 ft.
B) 80000 ft.
C) 40000 ft.
D) 60000 ft.

69. TUC &Time of Useful Consciousness& is…

A) the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure loss.
B) the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets in.
C) measured from the moment at which an individual starts being exposed to hypoxia and
death.
D) “the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical
efficiency

70. “The “”Time of Useful Consciousness”” after a decompression at 35000 ft

is…”
A) between 30 and 60 seconds.
B) approximately 3 minutes.
C) less than 20 seconds.
D) approximately 5 minutes.

71. After a decompression to 43000 ft the TUC &Time of Useful

Consciousness& will be approximately…
A) 30 to 45 seconds.
B) 45 to 60 seconds.
C) 60 to 90 seconds.
D) 5 to 15 seconds.

72. Flights immediately after SCUBA diving with compressed gas, to depths
greater than 10 metres,…
A) can be performed without any danger.
B) are to be avoided because of the possibility of decompression sickness.
C) should be avoided because hypoxia may develop.
D) are allowed if the pilot flies below 38000 ft.

73. “Pain in the joints &””bends””& is a symptom of…”

A) barotrauma.
B) air sickness.
C) hypoxia.
D) decompression sickness.

74. After a cabin pressure loss at approximately 35000 ft the TUC &Time of
Useful Consciousness& will be approximately…
A) 10 to 15 seconds.
B) 30 to 40 seconds.
C) 5 minutes or more.
D) 3 to 4 minutes.

75. “You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any

decompression sickness symptoms.What should you do before flying again?”
A) Nothing, you may fly immediately.
B) Delay your next flight for 6 hours.
C) Seek aeromedical advice only if the symptoms become apparent.
D) Seek prompt aeromedical advice.

76. Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment to a

depth greater than 10 metres is not advisable because it…
A) prevents any dangers caused by DCS &Decompression Sickness& when climbing to
altitudes not exceeding 30000 ft.
B) will always lead to hypoxia.
C) can cause decompression sickness even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18000
ft.
D) has no influence on altitude flights.

77. Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to…

A) sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 ft.
B) emergency descents without cabin pressure loss.
C) fast flights from a high&pressure zone into a low&pressure area when flying an
unpressurised aeroplane.
D) cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes &above 18000 ft&.

78. “Which option correctly identifies, from the list below, all the symptoms
that a pilot may experience when subjected to hypoxia?1. Fatigue2. Euphoria3.
Lack of concentration4. Pain in the joints5. Pain in the inner ear”
A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 5 only.
C) 4 and 5 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only.

79. Hyperventilation causes…

A) an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood.
B) an increase of nitrogen in the blood.
C) hypochondria.
D) a reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood.

80. Anxiety and fear can cause…

A) hypoxia.
B) hyperventilation.
C) hypoglycaemia.
D) spatial disorientation.

81. Which statement is correct?

A) Oxygen is mainly transported in plasma.
B) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea level.
C) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood is independent of the partial oxygen
pressure.
D) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on the partial oxygen pressure
gradient.
82. In order to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise…
A) that triples the resting heart rate for 20 minutes should be taken once a week.
B) that increases the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes should be taken three times a
week.
C) should be avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart.
D) that doubles the resting heart rate for at least an hour should be taken five times a week.

83. “””The Bends”” as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of…”

A) pain in the thorax and a cough.
B) pain in the joints.
C) loss of peripheral vision.
D) CNS disturbances.

84. In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent
flights should be delayed by at least…
A) 24 hours.
B) 36 hours after any scuba diving.
C) 3 hours after non decompression diving.
D) 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made.

85. With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, it is known

that…
A) physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness
symptoms.
B) gender is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to it.
C) SCUBA diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent flight.
D) age, obesity, and SCUBA diving are risk factors.

86. “The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to which of the
following?1. Physical activity of the subjected crew2. The experience of the
pilot on the type of aircraft in question3. The strength and time of
decompression4. The time of day”
A) 4
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 1, 3

87. What is hypoxia?

A) A state characterised by an excessive supply of oxygen, which may be due to
maladjustment of the mask.
B) The total absence of oxygen in the blood of the body.
C) Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below the limits to meet the
needs of the body tissues.
D) The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness.

88. What could be symptoms of hypoxia &when flying without oxygen& above
12000 ft?
A) Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, and slowing of the rate of
breathing.
B) Headache, fatigue, dizziness, and lack of coordination.
C) Headache, thirst, somnolence, and collapse.
D) Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, and loss of consciousness.

89. What is the procedure above 10000 ft altitude when faced with explosive
decompression?
A) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight.
B) First inform ATC.
C) Put on an oxygen mask, declare an emergency, and descend to below 10000 ft if terrain
clearance permits.
D) Descend to below 10000 ft and signal an emergency.

90. What is the approximate Time of Useful Consciousness for a seated pilot
following a rapid decompression at 35000 ft?
A) 3 seconds
B) 12 seconds
C) 45 seconds
D) 5 minutes

91. Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression

sickness occur?
A) Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary.
B) Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before
climbing again.
C) Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible.
D) Only medical treatment is of use.

92. What is decompression sickness?

A) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people’s
capabilities.
B) A condition resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids
after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude.
C) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18000 ft.
D) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
aircraft.

93. When exhaling, the expired air contains…

A) more oxygen than the inhaled air.
B) more nitrogen than the inhaled air.
C) more carbon dioxide than the inspired air.
D) less water vapour than the inhaled air.

94. Healthy people are usually capable of compensating for a lack of oxygen
up to…
A) 25000 ft.
B) 10000 ft to 12000 ft.
C) 20000 ft.
D) 15000 ft.

95. When flying above 10000 feet hypoxia arises because the…
A) percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level.
B) composition of the blood changes.
C) partial oxygen pressure is lower than is required.
D) composition of the air is different from sea level.

96. Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells…

A) have a shortage of carbon dioxide.
B) have a shortage of oxygen.
C) are saturated with nitrogen.
D) are saturated with oxygen.

97. One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety
is…
A) hyperventilation, causing emotional stress.
B) impaired judgement.
C) cyanosis, reducing the pilot’s ability to hear.
D) reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin.

98. “Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia?1. Blue lips and
finger nails2. Euphoria3. Stomach pain4. Unconsciousness”
A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

99. You are crossing the Alps in a non&pressurised aircraft at an altitude of

15000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is
unsafe, because…
A) you will get the bends.
B) the blood pressure can get too high.
C) your judgement could be impaired.
D) the blood&pressure can get too low.

100. During a night flight at 10000 feet you notice that your visual acuity has
decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by…
A) dimming the instrument lights.
B) closing one eye.
C) scanning sectors of the field of vision.
D) breathing supplementary oxygen.

101. “During flight all crew members have one or more of the following
symptoms:1. blue lips2. mental disturbances3. tingling sensations in arms
and/or legs4. reduction of peripheral vision.Which is the possible cause?”
A) Hypoglycaemia
B) Hypoxia
C) Glaucoma
D) Hypothermia

102. “Which measure&s& will help to compensate for hypoxia?1. Descend

below 10000 ft2. Breathe 100 & oxygen3. Climb to or above 10000 ft4. Reduce
physical activities”
A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

103. A pilot can prevent hypoxia by…

A) using additional oxygen when flying above 10000 ft.
B) relying on the body’s built&in warning system recognising any stage of hypoxia.
C) keeping a cabin pressure altitude below 20000 ft.
D) swallowing, yawning, and applying the Valsalva method.

104. A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because…
A) the heart rate is too low after blood donation.
B) the blood pressure is too high after blood donation.
C) the chance of getting the bends is higher after blood donation.
D) there is an increased susceptibility to fainting.

105. Hyperventilation is…

A) an increased lung ventilation.
B) a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood.
C) a decreased lung ventilation.
D) a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.

106. To stop hyperventilating you should…

A) descend.
B) apply the Valsalva method.
C) use the oxygen mask.
D) control your rate and depth of breathing.

107. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by…

A) controlling the rate and depth of breathing.
B) the use of drugs that stabilise blood pressure.
C) depending on instruments.
D) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide.

108. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in
the joints. Which of following answers is correct?
A) You should ask for medical advice &flight surgeon& since this is a symptom of
decompression sickness.
B) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.
C) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100 & nitrogen.
D) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some
exercise.

109. Decompression symptoms are caused by…

A) the low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air.
B) the low oxygen pressure of inhaled air.
C) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body.
D) the release of locked gases from joints.

110. In the event of rapid decompression, the first action for the flight deck
crew is to…
A) put on oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow.
B) carry out a check for structural damage.
C) transmit a mayday call.
D) descend to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA.

111. “Which of the following actions are appropriate when faced with
symptoms of decompression sickness?1. Climb to a higher level2. Descend to
the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible3. Breathe 100 &
oxygen4. Obtain medical advice about recompression after landing”
A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

112. “Decompression sickness can normally be prevented by which of the

following?1. Avoiding cabin altitudes above 18000 ft2. Maintaining cabin
pressure below 8000 when flying at high altitudes3. Performing physical
exercises before and during the flight4. Breathing 100 & oxygen for 30 minutes
prior to and during the flight”
A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

113. Following a rapid decompression at 30000 feet, the time of useful

consciousness would be about…
A) 3 to 5 minutes.
B) 5 to 10 minutes.
C) 45 seconds to 1 minute 30 seconds.
D) 10 to 12 minutes.

114. Hyperventilation is…

A) a normal, compensatory, physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure.
B) an increased heart rate caused by increasing blood pressure.
C) a reduction of partial nitrogen in the brain.
D) an increased heart rate caused by decreasing blood&pressure.

115. After a rapid decompression at 35000 feet, the time of useful

consciousness is about…
A) 15 seconds or less.
B) 5 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
D) 30 to 60 seconds.

116. After SCUBA diving &to more than 10 m depth& you have to wait a period
of time before flying. This period is at least…
A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 6 hours.
D) 12 hours.

117. “Which of the following statements is/are correct?1. Euphoria can be a

symptom of hypoxia2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to
error.”
A) 2 only
B) 1 only
C) Neither
D) 1 and 2

118. Hypoxic hypoxia is most often caused by…

A) climbing to a high altitude without additional oxygen or loss of cabin pressurisation at high
altitude.
B) fluctuations in cabin altitude due to malfunction of the cabin pressurisation system.
C) sub&aqua or scuba diving within the 48 hours following a flight.
D) descending at high speed without supplementary oxygen.

119. Which of the following gases is fundamentally responsible for

decompression sickness?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Sodium
D) Nitrogen

120. At what altitude will blood oxygen saturation affect a pilot’s judgement?
A) 20000 ft
B) 25000 ft
C) 30000 ft
D) 10000 ft
121. Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by…
A) decreased atmospheric pressure.
B) accelerations.
C) disorientation.
D) increased atmospheric pressure.

122. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the
alveoli?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Carbon dioxide

123. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body?
A) Oxidisation
B) Metabolism
C) Diffusion
D) Circulation

124. How does an increase in altitude affect the haemoglobin oxygen

saturation? As altitude increases, the haemoglobin oxygen saturation…
A) decreases.
B) will remain constant at 57 & from 24000 ft.
C) will remain constant at 97.5 & from 10000 ft.
D) increases.

125. Expanded abdominal air following rapid decompression at 30000 feet…

A) is usually not dangerous because only the partial pressure of the oxygen affects the
nervous system.
B) can be reduced if you take carbonated drinks before take&off.
C) will not cause pain if you evacuate the air via the mouth.
D) may be dangerous, causing great pain.

126. Decompression sickness/illness is characterised by…

A) over&saturated nitrogen gas molecules in the body tissues.
B) “pains in small muscles such as those in the fingers and toes, which are also known as
the “”chokes””.”
C) negligible symptoms that need neither attention nor therapy.
D) headache and dizziness caused by oxygen bubbles due to the low partial pressure of
oxygen.

127. Flying a non&pressurised light aircraft at 9000 feet, your passenger

develops blue lips. What action should you take?
A) Supply the passenger with extra oxygen, but do not reduce altitude as the partial pressure
of oxygen never results in symptoms below 10000 feet.
B) You attempt to calm the passenger and occupy him/her with suitable tasks.
C) Assuming the passenger is hyperventilating, you order him/her to stop breathing while
you supply additional oxygen.
D) Assuming the passenger is suffering from hypoxia, you reduce altitude and supply
him/her with oxygen.

128. Is it possible to survive depressurised flight at 40000 feet for more than 10
minutes?
A) Yes & provided 100 & oxygen under pressure is immediately available from masks.
B) No & because the brain can never receive sufficient oxygen at 40000 feet, even with an
oxygen mask.
C) No & because the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the lung alveoles at 40000 feet is
lower than in the blood, causing carbon dioxide to flow backwards from blood to lungs,
depleting the brain of its oxygen.
D) Yes & because the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood is independent of that in the
lungs.

129. Preventing hypoxia at altitude is achieved by…

A) hyperventilating to increase the intake of oxygen, trading oxygen for carbon dioxide.
B) reducing the contents of carbon dioxide by filtering the cabin air.
C) pressurising the air inside the aircraft to maintain oxygen saturation in the blood of 30 &.
D) pressurising the air inside the aircraft to achieve oxygen saturation in the blood of more
than 90 &.

130. During a rapid decompression in a two&crew aircraft, the other pilot

becomes incapacitated. Your first action is to…
A) commence an emergency descent.
B) don your own oxygen mask.
C) administer oxygen to the other pilot.
D) call for immediate assistance from cabin crew.

131. During a steady climb above flight level 100, if cabin pressurisation fails,
the…
A) onset of anaemia causes hyperventilation.
B) cabin will cool rapidly.
C) cabin altitude will descend.
D) effects of hypoxia may be gradual and difficult to recognise.

132. The partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air…

A) cannot be varied when using an oxygen mask.
B) is a highly significant factor in ensuring that oxygen diffuses from the lungs to the blood.
C) is independent of the proportion of oxygen in the ambient air.
D) remains constant at all altitudes.

133. Oxygen transport to the tissues…

A) is independent of haemoglobin levels as oxygen is mainly dissolved in the plasma.
B) will be maintained even during severe hypoxia.
C) depends on haemoglobin level and blood flow.
D) is unaffected by carbon monoxide.
134. Carbon dioxide…
A) is increased in the blood and the brain during hyperventilation.
B) is a normal product of internal respiration.
C) may reach toxic levels in the flight deck due to incomplete fuel combustion.
D) is approximately 13 & of ambient air at flight level 180.

135. Internal respiration is…

A) the term used for respiration inside the pressure cabin.
B) the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lung.
C) a metabolic process inside the cells whereby oxygen is used and carbon dioxide
produced.
D) the process of inflating the lungs during mouth&to&mouth resuscitation.

136. Which of the following statements is true concerning the pulse rate?
A) It is the only indicator of hypoxia.
B) It has a normal range of 60&100 beats per minute.
C) It is unaffected by emotion.
D) When multiplied by the blood pressure, it gives the cardiac output.

137. Blood pressure is normally measured in…

A) inHg.
B) hectopascals.
C) mmHg.
D) millibars.

138. Pilots should not fly immediately following giving a donation of blood,
because…
A) there is a risk of bleeding from the needle site during flight.
B) there is a slightly increased risk of low blood pressure due to loss of blood volume.
C) of the risk of infection.
D) the haemoglobin level is too low.

139. What is the time limit between a pilot going snorkelling and the beginning
of his/her flight duty?
A) 12 hours.
B) 24 hours.
C) There is no time limit.
D) 48 hours.

140. Which of the statements below concerning blood pressure is correct?

A) It needs to be high enough to guarantee an adequate blood flow to the brain.
B) It is regulated by receptors in the descending aorta.
C) It normally decreases with age.
D) It is a constant value for each individual.

141. “Which of the statements on the lungs, listed below, are true?1. Total gas
volume of the lungs is not usable2. Total gas volume of the lungs is fully
usable3. The average lung volume is 5 to 6 litres4. The process of gas
exchange in the lungs is carried out by passive diffusion”
A) 2, 3, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

142. The normal respiratory rate of an adult at rest is how many breaths per
minute?
A) 20 to 25
B) 5 to 8
C) 10 to 15
D) 40 to 45

143. A person is anaemic when a deficiency exists of

A) haemoglobin.
B) white blood cells.
C) platelets.
D) blood plasma.

144. The crucial symptom of hypoxia that is considered to be the most

dangerous with regard to safe flight is…
A) light&headedness and dizziness.
B) alack of accommodation.
C) a reduction in reasoning and perception.
D) alack of adaption to low light levels.

145. In a healthy human being, low saturated blood is found in the…

A) pulmonary artery.
B) aorta.
C) left atrium.
D) pulmonary vein.

146. Which element of human blood is responsible for oxygen transportation?

A) White blood cells.
B) Platelets.
C) Red blood cells.
D) Blood plasma.

147. What is the main variable to control human respiration?

A) Carbon dioxide concentration.
B) pH value.
C) Nitrogen concentration.
D) Oxygen concentration.

148. What is the minimum time a pilot should wait before undertaking flying
duties after sub&aqua diving?
A) 12 hours
B) 18 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 6 hours

149. Typical signs and symptoms of decompression sickness are…

A) tingling, dry cough, the bends, and dizziness.
B) disturbance of consciousness, feeling cold, and depression.
C) low blood pressure, the chokes, and high temperature.
D) high blood pressure, the chokes, and depression.

150. What are the main signs and symptoms of hyperventilation?

A) Euphoria, dilated pupils and a dry cough.
B) Lethargy, apathy and a persistent cough.
C) Tingling and numbness, rapid or deep breathing, and unconsciousness.
D) Muscle cramp, blue lips and fingertips.

151. Hypoxia can be caused by…

A) an increase in the number of red blood cells in the blood, decreasing the ability of the
haemoglobin to transport oxygen.
B) a lack of white blood cells in the blood, decreasing the ability of the haemoglobin to
transport carbon dioxide.
C) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the haemoglobin to transport
oxygen.
D) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases.

152. The respiratory process consists mainly of the…

A) diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to
the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body.
B) transportation of oxygen to the cells, diffusion into the cells, and elimination of nitrogen
out of the body via the respiratory membranes.
C) transportation of carbon dioxide to the cells and elimination of oxygen.
D) transportation of oxygen to the cells and the elimination of carbon monoxide.

153. The Time of Useful Consciousness…

A) is independent of physical and psychological pressure.
B) is the same amount of time for every person.
C) varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude.
D) varies individually and is independent of altitude.

154. Indications of decompression sickness…

A) can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 ft.
B) are the bends, chokes, creeps, and neurological symptoms.
C) are flatulence and pain in the middle ear.
D) are only relevant when diving.

155. What is the main problem caused by positive &+Gz& accelerations?

A) An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body &above heart&level&.
B) A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood being available
for the brain.
C) A deterioration in vision such that all objects appear red.
D) Hyperoxygenation of the blood, which may lead to sensory disorders.

156. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness?

A) The pilot’s reaction time when faced with hypoxia.
B) The period during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency,
measured from when an adequate oxygen supply is no longer available.
C) The period of time between the start of exposure to hypoxia and the moment that the pilot
becomes aware of its symptoms.
D) The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression.

157. Fatigue and stress…

A) do not affect hypoxia at all.
B) will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet.
C) lower the tolerance to hypoxia.
D) increase the tolerance to hypoxia.

158. How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood?

A) Plasma.
B) Blood fat.
C) Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
D) White blood cells.

159. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to…
A) an increased respiratory rate.
B) improved night vision.
C) improved resistance to hypoxia.
D) a reduction of red blood cells.

160. The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by the…

A) total atmospheric pressure.
B) amount of nitrogen in the blood.
C) amount of carbon dioxide in the blood.
D) amount of carbon monoxide in the blood.

161. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood into
the lungs?
A) Carbon dioxide.
B) Ambient air.
C) Carbon monoxide.
D) Oxygen.

162. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?

A) Only a solo pilot is more prone to illusions.
B) Hypoxia improves night vision therefore the pilot will have no indication of danger.
C) The first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect.
D) In a multi&crew cockpit hypoxia will always be detectable.

163. One of the first effects to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive
radial accelerations is…
A) grey&out.
B) loss of consciousness.
C) red&vision.
D) black&out.

164. The normal rate of breathing for a person at rest is…

A) 12 to 20 cycles a minute.
B) 25 to 30 cycles a minute.
C) 60 to 100 cycles a minute.
D) 32 to 40 cycles a minute.

165. The main function of red blood cells is…

A) to transport oxygen around the body.
B) to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood.
C) the cellular defence of the body.
D) to contribute to the immune response of the body.

166. “Of the following alternatives, which effects are due to positive
acceleration &+ Gz&?1. Decrease in heart rate2. Pooling of blood into lower
parts of the body3. Drop in blood pressure above heart&level4. Downward
displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs”
A) 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1
D) 1, 3, 4

167. The blood in the pulmonary artery is…

A) lacking in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide.
B) lacking in both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C) rich in both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
D) rich in oxygen and lacking in carbon dioxide.

168. The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for…

A) gases.
B) platelets.
C) red blood cells.
D) protein.

169. Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by…

A) platelets.
B) red blood cells.
C) white blood cells.
D) blood plasma.

170. Haemoglobin is…

A) in the red blood cells.
B) in the platelets.
C) in the white blood cells.
D) dissolved in the plasma.

171. Someone who has anaemia has insufficient functional…

A) haemoglobin.
B) platelets.
C) white blood cells
D) plasma.

172. “Which of the following can be early symptoms of hypoxia?1. Euphoria2.

Decreased rate and depth of breathing3. Lack of concentration4. Visual
disturbances”
A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

173. “Visual disturbances can be caused by which of the following?1.

Hyperventilation2. Hypoxia3. Hypertension4. Fatigue”
A) 2, 3, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

174. Symptoms of hypoxia are very unusual at an altitude ___&1&. This is

termed the indifferent stage of hypoxia. What is needed to correctly complete
the statement?
A) below 4000 m
B) below 3000 m
C) above 4000 m
D) above 5000 m

175. At what altitude &breathing 100 & oxygen without pressure& could
symptoms of hypoxia be expected?
A) Approximately 38000 ft to 40000 ft.
B) Approximately 10000 to 12000 ft.
C) Approximately 30000 ft.
D) 20000 ft.

176. The average pulse of a healthy adult at rest is about…

A) 60 to 80 beats/min.
B) 30 to 50 beats/min.
C) 110 to 150 beats/min.
D) 90 to 100 beats/min.

177. At rest the cardiac output &the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one
minute& of an adult is approximately…
A) 45 litres/min.
B) 75 litres/min.
C) 450 ml/min.
D) 5 litres/min.

178. The heart muscle is supplied with blood by…

A) the coronary arteries.
B) the auricles.
C) the pulmonary veins.
D) ventricles.

179. The normal arterial blood&pressure of a healthy adult at rest is

&systolic/diastolic&…
A) 180/120 mm Hg.
B) 220/180 mm Hg.
C) 80/20 mm Hg.
D) 120/80 mm Hg.

180. Positive G&forces will cause the blood flow to the brain to…
A) remain constant.
B) decrease.
C) first increase, then decrease.
D) increase.

181. During sustained positive G&forces the order of symptoms you can
expect is…
A) black&out, grey&out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness.
B) grey&out, unconsciousness, black&out and tunnel vision
C) unconsciousness, black&out, tunnel vision and grey&out.
D) grey&out, tunnel vision, black&out and unconsciousness.

182. The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about…

A) 16 cycles per minute.
B) 4 cycles per minute.
C) 72 cycles per minute.
D) 32 cycles per minute.

183. The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle &tidal
volume& is about…
A) 150 ml.
B) 75 ml.
C) 350 ml.
D) 500 ml.

184. The primary factor in controlling the rate and depth of breathing is the…
A) pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.
B) partial pressure of nitrogen.
C) total air pressure in the blood.
D) partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.

185. The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be described by…
A) passive diffusion from higher oxygen pressure to lower oxygen pressure.
B) passive diffusion from lower oxygen pressure to higher oxygen pressure.
C) active transportation.
D) passive diffusion from areas of equal pressure in the alveoli and in the blood.

186. During gas exchange, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli
is…
A) higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.
B) lower than in the blood.
C) lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air.
D) the same as in the atmospheric air.

187. The rate and depth of breathing is primarily regulated by the

concentration of…
A) carbon dioxide in the blood.
B) nitrogen in the air.
C) water vapour in the alveoli.
D) oxygen in the cells.

188. “Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is approximately 98&. This
saturation decreases with:1. decreasing air pressure2. carbon monoxide
poisoning3. increasing altitude4. increasing air pressure”
A) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

189. Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?

A) It is never a problem at altitudes below 25000 ft.
B) It is a potential threat to safety.
C) It activates the senses and makes them function better.
D) It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate for it.

190. Which of the symptoms below is NOT caused by decompression

sickness?
A) Chokes
B) Leans
C) Creeps
D) Bends

191. The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a
decompression are called…
A) creeps.
B) bends.
C) chokes.
D) leans.

192. Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a

decompression are called…
A) chokes.
B) creeps.
C) leans.
D) bends.

193. “Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by which of the

following?1. SCUBA diving2. Obesity3. Age4. Body height”
A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 4 only

194. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting…
A) decompression sickness.
B) hypoxia.
C) stress.
D) hyperventilation.

195. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated by…

A) increasing the amount of oxygen being physically dissolved in the blood.
B) decreasing the amount of oxygen being combined with the haemoglobin in the blood.
C) increasing the amount of nitrogen being physically dissolved in the blood.
D) breathing into a paper bag.

196. The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood is due to…
A) physical exercise.
B) inspiration.
C) diffusion.
D) changes in atmospheric pressure.

197. “The circulation of blood:1. transports oxygen to the body cells2.

transports waste products to the cells3. conveys nutrients to the cellsWhich of
the following lists all the correct answers?”
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1 and 2

198. A human breathing 100 & oxygen at 33700 ft is the equivalent of breathing
air at…
A) 8000 ft.
B) 21300 ft.
C) sea level.
D) 10000 ft.

199. When suffering from hypoxia, short&term memory impairment starts at

approximately at…
A) 12000 ft.
B) 8000 ft.
C) 18000 ft.
D) 25000 ft.

200. List the constituent parts of the blood and state their function.
A) Red cells coagulate blood, white cells are involved in immunity, and platelets carry
oxygen.
B) Red cells are involved in immunity, white cells carry oxygen and platelets coagulate
blood.
C) Red cells carry oxygen, white cells are involved in immunity and platelets coagulate
blood.
D) Red cells carry oxygen, white cells coagulate blood and platelets are involved in
immunity.

201. “””Grey&out”” occurs in case of…”

A) +4 Gx.
B) &2 Gz.
C) +2 Gz.
D) &4 Gx.

202. What can cause a coronary disease that may then lead to angina pectoris
and myocardial infarction?
A) A cardiac automatism problem.
B) A congenital malformation of the coronary veins.
C) An abnormality of the cardiac valves.
D) A partial or complete blockage of coronary arteries.

203. The cabin pressure altitude in a pressurised, passenger&carrying aircraft

during normal operation is…
A) 2000 ft to 3000 ft.
B) 6000 ft to 8000 ft.
C) equivalent to sea level.
D) 4000 ft to 5000 ft.
204. Hypertension…
A) increases the risk of a heart attack and stroke.
B) “is otherwise known as “”white coat syndrome””.”
C) is only treated when symptoms develop.
D) usually leads to the loss of one’s licence.

205. A heart attack &myocardial infarction&…

A) can be suffered by anyone, and an individual cannot reduce the risk of having one.
B) is a total blockage of a coronary artery leading to the death of a piece of heart muscle.
C) is a partial blockage of a coronary artery leading to chest pain on exercise or stress.
D) cannot be treated once symptoms develop.

206. “Which of the following statements is true concerning regular physical

exercise:1. it Increases pulse rate and stroke volume in the short term2. it
reduces blood pressure and heart rate in the long term3. it reduces the human
susceptibility to hypoxia.”
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

207. Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because

it…
A) disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane.
B) competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin.
C) prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys.
D) prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract.

208. Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen
because…
A) carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
B) haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen.
C) the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract.
D) carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli.

209. “Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to:1. loss of muscular
power2. headache3. impaired judgement4. pain in the joints5. loss of
consciousness”
A) 2 and 3 only are correct
B) 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct
C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct

210. Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as…

A) relative humidity decreases.
B) air pressure increases.
C) altitude increases.
D) altitude decreases.

211. Carbon monoxide &CO& poisoning in flight…

A) is usually harmless because oxygen is more easily attached to haemoglobin than carbon
monoxide, to a magnitude of 200 times.
B) can be cured by breathing into a plastic bag to retain the carbon monoxide.
C) is a complication when hyperventilating and requires its own special and individual
treatment.
D) presents an extremely dangerous situation as the blood may not be able carry sufficient
amounts of oxygen to vital cells and tissues of the body.

212. Carbon monoxide &CO& poisoning leads to hypoxia because…

A) CO in blood displaces oxygen from the blood corpuscles impairing oxygen transport.
B) the increasing amount of CO in the lung alveoles gradually reverses oxygen diffusion.
C) CO is far less easily attached &200 times& to haemoglobin than oxygen.
D) accumulation of CO in blood leads to hyperventilation and thus to hypoxia.

213. Which of the following may cause hyperventilation?

A) A sudden decrease in the cabin pressure altitude.
B) Excess alveolar carbon dioxide levels.
C) Relaxation.
D) Anxiety or fear.

214. “Hypoxia can be caused by which of the following?1. Alcohol abuse or

chronic alcohol use.2. A decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to
carbon monoxide attached to the haemoglobin.3. Low partial pressure of
oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation
and supplemental oxygen.4. Malfunction of the body cells to metabolise
oxygen.”
A) 2, 3, and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
C) 1, 2, and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D) 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are false

215. “When assessing an individual’s risk of developing coronary artery

disease, which of the following factors may contribute?1. Obesity2. Chronic
stress3. Low blood pressure4. Family history”
A) Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct, 3 is false

216. “The physiological effects of an acceleration of 3G on the human body

depends on the:1. duration of the G forces,2. onset rate of the G forces,3.
magnitude of the G forces,4. aircraft’s altitude.”
A) 2, 3, and 4 are correct, 1 is incorrect
B) 1 and 4 are correct, 2 and 3 are incorrect
C) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are incorrect
D) 1, 2, and 3 are correct, 4 is incorrect

217. “Which option is correct as regards the following statement? Carbon

monoxide is particularly dangerous because:1. it is colourless,2. its pungent
smell can cause nausea,3. it is highly toxic,4. its effects are cumulative.”
A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 2, 3, and 4

218. “A pressurised cabin helps to prevent which of the items listed below?1.
Decompression sickness2. NIHL3. Hypoxia4. Motion sickness”
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3

219. Which statement is correct, concerning a pilot’s exposure to carbon

monoxide fumes?
A) A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect
a pilot’s ability to operate an aircraft.
B) Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by its odour and taste.
C) Carbon monoxide can affect pilots only if they are exposed to it for a long period of time.
D) When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and
no adverse physical effects are experienced

220. When flying at 15000 ft without using supplementary oxygen, what are the
typical signs and symptoms that may occur?
A) Dizziness, tingling, impaired vision rapid, breathing, and fatigue.
B) Shortness of breath, tingling, and accelerated reactions.
C) Depression, dizziness, and reddened lips.
D) Euphoria, reddened lips, and high blood pressure.

221. The difference between humidity and relative humidity is…

A) that humidity is the amount of water vapour per unit volume of air, whereas relative
humidity is the actual amount of moisture per unit volume of air relative to standard
atmosphere.
B) only terminology since these two concepts are synonymous. Therefore, humidity &or
relative humidity& is the amount of water vapour that is present in the air at any given time.
C) that humidity is the percentage of moisture the air could hold at a given temperature,
whereas relative humidity is the amount of water vapour relative to standard atmosphere.
D) that humidity is the amount of water vapour in the air, whereas relative humidity is the
actual amount of moisture compared to the maximum possible amount of moisture at a given
temperature.

222. Which one of the following ionising radiation types can be stopped after
travelling through 3 cm of air, 0.2 mm of water, or a piece of paper or skin?
A) X&ray radiation
B) Gamma radiation
C) Beta radiation
D) Alpha radiation

223. High altitude flight operations expose flight crew to increased levels of
cosmic radiation. The four main factors influencing the level of radiation, in
order of their relative importance, are…
A) altitude, airspeed, the Earth’s magnetic field, and solar activity &e.g. solar flares&.
B) altitude, latitude, solar activity &e.g. solar flares&, and height of the ionosphere.
C) latitude, altitude, space weather &e.g. solar storms&, and the Earth’s magnetic field.
D) altitude, latitude, normal solar activity, and random solar activity &e.g. solar flares&.

224. When a pilot suffers from hypothermia &e.g. after loss of cabin heating&
his/her demand for oxygen will be…
A) initially increased.
B) unaffected.
C) raised, leading to an increased tolerance to hypoxia.
D) reduced, giving a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes.

225. “With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurised cabin, we

know that it:1. varies between 40 & and 60 &2. varies between 5 & and 15 &3.
may cause dehydration, affecting the performance of the crew4. has no special
effects on crew members”
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 3, and 4

226. “Which of the following statements are correct?1. Modern aircraft allow
for 50 & to 60& relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight,
which is satisfactory for the body2. Thirst is a symptom of dehydration3.
Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and
fatigue4. Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since
resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost”
A) 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 1, 2, 4

227. The dry atmosphere of the flight deck may cause dehydration, which may
lead to a reduction in the ability to pay attention. To prevent this, it is
appropriate to…
A) drink cool cola drinks.
B) drink tea.
C) drink sufficient non&carbonated liquids.
D) drink plenty of coffee.
228. The low level of humidity found in a pressurised aircraft cabin…
A) should be compensated for by drinking water before one gets thirsty.
B) should be compensated for by breathing in to a paper bag.
C) requires a regular supply of water only for those who are in poor health. Healthy people
compensate for this naturally.
D) should be compensated for by a regular supply of coffee or tea.

229. Galactic radiation is…

A) unsteady and unpredictable.
B) steady but unpredictable.
C) steady and reasonably predictable.
D) unsteady and reasonably predictable.

230. The effects of galactic radiation…

A) decrease with altitude.
B) increase with altitude.
C) are unaffected by altitude.
D) remain steady up to 49000 ft and thereafter increase.

231. What are the main sources of radiation at height?

A) Galactic &cosmic& and nuclear radiation, which are both caused by the Earth’s natural
radiation.
B) Solar radiation caused by solar flares and nuclear radiation caused by the Earth’s natural
radiation.
C) Galactic &cosmic& radiation caused by galactic particles and solar radiation caused by
solar flares.
D) Ionisation of the layers in the atmosphere due to the bombardment of galactic &cosmic&
radiation.

232. Cosmic radiation…

A) consists mainly of alpha&radiation.
B) originates mainly from the Sun.
C) is at its strongest at very high latitudes.
D) decreases when altitude increases.

233. The ozone layer is situated in the…

A) stratosphere.
B) troposphere.
C) ionosphere.
D) thermosphere.

234. Which of the following is correct?

A) “Flying by the “”seat&of&the&pants”” sense is completely reliable when in IMC or with a
poor visual horizon.”
B) Kinaesthetic perception is the most important channel in flying.
C) Hearing is the most important sense for humans.
D) 70 & & 80 & of information processed by humans enters the visual channel.

235. The proprioceptors do not orient an individual to his/her surroundings,

but informs him/her of
A) our surroundings
B) the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
C) a touch on the skin
D) the condition in the body itself

236. The 5 human senses tend to adapt.

A) This statement is untrue. Only sight adapts &i.e. night flying&.
B) This statement is untrue. None adapt.
C) This statement is true.
D) This statement is untrue. Touch is the exception.

237. Which of the following statements correctly summarises the basic

functions of the Central Nervous System &CNS&, Peripheral Nervous System
&PNS& and the Autonomic Nervous System &ANS&?
A) The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord. The PNS provides the connection to the
limbs and organs. The ANS governs the involuntary function of internal organs.
B) The CNS connects the brain to the rest of the body. The PNS is responsible for the
internal organs. The ANS governs the voluntary control of internal organs.
C) The CNS serves as the main processing unit. The PNS integrates the brain with the rest
of the body. The ANS is responsible for muscle control of body movements.
D) The CNS integrates all parts of the body. The PNS connects the brain via the spinal cord
to all internal organs. The ANS is responsible for organ and muscle control.

238. Which of the following statements correctly describes the equalisation of

pressure within the ear during climb and descent?
A) Pressure differences between the middle ear and the outside environment are equalised
by the Otolith tube, which connects the ear with the sinus cavities.
B) Pressure differences between the inner ear and the outside environment are equalised by
the Otolith tube, which connects the ear with the nasal passage.
C) Pressure differences between the inner ear and the outside environment are eliminated
by the Eustachian tube, which connects the ear with the nasal passage.
D) Pressure differences between the middle ear and the outside environment are eliminated
by the Eustachian tube, which connects the ear with the back of the throat.

239. The Autonomic Nervous System &ANS& regulates…

A) reflexes only.
B) reflexes, body temperature and reasoning.
C) motor programmes and reflexes.
D) sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaption Syndrome.

240. What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System and where is
vision processed?
A) The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the
cortex.
B) The brain and the brain stem are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the
cerebellum.
C) The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the
retina.
D) The brain and the brain stem are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at
the optic nerve centre.

241. “Typically, in an exam situation there is an increase in pulse rate and

breathing.Which part of the nervous system is responsible for regulating these
physiological reactions?”
A) Peripheral nervous system.
B) Sensomotor nervous system.
C) Autonomic nervous system.
D) Cerebrospinal nervous system.

242. What is the main function of the autonomic nervous system?

A) Regulation of vital functions.
B) Control of body motion.
C) Regulation of information processing.
D) Control of reflexes.

243. What is the name of the functional connection between neurons?

A) Axon
B) Synapse
C) Dendrite
D) Soma

244. A stereotypical and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of

receptors is called…
A) a control system.
B) a reflex.
C) a change of stimulation level.
D) data processing.

245. Which of the following statements concerning information is correct?

A) 70 & of information processed by man enters via the visual channel.
B) 40 & of information processed by man enters via the visual channel.
C) Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man.
D) The kinaesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying.

246. Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the receptors to pick them up.
This is called the sensory…
A) filter.
B) threshold.
C) volume.
D) strength.
247. Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by…
A) the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying
down.
B) pressing on the skin, indicating the true vertical.
C) environmental stressors.
D) the condition of the body itself.

248. The involuntary system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate
is…
A) the autonomic nervous system.
B) the local nervous system.
C) the critical nervous system.
D) non&existent, as all these functions are under conscious control.

249. Nerve conduction is an electrochemical process, hence it is…

A) caused by the movements of electrically&charged molecules.
B) produced by electrons flowing through the nerve like an electric current.
C) susceptible to induction by external magnetic fields.
D) faster if the voltage level increases &e.g. during sport&.

250. The Autonomic Nervous System &ANS& is…

A) activated in stressful situations.
B) under voluntary control.
C) used for moving legs and arms.
D) located in the brain.

251. Which of the following scenarios involves an example for sensory

adaptation?
A) Flying a curve with a constant turn rate that lasts for more than 30 seconds.
B) Flying at constant altitude and wagging the wings in a periodic manner.
C) Performing a looping manoeuvre, initiated at 200 km/h, with an overhead speed of 100
km/h.
D) Flying a spin manoeuvre of 360° in VMC by day.

252. “Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected

reduction of the visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage”
A) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
D) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false

253. Vision of terrain relief &e.g. hills, valleys, etc.&:

A) is possible at only at distances over 200 m due to binocular vision
B) is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective
for objects that are further away
C) is impossible with only one eye
D) is impossible if a pilot wears sunglasses
254. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Scotopic Vision is vision through the operation of the Rods.
B) Scotopic Vision is vision through the operation of the Cones.
C) Scotopic Vision is the same as Photopic Vision.
D) Photopic Vision is the same as Peripheral Vision.

255. The retina contains two kinds of light&sensitive receptors, namely rods
and cones. Cones are…
A) concentrated toward the centre of the field of vision and are responsible for colour vision.
B) more numerous further away from the centre of the visual field and are responsible for
colour vision.
C) more numerous further away from the centre of the visual field and are responsible for
night vision.
D) concentrated toward the centre of the field of vision and are responsible for night vision.

256. Which of the following are monocular cues for depth perception?
A) Accommodation, texture, and atmospheric perspective.
B) Linear perspective, convergence, and obscuration.
C) Obscuration, texture, and atmospheric perspective.
D) Apparent foreshortening, stereopsis, and motion parallax.

257. Accommodation is the

A) bending of light when it moves from one medium into another.
B) ability of the eye to alter its focal length.
C) perception by the brain from nerve inputs originating in the fovea.
D) capacity of the eye to resolve detail.

258. Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
A) Speech
B) Motor coordination
C) Night vision
D) Hearing

259. What human function is most sensitive to lack of oxygen?

A) Night vision
B) Motor coordination
C) Hearing
D) Touch

260. Glaucoma…
A) is low pressure in the eye ball leading to decreased blood flow to the retina, which can
cause visual loss.
B) and the associated visual field loss can be significantly improved by giving oxygen.
C) is a condition detected by pressure&testing the eye ball.
D) causes red/green colour blindness.
261. Adaptation to light…
A) refers to the ability of the lens to focus at different distances.
B) is performed separately by each eye.
C) is faster for the rods than the cones.
D) takes about 10 minutes.

262. The retina of the eye…

A) filters UV light and is continuous with the optic nerve.
B) is the muscle that changes the size of the crystalline lens.
C) is the light&sensitive inner lining of the eye.
D) only regulates the light that falls into the eye.

263. Which of the following problems can be caused by wearing contact

lenses?
A) A reduction in colour vision, especially at high altitudes.
B) Increased corneal damage due to mild hypoxia and dehydration.
C) Poor peripheral vision and occasional misting.
D) The lenses may become dislodged when the humidity is too high.

264. “When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect
yourself from flash blindness by:1. turning down the intensity of cockpit
lights,2. looking inside the cockpit,3. wearing sunglasses,4. using blinds or
curtains, when installed.”
A) 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are false
B) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D) 2, 3, and 4 are correct, 1 is false

265. Approximately how long does it take for the eye to adjust when suddenly
experiencing high levels of illumination?
A) 10 minutes
B) 2 minutes
C) 10 seconds
D) 5 seconds

266. Presbyopia causes a…

A) lack of empty field.
B) mis&shapen cornea.
C) lack of vitamin A.
D) decrease of accommodation.

267. If warned of an imminent thunderstorm…

A) cockpit lights should be turned up.
B) cockpit lights should be dimmed.
C) no specific action is advised with regards to the adjustment of the brightness of cockpit
lights.
D) cockpit lights should be turned off.
268. Colour blindness…
A) may be subtle and only detected using specialised tests.
B) is more common in women than men.
C) may be treated by laser surgery.
D) affects visual acuity.

269. Presbyopia…
A) is partial visual loss due to pressure changes in the eye.
B) is usually treated by surgical replacement of the lens and is compatible with flying.
C) is common over the age of 50.
D) is caused by long&termed exposure to stimuli over 90 dB.

270. Cones are…

A) concentrated mainly in the fovea.
B) insensitive to oxygen deficiency.
C) responsible for night vision.
D) concentrated at the peripheral visual field.

271. For a complete adaptation to darkness our eyes need up to…

A) 3 minutes.
B) 10 seconds.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 10 minutes.

272. The fovea is the area…

A) of the highest visual acuity because of the high concentration of cones.
B) of the highest visual acuity because of the high concentration of rods.
C) where no vision is perceived because neither cones nor rods are located there.
D) of peripheral vision because of the high concentration of rods and cones.

273. The part&s& of the eye responsible for night vision…

A) are rods and cones.
B) is the cornea.
C) are the cones.
D) are the rods.

274. When the optical image forms in front of the retina the person is
considered to be…
A) long&sighted.
B) short&sighted.
C) unable to focus on near objects.
D) suffering from cataracts.

275. Glaucoma is caused by…

A) disturbed adaptation.
B) disturbed night vision.
C) disturbed colour vision.
D) high intraocular pressure.

276. What should a pilot do to optimise his/her night vision &scotopic

vision&?
A) Wait at least 60 minutes to night&adapt before he takes off
B) Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
C) Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
D) Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash&blindness.

277. During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to
instruments because…
A) “the danger of a “”greying out”” will make it impossible to determine the height above the
terrain.”
B) pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information.
C) perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast.
D) his/her attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions.

278. Generally, the time required for dark adaptation is…

A) 10 sec.
B) 30 min.
C) 10 min.
D) 1/10 sec.

279. Adaptation is…

A) the change of the diameter of the pupil.
B) the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination.
C) the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina.
D) the reflection of the light at the cornea.

280. The approximate time required for complete adaptation of the eye when
moving from darkness to light is…
A) 10 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 7 minutes.
D) 10 seconds.

281. The requirement of good sunglasses is to…

A) fit to the pilot’s individual taste.
B) absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity.
C) increase the time for dark adaptation.
D) eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields.

282. Scanning at night should be performed by…

A) concentrated fixation on an object &image must fall on the fovea&.
B) avoiding food containing Vitamin A.
C) scanning with one eye open.
D) slight eye movements to the side of the object.

283. Hypoxia can affect night vision…

A) and causes autokinetic phenomena.
B) and causes the Coriolis Effect.
C) at approximately 5000 ft.
D) less than day vision.

284. The fovea is…

A) the area of the blind spot &optic disc&.
B) the area of best day vision and of reduced value at night.
C) where the optic nerves come together with the pupil.
D) the area of best day vision and best night vision.

285. The fovea…

A) is sensitive to very low intensities of light.
B) is an area in which cones predominate.
C) is an area in which rods predominate.
D) is the area responsible for night vision.

286. The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by…
A) the cornea.
B) the pupil.
C) the lens.
D) the ciliary body.

287. When focussing on near objects…

A) more rods than cons are used.
B) the shape of lens gets more spherical.
C) the pupil gets larger.
D) the cornea gets smaller.

288. The ability of the lens to change its shape is called…

A) depth perception.
B) accommodation.
C) binocular vision.
D) adaptation.

289. The mechanism of accommodation is controlled by…

A) the functioning of the ciliary muscle around the lens.
B) the elasticity of the optic nerves.
C) the diameter of the pupil.
D) the functioning of the muscles of the eye.

290. Presbyopia is…

A) myopia.
B) long&sightedness linked with age.
C) short&sightedness.
D) high intraocular pressure.

291. Peripheral vision is important for…

A) detecting moving objects.
B) visual acuity.
C) binocular vision.
D) colour vision.

292. Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during
flight to use the scanning technique, because…
A) only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearly.
B) only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly.
C) the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A.
D) it is tiring to look continually in the same direction.

293. The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about…
A) 25 & 30 minutes.
B) 5 minutes.
C) 10 seconds.
D) 10 minutes.

294. The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called…
A) the cones.
B) the rods.
C) the cones and the rods.
D) the fovea.

295. Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?

A) Look to the side &10 & 15 deg& of the object.
B) Look directly at the object.
C) Blink your eyes.
D) Look with one eye.

296. “Which of the following statement&s& is/are correct ?1. The retina has
rods in its peripheral zone and cones in its central zone2. The retina has cones
and the crystalline lens has rods3. The rods allow for night vision4. The cones
are located on the peripheral zone of the retina”
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 4 only
D) 1 only

297. “In order to perceive colour vision, it is necessary:1. for there to be a

sufficient amount of light &ambient luminosity&2. at night to look at the point
to be observed at an angle of 15°3. to allow the eye a period of time to get used
to the light4. to avoid white light”
A) 1 only is correct
B) 2 and 3 only are correct
C) 3 only is correct
D) 1 and 4 only are correct

298. Colour perception is achieved by…

A) crystalline lens.
B) cones.
C) iris.
D) rods.

299. Accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is

accomplished by which of the following?
A) The crystalline lens.
B) The rods.
C) The retina.
D) The cones.

300. Rod cells in the eye are used for…

A) precise vision of contours and colours.
B) night vision after adaptation to darkness &30 min&.
C) red vision, both during the day and at night.
D) virtually instantaneous night vision.

301. “To optimise one’s night&vision performance, it is necessary to do which

of the following?1. Spend some time getting adapted to low levels of
illumination2. Increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit
lighting3. Avoid focussing on the point to be observed4. Avoid blinding
sources of light”
A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2 only
D) 2, 3, and 4

302. Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due

to…
A) peripheral vision.
B) binocular vision.
C) the high sensitivity of the retina.
D) interactions between cones and rods.

303. “With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are
correct?1. It is due to the functioning of the rods2. It enables details, colours,
and movement to be seen3. It is very active both during the day and at night4.
It represents the zone where the highest density of cones is found”
A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 4

304. The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information is…
A) limited to the foveal area of the retina.
B) limited to daytime using the rod cells.
C) almost equally shared by the entire retina.
D) governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle.

305. Glaucoma is due to…

A) a drop in pressure of the liquid around the eye.
B) an increase in pressure of the liquid within the eye.
C) damage to the eyeball due to high altitude.
D) excess light on the eyeball.

306. Night vision…

A) requires up to 30 minutes to reach its best performance.
B) is insensitive to short duration light sources.
C) requires 5 minutes to reach its best performance.
D) is insensitive to lightning flashes in storms.

307. The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye…

A) cause the convergence of light rays onto the retina.
B) keep the retina clean and healthy.
C) regulate the amount of light admitted into the eye.
D) receive and convert visual stimuli to images that are then interpreted by the brain.

308. A cataract is caused by a…

A) clouding of the lens.
B) lack of accommodation at the cornea.
C) lack of mobility of the cornea.
D) mis&shapen cornea.

309. The eye can fully adjust to high levels of illumination in…
A) 30 minutes and darkness in 10 seconds.
B) 10 minutes and darkness in 30 minutes.
C) 30 minutes and darkness in 10 minutes.
D) 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes.

310. Concerning the light&sensitive cells of the eye…

A) the cones detect colour vision and are highly sensitive to hypoxia.
B) blood flow to the rods and cones is maintained even during high G&forces.
C) the rods are centrally located and increase visual acuity.
D) the cones are centrally located in the lens.
311. Presbyopia &the inability to focus on close subjects& is due to…
A) detachment of the retina.
B) loss of elasticity of the lens.
C) the cornea becoming misshapen.
D) the eyeball growing too long.

312. When flying at night, which of the following will be the first to be affected
by a slight degree of hypoxia?
A) Vision
B) Hearing
C) Proprioceptive sensitivity
D) Balance

313. “Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:1.
autokinesis,2. carbon monoxide poisoning,3. smoking,4. hypoxia.”
A) 2, 3, and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C) 1, 2, and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D) 1, 3, and 4 are correct, 2 is false

314. “Which of the factors listed below can lead to a deterioration in vision?1.
Hypoxia2. Smoking3. Drinking 3 & 4 cups of coffee daily4. Exposure to bright
lights”
A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4

315. “Which of the items in the following list affect the function of vision?1.
High speed2. Oxygen deficiency3. Acceleration4. Toxic influence &alcohol,
some medication&”
A) 2, 3, 4 only
B) 1, 2, 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 4 only

316. Among the factors which affect visual acuity are…

A) hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea.
B) smoking, colour blindness and the length of an eyeball.
C) the distance between the eyes, alcohol and amount of light available.
D) the length of the optic nerve, visibility and angular distance from the fovea.

317. What is the role of the Eustachian tube?

A) It equalises pressure between the middle ear and the environment.
B) It transmits sound waves to the fluid contained within the cochlea.
C) It assists in maintaining balance and stabilises the eyes when walking.
D) It collects sound&pressure waves and directs them along the ear canal to the eardrum.

318. The group of bones called the hammer, anvil, and stirrup are situated in
the…
A) inner ear.
B) middle ear.
C) maxillary sinus.
D) outer ear.

319. The Eustachian tube is the passage way between the…

A) sinuses and the throat.
B) throat and the middle ear.
C) nose, throat and inner ear.
D) nose, throat and the external auditory canal.

320. Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of sound?
A) The Eustachian tube
B) The cochlea
C) The semicircular canals
D) The sacculus and utriculus

321. Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?

A) Semicircular canals
B) Ossicles
C) Otoliths
D) Endolymph

322. Through which part of the ear does the equalisation of pressure take
place, when altitude is changed?
A) External auditory canal
B) Eustachian tube
C) Cochlea
D) Tympanic membrane

323. The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalise the pressure between
the…
A) nose, throat and the external atmosphere.
B) sinuses.
C) middle ear and the external atmosphere.
D) sinuses of the nose and the external atmosphere.

324. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the
ambient, when…
A) the Eustachian tube is blocked.
B) the nose is pinched.
C) you breath through the mouth.
D) barotrauma exists in the sinuses.
325. Presbycusis…
A) will not affect a pilot’s hearing if he/she is wearing ear&plugs all the time.
B) results in a reduction in the perception of all tones equally.
C) results in a reduction in the perception of high tones first.
D) leads to a reduction in the perception of low tones first.

326. The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the

frequencies…
A) 0 Hz & 16 Hz.
B) 20 Hz& 20 000 Hz.
C) 30 dB& 15 000 dB.
D) 20 000 Hz & 40 000 Hz.

327. The Eustachian tube connects the…

A) middle ear and the throat.
B) semi circular canals.
C) auditory duct and the inner ear.
D) middle ear and the inner ear.

328. By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the
outer ear be balanced?
A) By breathing out.
B) By coughing.
C) By breathing in.
D) By swallowing.

329. Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by the…

A) duration and intensity of a noise.
B) duration of a noise but not its intensity.
C) suddenness of onset of a noise.
D) intensity of the noise but not its duration.

330. Presbycusis causes initial loss of…

A) low and high tones equally.
B) conductive hearing.
C) high tones.
D) low tones.

331. What are the main factors leading to Noise Induced Hearing Loss?
A) Noise level and duration.
B) Frequency and noise level.
C) Duration and sensitivity to noise.
D) Sensitivity to noise and frequency.

332. What is the main cause of conductive deafness?

A) A blockage of the outer or middle ear, e.g. ear wax, or fluid in the middle ear.
B) An infectious disease of the inner ear that affects, for example, balance and hearing.
C) A combination of lifestyle, e.g. smoking, and environmental factors, e.g. stress.
D) Prolonged exposure to high&frequency sounds, such as turbine&engine noise.

333. Which of the following terms describe some of the different parts of the
auditory system?
A) External ear, eardrum, malleus, incus, stapes, and vestibular nerve.
B) Ear canal, eardrum, tympanic cavity, cochlea, and Eustachian nerve.
C) Auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea, and auditory nerve.
D) Ear canal, Eustachian membrane, cochlea, and tympanic nerve.

334. What is the unit of measurement for the intensity of sound?

A) Joule
B) Pascal
C) Hertz
D) Decibel

335. Which of the following correctly describes the basic functions of the
different parts of the auditory system after sound waves enter through the
outer ear?
A) The eardrum separates the ear canal from the cochlea, where the sound waves are
translated into mechanical impulses. These are transmitted via auditory tubes to receptors in
the brain.
B) Sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate. Ossicles transmit the vibrations to the
cochlea, which translates them into electrical impulses. The auditory nerve carries the
impulses to the brain.
C) Sound waves travel via the ear canal to the eardrum. Mechanical vibrations are translated
into fluid vibrations in the cochlea. The Eustachian tube connects the auditory system with
the brain.
D) Travelling through the semi&circular ear canal, sound waves strike the eardrum, causing
it to vibrate. The cochlea translates the sound into pressure waves. Cranial nerves carry the
waves to the brain.

336. “Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:1. damage to the ossicles in
the middle ear caused by infection or trauma,2. a damage of the auditory
nerve,3. an obstruction in the outer ear,4. a ruptured tympanic membrane.”
A) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

337. What are the main causes of Noise Induced Hearing Loss &NIHL&?
A) Head injury and frequent exposure to high pitch sounds above 20 kHz.
B) Acoustic trauma and prolonged exposure to noise levels above 85 dB.
C) Genetic predisposition and the natural ageing process.
D) Continuous exposure to high frequency sound and impulse noise.
338. “What is the main cause of a hearing disorder called “”presbycusis””?”
A) Disease
B) Ageing
C) Tinnitus
D) Medication

339. Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 85 dB can result in…

A) noise induced hearing loss.
B) conductive hearing loss.
C) presbycusis.
D) a ruptured ear drum.

340. What level of received noise can cause Noise Induced Hearing Loss
&NIHL&?
A) Exposure to loud, intense sounds above 85 dB and low, continuous frequencies below 20
Hz.
B) Exposure to continuous, high frequencies above 10 kHz and intense sounds above 120
dB.
C) A one&time exposure to impulse noise above 120 dB and/or continuous exposure to
noise above 85 dB.
D) Exposure to sudden, low frequencies below 20 Hz and/or continuous, high frequencies
above 20 kHz.

341. What can pilots do to reduce the probability of suffering from

noise&induced hearing loss?
A) Avoid any kind of artificial blockage of the ear canal, including unusual earwax build&up.
B) Use hearing protection equipment, like earplugs, or active noise&reduction headsets.
C) Limit the duration of exposure to high&frequency noise &above 20 kHz& to less than 5
hours.
D) Use the Valsalva manoeuvre when experiencing a ringing or buzzing of the ears due to
noise.

342. Which part&s& of the ear could be affected by air&pressure changes

during climb and/or descent?
A) The semicircular canals.
B) The Eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane &ear drum&.
C) The cochlea.
D) The saccules and utricles.

343. What is meant by presbycusis?

A) Gradual loss of hearing with age.
B) Total loss of hearing in one ear due to use of a headset in the cockpit.
C) Total loss of hearing in both ears due to disease.
D) Gradual onset of long&sightedness with age.

344. Noise induced hearing loss &NIHL& is caused by…

A) damage to the sensitive hair cells in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise.
B) reduced mobility of the ossicles.
C) a blocked Eustachian tube.
D) pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum.

345. “Which option is correct as regards the following statement? The extent
to which a noise can damage hearing depends on the:1. intensity of the
noise,2. attitude of the person towards the noise,3. exposure time to the
noise,4. frequency of the noise.”
A) 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1, 3, and 4

346. The ossicles &the malleus, incus and stapes& are located…
A) in the middle ear.
B) in the inner ear.
C) in the outer ear.
D) below the outer ear.

347. Excessive exposure to noise can damage the…

A) sensitive hair cells in the cochlea.
B) semicircular canals.
C) ossicles.
D) Eustachian tube.

348. Equalisation of air pressure between the outer and the middle ear is…
A) important to prevent pain and degradation in hearing during flight.
B) impossible during descent because the pressure within the middle ear is higher than in
the ambient air.
C) more important during climb because the lower pressure within the middle air can
damage the tympanic membrane.
D) difficult to achieve when pressure changes are at a low rate.

349. Noise Induced Hearing Loss…

A) is a condition resulting in permanent hearing loss of selected frequencies.
B) is a temporary hearing loss, the nerve cells frequently recover.
C) is also known as presbycusis and is associated with pressure damage to the middle ear.
D) causes Eustachian tube dysfunction.

350. Which parts of the inner ear’s vestibular apparatus sense the different
kinds of motion of the human body?
A) The semicircular canals detect angular acceleration, whereas the otolith organs detect
linear acceleration and gravity.
B) The semicircular canals sense motion around the roll, pitch and yaw axes, whereas the
otolith organs detect angular acceleration and gravity.
C) The otolith organs sense motion around the roll, pitch and yaw axes, whereas the
semicircular canals detect linear acceleration and gravity.
D) The otolith organs detect angular acceleration, whereas the semicircular canals detect
linear acceleration but not gravity.
351. Symptoms of motion sickness may be counteracted by…
A) bending the head forward when reading maps and checklists.
B) resting one’s head on the back of the seat and keeping the eyes open.
C) increasing head movements to maintain adequate lookout.
D) fixing one’s gaze on a stable, distant horizon.

352. Resonance of the body parts can result from…

A) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz.
B) acceleration along the longitudinal body axis.
C) angular velocity.
D) vibrations from 1 Hz to 100 Hz.

353. “The vestibular system is composed of which of the following?1. Two

ventricles saccule3. A utricle4. Three semicircular channels”
A) 1 and 4
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 2 and 3

354. Which force&s& affect&s& the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
A) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
B) Angular acceleration
C) Gravity alone
D) Gravity and linear acceleration

355. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity

and linear acceleration?
A) The cochlea
B) The Eustachian tube
C) The semicircular canals
D) The sacculus and utriculus

356. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the detection of
angular acceleration?
A) The cochlea
B) The semicircular canals
C) The Eustachian tube
D) The sacculus and utriculus

357. The vestibular apparatus…

A) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear.
B) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea.
C) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity.
D) gives the impression of hearing.
358. What is understood by air sickness?
A) An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood.
B) A sensory conflict within the vestibular system resulting in nausea and vomiting.
C) An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear.
D) An illness caused by reduced air pressure.

359. The semicircular canals form part of the…

A) ear drum.
B) inner ear.
C) external ear.
D) middle ear.

360. “The inner ear is able to perceive:1. angular acceleration2. linear

acceleration3. Noise”
A) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
B) 1 and 2 and 3 are correct
C) 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false
D) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false

361. “Which of the following systems are involved in motion sickness?1.

Hearing2. The vestibular system3. Vision4. The proprioceptive senses
&””seat&of&the&pants”” sense&5. The gastrointestinal system”
A) 2, 3, 4, and 5
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 2, 4, and 5
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

362. Angular accelerations are perceived by the…

A) semicircular canals.
B) cochlea.
C) otoliths.
D) receptors in the skin and the joints.

363. The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to…

A) angular speed.
B) linear acceleration and gravity.
C) constant speed only.
D) angular acceleration.

364. The Vestibular Apparatus consists of the…

A) semicircular canals and the otoliths.
B) cochlea and the auditory nerve.
C) Eustachian tube and the semicircular canals.
D) Eustachian tube and the pinna.

365. The human vestibular system performs spatial orientation by…

A) measuring fluid movements in the tympanic membrane of the middle ear.
B) comparing the body’s position to gravity over the tympanic membrane.
C) comparing linear and radial speeds of the body to the attitude of the aircraft.
D) measuring linear and radial acceleration within the inner ear.

366. The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor…

A) angular accelerations.
B) movements with constant speeds.
C) relative speed and linear accelerations.
D) gravity.

367. Which of the following factors contribute&s& to the onset of motion

sickness?
A) Anxiety and hyperventilation.
B) Lack of sleep or rest.
C) Similarity between sensory inputs and terrestrial experiences.
D) Reduced sensitivity of the semicircular canal.

368. Symptoms of air sickness include…

A) hyperventilation.
B) shivering.
C) heavy&headedness.
D) hyperactivity.

369. When an aircraft stops rotating in a spin, those on board will experience
the sensation of…
A) starting a spin in the opposite direction.
B) turning in the same direction.
C) the immediate stabilisation of the aircraft.
D) a sharp dipping of the aircraft’s nose.

370. When accelerating in level flight the pilot is likely to experience the
sensation of a…
A) descent.
B) turn.
C) spin.
D) climb.

371. A pilot is on final approach over uniformly rising terrain towards a flat
runway. This creates the visual illusion of being too…
A) fast, which leads the pilot to reduce power too soon.
B) slow, which leads the pilot to steepen the approach or add power.
C) high, which leads the pilot to increase the rate of descent.
D) low, which leads the pilot to fly a more shallow approach.

372. “The so&called “”Seat&of&the&Pants”” sense is…”

A) unsuitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost.
B) only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC.
C) useful for instrument and contact flight.
D) the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC.

373. The Seat&of&the&Pants sense involves receptors in the…

A) skin only.
B) utriculus and sacculus.
C) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts.
D) semicircular canals.

374. “The proprioceptive senses &seat&of&the&pants sense& are important

for motor coordination.They”
A) are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
B) indicate the difference between gravity and G&forces
C) are important senses for flight training in IMC
D) allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition

375. “Orientation in flight is accomplished by the:1. eyes2. middle ear3.

semicircular canals4. seat&of&the&pants sense”
A) 3 and 4 only are correct
B) 1 only is correct
C) 1, 3 and 4 only are correct
D) 1 and 4 only are correct

376. A pilot is used to landing on small and narrow runways only. Approaching
a larger and wider runway can lead to…
A) “an early or high “”round out””.”
B) a steeper&than&normal approach, dropping low.
C) “a flatter&than&normal approach with the risk of “”ducking under””.”
D) a risk of landing short of the overrun.

377. The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a

relatively long period of time in the dark is called…
A) “””oculogyral illusion”””
B) “””oculografic illusion””.”
C) “””autokinesis””.”
D) “””white out””.”

378. Rapid linear acceleration during the take&off roll may lead to the illusion
of being in a nose&up attitude. What is this kind of illusion called?
A) Somatogravic illusion.
B) Inversion illusion.
C) Autokinetic illusion.
D) Coriolis illusion.

379. When flying in gradually deteriorating visual conditions, what strategy

will help the pilot to avoid spatial disorientation?
A) Rely increasingly on the indications of the flight instruments.
B) Keep head and eye movements to a minimum.
C) Reduce environmental factors such as stress and distractions.
D) Trust the body’s kinaesthetic sense of movement.

380. When flying in IMC, a pilot is more susceptible to spatial disorientation

when…
A) the eyes are moved rapidly while scanning to check flight instruments.
B) the head is tilted abruptly while experiencing rapid linear acceleration.
C) body sensations are primarily relied upon to interpret flight attitudes.
D) ignoring or overcoming the sensations of the muscles and inner ear.

381. Flying a daytime visual approach with reduced visibility due to fog, rain or
haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is…
A) closer to the runway than it actually is, and the pilot has a tendency to fly a much steeper
approach.
B) at a greater distance from the runway than it actually is, and the pilot tends to fly a
shallow glide path and land long.
C) faster than it actually is on the approach, and the pilot risks reducing power too early and
landing short of the runway.
D) lower than it actually is on the approach, and the pilot risks landing long and overshooting
the runway by staying higher.

382. “The “”Seat&of&the&Pants”” sense…”

A) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation.
B) can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and
instrument meteorological conditions
C) can give false inputs regarding the body’s orientation when visual reference is lost.
D) is a natural human instinct that reliably and accurately indicates the body’s position in
space.

383. “How can a pilot overcome vertigo, encountered during a real or

simulated instrument flight?1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument
cross&check.2. Always believe the instruments
A) 2
B) 1 and 4 are correct, 2 and 3 are false
C) 1, 2, and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

384. Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are…
A) relative movement and cockpit height above the ground.
B) visibility and distance.
C) distance from the edge of the taxiway and cockpit lighting.
D) distance from the edge of the taxiway and taxi lighting.

385. The Somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of…
A) climbing and turning to the right.
B) descending and turning to the right.
C) descending and turning to the left.
D) climbing or descending.

386. Autokinesis can give the pilot the impression that…

A) the aircraft is climbing.
B) a star is another aircraft.
C) lights are further away than in fact they are.
D) lights from ships are stars.

387. One of the major protective measures against illusions is…

A) wearing of good quality sun glasses.
B) wearing of polaroid sun glasses.
C) regular eye tests.
D) comprehensive briefing and de&briefing.

388. “State the conditions which cause the “”black hole effect”” and the
danger to flight safety. The “”black hole effect”” can be caused by flying…”
A) over water at night on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the
aircraft is at a higher altitude than it really is, leading to a high approach being flown.
B) under instruments with poor cockpit lighting and can lead to disorientation.
C) over featureless terrain on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that
the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it really is, leading to a high approach being flown.
D) over water at night on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the
aircraft is at a higher altitude than it really is, leading to a low approach being flown.

389. “Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between
the visual system and the vestibular system ?1. Illusions concerning the
attitude of the aircraft2. Autokinetic illusion &when a fixed point is viewed as
moving&3. Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects4.
Illusions of rotation”
A) 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 and 4

390. When might a pilot have the sensation of a nose&low attitude?

A) When rapidly accelerating in straight, horizontal flight.
B) When carrying out a sustained, gentle turn.
C) When rapidly decelerating in straight, horizontal flight.
D) During angular acceleration.

391. “Sensory input to the “”Seat&of&the&Pants”” sense is given by…”

A) blood rushing into legs.
B) subcutaneous pressure receptors and muscle activity sensors.
C) pressure of the heart on the diaphragm.
D) acceleration of the stomach &nausea&.

392. Illuminated anti&collision lights in IMC…

A) can cause colour&illusions.
B) can cause disorientation.
C) will improve the pilot’s depth perception.
D) will effect the pilot’s binocular vision.

393. A shining light is fading out &i.e. when flying into fog, dust or haze&.
What kind of illusion could the pilot get?
A) The source of light stands still.
B) The source of light moves away from him/her.
C) The source of light is approaching him/her with increasing speed.
D) The light source will make the pilot believe that he/she is climbing.

394. Autokinesis is…

A) the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark.
B) the automatic adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at different distances.
C) the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively long period
of time in the dark.
D) the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol.

395. Which of the following statements is correct concerning flight in an

environment of low contrast &fog, snow, darkness, haze&?
A) There is no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects.
B) It is unlikely that visual illusions occur.
C) It is difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects.
D) It is impossible to detect objects.

396. A pilot approaching an upsloping runway…

A) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long.
B) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him/her to land short.
C) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out.
D) establishes a higher than normal approach speed.

397. What illusion may occur if an aircraft is flying into fog, snow or haze?
A) Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality.
B) Objects will appear to be static.
C) Objects seem to be farther away than in reality.
D) Objects will appear closer than they really are.

398. A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when

approaching to a narrow runway, that he/she is at a…
A) lower height than he/she actually is, with the tendency to overshoot.
B) greater height than he/she actually is, with the tendency to land short.
C) lower height and the impression of landing slow.
D) greater height and the impression of landing short.

399. Flying a coordinated level turn will…

A) make the blood being pooled in the head.
B) make the seat&of&the&pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body’s vertical
axis.
C) first give the impression of climb, then the impression of descent.
D) make the body’s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body’s vertical
axis.

400. Which sensation does a pilot get, when rolling out of a prolonged level
turn?
A) Flying straight and level.
B) Turning in the opposite direction.
C) Turning into the original direction.
D) Climbing.

401. Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a

tight turn, are symptoms of…
A) “””Oculogravic illusion””.”
B) “””Flicker vertigo””.”
C) “””Pilot’s vertigo””.”
D) “””Nystagmus””.”

402. “””Pilot’s vertigo””…”

A) is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses
to the central nervous system &CNS&.
B) is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn.
C) announces the beginning of air sickness.
D) is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration.

403. “What can a pilot do to avoid “”Flicker vertigo”” when flying in the
clouds?”
A) Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds.
B) Fly straight and level and avoid head movements.
C) Switch strobe&lights off.
D) Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections.

404. Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades…

A) can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea.
B) has no effect.
C) can be avoided when the strobe&lights are switched on.
D) should be avoided, because it may destroy the optic nerve.

405. What is the correct action to counteract vertigo?

A) Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe again normally.
B) Rely on the information from the semicircular canals, since these will be transmitting
correct information.
C) Believe the instruments.
D) Concentrate on the vertical speed indicator.
406. The risk of spatial disorientation increases when…
A) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross&check and is ignoring illusions.
B) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs.
C) the pilot is buckled tightly to his/her seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the
aircraft by the Seat&of&the&Pants sense.
D) information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored.

407. Which flight&manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head
while…
A) climbing.
B) flying straight and level.
C) descending.
D) banking.

408. Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when stopping
the rotation to recover from a spin? He/she will get the illusion of…
A) straight and level flight.
B) climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin.
C) spinning into the opposite direction.
D) spinning into the same direction.

409. When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will…

A) give the illusion of banking.
B) give the illusion of climbing &body tilting backwards, nose of the aircraft going up&.
C) give the illusion of descending &body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the aircraft
going down&.
D) give the illusion of straight and level flight.

410. A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may experience…

A) the illusion to turning.
B) the illusion of climbing or descending.
C) the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left.
D) the feeling of rotation.

411. To prevent vertigo in flight we should…

A) look towards the sides when we make a turn.
B) avoid moving the head suddenly while we are turning.
C) breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency.
D) keep breathing normally.

412. During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to
overcome illusions is the…
A) visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator.
B) “””seat&of&the&pants”” sense.”
C) visual sense by looking outside.
D) vestibular sense.
413. Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight…
A) when flying in light rain below the ceiling.
B) if the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not believe the instruments.
C) when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer.
D) when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check.

414. Autokinetic illusion is…

A) when a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may & without
a frame of reference & appear to move.
B) the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into
the opposite direction of the acceleration.
C) poor interpretation of the surrounding world.
D) a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations.

415. “Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:1. flying in IMC2.
frequently changing between inside and outside references3. flying from IMC
into VMC4. approaching over still water at night”
A) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

416. Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false
sensation of…
A) the sideward movement of objects in the field of vision.
B) pitching up.
C) vertigo.
D) pitching down.

417. Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the
illusion of…
A) climbing.
B) descending.
C) yawing.
D) spinning.

418. Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation, is the result of…

A) gazing in the direction of a flashing light.
B) simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres.
C) normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age.
D) undergoing positive G.

419. A pilot who is trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor
during a tight turn may experience…
A) a Coriolis illusion.
B) an autokinetic illusion.
C) barotrauma.
D) pressure vertigo.
420. Empty field myopia is caused by…
A) ozone at altitude.
B) a lack of distant focal points.
C) flying over mountainous terrain.
D) atmospheric perspective.

421. When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds
in the dark he/she might get the illusion that…
A) the light is moving.
B) the intensity of the light is varying.
C) the size of the light is varying.
D) the colour of the light is varying.

422. When you stare at a single light against the dark &i.e. an isolated star&
you will find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is
called…
A) the black hole illusion.
B) the Coriolis illusion.
C) autokinesis.
D) the leans.

423. How may haze effect perception?

A) Objects seem to be further away than in reality.
B) Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity
C) There will be better contrast between objects
D) Objects seem to be closer than in reality.

424. “The “”Black hole”” phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and
over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking visual cues other than
those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of…”
A) being too close, landing long.
B) being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short.
C) climbing.
D) being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal.

425. You fly VFR from your home base &runway width 27 m&, to an
international airport &runway width 45 m&. On reaching your destination there
is a risk of performing a…
A) high approach with undershoot.
B) high approach with overshoot.
C) low approach with overshoot.
D) low approach with undershoot.

426. You fly VFR from your home base &runway width 45 m& to a small airfield
&runway width 27 m&. On reaching your destination there is a risk of
performing a…
A) high approach with undershoot.
B) low approach with undershoot.
C) high approach with overshoot.
D) low approach with overshoot.

427. “What can be said about the following statements?1. In case of conflicting
information you can always trust your Seat&of&the&Pants sense.2. In case of
conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you
must believe the instruments.”
A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) 1 is false, 2 is correct
C) 1 is correct, 2 is false
D) 1 and 2 are false

428. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial

disorientation?
A) Rely on the Seat&of&the&Pants sense.
B) Tilt your head to the side to get better information from the semicircular canals.
C) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
D) Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off&centre vision all the
time.

429. How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?

A) Always try to catch outside visual cues.
B) Establish and maintain a good instrument cross&check.
C) Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses.
D) “Rely on the “”seat of the pants”” sense.”

430. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should…
A) scan the surroundings.
B) continue on instruments.
C) dim the cockpit lighting.
D) use your oxygen mask.

431. If you are disorientated during night flying you must…

A) rely on your instruments.
B) look outside.
C) descend.
D) check your rate of breathing & do not breathe too fast.

432. What can cause spatial disorientation?

A) False perception of orientation of the aircraft with respect to spatial references.
B) Damage to the receptor cells in the eyes.
C) Reference to well&defined external visual references, such as the horizon.
D) Flying in clear daylight conditions.
433. How can vertigo be prevented in conditions of good visibility?
A) By looking at the horizon.
B) By closing the eyes momentarily.
C) By looking approximately 5° to one side of an object.
D) By avoiding blinking.

434. On an approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glide

slope information…
A) there is a risk of you entering a spin.
B) judgement of height is extremely difficult.
C) estimation of height and distance is not a problem for a well&trained pilot.
D) pilots tend to estimate the distance to touch down as shorter than in reality.

435. On experiencing a vestibular illusion in straight and level flight, it is

recommended that…
A) you rely on your sensations only, as humans are much more reliable than flight
instruments.
B) you avoid head movements and rely on your instruments.
C) you tilt your head to the side opposite to the turn to nullify the stimulus causing the
illusion.
D) you close your eyes for a moment so that the oculo&vestibular conflict disappears.

436. When the weather is foggy on approach, a pilot may get the impression
that…
A) the aircraft’s altitude is lower than it actually is.
B) his/her eyes are focusing on infinity.
C) his/her visual field is shrinking &i.e. tunnel vision&.
D) the airfield is further away than it actually is.

437. A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach despite the aircraft
being on the correct glide path…
A) when the runway is wider than he/she is used to.
B) on night approaches only.
C) when the runway is unusually narrow.
D) depending on the approach speed of the aircraft.

438. “The “”Leans”” or somatogyral illusion can be caused by…”

A) a carrier take&off.
B) going into a turn too quickly.
C) reducing bank following a prolonged turn.
D) bunting the aircraft.

439. One illusion that pilots experience in conditions of fog or mist are that
objects appear to be…
A) closer than they really are and this can lead to steep approaches.
B) closer than they really are and this can lead to shallow approaches.
C) further away than they really are and this can lead to shallow approaches.
D) further away than they really are and this can lead to steep approaches.
440. What would be the effect if, in a tight turn, one bends down to pick up a
pencil?
A) Coriolis illusion.
B) Vertigo.
C) Barotrauma.
D) Inversion Illusion.

441. An illusion of obtaining greater height above ground can occur when…
A) flying over high terrain in good visibility.
B) accelerating at low altitude.
C) suddenly flying over small trees after prolonged flying over tall trees.
D) decelerating at low altitude.

442. “While flying VFR “”wings level”” on top of clouds at 10000 feet, your
artificial horizon indicates a 20 degree bank.”
A) You trust the instrument and level off according to the instrument read&out.
B) “You take the proper action by “”leaning”” toward the lower end of the artificial horizon,
thus compensating for the perceptional illusion.”
C) “You pull the circuit breaker to the artificial horizon knowing that perceptional illusions
called “”leans”” might severely impair your control of the aircraft.”
D) No attitude correction is needed since you know that your vision is more reliable than the
instrument with regards to spatial orientation.

443. Perceptional illusions are:

A) normal and can be prevented by trusting instrument read&out.
B) abnormal and indicate weakness in one or more of the senses.
C) usually not serious except in bad weather.
D) never caused by the brain’s ability to distort normal sense inputs.

444. “A “”Graveyard Spin”” is…”

A) an illusion caused by misperception of being higher than you really are when performing a
spin. Thus the recovery tends to be dangerously low.
B) a fatal accident caused by a state of spinning the fluid in the brain.
C) a spin in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re&enter the spin due to the somatogyral
illusion where the vestibular system no longer senses radial acceleration.
D) a spin manoeuvre that should only be performed by well&trained pilots.

445. The Coriolis effect in spatial disorientation occurs as a result of…

A) the absence of stimulation on the semicircular canals.
B) simultaneous stimulation of several semicircular canals.
C) intense stimulation of the cochlea.
D) stimulation of the saccule and the utricle &otoliths& of the inner ear.

446. “The proprioceptive senses &””seat of&the&pants”” sense&…”

A) cannot be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC.
B) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC.
C) is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude.
D) may give incorrect information, when outside visual reference is lost.

447. “What do you do, when you are affected by “”pilot’s vertigo””?1. Make
occasional jerking movements of the head.2. Establish and maintain an
effective instrument cross&check.3. Believe the instruments.4. Ignore
illusions.”
A) 2, 3, and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
C) Only 4 is false
D) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

448. A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel
he/she is at a greater height than he/she actually is. To compensate he/she
may fly a…
A) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot.
B) compensatory glide path and land long.
C) compensatory glide path and stall out.
D) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot.

449. When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as

possible. This is a prevention against…
A) Coriolis illusions.
B) autokinesis.
C) oculogyral illusions.
D) pressure vertigo.

450. To prevent empty field myopia at higher altitudes…

A) a pilot should use short, sharp scans, or periodically focus on a distant object such as a
wingtip or cloud edge.
B) it is recommended that a pilot focuses on a nearby object that is known to be
approximately one metre away.
C) one should concentrate only on the instruments.
D) one should book an appointment with an ophthalmologist as soon as possible.

451. Which are the two restorative processes that regulate the human body’s
pattern of sleepiness and alertness throughout the day?
A) Light/dark homeostasis and the circadian dysrhythmia.
B) Light/dark homeostasis and the parasomnia rhythm.
C) Sleep/wake homeostasis and the parasomnia process.
D) Sleep/wake homeostasis and the circadian rhythm.

452. How many bouts of REM &Rapid Eye Movement& sleep typically occur in
an 8&hour sleep period?
A) 4 or 5
B) 2 or 3
C) 8 or 9
D) 6 or 7

453. The effects of sleep deprivation on performance…

A) increase with altitude but can increase or decrease with higher workload.
B) increase with altitude and higher workload.
C) decrease with altitude but can increase or decrease with higher workload.
D) increase with higher workload but can increase or decrease with altitude.

454. “Which of the following statements correctly describes the amount of

recovery sleep required to repay an accumulated sleep debt?The amount of
sleep required to make up a deficit…”
A) is roughly half the number of hours of sleep missed.
B) equals the number of hours of sleep missed.
C) is at least twice the number of hours of sleep missed.
D) is slightly greater than the number of hours of sleep missed.

455. In the absence of external time cues, what is the approximate duration of
a free&running circadian rhythm?
A) 1 hour to 2 hours.
B) 6 hours to 8 hours.
C) 24 hours to 28 hours.
D) 10 hours to 12 hours.

456. What are the four sleep&related processes that affect the level of
performance?
A) Circadian Rhythm, Homeostatic Sleep Drive, Insomnia, and Sleepiness.
B) Sleep Regulation, Elevated Sleep Drive, Desynchronisation, and Sleep Inertia.
C) Sleep Inertia, Sleep Latency, Sleep Regulation, and Sleep Apnoea.
D) Sleep Regulation, Sleep Apnoea, Diurnal Synchronisation, and Sleep Drive.

457. Which of the following is an adverse effect on an individual’s sleep

pattern caused by circadian dysrhythmia &jet&lag&?
A) A stronger sleep drive, dependent on the number of time zones crossed.
B) Increased sleep inertia, which is more pronounced during westward travel.
C) Trying to sleep when a person’s biological rhythm is highly energised.
D) An increased probability of suffering from sleep attacks &micro&sleeps&.

458. Which of the following statements is true regarding the human’s ability to
deal with circadian dysrhythmia, better known as ‘jet&lag’?
A) The human’s rate of adaptation is independent of the direction and duration of travel.
B) The rate of adaptation depends on the number of time zones crossed and the direction of
travel.
C) There is a prescriptive formula for calculating a precise number of days needed for
circadian adaptation.
D) Circadian adaptation is less likely to occur during long&haul trips of more than 3 days.
459. “The term “”circadian rhythm”” describes the”
A) natural drive to sleep that increases as the day progresses, and which also affects the
ability to sustain attention.
B) period of impaired cognitive performance and reduced vigilance following awakening from
a regular sleep episode.
C) biological cycle controlled by a 24&hour internal clock in the brain that regulates
behavioural and physiological changes.
D) physiological state in which there is a decreased capacity to perform cognitive tasks and
an increased variability in performance.

460. How many of the so&called Rapid Eye Movement &REM& stages do we
usually experience during a normal night’s sleep, and how frequently do they
occur?
A) 3 to 4 REM stages that occur every 140 minutes to 180 minutes.
B) 4 to 5 REM stages that occur every 90 minutes to 120 minutes.
C) 1 to 2 REM stages that occur every 180 minutes to 240 minutes.
D) 6 to 7 REM stages that occur every 60 minutes to 70 minutes.

461. In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing,
circadian rhythms require…
A) less time when flying from east to west.
B) more time when flying from east to west.
C) about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift.
D) about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift.

462. The re&adjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally
more difficult with flights towards the…
A) West.
B) East.
C) North.
D) South.

463. What number is needed to make the following statement correct? The
normal sleep cycle lasts approximately ___ minutes.
A) 120
B) 90
C) 180
D) 60

464. If a stop&over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is to…

A) move towards the new time as soon as possible.
B) stay on home time and, on arrival, move to the new time.
C) stay on home time.
D) make no adjustment as it is not necessary.

465. During paradoxical sleep…

A) respiration is very regular.
B) rapid eye movements can be observed.
C) the rhythm of the heart is very regular.
D) physical restoration and recuperation takes place.

466. The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise
to this new time zone at a rate of about…
A) 2 & 2.5 hours a day.
B) 1 & 1.5 hours a day.
C) 3 & 3.5 hours a day.
D) 4 & 4.5 hours a day.

467. The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by the…

A) amount of time you have been awake.
B) point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep.
C) “number of points you have in your “”credit/deficit”” system.”
D) duration of your previous sleep.

468. “Concerning circadian rhythm disruption &jet lag&, adjustment to

destination time:1. takes longer when travelling west rather than travelling
east2. takes longer when travelling east rather than travelling west3. varies
little between individuals4. varies substantially among individualsWhich of the
following lists all the correct statements?”
A) 2 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3

469. The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about…

A) 12 hours.
B) 25 hours.
C) 48 hours.
D) 1.5 hours.

470. What seems to be the main role of deep &stage 3 and 4& sleep?
A) It essentially allows for physical recovery.
B) It includes physical and mental recuperation associated with fatigue.
C) Its main role is associated with memory activities and restoration of attention capabilities.
D) It ensures physical recovery, and is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and
paradoxical phases.

471. “Disturbance of the biological clock is most likely to appear after a:1. bad
night’s sleep2. day flight Amsterdam & New York3. day flight Amsterdam &
Johannesburg4. night flight New York & Amsterdam”
A) 1 and 3 are correct
B) 2 and 4 are correct
C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
472. “Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns:1. can lead to
symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration.2. will make an
individual more prone to make errors.”
A) 1 and 2 are both not correct
B) 1 and 2 are both correct
C) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
D) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct

473. “Which of the following statements is/are correct?1. A person

experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal performance
degradation2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after
awaking from a short sleep &nap&”
A) 1 and 2 are both correct
B) 1 is false, 2 is correct
C) 1 is correct, 2 is false
D) 1 and 2 are both false

474. “The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night’s sleep.1. Each
succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM&sleep.2. Frequent
interruption of the REM&sleep may be harmful.”
A) 1 and 2 are both false
B) 1 and 2 are both correct
C) 1 is false, 2 is correct
D) 1 is correct, 2 is false

475. “Which of the following statements is/are correct?1. REM&sleep becomes

shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.2. REM&sleep is more
important for the regeneration of mental functions than all the other sleep
stages are.”
A) 1 is false, 2 is correct
B) 1 is correct, 2 is false
C) 1 and 2 are false
D) 1 and 2 are both correct

476. In the case of changes to circadian rhythms, the readjustment to a new

time zone…
A) occurs immediately, as circadian rhythms do not change depending on the direction of
flying.
B) is the same in both westbound and eastbound flights.
C) is most rapid when flying eastbound.
D) is most rapid when flying westbound.

477. The sleep pattern is closely associated with…

A) body temperature.
B) blood pressure.
C) heart rate.
D) glucose level.
478. Free&running circadian rhythms normally have a cycle of approximately…
A) 36 hours.
B) 6 hours.
C) 8 hours.
D) 25 hours.

479. To resynchronise a circadian rhythm, it takes more time after…

A) eastbound flights.
B) northbound flights.
C) southbound flights.
D) westbound flights.

480. “Which is correct?1. Paradoxic &REM& sleep refreshes the brain, memory
and body.2. Paradoxic &REM& sleep decreases during the night.”
A) 1 & 2
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) Neither

481. On average most human adults require approximately how many hours
sleep per night?
A) 8 hrs
B) 4 hrs
C) 10 hrs
D) 6 hrs

482. Including REM, how many stages of sleep are there?

A) Two
B) Four
C) Three
D) Five

483. If a crew is having a stop&over for less than 24 hours before returning to
their homebase, what coping strategy should be used for jet lag?
A) Maintain an eating and sleeping cycle based on the home time.
B) Only have meals when it is daylight and sleep when it is dark, to ensure sufficient sleep
credit.
C) Eat light meals only and have regular naps instead of a proper sleep.
D) Change the eating and sleeping cycle to the stop&over &destination& time.

484. In a multi&crew aircraft taking a nap in the cockpit…

A) is as effective as horizontal rest.
B) should last longer than 40 minutes in order to ensure that deep sleep stages are
achieved.
C) should last between 15 to 40 minutes.
D) can be used to reduce sleep depth.
485. What characterises Rapid Eye Movement &REM& sleep?
A) The brain is highly active.
B) High muscle tone.
C) No dreams occur.
D) Breathing and heart rate are slow and regular.

486. Using the sleep credit/debit model, 8 hours sleep produces a sleep credit
of…
A) 16 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 18 hours.
D) 4 hours.

487. “Which of the following is true when sleeping?1. Metabolic rate falls2.
Arterial blood pressure falls3. The pulse rate decreases4. The sensitivity level
of the senses is increased”
A) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
B) 2, 3, and 4 are correct
C) 1, 3, and 4 are correct
D) 1 and 3 only are correct

488. What are the main effects of a lack of sleep on performance?

A) It increases fatigue, reduces concentration and increases the risk of sensory illusions.
B) It increases fatigue and difficulties in concentration, but facilitates stress management by
muscular relaxation.
C) It causes muscular spasms.
D) It reduces concentration and fatigue, but only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours.

489. Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by

A) pain in the joints
B) dizziness
C) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
D) noises in the ear

490. A barotrauma of the middle ear is:

A) an acute or chronic trauma to the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either
side of the eardrum
B) a dilatation of the Eustachian tube
C) an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression
D) a bacterial infection of the middle ear

491. “The effects of otic barotrauma may worsen during the aircraft’s descent
because of a certain tendency that prevents equalisation of the pressure
differential. What is this tendency?As the outside air pressure increases, the
lower pressure of the air entrapped within the”
A) middle ear tends to also constrict the walls of the Eustachian tube.
B) inner ear tends to also constrict the walls of the Otolith tube.
C) middle ear tends to also constrict the walls of the Otolith tube.
D) inner ear tends to also constrict the walls of the Eustachian tube.

492. The BMI of a pilot who is 1.75 metres tall and has a mass of 75 kg shows
that he/she…
A) has an ideal body weight.
B) is underweight.
C) is obese.
D) is overweight.

493. What effect does a head cold have on the rate at which the Eustachian
tube equalises air pressure between the middle ear and the environment?
A) It increases it only during descent.
B) It increases it in general.
C) The rate is unaffected.
D) It reduces it.

494. The main reason why it is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold is
that…
A) it can result in damage to the eardrum during gentle descents at high altitude.
B) swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic
membrane.
C) swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss.
D) it can result in pain and damage to the eardrum, particularly during fast descents.

495. Hypoglycaemia can be avoided by…

A) not taking snacks between meals.
B) regular eating and following a balanced diet.
C) removing all sugar and sweets from one’s diet.
D) consuming peanuts because of their high energy value.

496. To avoid incapacity due to gastro&intestinal problems, it is recommended

that a simple, easily digested meal before boarding the aircraft should be
accompanied by…
A) wine or beer.
B) non&carbonated water.
C) carbonated water.
D) no drinks, as fluids are not important.

497. One of the measures that a pilot should take when in an area where
gastro&intestinal upsets are endemic is to avoid…
A) curries or gassy foods.
B) ice in cold drinks.
C) cooked meats.
D) cooked fruits.
498. What is the role of the Eustachian tube?
A) It collects sound waves and directs them to the eardrum.
B) It allows ambient pressure to equalise both sides of the vestibular apparatus.
C) It equalises pressure between the middle ear and the environment.
D) It passes the sound waves from the cochlea to the auditory nerve.

499. Hypoglycaemia can cause pilots to lose concentration. In the short term,
it may be prevented by…
A) taking light exercise before a flight.
B) eating a snack.
C) drinking lots of water.
D) drinking tea without sugar.

500. A pain in the ear is worse during the descent than climb because…
A) during the climb the humidity in the middle ear is greater than that of the cabin.
B) the air in the middle ear is at a lower pressure than the cabin, closing the Eustachian tube
and preventing pressure equalisation.
C) during the descent the cabin altitude increases faster than the Eustachian tube can open.
D) the air pressure in the inner ear increases more slowly than the cabin’s, extending the
time taken to equalise the pressure between the middle ear and environment.

501. Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by…
A) increasing the rate of descent.
B) blocking the affected ear with the palm of your hand.
C) levelling off and possibly climbing.
D) using an oxygen mask.

502. An aircraft will be taking off from an area of endemic insect&borne

disease. What precaution must be taken to ensure that disease&carrying
insects are not transported between areas?
A) Check the medical records of all passengers.
B) Spray the aircraft interior with insecticide.
C) Wash the aircraft with disinfectants.
D) Avoid bringing food from the area onto the aircraft.

503. Cholera can be transmitted through…

A) food or water which has been contaminated.
B) droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person.
C) insect bites.
D) bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin.

504. In tropical zones, it is recommended that…

A) one eats raw vegetables.
B) one eats fruit without peeling them, to ensure a supply of vitamins.
C) cold drinks be taken from sealed containers.
D) one uses ice cubes in cold drinks.
505. “When travelling abroad, aircrew should be careful about the water they
consume if they are to avoid diseases that can be caused by contaminated
water. Which combination of the following methods should be adopted to
minimise this risk?1. Purifying water with a chemical tablet2. Drinking citrus
fruit diluted with local water3. Drinking hot tea or coffee made using local
water”
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3

506. In order to reduce the occurrence of gastro&intestinal upsets, whilst

abroad crew members should avoid…
A) drinking local water but can use tap water for brushing teeth.
B) eating local meats and should prefer seafood.
C) eating reheated or partially cooked food.
D) eating local vegetables but there are no restrictions on fruits.

507. Pilots spending time in tropical areas should try and reduce risk of
infection by…
A) avoiding hot, spicy food.
B) eating shellfish and other seafood.
C) covering up when going out at night.
D) eating cold cooked meats.

508. Pilots need to keep hydrated. Water helps the body to…
A) regulate the amount of sugar in the blood.
B) reduce the risk of hypothermia.
C) absorb nutrients.
D) retain its waste materials for long periods during flight.

509. “To prevent gastro&intestinal problems in tropical climates you should:1.

eat salad or raw vegetables2. always peel fruit3. only eat food that has been
properly cooked4. avoid ice&creamWhich of the following lists all the correct
answers?”
A) 2 and 4 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1, 2 and 3 only

510. “When traveling in developing and tropical areas of the world, aircrew
should avoid which of the following?1. Ice cubes in drinks2. Swimming in local
lakes or rivers3. Cooked fruit4. Local ice cream and salads5. Wearing short
clothing in the evenings”
A) 1, 3, and 5 only.
B) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only.
C) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only.
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only.

511. How is Yellow fever contracted?

A) By contact with the saliva of infected animals.
B) Contaminated food or water.
C) A virus transmitted by an infected mosquito.
D) Excessive use of alcohol.

512. “In the tropics gastroenteritis is a common disease among travellers.

Which of the following statements are correct?1. Gastroenteritis is often
caused by bacteria2. Washing your hands is one of the most effective ways of
preventing infection3. Liquid intake should be reduced when suffering from
gastroenteritis4. Gastroenteritis is the most common cause of pilot
incapacitation”
A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1, 3, and 4

513. “The incidence of type 2 diabetes is increasing worldwide. Risk factors for
diabetes type 2 are:1. obesity2. genetic background3. low levels of physical
activity4. low calorie intake.The combination which includes all the correct
statements is…”
A) 2, 3 and 4 only.
B) 1, 2 and 3 only.
C) 1 and 4 only.
D) 1 and 2 only.

514. “Back problems are common amongst pilots. Effective ways of preventing
back pain are:1. physiotherapy2. losing weight, if overweight3. keeping in
good physical condition4. hypnosis. The combination which includes all the
correct statements is…”
A) 2 and 3 only.
B) 2, 3 and 4.
C) 1, 2 and 3.
D) 1 and 3 only.

515. “Reasons for lower back pain are:1. a Body Mass Index &BMI& of 20 to
232. different length of the lower extremities3. slipped intervertebral disc4.
muscular tension and fatigue of the back muscles. The combination which
includes all the correct statements is…”
A) 2 and 4 only.
B) 3 and 4 only.
C) 2, 3, and 4.
D) 1, 3, and 4.

516. What is the best primary protection against Yellow Fever?

A) Antibacterial tablets
B) Vaccination
C) Antiviral tablets
D) Drinking clean water

517. Gastro&intestinal upset during flight may be very disabling to pilots. Early
stages of gastroenteritis may result in
A) diarrhoea, feverishness, and chest pains.
B) high temperature, dizziness, and vomiting.
C) vomiting, diarrhoea, and cramping pains.
D) cramping pains, blurred vision, and high temperature.

518. Which of the following three conditions will decrease your G&tolerance?
A) Obesity, alcohol, sleep deprivation.
B) Loss of body fluids, full stomach, 20 degrees backward tilted sitting position.
C) Cold, 30 degrees backward tilted sitting position, short body &short stature&.
D) Old age, short body &short stature&, an empty stomach.

519. Disruptions of pressure equalisation in air&filled cavities of the head

&nose, ear etc.& are called…
A) hyperventilation.
B) barotrauma.
C) hypoxia.
D) embolism.

520. Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestines

can lead to…
A) pressure pain or flatulence.
B) barotitis.
C) barosinusitis.
D) decompression sickness.

521. What counter&measure can be used against barotrauma of the middle

ear?
A) Apply anti&cold remedies prior to every flight to minimise the occurrence of barotrauma of
the middle ear.
B) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out. At the same time swallow or yawn.
C) Stop climbing and start the descent.
D) Increase the rate of descent.

522. Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose…

A) is caused by differences in pressure between the sinus cavities and the outside air
pressure.
B) only arises in flying and not in diving.
C) is only caused by colds and their effects.
D) is an irritation of the sinuses caused by the over&use of nasal sprays.
523. A barotrauma of the middle ear…
A) is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately
following the decompression will eliminate the problem.
B) is more likely when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descent.
C) causes severe pain in the sinuses.
D) is only caused by large pressure changes during climb.

524. “Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain.When is this the case?”
A) More frequent when flying above 18000 ft in a non&pressurised aircraft.
B) At lower altitudes.
C) During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 2000 ft.
D) Only in pressurised aircraft when flying at higher flight levels.

525. Which counter&measure can a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the
middle ear?
A) Use drugs against a cold.
B) Stop descending, climb again, then descend with a reduced sink rate.
C) Stop chewing and avoid making any swallowing movements.
D) Increase the rate of descent.

526. Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur…

A) when descending rapidly.
B) in sudden steep turns.
C) during a long high&altitude flight.
D) when climbing.

527. The risk of barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur…
A) when subjected to the Somatogravic Effect.
B) with colds and rapid descents.
C) with colds and slow ascents.
D) with colds and fast climbs.

528. It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is…
A) because it will seriously affect peripheral vision.
B) the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing
difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and
damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents.
C) swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production, resulting in
hyperventilation.
D) although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it
increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen,
gentle descents at high altitude would result in damage to the ear drum.

529. Which of the following statements concerning barotrauma are correct?

A) It is caused by pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the
ambient pressure.
B) It is mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its
internal pressures.
C) It is caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease
in altitude.
D) It is more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descent.

530. “Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1.
flatulence2. pain in the ear during descent3. vertigo4. pain in the nasal
sinuses”
A) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
D) 1 and 2 are correct

531. Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect?
A) Pain in the sinuses
B) Bends
C) Hypoxia
D) Chokes

532. Medical conditions such as high blood pressure, coronary problems and
diabetes are associated with…
A) hypoxia.
B) obesity.
C) cholera.
D) anorexia nervosa.

533. Barotrauma most commonly affects …

A) the facial sinuses, middle ear, and dental cavities.
B) the inner ear, facial sinuses, and stomach.
C) dental cavities, outer ear, and eyes.
D) the facial sinuses, outer ear, and stomach.

534. Trace elements are best obtained by eating…

A) a balanced diet.
B) vitamin pills.
C) dairy products and vegetables.
D) plenty of meat and vegetables.

535. When considering the eating&habits of pilots…

A) a high intake of chocolate is recommended before flight to prevent reactional
hypoglycaemia.
B) breakfast should bring about 25 & of the daily calorie intake.
C) a heavy supper is best.
D) low in fibre, protein and carbohydrate is ideal.

536. Tetanus is transmitted through…

A) bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin.
B) droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person.
C) food or water which has been contaminated.
D) insect bites.

537. Hepatitis ‘A’ is transmitted through…

A) bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin.
B) food or water which has been contaminated.
C) insect bites.
D) droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person.

538. What diseases can be associated with contaminated water?

A) Typhoid, cholera, dysentery.
B) Hydrophobia, cholera, dysentery.
C) Tetanus, typhoid, cholera.
D) Tetanus, typhoid, cholera, dysentery.

539. Having a cold or an infection of the upper respiratory tract you…

A) should not fly because the infection may cause hypoxia due to congestion in the nose.
B) should not fly because the congestion of the frontal sinuses may cause great pain which
can seriously affect your ability to control yourself and the aircraft.
C) must be careful when flying because the infection may cause hyperglycemia.
D) “may accept to fly an ambulance flight because “”Sinus squeeze”” is rare and represents
a minor danger to aviation.”

540. Flying while suffering from a cold may expose a pilot to…
A) otic and sinus barotrauma.
B) gastro&intestinal barotrauma.
C) sinus barotrauma only.
D) autokinesis.

541. Tattooing and immunisation with the use of improperly sterilised needles
or syringes may expose the receiver to which of the following?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Hepatitis B or C
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes

542. Using the Body Mass Index &BMI& formula, when will a pilot be classed
as obese?
A) Over 30 for males and 29 for females.
B) Over 26 for males and 25 for females.
C) Over 10 for males and 9 for females.
D) Over 20 for males and 19 for females.

543. Is it probable that the symptoms of Aerodontalgia start to show or

become more severe in the descent?
A) Only in pressurised aircraft.
B) No.
C) Only above 10000 ft AMSL.
D) Yes.

544. “Flying with a “”common cold””…”

A) increases the risk of hypertension.
B) may lead to incapacitation due to severe sinus or ear pain.
C) will cause infection in other crew members if you are flying in a pressurised aircraft.
D) is permitted as long as you are on treatment with antibiotics.

545. Hepatitis A infection…

A) can be prevented by gammaglobulin or vaccination.
B) is spread via blood contact.
C) is never fatal.
D) can turn into a permanent infection.

546. What action should a pilot take when suffering from a common cold, has
no fever, but his/her nose is running and he/she is unable to clear his/her
ears?
A) It is safe to fly even if the pilot is suffering from a common cold.
B) The pilot should not fly, because there is a risk of not succeeding to equalise the pressure
between the middle ear and ambient air.
C) The pilot should not fly, because the infection could spread to the bronchi.
D) The pilot should not fly, because the fever could go up to such an extent that there is a
risk of incapacitation during the flight.

547. The risk of suffering from type 2 diabetes may be reduced by…
A) avoiding being overweight.
B) removing fish from one’s diet.
C) removing carbohydrates from one’s diet.
D) avoiding proteins.

548. Physical exercise in high temperatures or tropical climates may…

A) increase a pilot’s resistance to decompression sickness.
B) cause dysentery.
C) cause the pilot to collapse, due to an excess of fluid in the body.
D) cause painful muscle and abdominal cramps.

549. The vitamin that affects night vision is…

A) Vitamin A.
B) Vitamin C.
C) Vitamin D.
D) Vitamin B.

550. A pilot is 1.7 metres &170 cm& tall and weighs 57 kg. She is…
A) normal weight.
B) overweight.
C) underweight.
D) obese.

551. A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor’s

prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is
correct:
A) The side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored
by pilots
B) They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flight
C) They will cause a condition of over&arousal
D) A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from an aviation
medical specialist if he intends to fly and self&medicate at the same time

552. “Which of the following beverages or food stuffs are most likely to
contain caffeine?1. Coca Cola2. Tea3. Carrots4. ChocolateThe combination
which includes all the correct statements is:”
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

553. “Some of the antihistamines are not suitable for pilots because they may
cause:1. Drowsiness and dizziness2. Hypoglycaemia3. Hyperventilation4.
FlatulenceWhich of the following lists all the correct answers?”
A) 1 and 3
B) 3 and 4
C) only 1
D) 2, 3 and 4

554. Smoking one packet of cigarettes a day impacts on a pilot’s oxygen

saturation such that his/her physiological altitude at sea level is
approximately…
A) 1000 ft to 3000 ft.
B) 3000 ft to 5000 ft.
C) 5000 ft to 8000 ft.
D) 9000 ft to 12000 ft.

555. “Which of the following statements are correct, as regards flying?1.

SCUBA diving may be practiced without restriction2. Many medicines have
effects which are incompatible with flight safety3. An adequate amount of fluid
should be drunk when flying4. Alcohol has no effect on the inner ear”
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

556. What is considered to be an excessive consumption of caffeine?

A) 250 mg/day.
B) 40&65 mg/day.
C) 150 mg/day.
D) 3 mg/day.

557. Alcohol when initially consumed causes an individual to…

A) speak fast and loudly.
B) be physically more active.
C) feel more relaxed.
D) have improved vision.

558. “Which of the following combination of factors may be associated with

the development of alcoholism?1. Genetics2. Access to cheap alcohol3.
Race4. Socio&cultural background”
A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3

559. Which substance causes rapid corrosion of the aircraft metal structure
and gives off highly toxic fumes?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Potassium hydroxide
C) Foam fire&extinguishing agent
D) Mercury

560. Symptoms and signs of alcoholism include

A) an altered tolerance to alcohol, repeated withdrawal symptoms, and conflict with the law.
B) a widening of the drinking repertoire, marital problems, and repeated withdrawal
symptoms.
C) improved social skills, conflict with the law, and relief from withdrawal symptoms by
further drinking.
D) marital problems, repeated withdrawal symptoms, and chest pains when breathing or
coughing.

561. Which of the following beverages contains caffeine?

A) Hot chocolate
B) Fruit juice
C) Fruit cordial
D) Peppermint tea

562. Medicines containing anti&histamines may cause which of the following

side effects?
A) Restlessness, irritability and excitability.
B) Headaches and impairment of activities requiring conscious thought.
C) Impaired cerebral function.
D) Drowsiness and loss of balance and coordination.
563. In the event of a fire, which of the following aircraft component parts or
liquids when burnt may give off toxic fumes?
A) Hydraulic fluids
B) Fire extinguishers made of steel
C) Furnishing and trimming materials
D) Anti&icing fluids

564. Nasal decongestant spray is a non&prescription drug used for cold relief.
One of the common side effects of such drugs is…
A) diarrhoea.
B) to suffer from hallucinations.
C) drowsiness.
D) impairment of cerebral function.

565. Alcohol, when taken in minor quantities,…

A) may improve one’s mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia can be recognised
more easily.
B) can make the brain cells more susceptible to hypoxia.
C) will have no detrimental effect on brain function.
D) will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia.

566. The rate at which alcohol is metabolised…

A) cannot be speeded up.
B) is accelerated by consuming alcohol with a meal.
C) can be increased by over&the&counter medication.
D) can be accelerated by drinking coffee.

567. Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there
are long&term and short&term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the
pilot can get…
A) a suppressed desire to eat and drink.
B) mild carbon monoxide poisoning, increasing the pilot’s tolerance to hypoxia.
C) mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot’s tolerance to hypoxia.
D) mild carbon dioxide poisoning, increasing the pilot’s tolerance to hypoxia

568. Flying in an unpressurised aircraft at a pressure altitude of 10000 ft, a

pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood
equal to an altitude…
A) above 10000 ft.
B) lower than 10000 ft.
C) of 10000 ft.
D) of 15000 ft, when breathing 100 & oxygen.

569. Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
A) Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100 & oxygen is taken.
B) Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance.
C) Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may
be lost.
D) Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcohol.

570. Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may…

A) intensify the effects of the drugs.
B) show undesired effects only during night flights.
C) compensate for side effects of drugs.
D) increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood.

571. One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it
significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a
consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Tar
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nicotine

572. Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?

A) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
B) Judgement and decision&making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol.
C) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
D) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolises alcohol at a faster rate than normal.

573. “Which statement is correct?1. Smokers have a greater chance of

suffering from coronary heart disease2. Smoking tobacco will raise the
individual’s physiological altitude during flight3. Smokers have a greater
chance of contracting lung cancer”
A) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
B) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false

574. “CO &carbon monoxide& present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to:1.
reduction of the time of useful consciousness2. hypoxia at a lower altitude
than normal”
A) 1 and 2 are both false
B) 1 and 2 are both correct
C) 1 is false, 2 is correct
D) 1 is correct, 2 is false

575. Excessive intake of aspirin can cause…

A) gastric bleeding.
B) sensory loss.
C) memory impairment.
D) fits.
576. Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will…
A) prevent serious hyperventilation due to the sedative effect of nicotine.
B) increase your G&tolerance considerably by increasing blood pressure.
C) not affect night vision when flying at sea level.
D) cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance.

577. In the event of fuel spillage onto the body it is advisable that the affected
area is…
A) initially washed with copious water and soap.
B) dried with a piece of cloth or tissue.
C) bandaged and medication is applied to avoid blistering.
D) immediately exposed to air to allow the fuel to evaporate as quickly as possible.

578. In the case of fire in flight most fatalities are caused by…
A) burns.
B) inhalation of hydrogen fumes.
C) suffocation from fumes caused by aircraft furnishing and wiring.
D) cardiac arrest caused by stress and fear.

579. The responsibility to make sure that self medication has no adverse effect
on a pilot’s ability to perform his/her duties safely lies with the…
A) aeromedical examiner.
B) pilot’s family doctor.
C) pilot.
D) aeromedical centre

580. Over&the&counter drugs…

A) may have some adverse effects on a pilot’s performance.
B) may be used at any time on flight duty.
C) are safe for pilots since they do not need any prescription.
D) do not have any effects on the central nervous system.

581. Select the correct statement from the ones below.

A) If someone has smoked for more than 20 years, the beneficial health effects of stopping
smoking are negligible.
B) Addiction to nicotine does not develop if someone has been smoking for less than half a
year.
C) The harmful effects of smoking are also detected in parts of the body other than the lungs
&e.g. bladder, kidneys and blood vessels&.
D) Low blood pressure is associated with smoking.

582. The consumption of alcohol affects sleep because it…

A) affects one’s sleep patterns.
B) constricts the peripheral blood vessels.
C) causes constipation during sleep.
D) lowers the body temperature when sleeping.
583. Select the correct statement from the ones below.
A) Smoking is a risk factor only for lung cancer.
B) Smoking is unhealthy because nicotine causes many forms of cancer.
C) Smoking reduces the capacity of the cardiovascular system to transport oxygen.
D) Smoking causes addiction because of the carbon monoxide contained in the smoke.

584. “The consumption of medicines or other substances may have

consequences on the qualification to fly for the following reasons:1. The
disease requiring a treatment may be a cause for disqualification.2. Flight
conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment.3. The licence
holder is prohibited from flying when taking any prescribed medicine.4. The
effects of the medicine may continue after the treatment is stopped.”
A) 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
B) Only 2 is false.
C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct, 3 is false

585. Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mg/100 ml

&equivalent to 0.6 promille& take to return to normal?
A) 4 hours
B) 20 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 1 hour

586. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to alcohol?

A) It is absorbed directly from the stomach and intestines into the bloodstream.
B) It affects Orthodox sleep only.
C) Eating while drinking alcohol reduces the amount of alcohol absorbed into the body.
D) The maximum limit for flight crew and cabin crew is 40 milligrams per 100 millilitres
&equivalent to 0.4 promille& of blood.

587. In a multi&pilot aircraft, what action might need to be taken by a crew

member if another crew member becomes incapacitated in flight?
A) Declare an emergency to ensure priority landing at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
B) Carry out a steep descent in the event of sinus or ear pain.
C) Ensure that the upper torso restraint of the affected crew member is loosened, to ensure
unrestricted breathing.
D) Continue as normal without taking any other action as one crew member can still land the
aircraft.

588. Which of the following statements about insidious incapacitation is

correct?
A) It is the most dangerous form of incapacitation as it may remain undetected by the other
pilot&s& in a multicrew cockpit.
B) Frequent medical screening can reduce the hazard caused by insidious incapacitation as
most of the medical causes can be detected before flight safety is affected.
C) Regular training of insidious incapacitation drills in a flight simulator is ineffective as this
type of incapacitation is subtle.
D) During an insidious incapacitation event in a multicrew aircraft, the affected pilot should
be allowed to continue operating during the less demanding phases of flight.

589. Major causes of incapacitation in flight could be…

A) gastrointestinal upset, stress, hypoxia and fatigue.
B) drunkenness, fatigue, poor diet and headache.
C) smoking, acute medical condition, lack of sleep and stress.
D) decompression sickness, high cabin temperature and fever.

590. “Which of the following courses of action should be taken if

gastrointestinal complaints in flight crew occur before to take&off?1. Take the
standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight2.
Assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor3. If in
doubt about fitness to fly & do not fly&4. Reduce the cabin temperature, and
drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration”
A) 2,3
B) 1,3
C) 1,2,4
D) 1,4

591. In&flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by…

A) behavioural disorders.
B) chronic pulmonary disorders.
C) acute gastrointestinal disorders.
D) cardiovascular disorders.

592. The most dangerous type of incapacitation in flight is one that…

A) develops slowly and gradually.
B) is temporary.
C) occurs very quickly.
D) is not severe in its effect.

593. If the pilot flying becomes incapacitated, the most important action for the
pilot not flying is to…
A) call one of the cabin crew to the cockpit.
B) inform ATC and ask for a priority clearance.
C) take control of the aeroplane.
D) get medical help for the incapacitated crew.

594. Cognitive psychology identifies several factors that affect a person’s level
of attention. They include…
A) human, psychological, and neurological factors.
B) internal, physical, and environmental factors.
C) psychological, biological, and operational factors.
D) environmental, physiological, and task factors.
595. Consciously processing information from one source at a time by careful
allocation of one’s available mental resources is described as…
A) selective attention.
B) divided attention.
C) hypovigilance.
D) vigilance.

596. “Divided attention is the ability:1. to execute several mental activities at

almost the same time &i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft
to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel&2. to monitor the progress of
a motor programme &i.e. flying or taxiing the aircraft& on a relatively
subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time &requiring a
rather conscious level&3. to select information and check if it is relevant to the
task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed.4. to
delegate tasks to the co&pilot while concentrating on the procedures”
A) Only 3 is false
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
D) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

597. During the cruise, at night, when the workload is low, it is recommended
that…
A) only those instruments that are vital to flying the aircraft be lit in order to avoid dividing
one’s attention.
B) the lighting in the cockpit be dimmed in order to prevent low vigilance.
C) the lighting in the cockpit be increased in order to prevent low vigilance.
D) the lighting in the cockpit be dimmed in order to reduce visual fatigue.

598. Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without

compromising either task?
A) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem.
B) Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory.
C) Listen attentively and solve a problem.
D) Read and listen attentively.

599. A pilot experiences difficulties in controlling the aircraft and consequently

omits to monitor the fuel level. This is caused by…
A) a lack of attention due to distraction.
B) both a lack of attention and a lack of alertness.
C) hypovigilance
D) a lack of alertness.

600. “The “”cocktail party effect”” is the…”

A) tendency not to perceive relevant information.
B) ability to drink too much at social gathering.
C) tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world.
D) ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally.
601. The Cocktail Party Effect is associated with…
A) attention mechanisms.
B) cohesion.
C) communications.
D) adaption.

602. A selective attentional mechanism is required because…

A) of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory.
B) the capacity of the long term memory is limited.
C) of the limitations of the sense organs.
D) of limitations in our store of motor programmes.

603. The available cognitive resources of the human brain…

A) allow for simultaneous operation of twin tasks without any loss of effectiveness.
B) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time.
C) are virtually unlimited.
D) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time.

604. “Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage
phases of reduced or low vigilance &hypovigilance&?1. Reduce the intensity
of the light2. Eat a meal3. Keep active, open communication between man and
machine4. Organise periods of rest during the flight”
A) 3 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 2 and 4

605. “Which of the following items are danger signs indicating a loss of
vigilance?1. Increase in selective attention2. Decrease in sensory perception3.
Sensation of muscular heaviness4. Decrease in complacency”
A) 2 and 4
B) 1 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3

606. “What is “”divided attention””?”

A) Managing several items of interest by dealing with them individually one by one.
B) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective.
C) Difficulty in concentrating on a particular objective.
D) The adverse effect of motivation, which leads to one’s attention being dispersed.

607. “What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance
&hypovigilance& ?1. The monotony of the task2. Tiredness and the need for
sleep3. A lack of stimulation4. Excessive stress”
A) 3,4
B) 2,4
C) 1,3
D) 1,2,3

608. What are two types of attention?

A) Cognitive and intuitive
B) Intuitive and behavioural
C) Divided and behavioural
D) Selective and divided

609. Which are some of the most critical types of perceptual illusions?
A) Haptic illusion &e.g. colour&blind&, vestibular illusion &e.g. graveyard spiral&, and
sensory illusion &e.g. spatial disorientation&.
B) Visual illusion &e.g. blind spots&, kinaesthetic illusion &e.g. the leans&, and auditory
illusion &e.g. missed radio call&.
C) Coriolis illusion &e.g. constant turning&, neurological illusion &e.g. after&images&, and
auditory illusion &e.g. hearing voices&.
D) Geometric illusion &e.g. depth perception&, somatosensory illusion &e.g. autokinesis&,
and vestibular illusion &e.g. feeling dizzy&.

610. Smaller objects from a given distance are normally perceived as being
further away than larger objects from the same distance. Which type of
perception causes this?
A) Muller&Lyer processing
B) Interactive processing
C) Bottom&up processing
D) Top&down processing

611. Which option correctly lists, for pilots, the three most critical types of
perceptual illusion and corresponding examples?
A) Visual illusion &blind spots&, kinaesthetic illusion &having the leans&, and auditory
illusion &missed radio call&.
B) Haptic illusion &colour&blind&, vestibular illusion &graveyard spiral&, and sensory
illusion &spatial disorientation&.
C) Coriolis illusion &constant turning&, neurological illusion &after&images&, and auditory
illusion &hearing voices&.
D) Geometric illusion &depth perception&, somatosensory illusions &autokinesis&, and
vestibular illusion &feeling dizzy&.

612. The most dangerous characteristic of perception is that it…

A) can easily be changed.
B) is extremely resistant to correction.
C) will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation.
D) will only occur under conditions of stress.

613. Spatial disorientation is

A) a greater threat when flying with reference to the aircraft’s instruments.
B) avoided if one flies under Instrument Flight Rules.
C) the mistaken perception of one’s position and motion relative to the Earth.
D) a slowly developing process and of little concern.

614. In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation

for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other
relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is…
A) not possible since correct training should have eliminated this problem.
B) very rare.
C) not unusual.
D) not applicable with experienced pilots.

615. The first stage in the information process is…

A) the recognition of information.
B) selective attention
C) perception
D) sensory stimulation.

616. Our mental model of the world is based…

A) entirely on past experiences.
B) on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive.
C) entirely on the sensory information we receive.
D) on both our past experiences and our motor programmes.

617. Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?

A) The separation of figure and background.
B) The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory.
C) The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory.
D) The intensity of the stimuli.

618. What is the main adverse effect of expectation with regards to

perception?
A) Expectation is a tool that allows capture of all relevant information.
B) Expectation often guides the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible
alternates are neglected.
C) Expectations always lead to routine errors.
D) “The attention area is enlarged by expectation

619. In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle
in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside
which is moving is…
A) a somatogravic illusion.
B) a cognitive illusion.
C) an autokinetic illusion.
D) an illusion of relative movement.

620. Incorrect perception…

A) can be easily recognised.
B) can be highly persuasive.
C) will only affect flight deck crew.
D) will only affect one member of the crew at a time.

621. Perception is based upon…

A) information received only.
B) information received as well as past experience and knowledge.
C) past experience and knowledge only.
D) solely upon technical ability.

622. The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working
memory is…
A) about 7 items.
B) unlimited.
C) only 3 items, on average.
D) about 30 items.

623. “Which of the following answers are correct concerning the Long Term
Memory ?1. Long Term memory can be affected by expectation and
suggestion2. Long Term Memory is also known as the Working Memory3.
Long Term Memory is limited to plus or minus 7 pieces of disassociated
pieces of information4. Long Term Memory is where Motor Programmes
&skills& are kept”
A) 1 and 4 only are correct.
B) 2 and 3 only are correct.
C) 1, 3 and 4 are all correct.
D) 1 and 3 only are correct.

624. Motor programmes are…

A) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous
conscious control.
B) rules that enable us to deal with unfamiliar situations.
C) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous
conscious control.
D) rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations.

625. Working memory enables us, for example, to…

A) remember a clearance long enough to write it down.
B) store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds.
C) ignore messages for other aircraft.
D) remember our own name.

626. Which of the following characteristics apply to short&term memory?

A) It is limited in time and unlimited in size.
B) It is unlimited in time and limited in size.
C) It is limited in time and size.
D) It is stable and insensitive to disturbances.
627. With regard to short&term memory, we can say that it…
A) holds information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining
data
B) holds information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity to retain data but not in
its capacity to store data.
C) is a stable form of working memory, and therefore is not sensitive to disturbances.
D) stores mainly procedural knowledge &skills&.

628. Which of the following statements about long&term memory is correct?

A) Information is stored in the Semantic, Episodic, and Procedural memories.
B) Long&term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis.
C) The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which
this same information is used.
D) Long&term memory processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access
in real time.

629. Having interrupted the Captain for a sound reason, the Co&pilot should…
A) apologise for interrupting him/her at a critical stage of flight.
B) ensure there is no ATC traffic on the radio that may be causing a possible distraction
before continuing.
C) repeat the interruption twice so that the Captain’s attention is focussed on the new
information.
D) remind him/her of his/her last action before the interruption.

630. Long&term memory is influenced by…

A) experience, repetition, suggestion, desires, and expectations.
B) the time of day, gender, intelligence, and blood pressure.
C) intelligence, experience, gender, suggestion, and expectations.
D) blood pressure, desires, expectations, and repetition.

631. Working memory…

A) varies considerably in size between an experienced pilot and a novice pilot.
B) is unlimited in size.
C) is unlimited in duration.
D) is sensitive to interruptions, which may erase all or some of its contents.

632. Which statement about Long Term Memory &LTM& is correct?

A) Recent events can be stored in the semantic memory instead of the episodic memory.
Careful attention to detail will counteract this error.
B) Any item can be recalled from the LTM with ease as long as it has been stored correctly.
C) Facts can be stored in the episodic memory instead of the semantic memory. Careful
attention in learning will counteract this error.
D) Unless an item is recalled regularly, it becomes more difficult to retrieve from the LTM
store.

633. Information stays in the short&term memory for…

A) less than 1 second.
B) about 20 seconds.
C) 5 to 10 minutes.
D) around 24 hours.

634. The main limitation of the long term memory is…

A) the quantity of data which may be stored.
B) that unless information is accessed from time to time, its retrieval can be difficult.
C) the data&storage time.
D) that if enough information is entered at the same time, saturation may take place.

635. “Which items are correct as regards the main limits of short term
memory?It is:1. very sensitive to interruptions and interference2. difficult to
access3. limited in size4. that information is lost within approximately 20
seconds unless it is actively or deliberately placed into the long term memory”
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4

636. Information received from the senses is lost…

A) if an additional action takes place &e.g. pulling a circuit breaker or extinguishing a
warning light&.
B) within 10 & 20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the long term
memory.
C) if you choose to store the information in one of the sensory memories &e.g. iconic or
echoic memories&.
D) only if you suffer from brain damage or disease.

637. “Which of the following is the best definition of episodic memory?It is the
memory of events that are held in the…”
A) short term memory and can be influenced by suggestion.
B) long term memory and can be influenced by suggestion.
C) short term memory and can be influenced by the meaning of words and language.
D) long term memory and can be influenced by the meaning of words and language.

638. Which of the following is true with reference to semantic memory?

A) “It is the memory of events
B) it lasts for a longer period of time than episodic memory and tends to be more accurate.”
C) “It is the meaning of words and general knowledge of the world
D) it lasts for a longer period of time than episodic memory and tends to be more accurate.”

639. Short term memory retains a larger amount of information with…

A) every repetition.
B) “a process called “”chunking””.”
C) signal colours.
D) a lower intensity of information.

640. “Which statement concerning working memory is correct?Working

memory is…”
A) unlimited in duration and sensitive to interruptions.
B) sensitive to interruptions and limited in size.
C) insensitive to interferences and unlimited in duration.
D) limited in size and insensitive to interferences.

641. In the short term memory, information is stored for approximately…

A) 5 minutes.
B) 20 seconds.
C) 1 hour.
D) a couple of days.

642. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Short term memory is affected by interruptions.
B) “Extreme “”achievement”” motivation is an ideal attribute for a Captain of an aircraft.”
C) Motivation does not affect performance.
D) All motivators &both physical and mental& are subjective.

643. What is learning?

A) the capacity of the brain.
B) the ability of the brain to reason without conscious thought.
C) the capability of human information process.
D) gaining knowledge through study and past experience

644. For which pilots is mental rehearsal helpful for improving flying skills?
A) For pilots at all levels of flying proficiency.
B) For student pilots but not instructors.
C) For instructor pilots but not students.
D) For pilots with only a certain level of flying experience.

645. The Skill&based, Rule&based, Knowledge&based Model &Jens

Rasmussen& is associated with…
A) motor programmes.
B) risk.
C) personality.
D) problem&solving.

646. In problem&solving, what determines the transition from rule&based

activities to a knowledge&based activity?
A) Knowledge of rules that apply to the problem posed.
B) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed.
C) The unsuitability of the automated actions.
D) Attentional capture.

647. “Which of the following are factors necessary for the promotion of good
quality learning?1. quality of instruction2. motivation3. feedback on the results
of learning4. a large amount of reference material5. being free from time
restrictions.”
A) 1, 4, and 5
B) 1, 3, 4 and 5
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2, 3, 4, and 5

648. How can the process of learning be enhanced?

A) By reinforcing errors.
B) By increasing the psychological pressure on the student.
C) By reinforcing successful performance.
D) By negative criticism of unsuccessful trials.

649. Motivation is an important attribute that contributes to flight safety. Which

of the following statements is correct with regards to motivation?
A) Excessive motivation leads to stress, which adversely affects performance.
B) Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions.
C) A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in
complete safety.
D) A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance.

650. The quality of learning…

A) is dependent on one’s age and professional role.
B) depends on long&term memory capacity.
C) is independent of the level of motivation.
D) is promoted by feedback on one’s own performance.

651. Which option best describes the difference between experienced and
inexperienced pilots?
A) Inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same
task.
B) Experienced pilots are less routine&minded than young pilots because they know that
routine causes mistakes.
C) Task for task, an experienced pilot’s workload is greater than that of an inexperienced
pilot.
D) Flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is not enough to make
up for this deficiency.

652. An experienced pilot…

A) prepares thoroughly for a flight and is able to anticipate the majority of possible problems.
B) seeks complex solutions to problems, thus using his/her capacities up to 100 &.
C) functions exclusively in a reactive manner, because this uses fewer resources.
D) avoids using automated systems as his/her experience allows him/her to perform all tasks
manually.

653. The errors associated with motor programmes are…

A) confirmation error and error of commission.
B) environmental capture &habituation& and error of commission.
C) action slip and confirmation bias.
D) action slip and environmental capture &habituation&.
654. When solving problems, what determines the transition from rule&based
activities to knowledge&based activities?
A) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed.
B) The unsuitability of automated actions.
C) Knowledge of the rules that apply to the problem.
D) There is never a transition from rule&based to knowledge&based behaviour.

655. If you do not feel respected by your colleague, which category of

Maslow’s Needs has been ignored?
A) Self&actualisation needs.
B) Physiological needs.
C) Safety needs.
D) Ego needs.

656. The acquisition of a skill comprises of which three stages &Anderson

model&?
A) Cognitive, associative and automatic.
B) Cognitive, associative and knowledge.
C) Associative, autonomous and expert.
D) Automatic, cognitive and knowledge.

657. A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she…

A) is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during the greater portion of the flight.
B) is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight.
C) knows how to off&load all his/her resources to the automation of tasks.
D) has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free
his/her cognitive resources.

658. The acquisition of a motor programme &skill& will mean that the…
A) more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it
frees mental resources
B) more behaviour is automated, the more it requires conscious attention and thus the more
it frees mental resources.
C) more behaviour is automated, the more it requires conscious attention and the thus less it
frees mental resources.
D) less behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it
frees mental resources.

659. Mnemonics are used in aviation because they…

A) increase motivation.
B) help to increase retention of information.
C) are a tool for avoiding illusions.
D) increase response time.

660. Very high ambition and the need for achievement…

A) fulfil the requirements of stress resistance.
B) disturb the climate of cooperation.
C) improve the coping process as regards personal failures.
D) always promote teamwork.

661. The effect of experience and repetition on performance…

A) is always negative.
B) can both be beneficial and negative.
C) is never negative.
D) is always beneficial.

662. Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation
may have on attention?
A) It only facilitates attention in extreme cases &risk of death&.
B) It increases alertness and attention.
C) It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal.
D) It has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness.

663. The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and
conditions of the landing is…
A) knowledge based behaviour.
B) skill and/or rule based behaviour.
C) pressure based behaviour.
D) always automated behaviour.

664. Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is…

A) coping behaviour.
B) skill based behaviour.
C) rule based behaviour.
D) knowledge based behaviour.

665. Planning…
A) allows crew members to anticipate potential risky situations and decide on possible
responses.
B) is unnecessary in the cockpit, as crew members are so highly trained they will always
know what to do in unusual situations.
C) is dangerous in the cockpit, as it interrupts flight crew creativity.
D) in the cockpit typically results in plans that are always easy to modify when things are not
as anticipated.

666. The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development
of a critical situation…
A) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft.
B) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world.
C) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway.
D) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness.

667. The phases of learning a motor programme are the…

A) cognitive, associative, and automatic phases.
B) initial, interim, and final phases.
C) induction, simulation, and practice phases.
D) 1st, 2nd, and 3rd phases.

668. Regarding forms of learning, what is understood by modelling?

A) When a particular situation arises, always using the same solution.
B) Using different methods to complete a routine task.
C) Using trial and error to complete a task.
D) Completing a task by imitation.

669. “What is a “”motor programme””, with respect to completing a task?A

behavioural sub&routine which…”
A) once running does not require conscious thought.
B) requires conscious thought to be initiated and maintained.
C) does not require any conscious thought.
D) does not require conscious thought to be initiated but does require conscious thought to
maintain.

670. A skill is the capacity to accomplish successfully…

A) any task.
B) a task about which you have no knowledge.
C) something requiring no special knowledge or ability.
D) something requiring special knowledge or ability.

671. How does motivation affect an individual completing a task?

A) Motivation reflects the difference between what an individual can do and what the
individual will do.
B) Motivation has no influence on how an individual performs.
C) Motivation influences the efficiency achieved but has no affect over arousal level and the
consequent level of performance.
D) Motivation only affects the time taken by an individual to complete a task.

672. “Which of the following are included in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?1.

Security2. Attention3. Self&esteem4. Self&fulfilment5. Physiological needs”
A) 1, 3, 4, and 5
B) 2, 3, and 5 only
C) 1, 3, and 5 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

673. What is meant by the term ‘complacency’?

A) To question possible solutions
B) Unjustified self&confidence
C) Physiological effects on pilots because of fear of flying
D) An agreement between captain and co&pilot due to Crew Resources Management

674. “What methods can be used to combat human error?&1: Reducing

error&prone mechanisms.&2: Improving the way in which error is taken into
account in training.&3: Sanctions against the initiators of error.&4: Improving
error detection techniques.The combination of correct statements is:”
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

675. “Situations particularly vulnerable to “”reversion to an earlier behaviour

pattern”” are:1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed2. when
situations are characterised by medium workload3. when situations are
characterised by stress”
A) 3 only.
B) 1. and 3.
C) 1. and 2.
D) 2. and 3.

676. Which of the following concepts relating to human reliability is true ?

A) Response to a particular stressful influence does not vary from one person to another.
B) Expectation has no influence on perception.
C) Performance is totally independent of motivation.
D) If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or
later, it will be.

677. It is desirable to standardise as many patterns of behaviour &operating

procedures& as possible in commercial aviation mainly because…
A) it makes the flight deck easier to design.
B) this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection.
C) such behaviour reduces errors.
D) this reduces the amount of training required.

678. Once a pilot has constructed a mental model he/she tends to:
A) give undue weight to information that confirms the model
B) give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
C) alter that model unnecessarily frequently
D) give undue weight to information that contradicts the model

679. An important aspect of Situational Awareness is:

A) When the pilot perceives the situation both inside and outside the aircraft
B) When a pilot’s perception equals reality
C) When the pilot perceives the instant and immediate situation both inside and outside the
cockpit
D) When a pilot is sure that the situation both inside and outside the aircraft is correct

680. “The expression “”when perception matches reality”” describes:”

A) Situational Awareness
B) Vigilance
C) Alertness
D) Attention

681. “Motivation, crew&climate and “”Confirmation Bias”” are factors that:”

A) are easy to control.
B) can influence the situational awareness.
C) have no influence on teamwork.
D) depend only on personality and are unchangeable.

682. Situational awareness is defined as…

A) the accurate perception of operational and environmental factors that affect the flight.
B) the acute awareness of all navigational and operational aspects that directly affect the
flight.
C) a properly&trained individual’s ability to remain vigilant and alert throughout the flight.
D) an individual’s ability to effectively manage all available resources throughout the flight.

683. The state of knowing where the aircraft is, where it has been, and where it
is going is called…
A) situational awareness.
B) vigilance.
C) risk area awareness.
D) safety awareness.

684. We generate Mental Models on…

A) past experience and learning.
B) imagination.
C) stereopsis.
D) 3&D vision.

685. According to Rasmussen’s model, errors are of the following type&s& in

skill&based behaviour:
A) handling errors
B) knowledge errors
C) routine errors
D) creative errors

686. “Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active
error?Active error is:”
A) essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule
by aeroplane designers
B) produced either by a front&line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden
or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action
C) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected
D) rare in front&line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a
complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations

687. Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?
A) Latent errors are mainly associated with the behaviour of front&line operators and are
only detected after advanced problem&solving
B) Latent errors may have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are
difficult to identify as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of
the error
C) Latent errors are detected rapidly
D) Latent errors are rarely made by front&line operators, and are consequently readily
identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links

688. “When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?When:”

A) its safety system is too permeable to error
B) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety
C) its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors
D) the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety

689. The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it
may result in:
A) decision&making errors
B) routine errors &slips&
C) behavioural errors
D) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action

690. “Waiting for takeoff on the runway, a pilot is informed by the tower that
the tail wind component is 12 kt. According to the manual, the limitation is 10
kt max.The pilot makes a decision to take&off anyway, as the runway is
long.What type of error is this known as?”
A) A decision error.
B) A violation.
C) An error of reasoning.
D) This is neither an error or a violation & the pilot is using his initiative.

691. An unnoticed way&point error entered in an aircraft data base is an

example of:
A) Latent failure/error
B) Pro&active failure/error
C) Active failure/error
D) Re&active failure/error

692. If one error is allowed to effect a whole system, the system is described
as:
A) Error&prone
B) Vulnerable
C) Error tolerant
D) Corrupted

693. Active errors/failures are committed at:

A) the system/system interface and have an immediate effect
B) the human/system interface and have a delayed effect
C) the system/system interface and have a delayed effect
D) the human/system interface and have an immediate effect

694. What is the current approach to human error?

A) Realisation that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be designed
to minimise human error.
B) Realisation that humans are infallible and that systems and procedures should be brought
into line to prevent system/procedural errors.
C) Realisation that humans are infallible and that systems/procedures should be designed to
minimise human error.
D) Realisation that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be brought
into line to prevent system, latent and procedural errors.

695. With which risk is skill based behaviour associated?

A) Action Slip
B) Confirmation bias
C) Error of commission
D) Deviation from standard operating procedures

696. The analysis of aviation accidents distinguishes between active and latent
failures. Which of the following scenarios is an example of a latent failure?
A) The pilot correctly reads back the new altitude assignment during an en&route climb but
proceeds to set it incorrectly in the autopilot’s mode control panel.
B) The aircraft technician fails to follow all the steps on the job card and forgets to reconnect
the altimeter’s static port during a routine maintenance check.
C) After the leading aircraft slows down more than anticipated on final approach, the air
traffic controller realizes too late that minimum separation was violated.
D) The airline management decides to cut costs in all departments, including the flight
training department, due to the global economic downturn.

697. Which type of human error may be triggered if a pilot becomes distracted
and does not complete a task or omits a step whilst performing it?
A) Violation
B) Slip
C) Lapse
D) Mistake

698. Errors may be classified into two major categories: active and latent.
Which one of the definitions below relates to a latent error?
A) An issue that stems from a failure in applying an inappropriate rule.
B) An error that arises from inadequate knowledge or experience.
C) An event that occurs immediately before an incident or accident.
D) A system containing unrecognised faults, which become evident under specific
circumstances.

699. Select the correct statement regarding human errors.

A) All errors are avoidable through continuous and thorough training.
B) An error can be described as the mismatch between the pilot’s intention and the result of
his/her actions.
C) A violation is an error which is always involuntary.
D) Representational errors are those in which the pilot has properly identified the situation
and is familiar with the procedure.

700. “Which option correctly lists, from the items below, the main features of
latent errors?They…1. remain undetected in the system for a certain length of
time.2. may only manifest themselves under certain conditions.3. are quickly
detectable by the front&line operator whose mental schemas on the
instantaneous situation filter out formal errors.4. lull pilots into a false sense
of security”
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1, 2, and 4
C) Only 1 and 3
D) Only 2, 3, and 4

701. According to James Reason, what are the different categories of error?
A) Slips, lapses, mistakes, and violations.
B) Faults, defects, weaknesses, and oversights.
C) Failures, omissions, deficiencies, and flaws.
D) Defects, deficiencies, ambiguities, and anomalies.

702. “Environmental capture’ is a term used to describe which of the following

statements?1. The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in
which it is frequently exercised2. The tendency for a skill acquired in one
aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to
do so3. The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social
situations4. The gaining of environmental skills”
A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) 4 is correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct
D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

703. Analysis of accidents involving human factors in aviation shows that…

A) failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns.
B) only front&line operators are involved.
C) a single cause is hardly ever responsible.
D) only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation.

704. Among the external factors that may contribute to an error, cockpit noise
and the restriction of the field of view due to windscreen design are classified
as…
A) ergonomic factors.
B) organisational factors.
C) psychobiological factors.
D) social factors.
705. “Organisational factors which affect or influence human error are:1.
malfunction of technical systems.2. fuel&saving policies.3. rostering.4.
weather phenomena. Which of the following lists all the correct answers?”
A) 3 and 4
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 and 2

706. Ergonomics are associated with…

A) cognition.
B) information processing.
C) the human/workplace interface.
D) communications.

707. Which of the following correctly lists all the human factors that are either
cumulative or tend to escalate?
A) Stress factors, errors, human conflict, and the effect of carbon monoxide poisoning only.
B) Stress factors and errors only.
C) Errors, the effect of carbon monoxide poisoning, and colour blindness only.
D) Stress factors, errors, and the effect of carbon monoxide poisoning only.

708. The three main sources of external error generation in the cockpit are…
A) an inappropriate cognitive style, economics, and alack of motivation.
B) improper technique, impulsiveness, and the physical environment.
C) ergonomics, economics, and the social environment.
D) ergonomics, over&confidence, and the social environment.

709. Internal factors that can cause error generation include

A) improper technique, social environment, and an inappropriate cognitive style.
B) ergonomics, overconfidence, and an inappropriate cognitive style.
C) overconfidence, insufficient care, and improper technique.
D) economics, ergonomics, and insufficient care.

710. One of the major goals in the design of human centred man&machine
interfaces is to make it
A) complicated and able to reduce errors to a minimum acceptable level.
B) durable and capable of eliminating automation errors during demanding phases of flight.
C) simple and also at the same time make it difficult for a human or automation to make an
error.
D) standard across all aircraft to ensure that when pilots change to a different type, they are
still familiar with cockpit displays.

711. “In 1989, an Air Ontario aircraft crashed shortly after take&off from
Dryden &Ontario, Canada& Municipal Airport during heavy snow. One of the
causal factors of the accident was the reluctance of two cabin crew members
to inform the flight crew about passenger concerns that the wings needed to
be de&iced.This is an example of which type of external error generation
factor?”
A) Economics
B) Ergonomics
C) Social environment
D) Lack of knowledge

712. “Which of the following items are factors that contribute to human error?
1. Personality.2. Motivation and attitudes.3. Emotional state.4. Standard
operating procedures.”
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

713. The best method to avoid Confirmation Bias is to…

A) search for information that will falsify the hypothesis.
B) deliberately confirm that the receiver has understood the information that has been
passed to him/her.
C) double&check that you have not fitted the ground over which you are passing to your
map.
D) deliver precise and careful pre&flight briefings.

714. To completely eliminate human errors is not possible. Error Management

is the term used for the endeavours to reduce human error and its impact.
Which of the following are known error&management strategies?
A) Error prevention, error reduction, error detection, error recovery, and error tolerance.
B) Error identification, error analysis, error recovery, error tolerance, and error management
training.
C) Error analysis, error classification, error identification, error intolerance, and human error
training.
D) Skill&based error prevention, rule&based error prevention, knowledge&based error
prevention, and error education.

715. Error tolerance, which is an error management strategy, aims at making…

A) the system better able to sustain itself despite error, e.g. by minimising the consequences
of errors.
B) it easy to rapidly recover the system to its safe state after an error has been committed.
C) the system such that it minimises both the likelihood and the magnitude of the error.
D) errors apparent as fast and as clearly as possible, thereby enabling recovery.

716. When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should

A) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
B) make up his mind before consulting other crew members
C) avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
D) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible

717. Decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:

A) speed of reaction
B) delegation of tasks and crew coordination
C) the whole crew to focus on the problem
D) informing ATC thoroughly about the situation

718. Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?

A) Deciding means choosing between alternatives.
B) Deciding means applying an automatic procedure.
C) Deciding means imposing one’s point of view.
D) Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions.

719. Judgement is based upon:

A) the ability to interpret the flight instruments
B) a process involving a pilot’s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the
situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience
C) a decision&making process involving the 5 physical senses and their use to manually
operate the aircraft controls
D) the development of skills through constant practice of flight manoeuvres

720. Which of the following is most likely to be overlooked should a pilot make
a rushed decision?
A) Rules and regulations.
B) Analysis of the actual situation and applying a prepared decision instead.
C) The skills of air traffic controllers.
D) The captain’s superior knowledge, justified by his/her status.

721. In terms of decision&making, the intention to become integrated into the

team, to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to:
A) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
B) the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities
C) a fast and decisive option
D) an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead

722. “Which biases relate to human decision making?1. Personal experience

tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring2. There is a
natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts
which contradict it3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to
influence the particular decision4. There is natural tendency to select only
objective facts for decision&making purposes”
A) 3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,2
D) 1,2,4

723. “Decision&making can be influenced by the following factors:1. people

tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they
belong to2. people always keep the future decisions in line with those their
superiors have made in the past3. people more easily tend to select data which
meet their expectations4. people rarely base decisions on their personal
preferences but rather on rational informationWhich of the following lists all
the correct answers ?”
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 1 and 3

724. Decision&making is a concept which represents:

A) an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem
B) a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a
given problem
C) an automated or automation&like act of applying defined procedures
D) a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced
with a defined problem

725. The confirmation bias of decision making is

A) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
B) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision
C) a tendency to agree with the decision made by the group
D) “a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a hypothesis or decision is
poor

726. A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the
pilot has not been through flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the
engineer as to the amount of fuel to be loaded, since he is used to flying this
route. This behaviour results from:
A) a bias in selecting data
B) a confirmation bias
C) a decision bias due to habits &frequency bias&
D) a decision bias due to group &social& pressure

727. In the decision&making process, confirmation bias results in:

A) a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision
B) overestimating the frequency of some events
C) choosing familiar solutions, even if they are not the best ones
D) a tendency to look for approval by other crew&members, or by the ATC

728. Decisions made by pilots in a cockpit:

A) should always be made as quickly as possible
B) remain valid for a limited time only
C) are always irreversible
D) are automatic when pilots are experts

729. What are the main advantages that the human possesses over those of a
machine in the decision making process?
A) The ability to analyse and compare.
B) The ability to reach the most advantageous option from a number of choices.
C) Creativity, innovation and adaptability.
D) The ability to analyse and memorise.

730. In order to make sound decisions it is important to:

A) keep a low level of stress by excluding non&verbal communication.
B) accept that the Captain, because of his/her authority, tends to be correct.
C) understand why and how we make decisions.
D) avoid situational awareness.

731. During the decision making process in the cockpit:

A) habits and routines play no role.
B) a detailed analysis can only be made once, at the moment the problem occurs.
C) the crew should always decide on more than one alternative.
D) the amount of time available has a large influence on the analysis of the situation.

732. An important contributor to human error is a false hypothesis or mistaken

assumption. What should a pilot be aware of once he has made a decision?
A) The pilot should ensure that he continues to collect evidence confirming his decision.
B) Once a decision has been made it should be stuck with.
C) The pilot should ensure that any conflicting information is ignored.
D) The pilot should monitor carefully evidence which contradicts his decision.

733. One of the main positive capabilities in an individual’s decision making

process is:
A) Creativity
B) Speed
C) Reliability
D) Inflexibility

734. A bias is a tendency that can prevent open&minded decision making.

Which of the following is an example of a bias in aeronautical decision
making?
A) Resignation bias: a tendency to lack confidence in one’s own abilities during crises.
B) Confirmation bias: the tendency to search for information that confirms one’s
preconceptions.
C) Impulsivity bias: a tendency to make immediate decisions without considering other
options.
D) Anti&authority bias: a tendency to disregard rules, regulations, and view procedures as
unnecessary.

735. “Which steps within the Aeronautical Decision Making &ADM& process
relate to the “”DECIDE”” model?”
A) Decide, Estimate, Clarify, Identify, Decide, Enable
B) Detect, Enable, Clarify, Implement, Do, Evaluate
C) Detect, Evaluate, Choose, Implement, Decide, Enable
D) Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate
736. What are the main sources of error in a pilot’s decision&making
mechanism?
A) “Identification of tactical actions in the given situation
B) anticipating the consequences of the available options. “
C) “Determination of the situational risk or hazard
D) assessment of the environmental circumstances. “

737. Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem,
he/she will probably find it…
A) difficult to get out of that way of thinking and try a different interpretation of the data.
B) easy to interpret the data in different ways.
C) difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data.
D) impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens.

738. “Which option correctly lists, from the items below, what the pilot should
do to maintain good situational awareness?1. Believe only in his/her own
interpretation of the data2. In the available time, gather as much data as
possible from every possible source before making inferences3. Question
whether his/her hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to
make time to review the situation4. Consider ways of testing his/her situational
hypothesis to see whether it is correct”
A) Only 1 and 3
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 2, 3, and 4
D) Only 1 and 4

739. How can routine and/or habits influence decision&making?

A) There is a tendency to always select a choice in accordance with the company’s usual
practices.
B) There is a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to
the detriment of achieving the best possible result.
C) Habit is the product of experience and should be used as a primary consideration in all
decisions.
D) They lead to professional pilots never questioning established procedures.

740. Decision&making is about…

A) a choice always based on the experience of the pilot in command.
B) a totally objective choice between options to achieve a goal proposed by the pilot in
command.
C) making a choice between different options to achieve a goal.
D) a subjective choice between options to achieve a goal.

741. “In decision&making, the selection of a solution depends on:1. objective

and subjective criteria,2. the objective to be achieved,3. the risks associated
with each solution,4. having many decision&makers.”
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only
742. Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots
to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. Select the response
below which could lead to such a hazard:
A) anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
B) mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non&standard
procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated
C) anticipating that the weather may deteriorate
D) anticipating the loss of an engine

743. “Which of the following responses is an example of “”habit reversion””

&negative habit transfer&?”
A) A pilot incorrectly anticipating of an air traffic controller’s instructions.
B) Turning the aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right.
C) A pilot familiar with an aircraft in which the fuel selector points forward for ON, may
unintentionally turn the fuel selector OFF, when flying a different aircraft on which the fuel
selector points aft for ON.
D) A pilot habitually missing an item on the checklist, or missing the second item when two
items are written on the same line.

744. Having made an important decision, a Commander of an aircraft should:

A) Explain the reasons for the decision only if time permits in the air
B) Explain the reasons for the decision only if asked
C) Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing
D) As the leader of the crew, never need explain the reasons behind the decision

745. CRM and MCC training are designed to improve:

A) Individual achievement
B) The quality of crew performance
C) The quality and a number of individuals’ performance
D) Individual efficiency and contribution

746. Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:

A) working parallel to achieve individual objectives
B) working in parallel to achieve one common objective
C) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions
D) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight
situations

747. “Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design
of a check list?&1: The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into
logical parts.&2: The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check
list.&3: Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped
together with other tasks.&4: Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence
should be applied.&5: Use should be made of upper
case/””bold””/italics/colour with care to emphasize critical items or points.The
combination of correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) 1, 4 and 5 are correct
C) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
D) 1, 2 and 5 are correct

748. The use of check lists should be carried out in such a way that:
A) their execution should not be done simultaneously with other actions
B) they should only be carried out when time is available
C) their execution should be combined with other important tasks
D) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions

749. “In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is

necessary to:&1: know how to use one’s own reserve of resources in order to
ease the burden on the crew.&2: divide up tasks among the crew.&3: ensure
that the long&term memory is used as much as possible as short term
memory will add to the stress.&4: drop certain tasks and stick to high&level
priorities.The correct statement&s& is &are&:”
A) 1 and 3 are correct
B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D) 3 and 4 are correct

750. Action plans &SOP’s& in a cockpit must:

A) be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to
maintain maximum synergy
B) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit
philosophies
C) be tailored to the individual pilot’s needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the
aircraft
D) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures

751. What is the main purpose of a checklist?

A) To ensure that all possible contingencies are covered by procedures.
B) To enable any pilot to fly a particular aircraft.
C) To conform with the requirements of the Flight Manual.
D) To enable the crew to carry out a procedure in a well&defined and orderly manner.

752. Crew Resource Management &CRM& is mostly concerned with the

cognitive and interpersonal skills needed to manage the flight within an
organised aviation system. In this context, cognitive skills are defined as the
mental processes used for…
A) gaining and maintaining situational awareness, for solving problems and for taking
decisions.
B) acquiring the technical knowledge and skills required to fly and operate an aircraft.
C) defining a proper interpersonal framework to establish effective communication among
the crew members.
D) establishing the required technical skills to complete the mission successfully.
753. Which of the following statements about crew briefings is correct?
A) The descent preparation, approach and go&around briefings should typically be
completed 20 minutes before reaching the top of descent.
B) Briefings should be conducted during low&workload periods.
C) The take&off briefing should be conducted when the aircraft starts moving under its own
power.
D) The take&off briefing is conducted by the PNF &Pilot Not Flying& for the first leg.

754. Which one of the following is a requirement for checklists?

A) They must be responded to automatically in order to show skill and familiarity.
B) All the letters should be upper case so that words can be read faster.
C) Pages of paper checklists should be divided by protruding thumb&locators.
D) They must contain good cross&referencing and one colour should be used for
consistency.

755. Before take&off, a briefing…

A) is not necessary when departing from home base because this is routine and the crew
should already know the correct sequence of actions.
B) is not necessary if the crew members know each other.
C) must be done when both crew members agree it is essential.
D) must be done systematically in order to refresh the memory of the crew members and to
coordinate actions.

756. Strict adherence to Standard Operating Procedures &SOPs& and normal

checklists is…
A) an effective method to prevent or mitigate crew errors, anticipate or manage operational
threats, and therefore to enhance ground& and flight&operations safety.
B) strongly encouraged for scheduled air carriers or charter operators but is not mandatory
according to ICAO and EASA requirements.
C) to be emphasised as part of each scheduled air carrier’s Advanced Training Quality
Programme &ATQP&, to promote safe flight operations.
D) becoming increasingly important due to the growing complexity of advanced cockpit
automation and the types of new operations this enables.

757. The three types of Authority Gradient Cockpits are:

A) Autocratic, Laisser&Faire and Synergistic
B) Autocratic, Followership and Synergistic
C) Authoritative, Followership and Synergistic
D) Authoritative, Laisser&Faire and Synergistic

758. A Captain running an Autocratic cockpit is normally:

A) Under&worked
B) A good leader
C) Over&loaded
D) Efficient

759. “A Captain running a “”Laisser&faire”” cockpit will:”

A) make few suggestions or decisions.
B) will encourage a ‘sterile’ cockpit.
C) fill a vacuum.
D) be an efficient crew member.

760. “The “”ideal”” cockpit can be termed as:”

A) Laisser faire
B) Co&actional
C) Synergistic
D) Autocratic

761. With too much cohesion, Groupthink can be:

A) negative
B) popular and positive
C) positive
D) positive and far&reaching

762. Cohesion is a major advantage in times of:

A) Achievement
B) Success
C) Difficulty
D) Personal advancement

763. Differences of opinion should be regarded as ………………..

A) Helpful
B) Having negative influence on the group and are not to be encouraged
C) Stressful
D) Confrontational

764. A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co&operative style will deal
with conflict by:
A) trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
B) deciding what to do and pushes his own opinion through
C) keeping a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
D) trying to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to re&establish a pleasant
and friendly atmosphere within the team

765. Which behaviour is most likely to promote a constructive solution of

interpersonal conflicts?
A) Responding with counter&arguments.
B) Giving up the own point of view.
C) Active listening.
D) Staying to the own point of view.

766. The team spirit of a cockpit&crew depends most likely on both pilots:
A) respecting each other and striving for the same goals
B) having the same political and ideological attitude
C) flying together very often for a long period
D) wearing the same uniform

767. How would you describe the leadership style of a captain who primarily is
interested in a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive
and encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who
trusts in the capabilities of his crew&members, and who leaves the crew
freedom for own decisions?
A) High task&orientation and low relationship&orientation
B) Low task&orientation and low relationship&orientation
C) Low task&orientation and high relationship&orientation
D) High task&orientation and high relationship&orientation

768. If the co&pilot continuously feels unfairly treated by the Captain, he/she
should:
A) point out the problem, concentrate on his/her duties and clarify the matter at a more
appropriate time
B) internally retire and think positive
C) speak up and point out the possible consequences if the unfair behaviour persists
D) freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontation

769. “Which are the two most important attributes for a positive leadership
style?1. dominant behaviour2. excellent role&behaviour3. mastery of
communication skills4. “”Laissez&faire”” behaviour”
A) 2 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 1 and 4

770. Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
A) they are not constrained by time
B) they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are being observed and admired
&e.g. air shows&
C) making decisions independently of others
D) making a flight over unfamiliar territory

771. Which of the following statements concerning synergy within a crew is

most correct?
A) Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members
&communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.&
B) Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission &briefing& and be maintained until
it comes to an end &debriefing&
C) Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to
debriefing
D) It is only the captain’s status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew

772. “What is characterized by a “”laissez&faire”” cockpit ?”

A) The captain’s authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
B) The Captain leads with a decisive, positive and professional attitude.
C) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew
members
D) The high level of independence granted to each member of the crew by the Captain leads
to a well run and controlled cockpit.

773. What are the most frequent results of an self&centred captain on the flight
deck ?
A) A major risk of authority inversion if the co&pilot is unassertive
B) In a two&pilot flight deck, the co&pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing
delayed responses or aggression
C) High group performance despite the strained relations
D) Performance is very poor as self&centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation
and efficiency

774. Which of the following describes an autocratic cockpit?

A) The captain’s excessive authority considerably reduces communications and
consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew
B) Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief
that everyone is aware of what he is doing
C) Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to
his natural leadership
D) The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the
various members of the crew

775. What distinguishes status from role ?

A) Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the
interactions of a new crew
B) While role defines& via behaviour& the functions that must be performed by individuals,
status defines the hierarchical position and its recognition by the group
C) While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the
group, status defines & via behaviour& the functions that must be performed by individuals
D) Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the
interactions of a new crew

776. What is synergy in a crew ?

A) The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non&standard
task
B) The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective
performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances
C) A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
D) The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective

777. Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:

A) abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely
B) expression of doubts or of a different opinion
C) unquestioned obedience to all the Captain’s decisions
D) the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew’s synergy
778. An efficient flight deck &synergetic cockpit& will be observed when:
A) the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
B) decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
members
C) the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
D) decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew
members

779. A non synergistic cockpit:

A) always results from an over&relaxed atmosphere
B) is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication
C) is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately with the outside
D) is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally

780. The autocratic leadership style is synonymous with:

A) an anarchic style
B) an authoritarian style
C) a democratic style
D) “a “”laissez&faire”” style”

781. Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew

of two, good synergy is:
A) 1 + 1 = > 2
B) 1 & 1 = > 2
C) 1 + 1 = < 2
D) 1 +/& 1 = < 2

782. An authoritative leader of a group will:

A) end to become over&loaded in times of high stress or in an emergency.
B) always be a good listener.
C) be adaptable to different types of groups in any situation.
D) tend never to interfere with the workings of the group and finds delegation easy.

783. The behaviour of a leader depends on:

A) the authority gradient only.
B) only his/her ability to dominate and be assertive.
C) the situation, the goals and composition of the group.
D) his/her ability to prevent discussions among the crew members in order to avoid conflict.

784. Group norms:

A) diminish the morale of the group.
B) have no influence on the working behaviour of the group.
C) are always fixed in a written way and can be looked up.
D) regulate the interaction and the behaviour between the members of a group.
785. The behaviour of a group can be affected by a number of factors
including:
A) Persuasion, conformity, compliance, and obedience.
B) Conformity, age, obedience, background.
C) Age, persuasion, conformity and height.
D) Compliance, conformity, height, obedience.

786. “What is meant by the term “”followership””?”

A) The willingness of an individual to effectively support another individual by being a good
team player.
B) The ability of an individual to persuade others to follow him.
C) The ability of an individual to effectively support a recognised leader without any
questioning.
D) The ability of an individual to effectively support a recognised leader by being a good
team player.

787. “Which of the following list are advantages of teamwork?1. personality

clashes2. workload is reduced by sharing3. work stress should be reduced4.
conformity5. a decision arrived at by a group is likely to be better quality than
that derived by an individual”
A) 2, 3 and 5
B) 1, 3, 4 and 5
C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
D) 1, 2, 3 and 5

788. “What is the meaning of “”cohesion”” within a group?”

A) Homogeneity.
B) Competition.
C) Interaction.
D) Team spirit.

789. “Which option correctly lists, from the items below, the advantages of
teamwork?1. Workload is lessened2. Conformity to group norm3. Flight safety
enhanced4. Risky Shift5. Work stress is reduced6. Improved
decision&making”
A) 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
B) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only
D) 1, 3, 5, and 6 only

790. “Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic

cockpit?1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew2.
There is little delegation of tasks3. Communications are limited and kept to a
minimum4. Flexible, agreed boundaries exist with regard to leadership style”
A) 2,3
B) 1,4
C) 2,4
D) 1,3,4
791. Which of the following statements best characterise a self&centred
cockpit?
A) The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes
charge of a situation.
B) The egoistic and self&centred personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic
cockpit whereby decisions are taken by the captain but prepared by the crew.
C) Without taking note of what the other crew members are doing, each one does their own
thing while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what
is going on.
D) While decreasing communication, the independence of each crew member bolsters the
crew’s synergy.

792. “What optimises crew cooperation ?1. Sharing and common tasking2.
Self&censorship of one’s ideas to preserve harmony3. Precise definition of the
functions associated with each crew member’s role”
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 3

793. Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been
received and understood ?
A) Synchronization.
B) Feedback.
C) Encoding.
D) Coding.

794. The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a

message is called
A) redundancy
B) feedback
C) transference
D) synchronization

795. The choice of words and their packaging become more important in the
cockpit of an aircraft because:
A) Loss of body language
B) Loss of situational awareness
C) Loss of perception
D) Loss of hypertext

796. Communication efficiency is most sensitive to:

A) Packaging of words
B) Packaging of sentences
C) Workload and interruptions
D) Packaging of phrases
797. Internal conflict within oneself is termed as:
A) Intra&personal conflict
B) Inter&personal conflict
C) Intermediate&personal conflict
D) Intro&personal conflict

798. The use of professional languages offers:

A) longer attention span
B) better communication even if professionals are not from the same field
C) quick comprehension and simplified grammar
D) more precise grammar

799. Metacommunication is defined as

A) balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the receiver
B) active listening
C) those aids, other than the actual words, which compliment those words in order to
communicate
D) having an assessment conversation

800. Nonverbal communication

A) is of no meaning in the cockpit
B) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
C) supports verbal communication
D) is always used intentionally

801. How do you understand the statement ‘one cannot not communicate’?
A) Being silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express a
meaning.
B) Communication is always possible.
C) You cannot influence your own communication.
D) No meaningful communication can occur unless it is by verbal means.

802. Discussing private matters in the cockpit

A) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
B) can improve team spirit
C) decreases the captains role of leadership
D) is appropriate in any phase of flight

803. “In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to: &1: avoid
the synchronization of verbal and non&verbal channels.&2: send information
in line with the receiver’s decoding abilities.&3: always concentrate on the
informational aspects of the message only.&4: avoid increasing the number of
communication channels, in order to simplify communication.The correct
statement&s& is &are&:”
A) only 2 is correct
B) 2 and 4 are correct
C) 3 and 4 are correct
D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

804. “Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions

are correct?&1 If the sender perceives that the receiver is incompetent, he/she
will simplify the message&2 If the receiver is of non&native tongue, the sender
will reinforce what he is saying by using more complicated words so as to
optimize understanding&3 If the sender considers there is doubt that the
message has been correctly understood, he/she must seek clarification.&4 It is
much safer to fly with a crew who know each other well because
communication will always be excellent.The correct statement&s& is &are&:”
A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) 1 and 3 are correct
C) 3 and 4 are correct
D) 2 and 3 are correct

805. “Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example: &1:

They use a limited vocabulary .&2: They are highly descriptive which leads to
ambiguities.&3: Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.&4: Context
provides meaning and therefore reduces the risk of ambiguities.The correct
statement&s& is &are&:”
A) 1 and 4 are correct
B) only 4 is correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct
D) 1 and 3 are correct

806. With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:

A) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload
element to be carried out at the same time
B) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in
progress
C) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc.
are stable and are not much affected by changes in workload
D) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit
their number

807. “What are the communication qualities of a good briefing?A good briefing
must:&1: contain as much information and be as comprehensive as
possible.&2: be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of
the same type.&3: be short and precise.&4: be understandable to the other
crew member&s&.The correct statement&s& is &are&:”
A) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B) 1 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D) 1 and 2 are correct

808. With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements
is correct?
A) It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the
ICAO.
B) All pilots should have a sound understanding of English because it is safer to adhere to
the common language chosen by the aeronautical world.
C) Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective
management of any flight’s communication.
D) The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official
aeronautical language of the destination country.

809. Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct ?

A) Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional
party if it is to be effective
B) Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of
involved parties
C) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an
acceptable collective solution
D) The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities
of one of the involved parties

810. Approximately ………………. of all communication is achieved by factors

other than words &metacommunications&
A) 50&
B) 80&
C) 30&
D) 10&

811. The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress:
A) Cockpit communications
B) Cockpit synergy
C) Cockpit cohesion
D) Cockpit entity

812. “””Non&verbal communication””:”

A) constitutes approximately 70& of human communication.
B) is unimportant, inherited and cannot be taught.
C) rarely causes accidents.
D) “means “”a sterile cockpit”” below 10 000 feet.”

813. “””Feedback”” in communication implies that:”

A) readback of a message is rarely necessary except in the case of specific ATC
procedures.
B) the flight crew do not need to talk all the time because the feedback is automatic.
C) a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning.
D) storing of messages in short time memory is available for later release.

814. “””Stereotypes”” are preconceptions or prejudices which can lead us to:”

A) mis&judge individuals even if we have contact with them.
B) develop better teamwork by standardizing procedures.
C) communicate non&verbally with a stranger.
D) act in the same manner in all situations and thus assuring stability.

815. Non&verbal communication:

A) is always clearly interpretable.
B) can serve as a substitute for oral speech.
C) is cross&culturally understood.
D) is used only if verbal clarity is not possible.

816. If you are in conflict with a colleague, which of the following techniques
can be effectively used to solve the problem?
A) Self&justification and active listening.
B) Defence and self&justification.
C) Active listening and metacommunication.
D) Metacommunication and defence.

817. Which statement is correct?

A) Inconsistent communication improves flight safety.
B) Personal conflict that takes place prior to take&off should wait to be addressed until the
end of the flight.
C) There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.
D) Problems in the personal relationships between crew members are likely to hamper the
communication process.

818. What communication practice involves soliciting the ideas and opinions
of all group members, and encouraging any expressions of doubt as a way of
preventing or solving conflict?
A) Metacommunication
B) Arbitration
C) Advocacy
D) Active listening

819. Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?

A) Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language that is
tailored to minimise misunderstandings.
B) “Word order is of little importance to its success
C) only the words uttered are important.”
D) Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all circumstances.

820. “Which of the following are strategies for resolving conflict?1. Seek
arbitration2. Actively listen to other people3. Recognise the early signs of
conflict and address them4. Strongly defend your position”
A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

821. “Which option is correct as regards the following statement? During the
conflict&resolution process it is important to:1. realise but be indifferent to the
conflict,2. verbalise mutual expectations,3. search for common agreements,4.
express one’s own viewpoint.”
A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

822. Air&ground communication involves the transmission of information and

meaning between pilots and air traffic controllers by means of verbal and
non&verbal messages. Within this context, an aspect of non&verbal
communication is…
A) paralanguage, that is, a person’s accent or volume of speech.
B) the sender’s physiological limitation, such as slurring of speech.
C) the recipient’s ability or willingness to listen attentively.
D) imposed by the limitations of the communication technology being used.

823. Attitudes are defined as:

A) a synonym for behaviour
B) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
C) tendencies to respond to people, things or events in a particular manner
D) the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting

824. Contrary to a person’s personality, attitudes:

A) are non&evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions
associated with them
B) form part of personality and, as a result, cannot be changed in an adult
C) Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or
a situation
D) are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality

825. A person’s attitudes define a set of learned dispositions &likes and

dislikes& which:
A) cannot be modified through training
B) influence a person’s reaction and response to people, situations, etc.
C) is exactly the same as a person’s personality
D) do not depend on a person’s past experiences

826. In general, which are the main factors that determine a pilot’s behaviour?
A) Character and social pressure.
B) Training and peer pressure.
C) Past experiences and education.
D) Personality and attitude.

827. The tendency to avoid making difficult choices or accepting responsibility

exhibits which attitude?
A) Invulnerability
B) Complacency
C) Machismo complex
D) Resignation

828. For a normal and healthy person, personality traits are…

A) unstable.
B) easily changeable.
C) easily changed by an outside influence.
D) stable.

829. The individual’s personality:

A) is variable and easily changeable.
B) refers to unique psychological characteristics.
C) changes with a different emotional mood.
D) is the tendency to evaluate things in a positive or negative way.

830. The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or

standard behaviour of an individual is known as…
A) development.
B) heredity.
C) learning.
D) personality.

831. Which of the following answers is correct?

A) Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude, and cannot be adapted.
B) Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude, and is adaptable.
C) Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude, and is adaptable.
D) Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude, and cannot be adapted.

832. Which statement concerning personality is correct?

A) The only factors influencing personality are heredity and life experiences.
B) Personality is only influenced by DNA inherited from the male parent.
C) Personality is formed in childhood by parental nurture and cannot be changed.
D) Heredity, upbringing, childhood, and life experiences all influence personality.

833. A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which

psychological consequence is most likely?
A) His/her self &concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.
B) His/her self&concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be
incorporated.
C) An upgrading never has psychological consequences.
D) The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.

834. The lowest level of Maslow’s Model of the hierarchy of Human Needs is:
A) belonging and affection needs.
B) safety and security needs.
C) physiological needs.
D) self&esteem needs.

835. What is self&concept?

A) How other people see you.
B) How you would like to see yourself.
C) How you see yourself.
D) How you would like to be seen by other people.

836. An under&confident and unassuming First Officer is promoted to Captain.

Such a person could exhibit a behavioural pattern which is…
A) marked by moments of self&doubt, occasionally leading to depression.
B) successfully altered by the training programme’s focus on leadership qualities.
C) influenced by the new role and publicly exhibits respect and competence.
D) characterised by an outward show of aggression and self&assertiveness.

837. In terms of personality, an ideal pilot is most likely to be …

A) cautious, aggressive, and cold.
B) stable, uninhibited, and anxious.
C) reserved, anti&social, and impulsive.
D) stable, sociable, and assertive.

838. An under&confident and self&effacing co&pilot is promoted to Captain. It

is not uncommon for such a person have a behavioural pattern which is:
A) aggressive if challenged by another member of the crew.
B) easy&going but having a reliance on others.
C) easy to adapt to the role of Captain.
D) confident and self&assuring because of his/her higher status.

839. The behavioural mode that enhances the co&ordination of flight crew is…
A) adapted child.
B) child.
C) nurturing parent.
D) adult.

840. Macho attitude is manifested in a pilot with…

A) an excessively high opinion of him/herself.
B) a tendency to avoid making difficult decisions.
C) an urge to do something impulsively.
D) a resentment of being told what to do.

841. In the Swiss Cheese model, what do holes represent?

A) Systems or processes put in place to reduce risk.
B) Missing data in the risk management system.
C) Systems or processes designed to prevent harm
D) Errors in the system or process.
842. Which behavioural traits in pilots pose the greatest hazard for flight
safety?
A) Aggressive, antisocial, or non&conforming behaviour.
B) Sociable, compliant, or impulsive behaviour.
C) Passive, sociable, or conforming behaviour.
D) Passive, sociable, or non&compliant behaviour.

843. “In his/her behaviour, the “”ideal professional pilot”” is…”

A) “neither “”person”” nor “”goal”” oriented.”
B) “both “”person”” and “”goal”” oriented.”
C) “””goal”” rather than “”person”” oriented.”
D) “””person”” rather than “”goal”” oriented.”

844. A number of pilots subconsciously believe that accidents can only

happen to others and never to themselves. What is this type of attitude called?
A) Invulnerability
B) Impulsiveness
C) Resignation
D) Complacency

845. The relationship between arousal and flying performance is

A) approximately the form of an inverted U
B) approximately exponential
C) approximately sinusoidal
D) approximately linear increasing

846. In a complex task high levels of arousal

A) improve performance
B) narrow the span of attention
C) reduce failures
D) lead to better decision&making

847. An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a

positive sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:
A) both pilots will loose their motor&coordination
B) both pilots will experience the same amount of stress
C) the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to
what may happen
D) the arousal level of both pilots will be raised

848. With reference to the relationship between arousal and performance, the
highest level of performance is achieved when the arousal level is:
A) half way up the arousal curve.
B) half way down the arousal curve.
C) lowest.
D) optimum.
849. What is the relationship between the perceived level of arousal and the
difficulty of a task to be completed?
A) At the outset, the level of arousal should be within the optimum range and therefore at a
level where performance does not suffer.
B) Over&arousal is required to complete difficult tasks.
C) All tasks should be completed at the highest arousal regardless of difficulty.
D) “The arousal level should co&incide with the individual’s “”Break Point”” where the task is
particularly difficult.”

850. High arousal leads to:

A) slower and less accurate responses.
B) faster but less accurate responses.
C) slower but more accurate responses.
D) faster and more accurate responses.

851. “Which of the following statements concerning the term “”arousal”” is

correct?”
A) The higher the arousal level, the better the performance.
B) Arousal describes the good feeling experienced in a successful situation.
C) The lower the arousal level, the better the performance.
D) Arousal is the degree of activation of the central nervous system.

852. “Which option correctly identifies, from the items listed below, the effects
of arousal on performance?1. It always reduces performance2. Optimum
performance is obtained with optimum arousal3. Excessive levels of arousal
weaken performance4. Insufficient levels of arousal weaken performance”
A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

853. Underload decreases the performance capabilities of pilots. Itis most

likely to occur…
A) on long flights.
B) when flying in bad weather conditions.
C) under reduced automation.
D) during take&off and landing.

854. General Adaptation Syndrome &GAS&is a term for the biological reaction
to stress. It is characterised by three distinct phases, namely…
A) the Initiation phase, the Adaptation phase, and the Recovery phase.
B) the Shock phase, the Response phase, and the Impairment phase.
C) the Alarm phase, the Resistance phase, and the Exhaustion phase.
D) the Initial phase, the ‘Fight or Flight’ phase, and the Exhaustion phase.

855. Any stimulus that causes stress is referred to as a stressor. In the

cockpit, an example of an environmental stressor is…
A) financial worries.
B) work overload.
C) lack of sleep.
D) engine noise.

856. What is the effect of stress on a pilot’s arousal state?

A) Levels of stress that are higher than the optimum value reduce arousal levels.
B) An increase in stress levels below the optimum value decreases arousal levels.
C) Levels of stress that are higher than the optimum value increase arousal levels.
D) Arousal is independent of stress but depends on an individual’s well being.

857. Pilot stress reactions…

A) seem to be the same for most pilots.
B) are related to an internationally recognised list of stressors where the top ten items should
be avoided by every means.
C) remain unchanged by the environment or different situations but change mainly with the
characters themselves.
D) differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressors.

858. The maintenance of man’s internal equilibrium is called…

A) heterostasis.
B) poikilothermy.
C) homeothermy.
D) homeostasis.

859. “Which option correctly identifies, from the items listed below, effects of
stress on behaviour?1. Manifestation of aggressiveness2. Willingness to
improve communication3. Willingness for group cohesion4. Tendency to
withdrawal”
A) 3 and 4
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 and 4

860. Stress may be defined as a…

A) psychological phenomenon that only affects fragile personalities.
B) normal phenomenon that enables an individual to adapt to encountered situations.
C) poorly controlled emotion that leads to a reduction in capabilities.
D) human reaction that one must manage to eliminate.

861. Concerning the relationship between performance and stress, which of

the following statements is correct?
A) A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.
B) A moderate level of stress may improve performance.
C) Domestic stress will not affect the pilot’s performance because he/she is able to leave this
type of stress on the ground.
D) A well&trained pilot is able to eliminate any kind of stress completely when he/she is
scheduled to fly.
862. What are the effects of stress?
A) It reduces vigilance and focuses attention.
B) It has no effect on memory recall.
C) It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention.
D) It increases vigilance and may focus attention.

863. Stress is a…
A) mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to
face.
B) psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control.
C) response by a person to his/her problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in
his/her performance.
D) phenomenon which is specific to modern man.

864. The individual’s perception of stress depends on the…

A) conditions of the current situation only.
B) objective evaluation of the situation and one’s abilities to cope with it.
C) subjective evaluation of the situation and one’s abilities to cope with it.
D) pilot’s increasing level of arousal.

865. Physiological stressors include…

A) heat, humidity, fatigue, and administrative problems.
B) noise, temperature &low or high&, humidity, and sleep deprivation.
C) noise, hunger, conflicts, and a death.
D) temperature, hunger, thirst, and divorce.

866. A stress reaction is the…

A) non&specific stimuli causing a human body to respond.
B) specific response of the body to demands placed on a person.
C) specific stimuli causing a human body to respond.
D) non&specific response of the body to demands placed on a person.

867. The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful…

A) depends on the individual’s perception of available abilities in comparison to the
perceived demands
B) does not depend on his/her capacity to absorb information.
C) depends on self&confidence alone.
D) depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational
demands.

868. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be manifested in
physical reactions.
B) Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress.
C) Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because of the strict
selection for this particular profession.
D) A psychosomatic disorder is a disease that involves the mind only.

869. Which of the following statements regarding stress and fatigue is correct?
A) Stress and fatigue may both be positive.
B) Stress and fatigue are synonymous.
C) Fatigue may be positive, stress is always negative.
D) Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative.

870. Environmental sources of stress in the cockpit are…

A) noise and vibration, acceleration, cosmic radiation, and extreme temperatures.
B) noise and vibration and extreme temperatures only.
C) acceleration and cosmic radiation only.
D) noise and vibration, acceleration, and cosmic radiation only.

871. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) A negative stress on a pilot will normally have no effect on performance and he/she will
operate efficiently in the absence of it.
B) Human conflict tends not to escalate.
C) Behaviour is not generally an outcome of personality and attitude.
D) The initial effects of carbon monoxide poisoning are immediately alarming.

872. Physical stress takes place when…

A) the brain can no longer cope, due to either quantitative or qualitative overload.
B) the neurones in the nervous system are overloaded.
C) the perceived demand is greater than the perceived ability.
D) outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body.

873. It is generally considered that the most serious non&professional

stressor is…
A) the death of a spouse or partner.
B) personal injury or illness.
C) loss of a job.
D) marital separation.

874. “The “”break&point”” is that point after which, if stress continues to rise,
performance…”
A) is enhanced.
B) peaks and remains at this level.
C) is initially degraded and is then enhanced.
D) is degraded.

875. “Which option correctly identifies, from the listed items, environmental
stressors?1. Heat2. Humidity3. Divorce4. Lack of rest5. Loss of job6. Noise”
A) 1, 2, and 6 only
B) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
C) 1, 2, 4, and 6 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 6 only
876. Stress can be defined as…
A) the unresolved pressure, strain or force acting upon an individual’s physical or mental
systems and the human response.
B) a feeling of well&being enabling difficult tasks to be completed more easily.
C) a physical limit acting upon the individual’s physical systems, inhibiting completion of any
task.
D) a low level of pressure acting on the individual’s mental system, which inhibits completion
of even the simplest tasks.

877. What is a physiological stressor?

A) The body’s non&specific response to demands put upon it.
B) A means of coping with a stressful situation.
C) An unresolved force acting upon the individual’s mental systems.
D) A stimulus that produces a change in any of the homeostatic mechanisms of the body.

878. “From the following list of stressors, which are psychological?1. Noise2.
Loss of a spouse or partner3. Heat4. Loss of one’s job5. Vibrations6. Credit
card debt”
A) 2, 4, and 6 only
B) 3, 5, and 6 only
C) 1, 3, and 5 only
D) 2, 4, and 5 only

879. What are the two inputs to a simple model of stress?

A) The ease of achieving the task and its usefulness in the scheme of things.
B) The value of the task to the pilot and what the pilot can get out of it.
C) The value of the task overall and its usefulness in the scheme of things.
D) The perceived demand of the task to the pilot and the pilot’s perceived ability to complete
the task.

880. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The effect of stress is only negative.
B) Stress has no or only minor effects on cardiovascular disease.
C) Stressors at home can add to the effects of the stressors in the cockpit.
D) People experience stress in a similar way.

881. What are examples of psychological stress factors?

A) Discrimination, lack of information, competitive pressure, and fear of failure.
B) Low humidity, lack of information, lack of exercise, and competitive pressure.
C) Competitive pressure, lack of illumination, lack of exercise, and discrimination.
D) Fear of failure, discrimination, lack of illumination, and low humidity.

882. A pilot successfully completes a difficult and stressful landing at an

aerodrome. The next time a landing is attempted under the same conditions
and at the same aerodrome, the pilot is likely to experience…
A) a higher level of stress.
B) a lower level of stress.
C) the same stress level as the first landing.
D) the pilot should only attempt a landing at the same aerodrome if the conditions are
improved.

883. High levels of stress may cause regression, which can lead to…
A) an improvement in the efficient use of mental capacity and overall performance.
B) a deterioration in performance, though an improved awareness of external factors.
C) experimentation and the trying out of new ideas.
D) correct actions being forgotten and substituted for incorrect procedures.

884. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Stressors are independent from each other.
B) Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances.
C) Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood of exhaustion.
D) People are capable of living without stress.

885. “Which option correctly lists, from the items shown below, cognitive
effects of stress?1. excessive haste2. an improvement in memory3. a complete
block: action is impossible4. a risk of focusing on a particular aspect5. ease of
decision&making6. an increase in the rate of mistakes”
A) 1, 3, 4, and 6 only
B) 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
C) 1, 2, and 5 only
D) 3, 4, and 5 only

886. An initial response to stress can include which of the following bodily
reactions?
A) Lowering of the blood pressure.
B) Faster, deep inhalation, and a stabbing pain around the heart.
C) Increased perspiration, a dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
D) A rise in blood pressure, pupils narrowing, and a stabbing pain around the heart.

887. “What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?
1: Increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.2: An increase in
heart rate, respiration and release of glucose.3: A decrease in stress
resistance.4: Activation of the digestive system.5: Secretion of cortisol to
mobilise attention.The combination of correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 4, 5.
D) 1 and 5 only.

888. “Stress occurs:1: only in a situation of imminent danger.2: only when

faced with a real, existing and actual situation.3: sometimes via the
imagination, anticipating a situation or its outcome.4: because of the similarity
with a formerly experienced stressful situation. The correct statements are…”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 3.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

889. Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on…

A) the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment.
B) the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it.
C) the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available.
D) the evaluation of the situation and the state of fatigue of the individual.

890. Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when…

A) stress is medium.
B) stress and motivation are medium.
C) stress is high.
D) stress and motivation are low.

891. A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can

perceive…
A) stressors.
B) distress.
C) coping stress.
D) eustress.

892. “The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of

stress. This mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as
the “”General Adaptation Syndrome””.The sequence is:”
A) alarm phase & denial phase & exhaustion phase
B) exhaustion phase & resistance phase & adaptation phase
C) alarm phase & resistance phase & exhaustion phase
D) resistance phase & exhaustion phase & recovery phase

893. The resistance phase of stress…

A) is very short in duration and is unlikely to give a pilot the opportunity to resolve a problem.
B) allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilisation of energy in
the body.
C) may cause a person to die by stopping the defence mechanisms of the body.
D) is characterised by the secretion of adrenalin, an increased heart rate and increased
blood pressure.

894. The General Adaption Syndrome is associated with…

A) NIHL &Noise Induced Hearing Loss&.
B) the CNS &Central Nervous System&.
C) the ANS &Autonomic Nervous System&.
D) the Parasympathetic System.

895. The General Adaption Syndrome can activate when responding to…
A) Hypovigilance.
B) Circadian Dysrhythmia.
C) boredom.
D) an imaginary threat.

896. In the Alarm stage of response to stress, what does the body do?
A) Attempts to repair any damage caused by the stress.
B) Recognises danger and slows the body down via the autonomic system.
C) Recognises the stressor and prepares the body for action.
D) Attempts to maintain the body’s arousal state to the continuing stress.

897. How will the successful completion of a stressful task affect a pilot’s
performance when a similar situation is experienced in the future?
A) Given a similar situation the amount of stress will be the same.
B) The stress level experienced will be increased.
C) Any stress will cause a reduction in performance.
D) The amount of stress experienced will be less.

898. Which of the following is an example of human underload?

A) A poor landing at an airfield with which the pilot is unfamiliar, in marginal weather
conditions.
B) A good landing at an airfield with which the pilot is familiar in poor weather conditions.
C) An unexpectedly poor landing at an airfield with which the pilot is familiar in perfect
weather conditions.
D) An unexpectedly good landing at an airfield with which the pilot is unfamiliar in perfect
weather conditions.

899. “Which option correctly lists, from the items below, possible symptoms of
stress?1. Depression or anxiety2. Low blood pressure3. Sleep disturbances4.
Abuse of psychoactive substances”
A) 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

900. Which behaviour is typically found in the resistance phase of the General
Adaptation Syndrome &GAS&?
A) Application of mental coping strategies.
B) Bodily recuperation.
C) Fight or flight.
D) Relaxed actions.

901. What is a characteristic of the alarm stage of the General Adaptation

Syndrome &GAS&?
A) The adaptation energy is exhausted.
B) The body copes with the stressor.
C) The body prepares for action.
D) The body can no longer resist the stressor.
902. The phases of General Adaption Syndrome are:
A) Emergency, Medial and Recovery.
B) Alarm, Resistance and Exhaustion.
C) Emergency, Resistance and Exhaustion.
D) Alarm, Resistance and Recovery.

903. “General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by which of the following

phases?1. Alarm2. Alert3. Resistance4. Exhaustion5. Vigilance”
A) 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4

904. What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome ?

A) Alert, resistance, performance.
B) Alarm, resistance, performance,
C) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
D) Alert, resistance, exhaustion

905. “Which of the following may be affected by stress?1. Attention2.

Concentration3. Personality4. Judgement”
A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1, 2, and 4

906. Acute stress quickly leads to

A) a permanent state of incapacitation
B) a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower
C) a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the situation
D) the mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor

907. With regards to stress, as it affects human beings, which of the following
statements is correct?
A) “””Stress”” is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon
him/her.”
B) All forms of stress should be avoided.
C) Stressors relate purely to a pilot’s physical condition.
D) Self&imposed obligations will not create stress.

908. The two types of fatigue are:

A) Chronic and acute
B) Oppressive and negative
C) Heavy and light
D) Short&term and oppressive
909. What is the effect of tiredness on attention ?
A) It increases the ability to manage multiple matters
B) It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters
C) It has no specific effects on attention
D) It leads to one’s attention being shared between different centres of interest

910. Which statement about acute or chronic fatigue is INCORRECT?

A) Chronic fatigue may lead to a person being totally apathetic and indifferent to what goes
on around them.
B) Chronic fatigue may be caused by inadequate recuperation from periods of acute fatigue.
C) Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots.
D) Acute fatigue is felt after a period of significant exertion or emotional excitement.

911. What are the two main categories of fatigue?

A) Acute and Sympathetic.
B) Normal and Chronic.
C) Normal and Severe.
D) Acute and Chronic.

912. A person is in a stressful situation that cannot be changed. Which

strategy of coping involves reducing the emotional and physiological impact
of the stress?
A) Cognitive coping
B) Counselling techniques coping
C) Action coping
D) System directing coping

913. In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should…

A) maintain competence by reviewing past performance and utilising his/her skills to avoid
hypovigilance.
B) drop activities outside work so as to better focus on his/her work.
C) avoid anticipating events during a flight to manage his/her workload
D) forget about bad past experiences.

914. What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated
period of stress?
A) A strategy of preparing decisions.
B) A laissez&faire strategy.
C) A strategy of no commitment.
D) A non&sequenced strategy.

915. If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state
of…
A) eustress.
B) hypoxia.
C) adaptation.
D) distress.
916. “Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?1. Diminished
accommodation2. Slowed reactions3. Long&term memory access problems4.
Being over&talkative5. Diminished motor skills”
A) 2 and 5 only
B) 3 and 5 only
C) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

917. “Which of the following are symptoms of fatigue?1. Faster reactions2.

Diminished motor skills3. Tunnelled concentration4. Increased long&term
memory capacity”
A) 1, 3, and 4 only.
B) 2, 3, and 4 only.
C) 2 and 4 only.
D) 2 and 3 only.

918. A good way of dealing with long&term and chronic stress is to

A) cut down on social interactions.
B) enforce a rigorous, reactive approach to time management.
C) take care of the physical causes of stress.
D) postpone professional training to free up time.

919. In case of in&flight stress, one should…

A) only trust in oneself and know one’s personal limits.
B) demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew.
C) always carry out a breathing exercise.
D) use all available resources of the crew.

920. “Which of the following can cause fatigue?1. Eating a large meal2. Jet
lag3. Boredom4. Low levels of external stimulation”
A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

921. Mode Error is associated with:

A) Hardware
B) Vertigo
C) Automation
D) Check lists

922. “Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by

people than by automatic systems ?1. Qualitative decision&making2. Waiting
for an infrequent phenomenon3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are
not exceeded4. Detection of unusual conditions &smell, noise, etc.&”
A) 3,4
B) 1,4
C) 1,2
D) 2,3,4

923. “Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by

automatic systems than by people ?1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon2.
Long term controlling of a set value &e.g. holding of trajectory& 3. Monitoring
to ensure that certain values are not exceeded &e.g. holding of flight path& 4.
Qualitative decision&making”
A) 2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 3,4
D) 2,4

924. “Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation ?1.
Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft2. Increased
likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in
adapting to the use of a sidestick4. General decrease in technical reliability”
A) 2,3,4
B) 1,2
C) 1,4
D) 1,3

925. What are the main advantages of the human over the machine?
A) Ability to recognize limits on systems being exceeded quicker than a machine and resolve
the situation.
B) Logic and the use of human senses.
C) Ability to recognize system failures and rectify them quicker than a machine.
D) Creativity, innovation, and aptitude to deal with novel situations.

926. One of the major advantages of automation is…

A) the standardised use of colour in multifunctional displays.
B) that tasks requiring high levels of vigilance are performed better due to reduced boredom.
C) an increase in arousal levels, especially during cruise.
D) a reduction in pilot workload associated with the manual task of flying.

927. Modern aircraft increasingly rely on high levels of cockpit automation and
information integration. Which of the following are methods to overcome some
of the disadvantages of automation?
A) Be thoroughly familiar with the automation, in order to eliminate cockpit complacency and
being unaware.
B) Practice basic manual flying skills and continuously maintain a mental picture of the
current situation.
C) Adhere rigorously to Standard Operating Procedures and checklists, in order to ensure
proper use of automation.
D) Continuously monitor the automation and focus on fault detection or other abnormal
indications.
928. “The “”irony of automation”” is the paradox that automation does much
better than the pilot those things that a pilot already knows how to do well.
According to this paradox, the problem with automation is that it…”
A) is less cost&effective compared to manual flying because the complex systems it uses
are very expensive.
B) increases the workload of pilots as they have to cope with a lot of information.
C) excludes some aspects of flying needed in an emergency and that a pilot would like to be
competent in.
D) reduces safety as pilots find automatic systems difficult to understand.

929. What can a pilot do to avoid automation complacency?

A) Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be crosschecked
as well
B) Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man&machine loop
C) Nothing, because it is system&inherent
D) Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods

930. A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the
pilots in a way, that
A) it is guaranteed that the crew always maintains situational awareness
B) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced as a consequence of ‘being out of
the loop’
C) the crew can pay more attention to problem&solving in an abnormal situation without
monitoring the automatic systems
D) Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromising safety

931. One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in:
A) constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasks
B) less experienced crews because of more transparent system details
C) pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
D) complacency among the crewmembers

932. “What is “”automation complacency””?”

A) The circumstance where monitoring and cross&checking is reduced because of the belief
in the infallibility of the automatic systems.
B) Automation is now so reliable that the human input is no longer necessary
C) No over&ride facility is available on auto&flight selection as there are enough levels of
redundancy to cope with any system failure.
D) The circumstance where the pilot flies the aircraft manually because he is unable to rely
on the automatic systems flying the aircraft safely.

933. “What is meant by “”passive monitoring”” in terms of automation

complacency?”
A) A pilot’s belief in the fallibility of systems and constantly checking and analyzing the
situation.
B) A pilot watching what is going on rather than analyzing and constantly checking.
C) A pilot’s concentration on one particular area of the system instead of monitoring the
whole system.
D) A pilot knowing where the aircraft has been, where it is now, and where it is going to.

934. What role should automation play with respect to flight safety?
A) Automation should be used where pilots have to make decisions and manual flying
should be compulsory in good weather conditions.
B) Automation should only be used on flights when weather conditions are poor to enhance
flight safety.
C) Automation should be used as much as possible to replace the pilot who will inevitably
make mistakes.
D) Automation should be used as an aid to the pilot and not as an end in itself.

935. “Which of the following statements concerning complacency in an

automated work environment is correct?Complacency:”
A) Helps to react in a timely manner when a system fails.
B) Enhances the situational awareness.
C) Leads to overconfidence in automated systems.
D) Leads to a satisfactory system state.

936. “In the context of operating complex and highly automated aircraft, the
term “”mode awareness”” is used to describe that… “
A) the current mode in which the cockpit automation is operating should always be
transparent to the pilot, and that the interface allows for pilot interaction, including manual
override of the automation.
B) the automation system should provide unambiguous feedback to the pilot in which mode
it is operating, including the requirement for specific pilot input depending on the particular
phase of flight.
C) the pilot should always be aware of the automation mode under which the aircraft is
operating and understand the interaction between a mode of automation and a particular
phase of flight or pilot input.
D) the pilot should maintain situational awareness as regards the appropriate automation
mode required for a particular phase of flight, and the opportunity for manual pilot input to
interact with the various modes.

937. As a result of automation in cockpits,

A) the need for communication between crew members has been decreased
B) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew
members
C) it is easier for the captain to monitor the work of the first officer and vice versa
D) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man&man and man&machine
relations

938. Which of the following is an example of the disadvantage of automation

on crew communication?
A) Automatic systems generally provide visual signals, which have the unwanted effect of
substituting crew communication.
B) Aural signals from automatic systems reduce the need for crew to communicate.
C) The automation might resolve a problem without informing the pilot&s&.
D) A lot of raw data are available to the pilots, which has the negative effect of reducing the
need for crew to communicate.