Physiology 1

cell transport
cell transport
1. The diagram below illustrates the concentration of a substance in two chambers. If the concentration of
the substance in chamber A doubles, the diffusion of the substance will change from 10 mg/h to
1. 5 mg/h
2. 10 mg/h
3. 15 mg/h
4. 20 mg/h
5. 30 mg/h
2. Which of the following statements best characterizes a molecule whose reflection coefficient to a
membrane is zero?
1. It will not permeate the membrane
2. It can only cross the membrane through the lipid bilayer
3. It causes water to flow across the membrane
4. It is as diffusible through the membrane as water
5. It is transported across the membrane by a carrier
3. The characteristic of a water-insoluble substance most important in governing its diffusibility through a
cell membrane is its
1. Hydrated diameter
cell transport
2. Molecular weight
3. Electrical charge
4. Lipid solubility
5. Three-dimensional shape
4. The movement of water across a plasma membrane occurs by
1. active transport.
2. facilitated diffusion.
3. simple diffusion (osmosis).
4. all of these.
5. Which of these statements about the facilitated diffusion of glucose is true?
1. There is a net movement from the region of lower to the region of higher concentration.
2. Carrier proteins in the cell membrane are required for this transport.
3. This transport requires energy obtained from ATP.
4. It is an example of cotransport.
6. If a poison such as cyanide stopped the production of ATP, which of the following transport processes
would cease?
1. the movement of Na+ out of a cell

cell transport
2. osmosis
3. the movement of K+ out of a cell
4. all of these
7. Red blood cells crenate in
1. a hypotonic solution.
2. an isotonic solution.
3. a hypertonic solution.
8. Plasma has an osmolality of about 300 mOsm. The osmolality of isotonic saline is equal to
1. 150 mOsm.
2. 300 mOsm.
3. 600 mOsm.
4. none of these.
9. Which of these statements comparing a 0.5m NaCl solution and a 1.0m glucose solution is true?
1. They have the same osmolality.
2. They have the same osmotic pressure.
3. They are isotonic to each other.

cell transport
4. All of these are true.
10. The most important diffusible ion in the establishment of the rest membrane potential is
1. K+
2. Na+
3. Ca2+
4. Cl-
5. Mg2+
11. Which of these statements regarding an increase in blood osmolality is true?
1. It can occur as a result of dehydration.
2. It causes a decrease in blood osmotic pressure.
3. It is accompanied by a decrease in ADH secretion.
4. All of these are true.
12. Which of these statements about the Na+/K+ pump is true?
1. Na+ is actively transported into the cell.
2. K+is actively transported out of the cell.
3. An equal number of Na+ and K+ ions are transported with each cycle of the pump.
cell transport
4. The pumps are constantly active in all cells.
13. Which of these statements about carrier mediated facilitated diffusion is true?
1. It uses cellular ATP.
2. It is used for cellular uptake of blood glucose.
3. It is a form of active transport.
4. None of these are true.
14. Which of these is not an example of cotransport?
1. movement of glucose and Na+ through the apical epithelial membrane in the intestinal epithelium
2. movement of Na+ and K+ through the action of the Na+/K+ pumps
3. movement of Na+ and glucose across the kidney tubules
4. movement of Na+ into a cell while Ca2+ moves out
15. Interstitial fluid
1. is an ultrafiltrate of plasma, formed by filtration processes across the capillary wall
2. the fluid circulating in the blood vessels and is the smaller of the two ECF subcompartments
3. is contained within the cells and is two thirds of total body water
cell transport
16. What is the major cation and the balancing anions in ECF?
1. sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)
2. potassium (K+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates
3. calcium (Ca2+) and hydrogen (H+)
4. sodium (Na+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates
17. What is the major cation and the balancing anions in ICF?
1. sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)
2. potassium (K+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates
3. calcium (Ca2+) and hydrogen (H+)
4. sodium (Na+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates
18. The main property of the cell membrane is:
1. differential permeability
2. immobility
3. invariability
4. variability
19. The absorption of large particles by cells is called:

cell transport
1. phagocytosis
2. diffusion
3. pinocytosis
4. exocytosis
20. The absorption of globules of fluid by cells is called:
1. water delivery
2. nutrition
3. diffusion
4. pinocytosis
21. Bothe phagocytosis and pinocytosis are joined under a common term:
1. exocytosis
2. endocytosis
3. diffusion
4. coupled transport
22. The transport of particles and globules of solute from the cell to outside is called:
1. excision
cell transport
2. endocytosis
3. outflow
4. exocytosis
23. The transport of substances across cell membranes from the larger concentration to the less
concentration is called:
1. downhill transport (transport down the concentration gradient)
2. transport not depending on the concentration gradient
3. transport against the concentration gradient
24. Transport across cell membranes without using carriers and energy of ATP is called:
1. simple diffusion
2. facilitated diffusion
3. occlusion
4. active diffusion
25. Transport across cell membranes against the concentration gradient using carriers and energy of ATP is
called:
1. active transport (uphill)
2. passive transport (downhill)
3. exocytosis
cell transport
4. endocytosis
26. Active transport is a way for molecules to move across the plasma membrane. When active transport is
used to move molecules, what is required?
1. concentration gradient
2. very small molecules
3. energy that the cell provides
4. osmosis
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Вопрос №5 2
Вопрос №6 1
Вопрос №7 3
Вопрос №8 2
Вопрос №9 4
Вопрос №10 1
cell transport
AP, MP
1. Depolarization of an axon is produced by
1. inward diffusion of Na+ .
2. active extrusion of K+ .
3. outward diffusion of K+ .
4. inward active transport of Na+.
2. Repolarization of an axon during an action potential is produced by
1. inward diffusion of Na+ .
2. active extrusion of K+ .
3. outward diffusion of K+ .
4. inward active transport of Na+.
3. As the strength of a depolarizing stimulus to an axon is increased,
1. the amplitude of action potentials increases.

cell transport
2. the duration of action potentials increases.
3. the speed with which action potentials are conducted increases.
4. the frequency with which action potentials are produced increases.
4. The conduction of action potentials in a myelinated nerve fiber is
1. saltatory.
2. without decrement.
3. faster than in an unmyelinated fiber.
4. all of the these.
5. Which of these is not a characteristic of action potentials?
1. They are produced by voltageregulated gates.
2. They are conducted without decrement.
3. Na+ and K+ gates open at the same time.
4. The membrane potential reverses polarity during depolarization.
6. The absolute refractory period of a neuron
1. is due to the high negative polarity of the inside of the neuron.
2. occurs only during the repolarization phase.

cell transport
3. occurs only during the depolarization phase.
4. occurs during depolarization and the first part of the repolarization phase.
7. A pharmacological or physiological perturbation that increases the resting PK+/PNa+ ratio for the
plasma membrane of a neuron would
1. Lead to depolarization of the cell
2. Lead to hyperpolarization of the cell
3. Produce no change in the value of the resting membrane potential
8. The afterhyperpolarization phase of the action potential is caused by
1. An outward calcium current
2. An inward sodium current
3. An outward potassium current
4. An outward sodium current
9. If the extracellular K+ concentration is increased from 4 meq/L to 10 meq/L,
1. The membrane potential will become more negative
2. The sodium conductance will increase
3. The potassium conductance will increase
4. The membrane will become more excitable

cell transport
5. The Na+/K+ pump will become inactivated
10. Inactivation of the sodium-potassium pump will cause
1. An increase in the intracellular volume
2. An increase in the intracellular potassium concentration
3. Hyperpolarization of the membrane potential
4. An increase in the excitability of nerve cells
5. An increase in the flow of sodium out of the cell
11. Membrane excitability will be increased by the greatest amount by
1. Increasing extracellular Na+
2. Increasing extracellular K+
3. Decreasing extracellular Cl-
4. Decreasing extracellular Ca2+
5. Decreasing extracellular H+
12. The resting potential of a nerve membrane is primarily dependent on the concentration gradient of
1. Potassium
2. Sodium
cell transport
3. Calcium
4. Chloride
5. Bicarbonate
13. In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the
1. Magnitude of the stimulus
2. Intracellular potassium concentration
3. Extracellular sodium concentration
4. Resting membrane potential
5. Diameter of the axon
14. The membrane potential will depolarize by the greatest amount if the membrane permeability increases
for
1. Potassium
2. Sodium and potassium
3. Chloride
4. Potassium and chloride
5. Sodium
cell transport
15. Which of the following will be less during the overshoot of an action potential than during the resting
state?
1. Membrane conductance for sodium
2. Membrane conductance for potassium
3. Transference for sodium
4. Transference for potassium
5. Total membrane conductance
16. Preventing the inactivation of sodium channels will decrease
1. The relative refractory period of nerve cells
2. The upstroke velocity of nerve cell action potentials
3. The downstroke velocity of nerve cell action potentials
4. The magnitude of the overshoot in nerve cell action potentials
5. The duration of nerve cell action potentials
17. Statements descriptive of both the equilibrium and steady states include which of the following?
1. The sum of all the fluxes across the membrane is zero in both
2. Both are maintained by the consumption of free energy
3. The concentration gradient across the membrane is zero in both
4. Both are maintained by homeostatic processes

cell transport
5. The membrane potential is zero in both
18. Electrically excitable gates are normally involved in
1. The depolarization of the end-plate membrane by ACh
2. Hyperpolarization of the rods by light
3. Release of calcium from ventricular muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. Transport of glucose into cells by a sodium-dependent, secondary active transport system
5. Increase in nerve cell potassium conductance caused by an increase in extracellular potassium
19. The sodium gradient across the nerve cell membrane is
1. A result of the Donnan equilibrium
2. Significantly changed during an action potential
3. Used as a source of energy for the transport of other ions
4. An important determinant of the resting membrane potential
5. Maintained by a Na/Ca exchanger
20. Increasing the extracellular potassium concentration will
1. Increase the threshold for eliciting an action potential
2. Hyperpolarize the membrane potential

cell transport
3. Decrease potassium permeability
4. Decrease the activity of the sodium-potassium pump
5. Make the equilibrium potential for potassium more negative
21. Which of the following would cause an immediate reduction in the amount of potassium leaking out of a
cell?
1. Increasing the permeability of the membrane to potassium
2. Increasing the intracellular potassium concentration
3. Increasing (hyperpolarizing) the membrane potential
4. Reducing the activity of the sodium-potassium pump
5. Decreasing the potassium equilibrium potential
22. In which one of the following transport processes is the substance moving down its electrochemical
gradient?
1. Sodium out of nerve cells
2. Calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
3. Hydrogen into the lumen of the distal nephron
4. Glucose into adipose tissue
5. Potassium into striated muscle cells

cell transport
23. At which point on the action potential does the Na+ current exceed the K+ current?
1. Point A
2. Point B
3. Point C
4. Point D
5. Point E
24. At which point on the action potential is the membrane closest to the Na+ equilibrium potential?
1. Point A
2. Point B
3. Point C
4. Point D
5. Point E
25. A typical neuron has a resting membrane potential of about:
1. +70 mV
2. +70 V
3. -70 mV
4. -70 V
cell transport
5. All of the above are observed at rest
26. At the peak of the action potential, the membrane potential is:
1. exactly at the Na+ equilibrium potential (VNa)
2. close to but more positive than the Na+ equilibrium potential (VNa)
3. close to but less positive than the Na+ equilibrium potential (VNa) ?
4. exactly at 0 mV
5. the same as the resting membrane potential (Vrest)
27. At what membrane voltage do neuronal voltage-gated Na+ channels become activated?
1. -70 mV
2. -50 mV
3. 0 mV
4. +50 mV
5. None of the above
28. At what membrane voltage do neuronal voltage-gated K+ channels become activated?
1. -70 mV
2. -50 mV
cell transport
3. 0 mV
4. +50 mV
29. The spike phase of the neuronal action potential is due to:
1. the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels
2. the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels
3. the closure of resting K+ channels
4. the opening of voltage-gated Cl- channels
30. In the nervous system, the strength of the stimulus is coded into:
1. The frequency of action potentials generated
2. The amplitude of action potentials generated
3. Both the frequency and amplitude of action potentials generated
31. Assuming resting physiological cytoplasmic and extracellular concentrations of Na+ , determine the Na+
equilibrium potential (VNa).
1. 0 mV
2. +61 mV
cell transport
3. -61 mV
4. +96 mV
5. -96 mV
32. Assuming resting physiological cytoplasmic and extracellular concentrations of K+ , determine the K+
equilibrium potential (VK).
1. 0 mV
2. +61 mV
3. -61 mV
4. +96 mV
5. -96 mV
33. Assume that in a cell at rest, only K+ channels are open in the plasma membrane. This situation could
arise if all other ion channels are blocked by the addition of pharmacological agents (i.e., blockers or
inhibitors). Under this condition, what is the value of the membrane potential (Vm) in this cell?
1. The membrane potential is the same as the equilibrium potential for K+ (Vm = VK).
2. The membrane potential is the same as the equilibrium potential for Na+ (Vm = VNa).
3. The membrane potential is the same as the equilibrium potential for Cl? (Vm = VCl).
4. None of the above is correct.
5. All of the above are possible.

cell transport
34. Assume that in a cell at rest, only Na+ channels are open in the plasma membrane. This situation could
arise if all other ion channels are blocked by the addition of pharmacological agents (i.e., blockers or
inhibitors). Under this condition, what is the value of the membrane potential (Vm) in this cell?
1. The membrane potential is the same as the equilibrium potential for K+ (Vm = VK).
2. The membrane potential is the same as the equilibrium potential for Na+ (Vm = VNa).
3. The membrane potential is the same as the equilibrium potential for Cl- (Vm = VCl).
4. None of the above is correct.
5. All of the above are possible.
35. A change in the membrane potential (Vm) from the resting value of -50 mV to a new value of -90 mV is
referred to as:
1. Depolarization
2. Hyperpolarization
36. A change in the membrane potential (Vm) from the resting value of -50 mV to a new value of -10 mV is
referred to as:
1. Depolarization
37. An occurrence of what potential submits to the "all-or-none" rule:
1. postsynaptic potential;
cell transport
2. local potential
3. The action potential;
4. membrane potential.
5. receptor potential
38. Adaptation of excitable tissues to slowly increasing strength of stimuli is called:
1. lability
2. functional mobility
3. sensitization
4. stabilization
5. accommodation
39. Excitable tissues are:
1. epithelial, muscle
2. nerve, muscle, epithelial
3. nervous, muscular
4. bone, connective
40. Tissues that respond with an excitability to the stimulus are called
cell transport
1. irritable
2. excitable
3. conducted
4. contractile
41. The basic process of accommodation is:
1. an increase of the sodium permeability
2. a lowering of potassium permeability
3. an inactivation of potassium and an increase of sodium permeability
4. an inactivation of sodium and an increase potassium permeability
42. Electric current is an ________ stimulus to excitable membrane
1. adequate
2. nonspecific
3. threshold
4. inadequate
43. Decreased excitability of a cell during relative refractory period is determined by:
1. a phased reactivation of sodium channels

cell transport
2. a significant decrease of potassium current
3. a decrease of the value of threshold potential
4. an inactivation of sodium channel
44. The period of a decreased excitability during the repolarization of the action potential are called:
1. relative refractory period
2. revesion
3. exaltation
4. absolute refractory period
45. The period of a complete non-excitability of a cell are called:
1. relative refractory period
2. subnormal excitability period
3. absolute refractory period
4. exaltation
46. What of the following phenomena characterizes absolute refractory period:
1. an inactivation of K+ voltage-gated channels
2. an inactivation of Ca2+ voltage-gated channels;

cell transport
3. an inactivation of Na+ voltage-gated channels;
4. an inactivation of Mg2+ voltage-gated channels
47. In neurons:
1. Stimuli can alter the potential difference by closing sodium channels in the membrane.
2. Stimuli can alter the potential difference by opening sodium channels in the membrane
3. Stimuli has no affect on potentials
4. Stimuli is only affective when tissue temperature is above 31 degrees Celsius
48. Protein molecular mechanism that let sodium ions go out of cytoplasm and potassium ions go into
cytoplasm is called:
1. voltage-gated sodium channel
2. nonspecific sodium potassium channel
3. sodium-potassium pump
4. ligand-gated sodium channel
49. The potential difference that exists across the membrane of excitable cells is called:
1. action potential
2. prepotential
3. membrane potential
cell transport
4. reversion
50. For what ion the value of the resting potential is close to the equilibrium potential?
1. potassium
2. chlorine
3. calcium
4. sodium
5. magnesium
51. Each of the action potential is formed by two successive processes:
1. hyperpolarization-repolarization;
2. repolarization-depolarization;
3. depolarization-repolarization;
4. depolarization-hyperpolarization.
Вопрос №1 1
Вопрос №2 3
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cell transport
Вопрос №9 4
cell transport
Cell signaling
1. Which of the following is a secondary mediator:
1. acetylcholine
2. noradrenaline
3. cAMP
4. somatostatin
2. Adenylate cyclase is activated by:
1. cAMP
2. G-protein
3. Ca2 +
4. protein kinase
5. membrane receptors
cell transport
3. Inositol triphosphate (IP3) activates:
1. adenylate cyclase
2. guanylate cyclase
3. Ca2+ channels of EPR
4. calcium ATPase
5. protein kinase
4. The activation of adenylate cyclase triggers the synthesis of:
1. ATP
2. cGMP
3. cAMP
4. tyrosine kinase
5. G-protein
5. Which of the G-protein subunits generates an activation of the effector protein?
1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
4. delta
cell transport
5. kappa
6. Which of these events must occur before the others during metabotropic control?
1. building of c-AMP;
2. activation of protein kinase;
3. activation of adenylate cyclase;
4. activation of G-protein:
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synapse
1. A fatigue occurs first:
1. at synapse
2. in skeletal muscle
3. in the nerve trunk
4. in neuronal cells
cell transport
2. A mediator in the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles of man is:
1. acetylcholine
2. noradrenaline
3. GABA
4. adrenaline
3. The structural formations providing the transmission of excitation from one cell to another is called:
1. nerve
2. axonal hillock
3. synapse
4. Ranvier's nodes
4. What kind of the potential occurs on the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular synapse:
1. inhibitory postsynaptic
2. actions
3. end plate potential (EPP)
5. What happens to the mediator stood out of the presynaptic terminals?
1. It diffuses through the postsynaptic membrane;

cell transport
2. It joins the postsynaptic membrane receptors;
3. It carries through the postsynaptic membrane by an active transport,
4. It binds proteins of synaptic fluid;
5. It accumulates in the synaptic cleft, thereby reducing the electrical resistance
6. What determines a value of the end-plate potential?
1. the intensity of the synthesis of acetylcholine in the motoneurons;
2. a number of receptors that unbound to acetylcholine
3. a concentration of calcium ions in the presynaptic terminal;
4. a concentration neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft;
5. a number of cholinergic receptors bound to mediator
7. What ion current mainly generates the endplate potential?
1. Calcium;
2. Сhlorine;
3. Sodium;
4. Magnesium;
5. all cations.
cell transport
8. What function does acetylcholinesterase have to do in the neuromuscular junction?
1. to increase a value of the end-plate potential;
2. to increase duration of the end plate potential;
3. to stimulate the synthesis of the mediator;
4. to ensure the timely closing of ligand-gated channels.
5. to splits the mediator bound to acetylcholine receptors;
9. Which of the following is typical for generating of endplate potential?
1. it is formed by using ligand-gated channels;
2. it is formed by using voltage-gated channels;
3. it has an amplitude equal to the action potential;
4. it is formed by the rule of "all or non response";
5. it has an duration equal to the action potential.
10. What is the result of the effect of curare on the nerve-muscle synapse?
1. acetylcholinesterase is inactivated;
2. the synthesis of acetylcholine is inhibited;
3. the release of acetylcholine is blocked;

cell transport
4. cholinergic receptors are blocked;
5. acetylcholine is split
11. What is a trigger for outflow of mediator from presynaptic terminal?
1. current of potassium ions into the presynaptic terminal
2. current of chlorine ions into the presynaptic terminal
3. current of calcium ions out of the presynaptic terminal
4. current of calcium ions into the presynaptic terminal
5. current of chlorine ions out of the presynaptic terminal
12. Which of ion channels may be involved in forming of IPSP?
1. sodium
2. potassium
3. calcium
4. magnesium
5. all of the above
13. Choose the way that mediator is stood out from the presynaptic terminal:
1. exocytosis
cell transport
2. pinocytosis
3. by a specific carriers
4. diffusion
5. filtration
14. Which of the following mediators more often than others fulfills the role of inhibitory mediator:
1. acetylcholine
2. GABA
3. norepinephrine
4. dopamine
5. glutamate
15. What ion channels may be used in inhibitory synapses?
1. Potassium;
2. Magnesium;
3. Sodium;
4. Calcium;
5. all cations.
cell transport
16. Ligand-gated channels of the postsynaptic membrane during formation of the EPSP are permeabale to:
1. sodium ions
2. potassium ions
3. potassium ions and sodium ions
4. sodium ions and calcium ions
17. What electric process leads to the formation of EPSP?
1. depolarization of the presynaptic membrane
2. hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
3. depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
4. all the answers are correct
18. If enzyme systems that split mediators in the synapse cleft is completely inactivated, efficiency of
synaptic transmission will:
1. increase
2. not change
3. be equal to zero
4. all the answers are wrong
Вопрос №1 1
cell transport
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Вопрос №9 1
neuron, nerve conduction
1. The open site of axon membrane with width of about 1 mm, where myelin sheath is interrupted, is
called
1. axon terminal
2. node of Ranvier
3. presynaptic terminal
4. axonal hillock
2. What of the following structures perform isolate and trophic function in myelinated nerve fibers?
cell transport
1. neurofibrils
2. myelin sheath
3. axon membrane
4. mikrotubul
3. How is the propagation of an action potential unmyelin nerve fibers performed?
1. saltatory, "jumping" across the fiber sections covered by myelin sheath
2. in the direction of axoplasm
3. continuously along the entire area of the membrane from the excited section to the adjacent unexcited one
4. How is the propagation of an action potential myelin nerve fibers performed
1. continuously along the entire area of the membrane from the excited section to the adjacent unexcited one
2. electrotonically and in both directions from the place of formation
3. in the direction of axoplasm
4. saltatory, "jumping" across the fiber sections covered by myelin sheath
5. The fatigue comes first
1. in the synapse
2. in skeletal muscle
cell transport
3. in the nerve trunk
4. in neuronal cells
6. Velocity of conduction along nerves depends on:
1. diameter of nerve
2. the presence or absence of the myelin sheath
7. What relationship is there between the diameter of the nerve fibers and the velocity of conduction:
1. direct
2. reverse
3. it does not exist
8. The signal transduction along the axon is directly provided by
1. the stimulus;
2. neurotransmitter release;
3. the presence of myelin coating;
4. a local electric current
5. the absence of myelin sheath;

cell transport
9. The different sizes of the diameter of the axons are indicated by numbers 1-5. Which of them should
propagate excitation faster?
1. 0.5 microns;
2. 1 micron;
3. 3 microns;
4. 6 microns;
5. 9 microns.
10. What neurons are called afferent?
1. peripheral
2. somatic
3. vegetative
4. bringing information to the working organ
5. bringing information to the CNS
11. What part of neural cell contains the most number of synaptic contacts?
1. soma
2. axon
3. dendrites
cell transport
4. perikaryonic
5. axonal hillock
12. What is the function of myelin?
1. it envelopes the neurons, providing them a mechanical protection
2. it envelopes the blood vessels, creating a blood-brain barrier
3. absorbs excess of potassium ions and thereby acts as a buffer
4. is an electrical insulator for the axons
5. is a conductor of electrical signals
13. What neurons have one outgrowth?
1. pseudo unipolar neurons
2. bipolar neurons
3. multipolar neurons
14. Final branches of axons are called
1. terminals
2. collaterals
cell transport
15. Laterals branches of axons are called
1. collaterals
2. terminals
16. Where does the action potential occur first?
1. dendrites
2. dendro-dendritic synapses
3. neuron soma
4. axonal hillock
17. Integrative activity of the neuron consists in
1. the summation of postsynaptic potentials generating on the membrane of the neuron
2. generation of the resting potential
3. encoding and storage of information.
4. post-tetanic potentiation
18. What process provides the generation of action potential in the trigger zone of the neuron when
rhythmic synaptic potentials occur on the postsynaptic membrane, which separately are not able to
cause the generation of action potential
1. occlusion
cell transport
2. convergence
3. spatial summation
4. temporal summation
5. multiplication
19. Which cells provide the myelin insulation of axons of the central nervous system?
1. all glial cells
2. microglia
3. oligodendrocytes
4. astrocytes
20. The phenomena characterizing by an increase of EPSP amplitude during rhythmical occurrence of
them is called
2. multiplication
3. occlusion
4. tetanic potentiation
5. post-tetanic potentiation
21. Exciting postsynaptic potential has the property

cell transport
1. to electrotonic spread
2. summation
3. leading to a local increase in excitability
4. graduality
22. What changes of the resting potential can occur in a trigger zone of the neuron, if equidistant synapses
generate EPSP and IPSP of equal amplitudes at the same time:
1. two-phase local response
2. resting potential will not change
3. hyperpolarisation
4. depolarization
5. posttetanic depolarization
23. What is the process that provides the excitation of the neuron that being under the action of the
impulses coming from other neurons:
1. aftereffect
2. transformation of rhythm
4. temporal summation
cell transport
5. occlusion
Вопрос №1 2
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Вопрос №7 1
Вопрос №8 4
Вопрос №9 5
skeletal muscle
1. Which one of the following muscle proteins plays an important role in
contraction of both smooth and striated muscle?
1. Calmodulin
2. Troponin
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3. Tropomyosin
4. Actin
5. Myosin light chains
2. During the process of excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle, calcium is released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum by
1. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
2. Protein kinase A
3. An increase in intracellular calcium concentration
4. Membrane depolarization
5. An increase in intracellular sodium concentration
3. Which of the following words or phrases is most closely associated with an end-plate potential at the
neuromuscular junction?
1. "All-or-none response"
2. Depolarization
4. Action potential
5. Electrically excitable gates

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4. Which of the following statements about synaptic transmission at the
neuromuscular junction is true?
1. It is enhanced by high levels of cholinesterase
2. It is caused by an influx of potassium ions through the muscle membrane
3. It is depressed by abnormally low levels of magnesium
4. It is depressed by increased parasympathetic nerve activity
5. It is produced by the release of acetylcholine from the alpha motoneuron
5. What ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during excitation of membrane?
1. potassium
2. calcium
3. sodium
4. chlorine
5. magnesium
6. The amount of force produced by a skeletal muscle can be increased by
1. Increasing extracellular Mg2+
2. Decreasing extracellular Ca2+
3. Increasing the activity of acetylcholine esterase

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4. Decreasing the interval between contractions
5. Increasing the preload beyond 2.2 µm
7. A contraction of the muscle in which both ends are fixed is called
1. isometric
2. aucsotonic
3. pessimal
4. isotonic
8. When skeletal muscle is in its resting state, myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin
molecules by
1. Calmodulin
2. Troponin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Titin
5. Phospholamban
9. A muscle contraction occurs during stimulation of a series of pulses, where the interval between the
pulses is longer than the duration of a single twitch is called
1. unfused tetanus
2. fused tetanus
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3. pessimum tetanus
4. optimum tetanus
5. a single twitch
10. The muscle fibers innervated by the single motor neuron are called
1. motor area of muscle
2. touch-sensitive area of muscle
3. muscle nerve center
4. motor unit
5. receptor field muscles
11. Disconnection of myosin head from actin filaments is caused by its binding to
1. calcium ions
2. sodium ions
3. ATP
4. Troponin
5. Tropomyosin
12. Initiation of muscle contraction is done by:

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1. calcium ions
2. ATP
3. primary mediators
4. sodium ions
13. Muscle fibers of skeletal muscles are innervated by:
1. motor neurons of the spinal cord
2. neurons of the sympathetic system
3. neurons in the higher brain
14. What happens during the latent period of a single twitch of skeletal muscle:
1. propagation of AP down the sarcoplasm and sarcoplasmic reticulum
2. outflow of Ca2 + from T system of SPR
3. activation of a number of enzyme systems
15. Describe the main skeletal muscle function:
1. the movement of the body in space
2. ensure the discharge function of the heart

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3. implementation of intestinal motility
16. What are the characteristics (physiological properties )of skeletal muscle:
1. excitability
2. conductivity
3. contractility
17. What is the isometric contraction?
1. shortening of muscles without changing of tension
2. increase of muscle tension without changing of length
3. changing of shortening and tension
18. Which of the skeletal muscle protein may have the most ATP-ase activity
1. actin
2. myoglobin
3. hemoglobin
4. myosin
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5. calmodulin
19. Which proteins of muscles involved in contraction:
1. actin
2. myosin
3. tropomyosin
4. troponin
20. What are the characteristics of isotonic contraction?
1. increase of muscle tension without changing of length
2. muscle shortening without changing of its tension
3. increase of tension at the shortening
21. The ATP in muscle is used for...
1. Na + -K + - pump
2. cross bridge cycling between the actin and myosin
3. calcium Pump
4. all of above
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22. What causes muscle relaxation ?
1. outflow of Ca2 + from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
2. blocking of Na + -K + ATPase
3. active Ca2 + transport in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. formation of a cross bridge between the actin and myosin
23. The motor unit is ...
1. a group of fast-twitch muscle fibers
2. a group of fast and slow twitch muscle fibers
3. the muscle fibers innervated by the single motor neuron
24. In what case amplitude of single twitch will be higher, if isolated muscle fibers is irritated by a threshold
or a suprathreshold stimulus
1. amplitude is higher when suprathreshold stimulus are exposed
2. amplitude will be lower under the influence of the threshold stimulus
3. the amplitude is the same in both cases
25. What ions are releasing from the sarcoplasmatic reticulum during the excitation of membrane?
1. calcium
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2. potassium
3. chlorine
4. sodium
26. The mediator of neuromuscular synapses of human is ...
1. adrenaline
2. acetylcholine
3. norepinephrine
4. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
27. When the inflow of calcium into the sarcoplasm is completely blocked the muscle contraction :
1. increases
2. does not change
3. is not performed
4. slightly reduced
Вопрос №1 4
Вопрос №2 4
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Вопрос №3 2
Вопрос №4 2
Вопрос №5 2
Вопрос №6 4
Вопрос №7 1
Вопрос №8 3
Вопрос №9 5
smooth muscle
1. Excitation-contraction coupling in smooth muscle is initiated when calcium binds to
1. Myosin light chains
2. Calmodulin
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3. Troponin
4. Tropomyosin
5. Protein kinase A
2. Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for step 1 in the
diagram?
1. Calmodulin
2. Protein kinase A
3. Myosin light chain kinase
4. Phospholipase C
5. Actomyosin ATPase
3. When comparing the contractile responses in smooth and skeletal muscle, which of the following is
most different?
1. The source of activator calcium
2. The role of calcium in initiating contraction
3. The mechanism of force generation
4. The source of energy used during contraction
5. The nature of the contractile proteins

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4. Property of smooth muscle, that skeletal muscle doesn't have is called
1. excitability
2. conductivity
3. contractility
4. plasticity
5. Which is characteristic of skeletal muscle VS smooth one:
1. rapid contraction and relaxation
2. slow contraction and relaxation
3. little spending of energy
4. have the automacity
6. Which is characteristic of smooth muscle cells:
1. slow contraction and relaxation
2. automaticity
3. low spending of energy
4. high plasticity

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7. Thick myofilaments are made mostly of:
1. actin;
2. troponin;
3. myosin;
4. tropomyosin;
5. myoglobin.
8. Calmodulin is found in:
1. smooth;
2. cardiac;
3. skeletal
9. The autonomic nervous system stimulates:
1. smooth;
2. cardiac;
3. skeletal
10. Which muscle is stimulated by hormones, neurons and self-excitation?
1. cardiac;
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2. smooth;
3. skeletal
11. A alpha motor neurons stimulate:
1. skeletal;
2. smooth;
3. cardiac
12. Sarcomeres are lacking in:
1. smooth;
2. skeletal;
3. cardiac
13. Actin, myosin, and crossbridges all operate in:
1. smooth;
2. cardiac;
3. skeletal;
4. all of them;
5. none of them
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Вопрос №3 2
Вопрос №4 4
Вопрос №5 1
Вопрос №6 5
Вопрос №7 3
Вопрос №8 1
Вопрос №9 1
Ext breath, gas exchange
1. The aim of absorbing of oxygen by organism is:
1. the reduction of heat elimination
2. to reduce the formation of CO2
3. to improve the efficiency of ATP resynthesis
4. the formation of oxyhemoglobin in erythrocytes
5. syntesis of proteins
2. What organelles are the main consumers of O2 in the cell:
1. cytoskeleton
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2. mitochondria
3. nucleus
4. ribosome
5. Golgi complex
3. The energy of macroergic bounds of ATP molecules is used for:
1. the synthesis of complex substances
2. the active transport of substances
3. a mechanical work
4. all answers are correct
4. Choose the correct sequence of respiratory phases.
1. ventilation, gas exchange in the lungs, gas transport in blood, biological oxidation, gas exchange in
tissues
2. gas exchange in the lungs, ventilation, transport of gases in blood, gas exchange in tissues, biological
oxidation
3. ventilation, gas exchange in the lungs, transport of gases in blood, gas exchange in tissues, biological
oxidation
5. Choose the gas composition of the inhaled air (in%):
1. 30.3 -O2, 0.01 - CO2

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2. 20.9 - O2, 0.03 - CO2
3. 14.0 - O2, 5.5 - CO2
6. Choose the gas composition of the alveolar air (in%):
1. O2 16.5, 4.5 - CO2
2. 20.0 - O2, 0.03 - CO2
3. 16.0 - O2, 10.0 - CO2
4. 14.5 O2, 5.5 - CO2
5. all the answers are incorrect
7. Choose the gas composition of exhaled air (in%):
1. O2 16.0, 4.5 - CO2
2. 20.0 - O2, 0.03 - CO2
3. 16.0 - O2, 10.0 - CO2
8. What is the part of the lungs containing alveoli participating in gas exchange with the blood?
1. the conductive zone
2. the transient zone
3. the dead space

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4. the respiratory zone
9. The permeability of membranes of alveoli and capillaries for gas characterizes the rate of...
1. the lung diffusion capacity
2. the elastic recoil force of the lungs
3. the volume of the dead space
4. the volume of the vital capacity
10. The lungs of adult are stretched ...
1. permanently
2. during a quiet inspiration
3. during expiration
4. during the enhanced inspiration
11. The negative pressure in the pleural gap is provided mainly by ...
1. decreasing of the bronchioli tone
2. the presence of the dead space
3. the elastic recoil force
4. the air-blood barrier

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12. Inspiration is performed by contracting of:
1. the diaphragm
2. biceps
3. quadriceps muscles
13. The change in volume of the thoracic cavity during quiet breathing occurs mainly due to the contraction
of:
1. the diaphragm
2. abdominal muscles
3. the internal intercostal muscles
4. pectoral muscles
5. neck muscles
14. What act of breathing involves the external intercostal muscles:
1. the quiet expiration
2. the forced expiration
3. the quiet inspiration

cell transport
15. The respiratory muscles are:
1. smooth muscles
2. skeletal muscles
3. involuntary muscles
4. visceral muscles
16. During inspiration:
1. the pressure in the lungs is more than the atmospheric pressure
2. the pressure in the lungs is equal to the atmospheric pressure
3. the pressure in the lungs is less than an atmospheric pressure
17. What factors make the expiration phase:
1. the elastic recoil force, heaviness of the chest
2. contraction of the expiratory muscles
3. the difference between pressures in the alveolar space and the atmosphere
18. During expiration:
1. the pressure in the lungs is more than the atmospheric pressure

cell transport
2. the pressure in the lungs is equal to the atmospheric pressure
3. the pressure in the lungs is less than an atmospheric pressure
19. The difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures is called ...
1. the transpulmonary pressure
2. the atmospheric pressure
3. the intrabronchial pressure
4. the intraalveolar pressure
20. If the transpulmonary pressure is zero what will be with the lungs?
1. the lungs will be extended
2. the lungs will be deflated
3. the lungs will be in a usual state
21. The negative pressure in the pleural cavity caused by the fact that:
1. compliance of parietal pleura is more than visceral
2. lungs have the elastic recoil force
3. the pressure in the alveoli is less than tmospheric

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22. What component does the anatomic dead space include?
1. the nose, the mouth, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
2. the nose, the mouth, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
3. trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
23. The airways provide (find the incorrect answer):
1. the formation of protective reflexes from its receptors (coughing, sneezing)
2. warming of air
3. the creation of an optimal humidity
4. the purification of air from mechanical particles
5. the gas exchange
24. The function of the surfactant is :
1. to decrease the surface tension of the aqueous film in alveoli
2. to prevent the alveoli from the deflation during expiration
3. to decrease the elastic recoil force
25. What about part of the alveolar air is renovated with each breath during a quiet breathing?
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1. 1/10
2. 1/7
3. 1/4
4. 1/2
26. The gas exchange occurs in the alveoli
1. only in the highest point of inspiration
2. only during expiration
3. continuously during inspiration and expiration
4. only at the beginning of the expiration phase
27. The most reliable criterion of the effective ventilation is:
1. the tidal volume
2. MV (minute ventilation)
3. breaths/min
4. PaO2 and PaCO2
28. The volume of air that a person can inhale and exhale at rest is called:
1. the inspiratory reserve volume

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2. the expiratory reserve volume
3. the tidal volume
4. the vital capacity
5. all the answers are not correct
29. The value of the tidal volume in a healthy adult averages:
1. 300 ml
2. 500ml
3. 1000ml
4. 1500ml
5. 3500ml
30. The volume of air a person can inspire after a quiet inspiration is called:
3. the tidal volume

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31. A person can inspire after a quiet inspiration:
1. the functional residual capacity
2. the residual volume
32. The value of the inspiratory reserve volume in a healthy adult is:
1. 450 - 500ml
2. 1500 - 3000ml
3. 1000 - 1500 ml
4. 150 - 300ml
33. The volume of air that a person can expire after a quiet expiration:
3. the tidal volume

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34. The value of the expiratory reserve volume of an adult healthy person is:
1. 300 - 900ml
2. 1500 - 3000ml
3. 1000 - 1500 ml
4. 3500 - 5000ml
5. 1700 - 3500ml
35. After the maximal expiration into the lung remains:
1. the functional residual capacity
2. the residual volume
3. the reserve inspiratory volume
36. Residual volume is:
1. a volume of air that a person can expire after a quiet expiration
2. a volume of air remaining into the lungs after a maximal expiration
3. a volume of air remaining into the lungs after a quiet expiration

cell transport
37. How to calculate the functional residual capacity?
1. the tidal volume + breaths/min
2. the expiratory reserve volume + the residual volume
3. the residual volume + the vital capacity
4. the inspiratory reserve volume + the residual volume
38. What is the volume of the functional residual capacity, if the tidal volume = 0,5 liter, the expiratory
reserve volume = 1,5 liters, the residual volume - 1 liter, the inspiratory reserve volume = 2 liters?
1. 4 liters
2. 5 liters
3. 2.5 liters
4. 2 liters
39. The vital capacity is called:
1. the volume of air remaining into the lungs after a quiet expiration
2. the volume of air that can be maximally expired after a maximal inspiration
3. the volume of air that can be maximally expired after a quiet inspiration
40. The VC consists of the following volumes:
1. the inspiratory reserve volume + the residual volume

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2. the inspiratory reserve volume + the expiratory reserve volume +the dead space
3. the tidal volume + the inspiratory reserve volume + the residual volume
41. The average volume of the anatomic dead space of a healthy adult is about:
1. 100 ml
2. 150 ml
3. 300 ml
4. 250 ml
42. MV (the minute ventilation) is calculated by the equation:
1. the tidal volume * breaths/min
2. (the tidal volume - the volume of the dead space) * breaths/min
3. the residual volume * breaths/min
4. (the inspiratory reserve volume - the volume of the dead space) * breaths/min
43. Choose the normal value of MV (minute ventilation):
1. 3 - 4 liters
2. 6 - 10 liters
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3. 15 - 20 liters
4. 20 - 25 liters
44. The minute volume (MV) of respiration does not depend on:
1. breaths/min
2. residual volume
3. the value of the anatomic dead space
4. the tidal volume
45. What is the VA (minute alveolar ventilation) if TV(tidal volume) = 500 ml, breaths/min = 20, VD(dead
space volume) = 150ml, VC(vital capacity) = 4500ml:
1. 7000ml
2. 10000ml
3. 12000ml
4. 22000ml
46. What is the main mechanism of transport of carbon dioxide through membranes of alveoli and
capillaries:
1. convection
2. simple diffusion
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4. active transport
47. The value of the partial pressure of gases in the alveolar air is:
1. pO2 105 - 110mm Hg, pCO2 of 38 - 40 mm Hg
48. If the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid is higher than its tension in a liquid, gas ...
1. will go out of her
2. will not dissolve in it
3. will dissolve in it
Вопрос №1 3
Вопрос №2 2
Вопрос №3 4
Вопрос №4 3
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Вопрос №6 4
Вопрос №7 1
Вопрос №8 4
Вопрос №9 1
cell transport
cell transport
Gas transport
1. In what form gases are transported by blood?
1. dissolved and chemically bound
2. only dissolved
3. only chemically bound
4. only bound to hemoglobin
2. In what condition must be gas molecules to diffuse through membranes of capillaries and tissues?
3. only dissolved
3. In what condition must be gas molecules to diffuse through the air-blood barrier?
3. only dissolved

cell transport
4. The main function of red blood cells is:
1. The transport of nutrients
2. The transport of gases
3. The transport of heat
4. The transport of antibodies
5. The transport of hormones
5. The most part of adult hemoglobin is of the type:
1. A
2. B
3. P
4. F
5. C
6. How does the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen of fetal (HbF) and of adult (HbA) differ?
1. affinity of HbA is higher than that HbF
2. both types have the same affinity of Hb
3. affinity of HbA is significantly higher than that HbF

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4. affinity of HbF is higher than the HbA
7. The normal range of hemoglobin in females is:
1. 50-60 g/l
2. 120-140 g/l
3. 60-80 g/l
4. 100-120 g/l
5. 140 160 g/l
8. The normal range of hemoglobin in males is:
1. 50-60 g/l
2. 120-140 g/l
3. 60-80 g/l
4. 100-120 g/l
5. 130-160 g/l
9. The number of red blood cells in males is:
1. 1-2 * 10^12 /l
2. 4.5-5 * 10^12 /l
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3. 10-15 * 10^12 /l
4. 15-20 * 10^12 /l
10. The number of red blood cells in females is:
1. 4-4.5 * 10^12 /l
2. 4.5-5 * 10^12 /l
3. 10-15 * 10^12 /l
4. 15-20 * 10^12 /l
11. What characterizes the color index:
1. The ratio of leukocytes and erythrocytes
2. The relative index of erythrocyte hemoglobin saturation
3. The ratio of platelets and red blood cells
12. The value of the color index of a healthy person is:
1. 0.70 - 0.80
2. 0,50 - 0.65
3. 0.85 - 1.05
4. 1.05 - 1.50
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5. All the answers are incorrect
13. In what form oxygen is carried by the blood?
1. Only dissolved
2. Only with hemoglobin
3. dissolved and combined with hemoglobin
4. bound to plasma proteins
14. What is the main form of O2 transport blood to tissues:
1. physically dissolved in the blood plasma O2
2. O2 bound to hemoglobin
3. O2 bound to plasma proteins
15. The compound of hemoglobin with oxygen has been called:
1. The oxyhemoglobin (oxygenated hemoglobin)
2. deoxygenated hemoglobin
3. karbaminohemoglobin
4. carboxyhemoglobin
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16. One molecule of hemoglobin is capable to attach:
1. Two molecules of oxygen
2. Three molecules of oxygen
3. Four molecules of oxygen
17. Oxygen joins:
1. heme
2. globin
3. both sides of the hemoglobin molecule
18. The maximum amount of O2 that can be bound to hemoglobin per volume of blood, assuming that
hemoglobin is 100% saturated (i.e., all four heme groups on each molecule of hemoglobin are bound to
O2) is called:
1. the O2-binding capacity
2. the color index
3. the saturation index
4. corpuscular volume (haematocrit)
19. In one liter of blood the maximum number of oxygen is:
1. about 200ml
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2. about 400ml
3. 100ml
4. 600ml
20. The oxygen capacity depends on:
1. The number of platelets
2. The amount of Hb
3. The concentrations of 2, 3 - DPG in red blood cells
4. pCO2
5. pH
21. One gram of human hemoglobin maximally saturated with oxygen is capable to transfer:
1. 1.45ml of oxygen
2. 6,25ml oxygen
3. 1.34ml of oxygen
22. What amount of oxygen can be dissolved in 100ml of blood:
1. 0,3ml oxygen
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2. 20ml of oxygen
3. 9,4ml oxygen
4. All the answers are not correct
23. How will change the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin in shear of the dissociation curve to the left?
1. Increase
2. will not change
3. reduce
4. may be opposite changes
24. How will change the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin in shear of the dissociation curve to the right?
1. reduce
2. increase
3. will not change
4. may be opposite changes
25. The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the left in:
1. the capillaries of the systemic circulation
2. capillary pulmonary circulation

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3. only in the capillaries of the brain
26. Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right to:
1. the capillaries of the systemic circulation
2. capillary pulmonary circulation
4. only in skeletal muscle capillaries
27. When the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is lowering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts:
1. to the right
2. to the left
3. it doesn't shift
28. When the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is increasing the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts:
1. to the right
2. to the left
3. it doesn't shift
cell transport
29. When the pH of the blood is increasing the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts:
1. to the right
2. to the left
3. it doesn't shift
30. When the pH of the blood is decreasing the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve:
1. to the right
2. to the left
3. it doesn't shift
31. If the the level 2,3 DPG increases in erythrocytes, the affinity of Hb for O2:
1. increases
2. decreases
3. does not change
4. effects can be different
32. What is the effect of 2,3 DPG?
1. it reacts with hemoglobin, decreasing its affinity for O2
2. it reacts with hemoglobin, increasing its affinity for O2

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3. it does not affect the affinity of hemoglobin for O2
4. it catalyzes the reaction of formation of carbonic acid
33. How does the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen change by increasing of CO2 concentration in blood?
1. it increases
2. it decreases
3. does not change
4. effects can be different
34. How does the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen change, if the patient's body temperature has risen to 39
degrees Celsius?
1. it increases
2. does not change
3. it decreases
4. it increases significantly
35. Where does erythropoietin mainly produce:
1. in liver
2. in spleen
3. in kidneys
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4. in thered bone marrow
5. in all organs equally
36. Producing of erythropoietin increases in the state of :
1. hyperoxia
2. hypercapnia
3. hypoxia
4. hypocapnia
37. 100ml of venous blood contains:
1. 50 - 52ml of carbon dioxide
4. all the answers are not correct
38. What is the main form of CO2 transport in blood from tissues to the lungs:
1. physically dissolved CO2
2. CO2 in the form of salts of carbonic acid
3. CO2 bound to plasma proteins

cell transport
4. CO2 in the form of carbohemoglobin
39. What is the function of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the process of gas exchange?
1. it catalyzes the reaction H2CO3 = H2O + CO2
2. it catalizes the reaction НвСО2=СО2 + Нв
3. it catalizes the reaction H2CO3=HCO3- + H+
40. What is the main mechanism of transport of gases from blood to tissues?
1. convection
2. simple diffusion
4. active transport
41. The percentage of the blood that gives up its oxygen as it passes through the tissue capillaries is called:
1. the O2-binding capacity (arterial oxygen content)
2. a-v oxygen content difference
3. the utilization coefficient

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Вопрос №2 3
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Вопрос №4 2
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Вопрос №6 4
Вопрос №7 2
Вопрос №8 5
Вопрос №9 2
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Respiratory regulation
1. The value of ventilation is controlled to provide constancy of:
1. the gas composition of the exhaled air
2. the gas composition of the inhaled air
3. the intrapleural pressure
4. The gas composition of the alveolar air
5. the gas composition of the arterial blood
2. Respiratory neurons are located in:
1. spinal cord
2. medulla
3. the reticular formation
4. cortex
5. all answers are correc

cell transport
3. Apnea occurs when the destruction is located
1. in cortex
2. in cerebellum
3. in medulla
4. Automaticity is a property of the structure of the respiratory center located in ...
1. cortex
2. the spinal cord
3. medulla
4. pons
5. Nucleus of the medulla oblongata related to the respiratory centers are:
1. the nucleus of the solitary tract
2. deiters nucleus
3. salivary nucleus
4. Bechterev's nuclei
6. The generator of respiratory rhythm is:

cell transport
1. in the spinal cord
2. in the parabrachial nuclei
3. in the cerebral cortex
4. in the paraventricular nuclei
7. The bulbar inspiratory neurons of the respiratory center are:
1. neurons exciting during the inspiration
2. neurons exciting in the beginning of the expiration
3. neurons exciting during the expiration
4. neurons exciting by the end of the expiration
8. What neurons of the spinal cord get impulses from bulbospinal neurons of the respiratory center?
1. the motoneurons of the respiratory muscles, located in the anterior horns of the spinal cord
2. to neurons located in the lateral horn of the spinal cord
3. to neurons located in the posterior horn of the spinal cord
9. How will change the breathing, if the spinal cord is experimentally transected at the level of the first
cervical segment?
1. the breathing will become rare and deep

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2. the breathing will be frequent and superficial
3. the breathing will decrease in frequency without changing of the depth
4. the breathing will stop
10. How will change the breathing, if the medulla oblongata is destroyed in the experimental animal?
1. the breathing will become rare and deep
2. the breathing will be frequent and superficial
3. the breathing will decrease in frequency without changing the depth
5. the breathing will not change
11. What type of the breathing will continue, if the spinal cord is cut at the level of the seventh cervical
segment?
1. the thoracic type of breathing
2. the diaphragmatic type of breathing
4. the mixed type of breathing
12. Specify the location of the pneumotaxic center:
1. the cerebral cortex

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2. the spinal cord
3. cerebellum
4. pons
13. Softness of changing of the inspiration to the expiration and their ratio are provided by:
1. the motor centers of the spinal cord
2. the pneumotaxic center of pons
3. cortex
4. ganglion stellatum
14. The activity of the respiratory center, which determines the rate and the depth of respiration, primarily
depends on
1. pCO2, PO2 and pH of the arterial blood
2. pCO2, PO2 and pH of the venous blood
3. the number of blood cells
4. hematocrit
15. The leading role in the mechanisms of respiratory rhythm generation plays the afference (tonic effects)
from:
cell transport
1. joint and muscle receptors
2. chemoreceptors of the aortic arch
3. chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus
4. skin thermoreceptors
5. central chemoreceptors
16. Central chemoreceptors are mainly located in:
1. bronchi
2. carotid sinus and aortic arch
3. alveoli
4. medulla
17. Peripheral chemoreceptors are mainly located in:
1. bronchi
2. carotid sinus and aortic arch
3. alveoli
4. medulla
18. Peripheral chemoreceptors involved in the regulation of breathing primarily respond to the change of
cell transport
1. pO2 of the alveolar air
2. pO2 of the venous blood
3. pCO2 of the venous blood
4. pO2 of the arterial blood
19. What irritates the chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus:
1. decreasing of the total number of amino acids in the blood
2. decreasing of pO2 in the blood
3. increasing of the concentration of glucose in the blood
20. How will change the electrical activity of the peripheral chemoreceptors, if there is hypoxemia?
1. the frequency of the generated AP will increase
2. the frequency of the generated AP will decrease
3. the frequency of the AP will remain unchanged
21. What occurs in the organism of the person who located within 30 minutes in a chamber with a pressure
of 1 atm and CO2 of 0.03%:
1. periodic apnea
2. the signs of acidosis
3. no changes
cell transport
4. hyperpnoea
5. the symptoms of alkalosis
22. What occurs in the organism of the person who located within 30 minutes in a chamber with a pressure
of 1 atm and CO2 of 0.4%:
1. periodic apnea
2. alkalosis
3. no changes
4. hyperpnoea
5. apnea
23. What condition will occur in the subject, if he breaths more than one minute in the atmospheric air
frequently and deeply?
1. hypercapnia
2. asphyxia
3. hypocapnia
24. What condition will occur in the subject, if he maximally holds the breathing?
1. hypercapnia
2. hyperoxia
cell transport
3. hypocapnia
25. How will change the tidal volume, if pCO2 in the arterial blood of 60 mm hg.?
1. decrease
2. increase
3. will not change
26. How will change the tidal volume, if pCO2 in the arterial blood of 20 mm Hg.?
1. decrease
2. increase
3. will not change
1. increase
2. decrease
3. will not change
cell transport
1. increase
2. decrease
3. will not change
29. Ventilation increases if the pCO2 in the arterial blood is ...
1. 60 mm Hg.
2. 40 mm Hg.
3. 10 mm Hg.
4. 30 mm Hg.
30. What is the main function j-receptors:
1. respond to the rapid decrease of the lung volume
2. respond to the water retention in the intercellular space of the lung
3. respond to the increase of the lung volume
31. What receptors are located in the epithelial and subepithelial layers of cells of the airways:
1. lung stretch receptors
2. irritant
3. J-receptors
cell transport
4. receptors of atelectasis
32. What stimuli excite irritant receptors of the airways and lungs?
1. dust particles
2. vapors of corrosive substances (ether, ammonia)
3. the rapid acceleration of air flow through the airway
33. What lung receptors react to the action of tobacco smoke, dust, mucus, vapors of caustic substances?
2. J-receptors
3. irritant
4. all these receptors
34. From what receptors does the Hering-Breuer reflex begin?
2. central chemoreceptors
3. baroreceptor
4. J-receptors
cell transport
35. Reflex Hering - Breuer is caused by the irritation of receptors located in:
1. carotid sinus
2. lungs
3. aortic arch
4. the right atrium
5. all answers are in correct
36. The Hering-Breuer reflexes are ...
1. inspiratory-inhibitory
2. expiratory-facilitating
3. the Hed's paradoxical effect
37. How will change the breathing if the vagus nerves are bilaterally transected:
1. the breathing will become deeper and more rare
2. the breathing will become and frequent
4. the breathing will not change

cell transport
38. Ventilation can be changed during the stimulation:
1. skin receptors
3. peripheral chemoreceptors
4. baroreceptors
39. What is the role of the cerebral cortex in the regulation of respiration?
1. the adaptation of breathing to the changing environmental conditions
2. voluntary breathing control
3. intensification of respiration by increasing the metabolic activity of the organism
4. answers 1 and 2 are correct
40. Name the part of the CNS, which provides voluntary control of respiratory movements:
1. cerebral cortex
2. limbic system
3. midbrain
4. cerebellum
cell transport
5. medulla
41. Name the part of cortex providing the voluntary regulation of respiratory movements:
1. the occipital lobe
2. precentral gyrus
3. postcentral gyrus
4. the entire frontal lobe
42. Gas homeostasis during physical activity is kept due to:
1. decreasing of the O2 binding capacity
2. increasing of the amount of red blood cells
3. decreasing of breaths/min.
4. decreasing of heart rate
43. What structures send impulses to the respiratory center during physical activity?
1. the motor centers of the CNS
3. the central and peripheral chemoreceptors

cell transport
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cell transport
digestion 12 duodenum
1. Motor function of the digestive tract is provided by the innervation of gastrointestinal motor elements
by:
1. parasympathetic nerves
2. somatic nerves
3. sympathetic nerves
2. Acetylcholine causes:
1. an increase of the smooth muscles tone and relaxation of gastrointestinal sphincters
2. a decrease of the tone of smooth muscles and contraction of gastrointestinal sphincters

cell transport
3. an increase of smooth muscles tone and contraction of gastrointestinal sphincters
4. a decrease of the tone of smooth muscles and relaxation of gastrointestinal sphincters
3. Adrenaline causes:
1. an increase of the smooth muscles tone and relaxation of gastrointestinal sphincters
2. a decrease of the tone of smooth muscles and contraction of gastrointestinal sphincters
3. an increase of smooth muscles tone and contraction of gastrointestinal sphincters
4. a decrease of the tone of smooth muscles and relaxation of gastrointestinal sphincters
4. What is the department of the gastrointestinal tract, where water and products of hydrolysis are mainly
absorbed?:
1. small intestine
2. large intestine
3. duodenum
4. stomach
5. The main mechanism of the absorption of amino acids is:
1. osmosis
3. filtration
cell transport
4. secondary-active transport
5. simple diffusion
6. The main mechanism of absorption of fatty acids is:
1. osmosis
3. filtration
4. secondary-active transport
5. simple diffusion
7. The final products of hydrolysis of proteins in the gastrointestinal tract are:
1. essential amino acids
2. amino acids
3. monosaccharides
4. oligopeptides
5. diacylglycerides
8. In what part of gastrointestinal tract does lipolysis primary happen?
1. in mouth
cell transport
2. in small intestine
3. in large intestine
4. in duodenum
5. in stomach
9. In what part of gastrointestinal tract does the protein cleavage primary happen?
1. in mouth
2. in stomach
3. in duodenum
10. In what part of gastrointestinal tract does the breakdown of polysaccharides primary happen?
1. in mouth
2. in stomach
3. in duodenum
cell transport
11. Bile (gall) is being produced by the liver:
1. when the food is situated in the oral cavity
2. during the stimulation of mechanoreceptors of the stomach
3. during the stimulation of receptors of the duodenum
4. constantly
12. Which of the following hormones refers to the gastrointestinal system?
1. adrenaline
2. secretin
3. pepsin
4. trypsinogen
5. glucagon
13. The mechanism of regulation of the first phase of pancreatic secretion is mainly:
1. reflex
2. humoral
3. local
4. neurohumoral
cell transport
14. The mechanism of regulation of the second phase of pancreatic secretion is mainly:
1. reflex
2. humoral
3. local
4. neurohumoral
15. The mechanism of regulation of the third phase of pancreatic secretion is mainly:
1. reflex
2. humoral
3. local
4. neurohumoral
16. Secretin causes:
1. an inhibition of the pancreatic secretion
2. an increase of the gastric HCl secretion
3. a stimulation of the bile formation
17. The basic cells which produce enzymes of the pancreas juice are:
1. acinar cells
cell transport
2. centroacinar cells
3. ductal cells
18. Trypsinogen is activated by:
1. elastase
2. HCl
3. bicarbonates
4. enterokinase
19. Which of the followings refer to the pancreatic juice endopeptidases?
1. elastase, carboxypeptidases
2. carboxypeptidase B, dipeptidase
3. Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase
20. Which of the followings refer to the pancreatic juice exopeptidases?:
1. carboxypeptidase A and B
2. pepsinogen
3. trypsin, chymotrypsin
cell transport
21. What peptide bonds do carboxypeptidases hydrolyze?
1. peptides with aromatic, neutral and basic amino acids in the c-terminus
2. cholesterol ethers to fatty acids and cholesterol
3. dextrin to oligosaccharides
22. The largest volume of pancreatic juice is released in:
1. the first phase of secretion
2. the intestinal secretory phase
3. the gastric secretory phase
4. equally in all three phases
23. The main stimulators of cells which produce cholecystokinin are:
1. the hydrolysis products of carbohydrates
2. epinephrine and norepinephrine
3. secretin
4. the hydrolysis products of peptides and lipids

cell transport
24. Secretin is maximally produced by S-cells of the duodenum:
1. at neutral pH
2. at the slightly alkaline pH
3. at acidic pH
25. On acinar cell membranes acetylcholine binds to:
1. S-receptors
2. N- cholinergic receptors
3. M-cholinergic receptors
26. Where is secretin produced?
1. stomach
2. pancreas
3. liver
4. duodenum
27. Secretin stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice, which is rich of ...
1. enzymes
cell transport
2. mucus and organic components
3. bicarbonates
4. the acid (hydrochloric, etc.).
28. The secretin production is mainly stimulated by:
1. hydrolysis products
2. trypsinogen
3. hydrochloric acid
4. the products of lipolysis
29. What pancreatic enzymes are produced in the active state (not requiring the activation)?
1. trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen
2. procarboxypeptidase
3. protease
4. amylase, nucleases
30. Does the composition of the liver and gallbladder bile differ?
1. hepatic bile is more concentrated
2. does not differ significantly

cell transport
3. gallbladder bile is more concentrated
31. The bile production is mainly stimulated by...
1. gastric inhibitory peptide
2. secretin
3. vasoactive intestinal peptide
4. somatostatin
32. Biliary excretion is mainly stimulated by ...
1. vasoactive intenstinal peptide
2. glucagon
3. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin
4. calcitonin
33. In the duodenum lipids are emulsified by ...
1. bile
2. lipase
3. mucus
cell transport
34. What is the part of the gastrointestinal tract where hydrolysis products and water mainly absorb?
1. stomach
2. large intestine
3. rectum
4. small intestine
35. Pancreatic enzymes cleave polypeptide chains of proteins mainly to ...
1. amino acids
2. oligopeptides
3. di- and tripeptides
36. If the flow of bile in the duodenum breaks down, digesting of what nutrients will deeply change?
1. proteins
2. carbohydrates
3. proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
4. lipids
37. Hormone that stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice rich of enzymes, is ...
1. secretin
cell transport
2. cholecystokinin (pancreozymin)
3. enteroanthelone
4. enterokinase
5. adrenaline
38. Which of the pancreatic enzymes are not involved in the hydrolysis of proteins?
1. carboxypeptidase A
2. trypsin
3. chymotrypsin
4. amylase, lipase
5. carboxypeptidase B
39. Which of the following factors cause stimulation of pancreatic secretion?
1. stimulation of the vagus nerve
2. meal
3. secretin
4. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin

cell transport
40. What conditions are required for the activation of trypsinogen?
1. the presence of Ca2 + ions
2. alkaline conditions
4. the presence of enterokinase
41. Resynthesized lipids in enterocytes (chylomicrons) enter directly into ...
1. lymph
2. the portal blood
3. the hepatic blood
4. the mixed venous blood
42. Which enzyme of the pancreatic juice is activated by enterokinase?
1. trypsinogen
2. amylase
3. lipase
4. nuclease
43. What factors enhance the effect of pancreatic lipase? Choose the wrong answer
cell transport
1. salts of bile acids
2. potassium ions
3. calcium ions
4. bile (gall)
44. What factors inhibit the pancreatic secretion? Choose the wrong answer.
1. glucagon
2. pancreatic polypeptide
3. secretin
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cell transport
digestion, mouth, stomach
1. The main enzyme that breaks down proteins in the acidic environment of the gastrointestinal tract is:
1. gastrin
cell transport
2. enterokinase
3. chymotrypsin
4. pepsin (A and B)
5. dipeptidase
2. The most number of glands of digestive system are of:
1. merocrine type
2. apocrine type
3. holocrine type
3. Receptors, which causes the irritation of the swallowing reflex, are located on:
1. the lateral surface of the tongue
2. the front third of the tongue
3. the surfaces of the root of the tongue
4. the middle third of the tongue
4. Salivary enzymes hydrolyze mainly:
1. proteins
2. fats
cell transport
3. carbohydrates
5. What substance causes the swelling and denaturation of proteins in the stomach?
1. pepsin
2. pepsinogen
3. lipase
4. carbonic acid
6. What cells produce pepsinogen in the stomach?
1. parietal cells
2. mucosal cells
3. the main (fundic) cells
4. G-cells
7. Which component of gastric secretion protects the stomach lining from self-digestion?
1. pepsin
2. lipase
3. gastriksin
cell transport
4. mucin
8. What conditions are necessary for the conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin?
1. pH within 7.0-8.0
2. the presence of mucins
3. the presence of hemoproteins
4. lack of gastric lipase
5. the presence of hydrochloric acid
9. What do the parietal (parietal) cells produce?
1. pepsinogen
2. mucin
3. lysozyme
5. lipase
10. What substance provides the bactericidal properties of saliva?
1. amylase
cell transport
2. maltase
3. lipase
4. lysozyme
5. kallikrein
11. Which substance promotes the transformation of pepsinogen into pepsin in the gastric juice?
1. amylase
2. enterokinase
3. gastrin
4. gastricsin
12. What cells of the gastric mucosa synthesize and secrete hydrochloric acid?
1. the main cells
2. the parietal cells
3. the additional cells
13. What is the function of hydrochloric acid of the gastric juice? Choose the wrong answer
1. it provides protein denaturation

cell transport
2. it activates pepsinogen
3. it inhibits the formation of pepsin
4. it participates in the regulation of the functions of the digestive tract
5. it stimulates the release of duodenal hormones
14. What cells of the gastric mucosa produce pepsinogen?
1. the parietal cells
2. the additional cells
3. the chief cells
15. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves innervating the salivary glands causes secretion of:
1. a large quantity of viscous saliva
2. a large quantity of watery saliva
3. the cessation of secretion of saliva
4. a little quantity of watery saliva
5. a little quantity of viscous saliva
16. The regulatory mechanism of the first phase of gastric secretion is mainly:
1. reflex
cell transport
2. humoral
3. local
4. neurohumoral
17. The regulatory mechanism of the second phase of gastric secretion is mainly:
1. reflex
2. humoral
3. local
4. neurohumoral
18. The regulatory mechanism of the third phase of gastric secretion is mainly:
1. reflex
2. humoral
3. local
4. neurohumoral
19. Acetylcholine causes:
1. increasing of secretory function of the gastrointestinal tract
2. decreasing of secretion while simultaneously increasing of the concentration

cell transport
3. therein of enzymes and other components of secretion
4. decreasing of secretion while simultaneously increasing of the concentration of enzymes therein
5. increasing of secretion, while simultaneously decreasing of the concentration of enzymes therein
20. Adrenaline causes:
1. increasing of secretory function of the gastrointestinal tract
2. decreasing of secretion while simultaneously increasing of the concentration therein of enzymes and
other components of secretion
3. decreasing of secretion while simultaneously increasing of the concentration of enzymes therein
4. increasing of secretion, while simultaneously decreasing of the concentration of enzymes therein
21. In what part of the central nervous system is the salivatory center situated?
1. diencephalon
2. medulla oblongata
3. midbrain
4. spinal chord
22. How does the motility of the stomach change under the influence of gastrin?
1. it decreases
2. does not change

cell transport
3. it increases
23. Which part of the stomach mainly produces gastrin?
1. the G-cells of the pyloric part
2. the S-cells of fundic part
3. the C-cells of the cardiac part
4. the S-cells of pyloric part
24. What is the primary role of gastrin?
1. to activate the pancreatic enzymes
2. to turn the gastric pepsinogen into pepsin
3. to stimulate the secretion of gastric juice
4. to stimulate the secretion of the pancreatic juice
25. Which substance can cause the excessive secretion of a gastric juice after the intravenous injection?
1. enteroanthelone
2. histamine
3. adrenalin
4. atropine
cell transport
26. What effect on the gastric secretion has the irritation of the vagus nerves?
1. sharp decreasing of the secretion
2. stopping of the secretion
3. increasing of the secretion
4. the vagus nerve is not related to the gastric secretion
27. What substances dilate blood vessels and stimulate the salivary glands?
1. norepinephrine
2. acetylcholine
3. gastrin
4. secretin
28. What are effects of gastrin?
1. it increases the secretion of the gastric juice and gastric motility
2. it inhibits the secretion of the gastric juice and gastric motility
3. it inhibits the motility of the stomach and intestinal tract

cell transport
29. In the regulation of which functions is secretin involved?
1. the inhibition of acid secretion in the stomach
2. the inhibition of secretion of pancreatic bicarbonates
3. the activation of hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach
4. the activation of the salivation
30. The main digestive function of the mouth is:
1. digestion of carbohydrates
2. absorption of drugs
3. destruction of antigens getting with food
4. formation of the food bolus
31. The main function of the stomach is:
1. digestion of proteins
2. absorption of monosaccharides
3. formation of the food bolus
4. function of the food depot

cell transport
32. What occurs in the stomach in response to the receipt of food:
1. propulsive contractions of the stomach
2. receptive relaxation
3. weakening of peristaltic gastric motility
4. peristaltic waves
33. The lowest rate of gastric emptying have:
1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Fats
4. Vitamins
34. The effect of vagus leads to:
1. to the contraction of the gall bladder and relaxation of the Oddi's sphincter
2. to the relaxation of the gall bladder and contraction of the Oddi's sphincter
3. to the relaxation of the gall bladder and relaxation of the cystic duct sphincters
4. to the contraction of the gallbladder and to the contraction of cystic duct sphincters
cell transport
35. Receptive relaxation of the gastric muscles means:
1. the contraction of fundus
2. the relaxation of orad
3. the relaxation of the muscles of the stomach body
4. the contraction of the stomach body
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cell transport
Metabolism regulation
1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is accurately described by which of the following statements?
1. It is secreted in response to an increase in plasma Ca2+ concentration
2. It acts directly on bone cells to increase Ca2+ deposition
3. It acts directly on intestinal cells to increase Ca2+ absorption
4. It causes a decrease in cAMP concentration within renal proximal tubular cells
5. It is essential for life
2. When a person is in the fasting state,
1. Liver glycogen levels are increased
2. The excretion of urea in the urine decreases
3. Basal metabolic rate (BMR) decreases

cell transport
4. Glucose is the only fuel used by the central nervous system
5. Gluconeogenesis is inhibited
3. The effect of insulin on glucose transport is to
1. Permit transport against a concentration gradient
2. Enhance transport into adipocytes
3. Enhance transport across the tubular epithelium of the kidney
4. Enhance transport into the brain
5. Enhance transport through the intestinal mucosa
4. Compared with the resting state, during prolonged exercise, the caloric needs of skeletal muscle are met
by
1. Release of free fatty acids from adipose tissue
2. An increase in hepatic glycogenolysis
3. An increase in gluconeogenesis in muscle
4. Increased intestinal uptake of glucose and amino acids
5. Increased chylomicron formation
5. Plasma levels of calcium can be increased most rapidly by the direct action of parathyroid hormone on
the
1. Kidney
cell transport
2. Intestine
3. Thyroid gland
4. Bones
5. Skeletal musculature
6. Correct statements about human growth hormone include which of the following?
1. It is synthesized in the hypothalamus
2. It stimulates production of somatomedins by the liver
3. Its release is stimulated by somatostatin
4. It causes a decrease in lipolysis
5. It is deficient in acromegaly
7. The basic effects of growth hormone on body metabolism include
1. Decreasing the rate of protein synthesis
2. Increasing the rate of use of carbohydrate
3. Decreasing the mobilization of fats
4. Increasing the use of fats for energy
5. Inhibition of insulin-like growth factor 1

cell transport
8. Which of the following is true about the actions of glucagon?
1. It stimulates glycogenolysis in muscle
2. It inhibits insulin secretion
3. It stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
4. It inhibits adenyl cyclase
5. It inhibits phospholipase C
9. The actions of insulin include
1. Converting glycogen to glucose
2. Stimulating gluconeogenesis
3. Increasing plasma amino acid concentration
4. Enhancing potassium entry into cells
5. Reducing urine formation
10. Injection of thyroid hormone into a human subject will
1. Decrease the rate of oxygen consumption
2. Increase muscle protein synthesis
3. Decrease the need for vitamins

cell transport
4. Increase the plasma concentration of cholesterol
5. Decrease the rate of lipolysis
11. Insulin-independent glucose uptake occurs in
1. Adipose tissue
2. Cardiac muscle
3. Skeletal muscle
4. The brain
5. The uterus
12. Thyroid hormones
1. Are short-acting hormones
2. Have no effect on basal metabolic activity
3. Are stored in extracellular sites
4. Exist in the plasma primarily as free hormones
5. Increase the metabolic activity of the brain
13. Insulin deficiency leads to
1. Increased cellular uptake of glucose

cell transport
2. Decreased intracellular alpha-glycerophosphate in liver and fat cells
3. Enhanced glucose uptake and use except by brain tissue
4. Decreased fatty acid release from adipose tissue
5. Indirect depression of use of glucose by excess fatty acids in the blood
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Renal, acid-base ph.
1. In the presence of ADH, the filtrate will be isotonic to plasma in the
1. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
2. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
3. Cortical collecting tubule
4. Medullary collecting tubule

cell transport
5. Renal pelvis
2. Sodium reabsorption from the distal tubule will be increased if there is an increase in
1. Plasma potassium concentration
2. Plasma volume
3. Mean arterial pressure
4. Urine flow rate
5. Plasma osmolality
3. ADH will be released from the posterior pituitary when there is a decrease in
1. Plasma Na+ concentration
2. Plasma volume
3. Plasma K+ concentration
4. Plasma pH
5. Plasma Ca2+ concentration
4. If 600 mL of water is ingested rapidly, plasma volume will increase by approximately
1. 400 mL
2. 200 mL
cell transport
3. 100 mL
4. 50 mL
5. 25 mL
5. Renin secretion by the kidney is increased by
1. Increasing mean blood pressure
2. Increasing glomerular filtration rate
3. Increasing sympathetic nerve activity
4. Increasing angiotensin II synthesis
5. Increasing atrial natriuretic hormone secretion
6. Na+ is reabsorbed from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells by
1. Na/H exchange
2. Na-glucose cotransport
3. Na-K pump
4. Facilitated diffusion
5. Solvent drag
7. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in the glomerular filtration rate?
cell transport
1. Contraction of mesangial cells
2. Blockage of the ureter
3. Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular apparatus
4. Dilation of the afferent arterioles
5. Volume depletion
8. The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is primarily buffered by
1. Extracellular bicarbonate
2. Red blood cell bicarbonate
3. Red blood cell hemoglobin
4. Plasma proteins
5. Plasma phosphate
9. Glomerular filtration rate would be decreased by
1. Constriction of the efferent arteriole
2. An increase in afferent arteriolar pressure
3. Compression of the renal capsule
4. A decrease in the concentration of plasma protein
5. An increase in renal blood flow

cell transport
10. The secretion of H+ in the proximal tubule is primarily associated with
1. Excretion of potassium ion
2. Excretion of hydrogen ion
3. Reabsorption of calcium ion
4. Reabsorption of bicarbonate ion
5. Reabsorption of phosphate ion
11. If a substance appears in the renal artery but not in the renal vein,
1. Its clearance is equal to the glomerular filtration rate
2. It must be reabsorbed by the kidney
3. Its urinary concentration must be higher than its plasma concentration
4. Its clearance is equal to the renal plasma flow
5. It must be filtered by the kidney
12. A freely filterable substance that is neither reabsorbed nor secreted has a renal artery concentration of
12 mg/mL and a renal vein concentration of 9 mg/mL. Calculate the filtration fraction (GFR/RPF).
1. 0.05
2. 0.15
3. 0.25
cell transport
4. 0.35
5. 0.45
13. Destruction of the supraoptic nuclei of the brain will produce which of the following changes in urinary
volume and concentration? (Assume that fluid intake equals fluid loss.)
1. An increased urinary volume and a very dilute urine
2. An increased urinary volume and concentrated urine
3. A normal urinary volume and concentration
4. Decreased urinary volume and a very dilute urine
5. Decreased urinary volume and a concentrated urine
14. Which of the following statements about renin is true?
1. It is secreted by cells of the proximal tubule
2. Its secretion leads to loss of sodium and water from plasma
3. Its secretion is stimulated by increased mean renal arterial pressure
4. It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
5. It converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
15. Renal correction of hyperkalemia will result in
1. Alkalosis
cell transport
2. Acidosis
3. Increased secretion of HCO3?
4. Increased secretion of H+
5. Increased excretion of Na+
16. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus undergoes reabsorption in the
1. Proximal tubule
4. Distal tubule
5. Collecting duct
17. Which of the following statements concerning the renal handling of proteins is correct?
1. Proteins are more likely to be filtered if they are negatively charged than if they are uncharged
2. Proteins can be filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed by the kidney
3. Most of the protein excreted each day is derived from tubular secretion
4. Protein excretion is directly related to plasma protein concentration
5. Protein excretion is increased by sympathetic stimulation of the kidney

cell transport
18. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and renal blood flow (RBF) will both be increased if
1. The efferent and afferent arterioles are both dilated
2. The efferent and afferent arterioles are both constricted
3. Only the afferent arteriole is constricted
4. Only the efferent arteriole is constricted
5. The afferent arteriole is constricted and the efferent arteriole is dilated
19. A man drinks 2 L of water to replenish the fluids lost by sweating during a period of exercise. Compared
with the situation prior to the period of sweating,
1. His intracellular fluid will be hypertonic
2. His extracellular fluid will be hypertonic
3. His intracellular fluid volume will be greater
4. His extracellular fluid volume will be greater
5. His intracellular and extracellular fluid volumes will be unchanged
20. The amount of potassium excreted by the kidney will decrease if
1. Distal tubular flow increases
2. Circulating aldosterone levels increase
3. Dietary intake of potassium increases

cell transport
4. Na+ reabsorption by the distal nephron decreases
5. The excretion of organic ions decreases
21. Which of the following substances will be more concentrated at the end of the proximal tubule than at
the beginning of the proximal tubule?
1. Glucose
2. Creatinine
3. Sodium
4. Bicarbonate
5. Phosphate
22. When a person is dehydrated, hypotonic fluid will be found in the
1. Glomerular filtrate
2. Proximal tubule
3. Loop of Henle
4. Cortical collecting tubule
5. Distal collecting duct
23. The electrically neutral active transport of sodium from the lumen of the kidney occurs in the
1. Proximal tubule
cell transport
4. Cortical collecting duct
5. Medullary collecting duct
24. Decreasing the resistance of the afferent arteriole in the glomerulus of the kidney will decrease
1. The renal plasma flow
2. The filtration fraction
3. The oncotic pressure of the peritubular capillary blood
4. The glomerular filtration rate
25. Renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus is inhibited by
1. Beta-adrenergic agonists
2. Prostaglandins
3. Aldosterone
4. Stimulation of the macula densa
5. Increased pressure within the afferent arterioles

cell transport
26. Patients with renal insufficiency develop very high plasma concentrations of urea (uremia) because of
1. An increased synthesis of urea by the liver
2. An increased reabsorption of urea by the proximal tubules
3. A decreased secretion of urea by the distal tubules
4. A decreased glomerular filtration rate
5. An increased renal blood flow
27. Which one of the following statements about aldosterone is correct?
1. It produces its effect by activating cAMP
2. It produces its effect by increasing distal tubular permeability to sodium
3. It causes an increased reabsorption of hydrogen ion
4. It has its main effect on the proximal tubule
5. It is secreted in response to an increase in blood pressure
28. The effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidney is to
1. Increase the permeability of the distal nephron to water
2. Increase the glomerular filtration rate
3. Increase the excretion of Na+

cell transport
4. Increase the excretion of water
5. Increase the diameter of the renal artery
29. The glomerular filtration rate will increase if
1. Sympathetic nerve activity to the kidney increases
2. The afferent arteriolar resistance increases
3. The efferent arteriolar resistance decreases
4. The plasma protein concentration decreases
5. Urine flow through the urethra is blocked
30. An increase in the concentration of NaCl in the intraluminal fluid with the ascending limb of the loop of
Henle causes the macula densa to release
1. ADH
2. Aldosterone
3. Adenosine
4. Renin
5. Angiotensinogen
31. Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is an increase in the plasma concentration of
1. ACTH
cell transport
2. Chloride
3. Sodium
4. Hydrogen
5. Potassium
32. Most of the volatile acid entering the blood is buffered by
1. Bicarbonate
2. Plasma proteins
3. Hemoglobin
4. Phosphates
5. Lactate
33. Potassium-sparing diuretics inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the
1. Thin descending limb of Henle 's loop
2. Thick descending limb of Henle's loop
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Cortical collecting duct
5. Proximal tubule
cell transport
34. In addition to increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to water, ADH increases the
permeability of the collecting duct to
1. Hydrogen
2. Ammonium
3. Potassium
4. Sodium
5. Urea
35. The filtration fraction is increased by
1. Increasing renal blood flow
2. Increasing afferent arteriolar resistance
3. Increasing efferent arteriolar resistance
4. Increasing plasma oncotic pressure
5. Increasing the pressure within Bowman's capsule
36. Which one of the following substances causes renal blood flow to decrease?
1. Nitric oxide
2. Bradykinin
3. Prostaglandins
cell transport
4. Adenosine
5. Dopamine
Вопрос №1 3
Вопрос №2 1
Вопрос №3 2
Вопрос №4 4
Вопрос №5 3
Вопрос №6 3
Вопрос №7 4
Вопрос №8 3
Вопрос №9 3
cell transport
Blood, hemostasis
1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events leading to blood clotting?
1. vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, coagulation
2. platelet aggregation, vasoconstriction, coagulation
3. vasoconstriction coagulation platelet aggregation
2. Which of the following is involved in the final phase of blood clotting?
1. formation of fibrin
2. formation of prothrombin
3. activation of blood clotting factor X
3. Calcium ions were the __________ substance discovered to be involved in the process of blood clotting.
1. 4 th
2. 10 th
cell transport
3. 13 th
4. Clots form to stop the "leakage" of blood from a damaged vessel. After the damaged vessel has healed,
the clot is no longer needed and goes through a process of dissolution. Which of the following is involved
in the dissolution of a clot?
1. fibrinogen
2. plasmin
3. thrombin
5. Hemopoiesis is __________, homeostasis is __________, and hemostais is __________.
1. a process of maintaining a steady state; blood formation; blood clotting
2. blood formation; a process of maintaining a steady state; blood clotting
3. blood clotting; blood formation; a process of maintaining a steady state
6. During hemopoiesis a specific stem cell will differentiate into other stem cells resulting in all the
different cellular components of blood. Which of the following is the name of this original stem cell?
1. normoblast
2. erythroblast
3. hemocytoblast
7. During the process of erythropoiesis, all of the following are ejected from the developing erythrocyte
except __________.
cell transport
1. nucleus
2. hemoglobin
3. organelles
8. During the process of erythropoiesis, the developing erythrocytes go through a variety of stages. During
one stage the cells are called young or immature erythrocytes, otherwise known as __________.
1. reticulocytes
2. erythroblasts
3. proerythrocytes
9. Erythropoietin is a chemical that is involved in starting the process of erythropoiesis. Erythropoietin is

a(n) __________ produced by the __________.
1. enzyme; liver
2. vitamin; spleen
3. hormone; kidneys
10. Which of the following stimulates the release of erythropoietin?
1. decreased amount of vitamin B12
2. excess amount of oxygen going to the kidneys
3. decreased amount of oxygen going to the kidneys

cell transport
11. "Poeisis" is a suffix that means "the formation of." Therefore, leucopoiesis would be the formation of
__________.
1. platelets
2. red blood cells
3. white blood cells
12. Megakaryoblasts develop from hemocytoblasts and are involved in the process of __________.
1. hemostasis
2. leukopoiesis
3. thrombopoiesis
13. Plasma
1. contains about 50% water.
2. contains about 40% plasma proteins.
3. volume changes considerably from moment to moment.
4. is a colloidal solution.
5. all of these
14. The liquid portion of the blood with fibrinogen and some of the clotting proteins removed is
cell transport
1. plasma.
2. platelets.
3. plasma proteins.
4. formed elements.
5. serum.
15. Albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen are examples of
1. formed elements.
2. platelets.
3. plasma proteins.
4. granulocytes.
5. agranulocytes.
16. Which of these leukocytes is an agranulocyte?
1. basophil
2. eosinophil
3. neutrophil
4. lymphocyte
cell transport
17. Cells in the red bone marrow that give rise to all the formed elements of the blood are called
1. fibrinogens.
2. globulins.
3. megakaryoblasts.
4. proerythroblasts.
5. stem cells.
18. Which of these areas does NOT contain red marrow in the adult?
1. sternum
2. ribs
3. pelvis
4. distal femur
5. vertebrae
19. The process of erythropoiesis
1. takes place in the spleen.
2. requires vitamin B12 and folate.
3. is inhibited by erythropoietin.
4. is stimulated when oxygen decreases in the blood.

cell transport
5. both 2 and 4
20. Erythrocytes
1. are biconcave disks.
2. transport less than half of the oxygen in the blood.
3. transport most of the carbon dioxide in the blood.
4. can rupture and release hemoglobin in a process called erythropoiesis.
5. are the least numerous formed elements.
21. Which of these statements is NOT true regarding coagulation?
1. Prothrombinase catalyzes the breakdown of prothrombin to thrombin.
2. Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
3. Antithrombin inactivates thrombin.
4. Heparin causes fibrinolysis.
5. Prostacyclin and heparin are anticoagulants.
22. Which of these statements concerning clotting is (are) correct?
1. Both extrinsic and intrinsic clotting pathways form prothrombinase.
2. Clots are composed mostly of thrombin.

cell transport
3. Clotting requires vitamin K and iron.
4. The extrinsic pathway is stimulated by contact with a damaged blood vessel.
5. all of these
23. wtat is the concentration of plasma proteins?
1. 21- 27%
2. 10-12%
3. 2-5%
4. 6-8%
24. Which chemical is involved in the breakdown of a clot (fibrinolysis)?
1. fibrinogen
2. antithrombin
3. heparin
4. plasmin
Вопрос №1 1
Вопрос №2 1
Вопрос №3 1
Вопрос №4 2
Вопрос №5 2
Вопрос №6 3
Вопрос №7 2
cell transport
Вопрос №8 1
Вопрос №9 3
Immunity
1. Lymph nodes
1. contain red and white pulp.
2. have germinal centers where lymphocytes divide.
3. filter the blood.
4. are attached to blood vessels.
5. pump lymph toward the heart.

cell transport
2. The spleen
1. has white pulp that is associated with the venous supply.
2. has red pulp that is associated with the arterial supply.
3. filters lymph and puts it back in the blood.
4. acts as a blood reservoir.
5. destroys worn-out lymphocytes.
3. The thymus
1. decreases in size in older adults.
2. produces neutrophils that move to other tissues.
3. responds to foreign substances in the blood.
4. produces a hormone called lymphopathin.
5. all of these
4. With innate immunity,
1. each time the body is exposed to a substance, the response is the same.
2. specificity and memory are involved.
3. the body may become immune to a disease.
4. antibodies may be produced.

cell transport
5. all of these
5. Which of the following is a protective chemical that lyses cells, found on the surface of cells and in tears
and saliva?
1. complement
2. interferon
3. lysozyme
4. mucus
5. sebum
6. A(n) __________ is a group of 20 proteins activated by a series of reactions, in which one activated
chemical then activates another; and promotes inflammation, phagocytosis, and cell lysis.
1. complement
2. interferon
3. lysozyme
4. mucus
5. sebum
7. Which of the following is a protein that interferes with virus production, and is produced by most cells
in response to a viral infection?
1. complement
cell transport
2. interferon
3. lysozyme
4. mucus
5. sebum
8. Which of these chemical mediators does NOT promote inflammation?
1. histamines
2. leukotrienes
3. interferon
4. prostaglandins
9. The most important phagocytes are
1. lymphocytes and basophils.
2. basophils and mast cells.
3. neutrophils and basophils.
4. neutrophils and macrophages.
5. macrophages and lymphocytes.
10. Neutrophils
cell transport
1. seldom leave the blood.
2. are usually the last cells to enter infected tissue.
3. enlarge to become macrophages.
4. often die after a single phagocytic episode.
5. all of these
11. Dust cells, microglia, and Kupffer cells are examples of
1. basophils.
2. eosinophils.
3. lymphocytes.
4. macrophages.
5. neutrophils.
12. Natural killer cells
1. are a type of macrophage.
2. exhibit no memory response.
3. recognize cells infected by a specific virus.
4. are produced in the thymus.
5. all of these
cell transport
13. Which cells release enzymes that break down chemical mediators released by other cells?
1. basophils
2. eosinophils
3. lymphocytes
4. macrophages
5. neutrophils
14. In addition to the symptoms of local inflammation, systemic inflammation results in the
1. production of large numbers of neutrophils from red bone marrow.
2. production of pyrogens.
3. loss of large amounts of fluid from the blood.
4. all of these
15. Which of these results occur in response to the release of chemical mediators?
1. vasodilation
2. chemotactic attraction of phagocytes
3. increased vascular permeability
4. redness and swelling

cell transport
5. all of these
16. Substances that stimulate adaptive immunity are called
1. antibodies.
2. antigens.
3. pyrogens.
4. chemical mediators.
5. phagocytes.
17. Which of these is an example of a self-antigen?
1. bacterial antigen
2. viral antigen
3. pollen antigen
4. food antigen
5. tumor antigen
18. Antibodies
1. prevent antigens from binding together.
2. promote phagocytosis.
cell transport
3. inhibit inflammation.
4. block complement activation.
5. prevent breakdown of foreign antigens.
19. An antibody molecule
1. has three polypeptide chains.
2. has both heavy and light chains.
3. has a variable region that can bind to complement.
4. has a constant region that binds to antigens.
5. is the same thing as an MHC molecule.
20. Which antibody accounts for 80-85% of serum antibodies, can cross the placenta, and is responsible for
Rh reactions?
1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG
5. IgM
21. T cells
cell transport
1. are processed in the thymus.
2. are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity.
3. originate in the spleen.
4. produce antibodies when activated.
22. The activation of B cells
1. occurs in the process of innate immunity.
2. results in the production of cytotoxic cells.
3. results in the production of antibodies.
4. occurs when macrophages release cytokines.
5. all of these
23. B cells
1. are stimulated by helper T cells.
2. are produced in the thymus.
3. release cytokines.
4. cause cell lysis.
5. all of these
cell transport
24. The activation of T cells can result in
1. lysis of virus-infected cells.
2. production of memory T cells.
3. production of lymphokines.
4. delayed hypersensitivity reactions.
5. all of these
25. MHC molecules are
1. proteins found in the mitochondria of a cell.
2. cell-surface glycoproteins that display antigens.
3. areas of a macrophage that produce interleukin.
4. specific regions of a given antigen that activate a lymphocyte.
5. chemicals produced by helper T cells.
26. MHC class II molecules
1. are found on all cells.
2. are found on antigen-presenting cells.
3. usually display self-antigens.

cell transport
4. cannot combine with other antigens.
5. both 1 and 3
27. __________ are responsible for the secondary antibody response.
1. Memory B cells
2. Plasma B cells
3. Helper T cells
4. Natural killer cells
28. As the result of a bee sting, Joe B. Hive had an immediate severe reaction, and nearly died. This reaction
was caused by
1. B cells.
2. T cells.
3. natural killer cells.
4. macrophages.
5. neutrophils.
29. The antigen-presenting cells that are required for the activation of B cells are
1. macrophages.
2. T cells.
cell transport
3. B cells.
4. monocytes.
5. mast cells.
30. Interleukins and CD4, B7, and CD28 proteins are all involved in
1. innate immunity.
2. costimulation of helper T cells.
3. suppressing B cell or T cell activity.
4. inflammation.
5. production of T cells in the spleen.
31. B cells are involved in
1. only adaptive immunity.
2. only innate immunity.
3. both adaptive and innate immunity.
32. Neutrophils are involved in

cell transport
3. both adaptive and innate immunity.
33. Complement is involved in
3. both adaptive and innate immunity
34. A vaccination is a way of acquiring
1. passive natural immunity.
2. active natural immunity.
3. active artificial immunity.
4. passive artificial immunity.
35. The defense system that recognizes precise foreign antigens is the body's __________ line of defense.
1. first
2. second
3. third
36. The production of antibodies is the body's __________ line of defense.

cell transport
1. first
2. second
3. third
37. The activity of antigens and antibodies are involved in __________ defense.
1. specific
2. nonspecific
3. nonspecific barrier
38. There are molecules on the surface of cells that provide identity for the cells. The body either recognizes
these cells as "self" or "nonself." Which of the follow are molecules that are NOT involved in cell
identity?
1. antigens
2. antibodies
3. major histocompatibility complex
39. Which of the following would be considered a nonspecific barrier?
1. skin
2. fever
3. NK cells
cell transport
40. Which of the following is involved with specific defenses?
1. lysozymes
2. complement protein
41. Interferons are substances released by some cells to fight __________.
1. bacteria
2. viruses
3. symbiotic pathogens
42. Vasodilatation is part of the second line of defense because it results in greater flow of WBCs to the
infected site. What chemical causes the vessels to dilate?
1. histamine
2. prostaglandin
3. complement proteins
43. The inflammatory response is part of the __________.
1. specific defense
2. nonspecific defense
cell transport
44. The molecules that help to attract phagocytes to foreign cells are called __________.
1. interferons
45. When a virus infects cells, some cells have the ability to release __________, which are chemicals that
activate other cells to defend themselves against the virus.
1. interferons
46. The inflammatory response is a normal response to tissue damage or the presence of foreign invaders.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events leading up to inflammation?
1. cells release histamine, vasodilation and permeability occurs, phagocytes arrive at the site and begin to
engulf the foreign invader
2. blood vessels will dilate and permeability occurs, cells release histamine, which attract phagocytes to the
site and begin to engulf the foreign invader
3. cells release histamine, phagocytes are attracted to the site, vasodilation and permeability occurs, which
allow the phagocytes to engulf the foreign invader
47. A fever is considered to be a __________ defense.

cell transport
1. specific
2. nonspecific
48. Where are the major histocompatibility complex molecules located in reference to the cells?
1. within the nucleus of the cell
2. within the cytoplasm of the cell
3. on the outer layer of the cell membrane
49. Where are the major histocompatibility complex molecules located?
1. in the plasma of blood
2. on the cell membrane
3. in the interstitial fluid
50. A cell with an abnormal or altered major histocompatibility complex is considered to be a(n)
__________ cell.
1. self
2. nonself
3. antigen presenting
cell transport
51. When a cell is invaded by a virus, the cell begins to produce foreign protein molecules. In order for the
immune system to recognize that something is wrong, the abnormal proteins bind to a(n) __________
and then display on the surface.
1. antigen presenting cell (APC)
2. major histocompatibility complex I molecule
3. major histocompatibility complex II molecule
52. An example of an APC (antigen presenting cell) is a(n) __________.
1. macrophage
2. erythrocyte
3. skin cell
53. Macrophages will phagocytize a foreign cell. It then incorporates the foreign cell's antigen with the
__________. This is the macrophages way of presenting the foreign antigen to other immune cells.
1. (APC) antigen presenting cell
2. major histocompatibility complex I protein
3. major histocompatibility complex II protein
54. Lymphocytes are the main cells involved in our immune system. There are many types of lymphocytes,
each with a specific function. Which of the following are involved in producing antibodies?
1. B cells
cell transport
2. cytotoxic T cells
3. suppressor T cells
55. When a person becomes infected with a pathogen that has a foreign antigen, the T cells and B cells
respond. The various lymphocytes will kill the invader and then the patient is said to immune to that
pathogen. They are immune to it because the second time they encounter the same pathogen, their
__________ will respond quickly.
1. cytotoxic T cells
2. memory B cells
3. helper T cells
56. What cells will develop antigen receptors when they mature?
1. lymphocytes
2. erythrocytes
3. skin cells
57. Which cells are responsible for producing immunity against a disease after the first exposure of the
same disease?
1. T cells
2. macrophages
3. memory B cells
cell transport
58. Helper T cells "pick up" foreign antigens from macrophages and deliver these antigens to the B cells.
The B cells become activated and begin to manufacture antibodies. Helper T cells get these foreign
antigens from __________.
1. (APC) antigen presenting cell
2. major histocompatibility complex I protein
3. major histocompatibility complex II protein
59. Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of antibodies?
1. They kill pathogens.
2. They bind to foreign antigens, which attract macrophages.
3. They bind to antibiotics so the antibiotics know which pathogen to kill.
60. Which of the following statements is true regarding antibodies?
1. Antibodies bind to and kill foreign cells.
2. Antibodies are a type of antibiotic, which kills bacteria.
3. Antibodies bind to foreign antigens resulting in attracting more macrophages to the foreign cells.
61. Which of the following antibodies are involved in causing basophils to release histamine?
1. IgA
2. IgG
3. IgE
cell transport
62. The displaying of antigens on the surface of helper T cells or APCs will ultimately activate __________.
1. T cells
2. B cells
3. Macrophages
63. Which of the following types of immune responses involves antigens binding directly to the B cells
causing the production of antibodies?
1. APC immunity
2. humoral immunity
3. cell-mediated immunity
64. Which of the following types of immune responses involves the T cells stimulating the B cells to produce
the antibodies?
1. APC immunity
2. humoral immunity
3. cell-mediated immunity
Вопрос №1 2
Вопрос №2 4
Вопрос №3 1
Вопрос №4 1
Вопрос №5 3
cell transport
Вопрос №6 1
Вопрос №7 2
Вопрос №8 3
Вопрос №9 4
cell transport
Acid-base, water-el. bal.
1. ADH will be released from the posterior pituitary when there is a decrease in
1. Plasma Na+ concentration
2. Plasma volume
3. Plasma K+ concentration
cell transport
4. Plasma pH
5. Plasma Ca2+ concentration
2. The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is primarily buffered by
1. Extracellular bicarbonate
2. Red blood cell bicarbonate
3. Red blood cell hemoglobin
4. Plasma proteins
5. Plasma phosphate
3. Destruction of the supraoptic nuclei of the brain will produce which of the following changes in urinary
volume and concentration? (Assume that fluid intake equals fluid loss.)
1. An increased urinary volume and a very dilute urine
2. An increased urinary volume and concentrated urine
3. A normal urinary volume and concentration
4. Decreased urinary volume and a very dilute urine
5. Decreased urinary volume and a concentrated urine
4. A man drinks 2 L of water to replenish the fluids lost by sweating during a period of exercise.
Compared with the situation prior to the period of sweating,
1. His intracellular fluid will be hypertonic

cell transport
2. His extracellular fluid will be hypertonic
3. His intracellular fluid volume will be greater
4. His extracellular fluid volume will be greater
5. His intracellular and extracellular fluid volumes will be unchanged
5. Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is an increase in the plasma concentration of
1. ACTH
2. Chloride
3. Sodium
4. Hydrogen
5. Potassium
1. Bicarbonate
2. Plasma proteins
3. Hemoglobin
4. Phosphates
5. Lactate
cell transport
7. ANP (atrial natruretic hormone) decreases Na reabsorption within
1. The proximal tubule
2. The thick ascending limb of Henle's loop
3. The distal convoluted tubule
4. The cortical collecting duct
5. The inner medullary collecting duct
8. The renal clearance of phosphate is increased by
1. Aldosterone
2. Parathyroid hormone
3. Norepinephrine
4. Vasopressin
5. Angiotensin
9. Hyponatremia will result from an excess secretion of
1. Vasopressin
2. Atrial natriuretic hormone
3. Norepinephrine
cell transport
4. Insulin
5. Aldosterone
10. The secretion of H+ in the proximal tubule is primarily associated with
1. Excretion of potassium ion
2. Excretion of hydrogen ion
3. Reabsorption of calcium ion
4. Reabsorption of bicarbonate ion
5. Reabsorption of phosphate ion
11. The major source of the total daily acid load produced by the body is
1. Anaerobic metabolism
2. Aerobic metabolism
3. Phospholipid catabolism
4. Protein catabolism
5. Triglyceride catabolism
12. Which one of the following returns closest to normal during chronic respiratory acidosis?
1. Alveolar ventilation
cell transport
2. Arterial PCO2
3. Arterial PO2
4. Plasma concentration of bicarbonate
5. Arterial concentration of hydrogen ion
13. The pH of the tubular fluid in the distal nephron can be lower than that in the proximal tubule because
1. A greater sodium gradient can be established across the wall of the distal nephron than across the wall of
the proximal tubule
2. More buffer is present in the tubular fluid of the distal nephron than in the proximal tubule
3. More hydrogen ion is secreted into the distal nephron than into the proximal tubule
4. The brush border of the distal nephron contains more carbonic anhydrase than that of the proximal tubule
5. The tight junctions of the distal nephron are less leaky to solute than those of the proximal tubule
1. Bicarbonate
2. Plasma proteins
3. Hemoglobin
4. Phosphates
5. Lactate
cell transport
15. The renal clearance of phosphate is increased by
1. Aldosterone
2. Parathyroid hormone
3. Norepinephrine
4. Vasopressin
5. Angiotensin
16. Hyponatremia will result from an excess secretion of
1. Vasopressin
2. Atrial natriuretic hormone
3. Norepinephrine
4. Insulin
5. Aldosterone
Вопрос №1 2
Вопрос №2 3
Вопрос №3 1
Вопрос №4 3
Вопрос №5 5
Вопрос №6 3
Вопрос №7 5
Вопрос №8 2
Вопрос №9 1
cell transport
Hemodynamics
1. As blood leaves the heart to be transported to the tissues of the body, it travels through vessels that
begin large in diameter and end small in diameter. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
blood flow away from the heart in reference to vessel diameter?
1. arteries, arterioles, capillaries
2. arteries, capillaries, arterioles
3. arterioles, arteries, capillaries
2. Oxygen is transported in the blood to be delivered to the tissues. At the same time, carbon dioxide
leaves the tissues and enters the blood to be delivered to the lungs for exhalation. Which of the following
are the vessels where this gas exchange occurs?
1. arteries
2. veins
3. capillaries
3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the flow of oxygenated blood?
1. leaves the lungs and enters the left side of the heart
cell transport
2. leaves the lungs and goes to the tissues of the body
3. leaves the heart, enters the lungs, and then goes to the other body tissues.
4. Oxygenated blood travels through vessels from the lungs to the left side of the heart. The oxygenated
blood is traveling through __________.
1. arteries
2. veins
3. capillaries
5. Deoxygenated blood travels from the right side of the heart through vessels to the lungs to become
oxygenated. The deoxygenated blood is traveling through __________.
1. arteries
2. veins
3. capillaries
6. Oxygenated blood travels from the left side of the heart through vessels out to body tissues. The
oxygenated blood is traveling through __________.
1. arteries
2. veins
3. capillaries
cell transport
7. Deoxygenated blood traveling from the body tissues back to the heart is traveling through __________.
1. arteries
2. veins
3. capillaries
8. Which of the following is the best definition of an artery?
1. vessels that transport oxygenated blood
2. vessels that transport blood away from the heart
3. the place where oxygen is exchanged with carbon dioxide
9. Are there smooth muscles in the capillaries
1. only arterys
2. yes
3. no
4. only veins
10. Given laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid through a cylindrical tube with a fixed driving pressure, if the
radius is doubled, flow will:
1. double.
2. remain unchanged.
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3. quadruple
4. increase 16-fold.
5. increase 8-fold.
11. Red blood cells have a relatively small effect on the viscosity of blood in arterioles due to their biconcave
disc shape.
1. True
2. False
12. Which of the following are true about turbulence?
1. It is less likely to occur at a low flow than at a high flow.
2. For a given flow, turbulence would be more likely to occur in a large vessel than in a small vessel.
3. Turbulence is more likely to occur with a high viscosity fluid than with a low viscosity fluid.
4. Turbulence is noiser than laminar flow.
5. 1 and 4
13. The single (as in one) vessel that has the highest resistance to the flow of blood is a (an):
1. artery
2. arteniole
3. capillary
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4. venule
14. The group of vessels that have the highest resistance to the flow of blood through a tissue are the:
1. arteries
2. arterioles
3. capillaries
4. venules
15. According to Poiseuille's law, which of the following would have the most pronounced effect on reducing
blood flow to a tissue?
1. increasing the viscosity of blood by a factor of two
2. increasing the average length of arterioles by a factor of two
3. decreasing the radius (or diameter) of arterioles by a factor of two
4. decreasing the compliance of arterioles by a factor of two
16. If cardiac output were to increase while total peripheral resistance remained unchanged, then capillary
blood pressure in the peripheral circulation as a whole would:
1. increase
2. decrease
3. remain unchanged
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17. The pulse pressure is ________.
1. systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
2. systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
3. systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
4. diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
18. Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?
1. Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells.
2. The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.
3. They distribute blood to various parts of the body.
4. They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue.
19. Peripheral resistance ________.
1. decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel
2. increases as blood vessel diameter increases
3. increases as blood viscosity increases
4. is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals
20. Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous
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1. blood circulation?
2. tunica intima
3. tunica media
4. tunica externa
5. basement membrane
21. The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is ________.
1. the only factor that influences resistance
2. significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius
3. significant because resistance is directly proportional to the blood vessel diameter
4. insignificant because vessel diameter does not vary
22. Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.
1. An increase in cardiac output corresponds to a decrease in blood pressure, due to the increased delivery.
2. Systemic vasodilation would increase blood pressure, due to diversion of blood to essential areas.
3. Excess protein production would decrease blood pressure.
4. Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase.
23. The velocity of blood flow is ________.

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1. in direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels
2. slower in the arteries than in capillaries because arteries possess a relatively large diameter
3. slower in the veins than in the capillaries because veins have a large diameter
4. slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
24. Select the correct statement about blood flow.
1. It is relatively constant through all body organs.
2. It is measured in mm Hg.
3. It is greatest where resistance is highest.
4. Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output.
25. A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state
could result in all of the following changes except ________.
1. increased work of the left ventricle
2. increased incidence of coronary artery disease
3. increased damage to blood vessel endothelium
4. decreased size of the heart muscle
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Heart physiology
1. Which one of the following is the best index of preload?
1. Blood volume
2. Central venous pressure
3. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

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4. Left ventricular end-diastolic volume
5. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
2. Which one of the following is the best index of afterload?
1. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
2. Left ventricular mean systolic pressure
3. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
4. Total peripheral resistance
5. Mean arterial blood pressure
3. Stroke volume is increased by
1. A decrease in venous compliance
2. An increase in afterload
3. A decrease in contractility
4. An increase in heart rate
5. A decrease in coronary blood flow
4. An increased preload would most likely be caused by an increase in
1. Arteriolar tone
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2. Venous tone
3. Myocardial contractility
4. Heart rate
5. Capillary permeability
5. Propagation of the action potential through the heart is fastest in the
1. SA node
2. Atrial muscle
3. AV node
4. Purkinje fibers
5. Ventricular muscle
6. Closure of the aortic valve occurs at the onset of which phase of the cardiac cycle?
1. Isovolumetric contraction
2. Rapid ejection
3. Protodiastole
4. Isovolumetric relaxation
5. Rapid filling
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7. Which of the following statements about the third heart sound (S3) is correct?
1. It is usually diminished in congestive heart failure
2. It is produced by turbulence during rapid ventricular filling in early diastole
3. It is produced by turbulence following atrial contraction
4. It is often associated with the "floppy" mitral valve syndrome
5. It is produced by flow through the patent foramen ovale
8. In a resting, healthy man, the ejection fraction is approximately?
1. 0.1
2. 0.2
3. 0.3
4. 0.6
5. 0.9
9. During exercise, there is an increase in a person's
1. Stroke volume
2. Diastolic pressure
3. Venous compliance
4. Pulmonary arterial resistance

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10. During exercise, cardiac output is augmented by
1. Sympathetic stimulation of resistance vessels
2. Dilation of venous vessels
3. Decreased end-diastolic volume
4. Decreased mean systemic arterial pressure
5. Increased ventricular contractility
11. Stroke volume can be decreased by
1. Increasing ventricular contractility
2. Increasing heart rate
3. Increasing central venous pressure
4. Decreasing total peripheral resistance
5. Decreasing systemic blood pressure
12. The electrocardiogram is most effective in detecting a decrease in
1. Ventricular contractility
2. Mean blood pressure

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4. Ejection fraction
5. Coronary blood flow
13. Stroke volume can be increased by
1. Decreasing ventricular compliance
2. Increasing venous compliance
3. Decreasing total peripheral resistance
4. Increasing heart rate
5. Decreasing atrial contractility
14. Which one of the following correctly describes an event that normally occurs during the PR interval?
1. The ventricle is contracting
2. The cardiac action potential passes through the AV node
3. There is no change in the voltage tracing on the ECG
4. The mitral and aortic valves are both closed
5. The second heart sound is heard
15. At which point on the ventricular action potential is membrane potential most dependent on calcium
permeability?
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1. Point A
2. Point B
3. Point C
4. Point D
5. Point E
16. During which interval on the above ECG does the aortic valve close?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
17. During which interval on the ECG does the bundle of His depolarize?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
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18. Ventricular filling begins at point
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
19. Closing of the mitral valve begins at point
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
20. The upstroke of the SA nodal action potential is produced by opening a channel that is
1. Primarily permeable to Na+
2. Primarily permeable to Ca2+
3. Primarily permeable to K+
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4. Primarily permeable to Cl-
5. Equally permeable to Na and K+
21. If the SA node becomes damaged and nonfunctional, which of these is the most likely to occur?
1. The heart will stop.
2. The ventricles will contract, but the atria will stop.
3. Another part of the heart, possibly the AV node, will become the pacemaker.
4. The heart will beat faster.
5. The atria will keep contracting, but the ventricles will stop.
22. Which of these statements concerning cardiac muscle is correct?
1. Cardiac muscle has more sarcoplasmic reticulum than skeletal muscle.
2. Cardiac muscle has a prolonged period of slow repolarization called the plateau phase.
3. Cardiac muscle has a shorter refractory period than skeletal muscle.
4. Depolarization of cardiac muscle occurs when K+ and Na+ diffuse into the cell.
5. all of these are correct
23. Action potentials pass rapidly from one cardiac muscle cell to another because of
1. intercalated disks and numerous gap junctions.

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2. large nerves with branches going to each cardiac muscle cell.
3. the large voltage of cardiac action potentials.
4. the plateau phase of the action potential.
5. open Ca2+ channels.
24. The depolarization phase of the cardiac muscle action potential occurs when
1. voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels open.
2. voltage-gated K+ ion channels open.
3. voltage-gated Na+ ion channels open.
4. both 2 and 3
25. Early repolarization of cardiac muscle cells occurs when
1. voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels open.
2. voltage-gated K+ ion channels open.
3. voltage-gated Na+ ion channels close.
4. both b and c
26. Which of these conditions occur in the cardiac muscle cell during the plateau phase?
1. voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels are open

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2. voltage-gated K+ ion channels are open
3. voltage-gated Na+ ion channels are closed
4. all of these
27. Which of these conditions occurs in the cardiac muscle cell during the final repolarization phase?
1. voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels are open
2. voltage-gated K+ ion channels are open
3. voltage-gated Na+ ion channels are open
4. all of these
28. Unlike other cardiac muscle cells, the movement of __________ into the pacemaker cells is primarily
responsible for the depolarization phase of the action potential.
1. Ca2+ ions
2. K+ ions
3. Na+ ions
4. Mg2+ ions
5. Cl- ions
29. Which of these conditions results in a prepotential in pacemaker cells?
1. Na+ ions move into the cell through specialized Na+ ion channels.
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2. Membrane permeability to K+ ions increases.
3. Voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels close.
4. all of these are correct
30. In an EKG, the P wave represents
1. depolarization of the atria.
2. repolarization of the atria.
3. depolarization of the ventricles.
4. repolarization of the ventricles.
31. During the QT interval of the EKG, the
1. atria contract and begin to relax.
2. atria relax.
3. ventricles contract and begin to relax.
4. ventricles relax.
32. During the period of ejection in the cardiac cycle, the atrioventricular valves are __________ and the
semilunar valves are __________ .
1. closed, closed
2. closed, open
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3. open, closed
4. open, open
33. Blood flows neither into nor out of the ventricles during
1. the period of isovolumic contraction.
2. the period of isovolumic relaxation.
3. systole.
4. diastole.
5. both a and b
34. At the end of __________ , the ventricles are 70% filled.
1. active ventricular filling
2. passive ventricular filling
3. ventricular diastole
4. ventricular systole
5. atrial systole
35. The average end-diastolic volume of the ventricles is about __________ , whereas the end-systolic
volume is about __________ .
1. 125 mL, 55 mL
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2. 125 mL, 0 mL
3. 0 mL, 55 mL
4. 0 mL, 125 mL
5. 55 mL, 125 mL
36. During the period of ejection, the left ventricular pressure reaches a high point of approximately
1. 20 mm Hg.
2. 60 mm Hg.
3. 80 mm Hg.
4. 100 mm Hg.
5. 120 mm Hg.
37. The second heart sound, described as "dupp" is actually the sound of the
1. atria contracting.
2. ventricles contracting.
3. atrioventricular valves closing.
4. semilunar valves closing.
5. heart slapping the liver.

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38. If the heart rate for a patient is 80 bpm, and her stroke volume is 70 mL/beat, then her cardiac output is
1. 0.87 mL/min
2. 1.1 mL/min.
3. 10 mL/min.
4. 56 mL/min.
5. 5600 mL/min
39. Preload
1. is the extent to which the ventricular walls are stretched.
2. if increased, causes a decrease in cardiac output.
3. is the pressure in the aorta which contracting ventricles must overcome.
4. is part of the extrinsic regulation of the heart.
5. all of these
40. Increased venous return to the heart causes increased
1. stroke volume.
2. preload.
3. cardiac output.
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4. force of contraction.
5. all of these
Вопрос №1 4
Вопрос №2 2
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Вопрос №6 4
Вопрос №7 2
Вопрос №8 4
Вопрос №9 1
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Vascular physiology
1. Fenestrated capillaries:
1. have pores in their walls
2. are located in most tissue
3. permit only one-way exchange of materials
4. have a layer of smooth muscle in their walls
5. are found in the liver and kidneys
2. Which of these layers in the wall of blood vessels contains smooth muscle?
1. tunica adventitia
2. tunica intima
3. tunica media
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4. both b and c
3. Which of these vessels is LEAST affected by vasoconstriction and vasodilation?
1. arterioles
2. elastic arteries
3. muscular arteries
4. small arteries
4. Veins greater than 2 mm in diameter have
1. no tunica adventitia.
2. thinner walls than arteries.
3. valves.
4. no endothelial lining.
5. no smooth muscle in their walls.
5. During ventricular diastole, pressure in the ventricles falls to ____ mm Hg, while the pressure within
the large arteries is about ____ mm Hg.
1. 120, 80
2. 80, 120
3. 80, 0
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4. 0, 80
5. 40, 120
6. If a person has a systolic pressure of 100 mm Hg, and a diastolic pressure of 70 mm Hg, her pulse
pressure is
1. 170 mm Hg.
2. 85 mm Hg.
3. 30 mm Hg.
4. 25 mm Hg.
5. 20 mm Hg.
7. As blood flows through a capillary, ______ causes fluid to leave the capillary; whereas ______ causes
fluid to enter the capillary.
1. blood pressure, osmosis
2. osmosis, blood pressure
3. blood pressure, lymphatic pressure
4. lymphatic pressure, blood pressure
5. vasoconstriction, vasodilation
8. Which of these causes precapillary sphincters to relax?

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1. increase in CO2 in tissues
2. decrease in pH in tissues
3. decrease in O2 levels in tissues
4. decrease in glucose in tissues
5. all of these
9. To determine mean arterial pressure (MAP), cardiac output (CO) is multiplied by
1. diastolic pressure.
2. systolic pressure.
3. pulse pressure.
4. peripheral resistance.
5. 0.67
10. In the ________ circuit the flow of blood travels through the system of blood vessels that carries blood
from the left ventricle of the heart to the tissues of the body and back to the right atrium.
1. pulmonary
2. systemic
3. portal
4. coronary
5. fetal
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11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding capillaries?
1. All capillaries of the body are highly fenestrated.
2. With the exception of brain capillaries, most capillaries of the body are highly fenestrated.
3. With the exception of kidney capillaries, most capillaries of the body are highly fenestrated.
12. Blood cells can permeate the pore of capillary fenestrae.
1. True
2. False
13. Platelets can permeate the pore of capillary fenestrae.
1. True
2. False
14. Water molecules can permeate the pore of capillary fenestrae.
1. True
2. False
15. Ions (Na+, Cl-, K+, Ca2+, etc.) can permeate the pore of capillary fenestrae.
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1. True
2. False
16. Capillary fenestrae are pores that allow the movement of fluid, ions, and small molecules:
1. through endothelial cells
2. in-between endothelial cells (i.e., through gaps between adjacent endothelial cells)
3. Both A and B
17. Hydrostatic blood pressure is lowest in the:
1. Arteries
2. Arterioles
3. Capillaries
4. Venules
5. Veins
18. Hydrostatic blood pressure is highest in the:
1. Arteries
2. Arterioles
3. Capillaries
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4. Venules
5. Veins
19. Within the cardiovascular system, the highest hydrostatic blood pressure is found in the:
1. Right ventricle
2. Left ventricle
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Aorta
5. Superior vena cava
20. As arterial blood reaches typical capillaries in the body, its hydrostatic pressure is approximately:
1. 120 mmHg
2. 80 mmHg
3. 40 mmHg
4. 15 mmHg
5. 5 mmHg
21. As blood leaves typical capillaries in the body, its hydrostatic pressure is approximately:
1. 120 mmHg
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2. 80 mmHg
3. 40 mmHg
4. 15 mmHg
5. 5 mmHg
22. Moving along the vasculature away from the heart, the largest pressure drop in the circulatory system
occurs along the:
1. Large arteries
2. Large veins
3. Arterioles
4. Capillaries
5. Venules
23. In an individual, the systolic blood pressure was 150 mm Hg, the diastolic blood pressure was 110 mm
Hg, the heart rate was 100 beats per minute, end-diastolic volume of the left ventricle was 130 mL, and
the end-systolic volume was 60 mL. Approximately, what is the mean arterial blood pressure in this
person?
1. 115 mm Hg
2. 120 mm Hg
3. 125 mm Hg
4. 130 mm Hg
5. Cannot be determined based on the information given

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24. The arterial system is also referred to as a:
1. Pressure reservoir
2. Volume reservoir
3. Protein reservoir
4. Hormone reservoir
5. A and B only
25. The venous system is also referred to as a:
1. Pressure reservoir
2. Volume reservoir
3. Protein reservoir
4. Hormone reservoir
5. A and B only
26. In an individual, the systolic blood pressure was 120 mm Hg, the diastolic blood pressure was 80 mm
Hg, the heart rate was 100 beats per minutes, end-diastolic volume of the left ventricle was 130 mL, and
the end-systolic volume was 60 mL. What is the cardiac output in this person?
1. 5 L/min
2. 6 L/min
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3. 7 L/min
4. 8 L/min
5. Cannot be determined based on the information given.
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Вопрос №2 3
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Вопрос №9 4
somatic syst
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1. The precentral gyrus and corticospinal tract are essential for
1. Vision
2. Olfaction
3. Auditory identification
4. Kinesthesia
5. Voluntary movement
2. A patient who presents with an intention tremor, "past-pointing," and a "drunken" gait might be
expected to have a lesion involving the
1. Cerebellum
2. Medulla
3. Cortical motor strip
4. Basal ganglia
5. Eighth cranial nerve
3. Which of the following is NOT true about the knee jerk reflex?
1. It is a spinal reflex.
2. It is a somatic reflex.
3. It helps to maintain an upright posture.

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4. It involves conduction of nerve impulses from sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron.
4. Which of the following reflexes inhibits skeletal muscle contraction?
1. crossed extensor reflex
2. Golgi tendon reflex
3. stretch reflex
4. withdrawal reflex
5. Inhibitory interneurons are involved in which of the following spinal reflexes?
2. knee jerk reflex
3. stretch reflex
6. Excitatory interneurons are involved in which of the following spinal reflexes?
2. knee jerk reflex
3. stretch reflex
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7. A man was in an accident and severed his spinal cord between C6 and C7. Which of the following would
NOT occur?
1. loss of sensation in the trunk below the shoulders, the lowers limbs and portions of the arms
2. damage to the phrenic nerves which would therefore affect breathing
3. loss of movement in the lower limbs
4. damage to the intercostal nerves which would affect breathing because the intercostal muscles would be
paralyzed
8. What are the main divisions of the nervous system?
1. the sensory system and the motor system
2. the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
3. the dendritic and the axonal systems
4. the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
9. The somatic system contains nerves that control _________.
1. skeletal muscles
2. internal organs, joints, and glands
3. skeletal muscles, skin, and glands
4. smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and glands

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10. The central nervous system consists of the ____________.
1. combination of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
2. brain and spinal cord
3. combined sensory and motor systems
4. cranial and spinal nerves
11. The main function of the cerebellum is ___________.
1. consciousness
2. muscle coordination
3. homeostasis
4. sense reception
12. The three major somatic sensory pathways are the:
1. anterior, posterior, and lateral spinothalamic
2. nuclear, cerebellar, and thalamic
3. posterior column, anterolateral, and spinocerebellar
4. first-, second-, and third-order
13. The axons of the posterior column ascend within the:

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1. fasciculusgracilis and fasciculus cuneatus
2. posterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts
3. posterior and interior spinocerebellar tracts
4. all of the above
14. Ruffini corpuscles and Golgi tendon organs are similar in their:
1. location between a skeletal muscle and a tendon
2. ability to detect tension and distortion
3. both being thermoreceptors
4. structure
15. The integrative activities performed by neurons in the cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei are
essential to the:
1. involuntary regulation of autonomic functions
2. involuntary regulation of posture and muscle tone
3. precise control of voluntary and involuntary movements
4. voluntary control of smooth and cardiac muscle
16. A sensory first-order neuron traveling along the posterior column pathway from the arm would synapse
in the:
1. nucleus cuneatus
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2. reticular activating system
3. nucleus gracilis
4. arbor vitae of the cerebellum
17. The upper motor neuron of a somatic motor pathway has a cell body that lies in:
1. an area outside the CNS
2. a CNS processing center
3. a nucleus of the brain stem
4. a nucleus of the spinal cord
18. The three integrated pathways controlling conscious and subconscious motor commands in skeletal
muscle are the:
1. corticospinal, medial, and lateral
2. corticobulbar, tectospinal, and rubrospinal
3. vestibulospinal, tectospinal, and reticulospinal
4. cerebellum, corticospinal, and reticulospinal
19. The motor tracts in the spinal cord controlling subconscious regulation of balance and muscle tone are
the:
1. tectospinal tracts
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2. reticulospinal tracts
3. vestibulospinal tracts
4. corticobulbar tracts
20. The background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities are controlled by:
1. basal nuclei
2. pyramidal system
3. superior and inferior colliculi
4. vestibular nuclei
21. The center of somatic motor control that plans and initiates voluntary motor activity is the:
1. basal nuclei
2. cerebral cortex
3. hypothalamus
4. cerebellum
22. The center of somatic motor control that coordinates complex motor patterns is the:
1. cerebral cortex
2. thalamus
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3. cerebellum
23. The center of somatic motor control that controls basic respiratory reflexes is the:
1. mesencephalon
3. cerebrum
4. cerebellum
24. If a tract name begins with spino-, it must start in the:
1. spinal cord and end in the brain, carrying sensory information
2. spinal cord and end in the PNS, carrying sensory information
3. spinal cord and end in the brain, bearing motor commands
4. brain and end in the peripheral nervous system (PNS), bearing motor commands
25. If the name of a tract ends in -spinal, its axons must:
1. start in the higher centers and end in the spinal cord, bearing motor commands
2. start in the higher centers and end in the spinal cord, bearing sensory information
3. start in the spinal cord and end in the PNS, carrying motor commands
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4. start in the spinal cord and end in the brain, carrying sensory information
26. The posterior column pathway receives sensations associated with:
1. pain and temperature
2. crude touch and pressure
3. highly localized fine touch, pressure, vibration, and position
4. all of the above
27. In the thalamus, data arriving over the posterior column pathway are integrated, sorted, and projected
to the:
1. primary sensory cortex
2. cerebellum
3. PNS
4. spinal cord
28. If a sensation arrives at the wrong part of the sensory cortex, you will:
1. reach an improper conclusion about the source of the stimulus
2. be incapable of experiencing pain or pressure
3. lose all capability of receiving and sending information
4. experience pain in the posterior column pathway

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29. If the central cortex were damaged or the projection fibers cut, a person would be able to detect light
touch but would be unable to determine:
1. the source of the stimulus
2. the magnitude of the stimulus
3. the amount of pressure
4. all of the above
30. The spinothalamic pathway relays impulses associated with:
1. proprioceptive information and vibrations
2. the position of muscles, tendons, and joints
3. "crude" sensations of touch, pressure, pain, and temperature
4. "fine" touch, pressure, vibration, and proprioception
31. The spinocerebellar pathway includes:
1. gracilis and cuneatus nuclei
2. lateral and posterior tracts
3. anterior and posterior tracts
4. lateral and anterior tracts

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32. The spinocerebellar pathway carries information concerning the:
1. sensations of touch, pain, and temperature
2. pressure on each side of the body
3. sensations that cause referred and phantom limb pain
4. position of muscles, tendons, and joints to the cerebellum
33. Somatic motor pathways always involve a(n):
1. anterior and lateral nuclei
2. ganglionic and preganglionic neuron
3. upper and lower motor neuron
4. sensory and motor fibers
34. Voluntary and involuntary somatic motor commands issued by the brain reach peripheral targets by
traveling over the:
1. ganglionic and preganglionic fibers
2. sensory and motor fibers
3. spinothalamic tracts
4. pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems

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35. The primary goal of the vestibular nuclei is:
1. the triggering of visual and auditory stimuli
2. maintaining posture and balance
3. the monitoring of muscle tone throughout the body
4. controlling involuntary eye movements
36. The reticulospinal tract is involved with regulation of:
1. balance and muscle tone
2. involuntary reflex activity and autonomic functions
3. voluntary motor control of skeletal muscles
4. involuntary regulation of balance and posture
37. An individual whose primary motor cortex has been destroyed retains the ability to walk and maintain
balance but the movements:
1. lack precision and are awkward and poorly controlled
2. are restricted and result in partial paralysis
3. are characteristic of involuntary motor commands
4. are under involuntary control and are poorly executed

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38. The basal nuclei contain two populations of neurons, one releasing ACh and the other releasing GABA.
ACh would have a(n) _____________ effect on the neurons they synapse with, while GABA would have
a(n) ____________ effect.
1. excitatory, inhibitory
2. inhibitory, excitatory
3. both would have stimulatory effects
4. hyperpolarizing, depolarizing
39. When someone touches a hot stove, the rapid, automatic, preprogrammed response that preserves
homeostasis is provided by the:
1. spinal reflex
2. cerebral cortex
3. cerebellum
40. Which part of the brain is responsible for the highest level of motor command in terms of complexity
and voluntary motion?
1. primary motor cortex
2. visual cortex
3. cerebellum

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41. An individual who can understand language and knows how to respond but lacks the motor control
necessary to produce the right combinations of sounds has:
1. major motor aphasia
2. disconnection syndrome
3. global aphasia
4. developmental dyslexia
42. If connections between the prefrontal cortex and other brain regions are severed:
1. tensions, frustrations, and anxieties are removed
2. the individual would experience hallucinations and severe pain
3. vocalizations for normal speech are impossible
4. letters are often reversed or written in the wrong order
43. A person demonstrating anesthesia in a given area would lose:
1. sensation of pressure
2. sensation of touch
3. sensitivity to pain and temperature
4. all of the above
Вопрос №1 5
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Вопрос №2 1
Вопрос №3 4
Вопрос №4 2
Вопрос №5 1
Вопрос №6 4
Вопрос №7 2
Вопрос №8 2
Вопрос №9 1
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autonomic system
1. The autonomic nervous system performs which of the following functions?
1. controlling respiratory functions during times of rest as well as times of activity
2. comprehending what is funny about a joke
3. consolidating short-term memories to long-term memories
4. moving your computer mouse to select the correct answer to this
2. The lower motor neurons of the somatic nervous system exert direct control over skeletal muscles. By
contrast, in the autonomic nervous system there is:
1. indirect voluntary control of skeletal muscles
2. a synapse interposed between the central nervous system and the peripheral effector
3. voluntary and involuntary control of skeletal muscles
4. always voluntary control of skeletal muscles
3. Which of the following is not a function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

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1. mobilization of energy reserves through the accelerated breakdown of glycogen in muscle and liver cells
and the release of lipids by adipose tissues
2. increased secretion of hormones that promote the absorption and utilization of nutrients by peripheral
cells
3. changes in blood flow and glandular activity associated with sexual arousal
4. constriction of respiratory passages
4. The system that coordinates cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary and reproductive functions
is the:
1. somatic nervous system (SNS)
2. central nervous system (CNS)
3. autonomic nervous system (ANS)
4. enteric nervous system (ENS)
5. The division of the nervous system that "kicks in" during periods of exertion, stress, or emergency is
the:
1. somatic motor division of the PNS
2. parasympathetic division
3. enteric division of the CNS
4. sympathetic division of the ANS

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6. The nerve bundle that carries preganglionic fibers to a nearby sympathetic chain ganglion is the:
1. gray ramus
2. autonomic nerve
3. collateral ganglion
4. white ramus
7. Important functions of the postganglionic fibers that enter the thoracic cavity in autonomic nerves
include:
1. accelerating the heart rate
2. increasing the force of cardiac contractions
3. dilating the respiratory passageways
4. all of the above
8. The effect of modified neurons in the sympathetic division that secrete neurotransmitters is that they:
1. are limited to peripheral tissues and CNS activity
2. last longer than those produced by direct sympathetic stimulation
3. do not last as long as those produced by direct sympathetic stimulation
4. serve to dilate blood vessels and elevate blood pressure
9. Which of the following is unique to the sympathetic nervous system?

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1. collateral ganglia
2. chain ganglia
3. receptors that are G proteins
4. innervation of the lacrimal glands
10. At neuroeffector junctions, typical sympathetic postganglionic fibers release:
1. epinephrine
2. dopamine
3. acetylcholine
4. norepinephrine
11. When specific neurotransmitters are released by postganglionic fibers, stimulation or inhibition of
activity depends on:
1. the rate at which the neurotransmitter is released to the receptor
2. the arrangement of the postganglionic fibers
3. the response of the membrane receptor to the presence of the neurotransmitter
4. the target organ that is affected
12. Cholinergic postganglionic sympathetic fibers which innervate the sweat glands of the skin and the
blood vessels of the skeletal muscles are stimulated during exercise to:
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1. decrease the body temperature and decrease the pH in the blood
2. constrict the blood vessels and inhibit sweat gland secretion
3. increase the smooth muscle activity in the digestive tract for better digestion
4. keep the body cool and provide oxygen and nutrients to active skeletal muscles
13. Postsynaptic cells of the SNS synapse with the cells they innervate through structures called:
1. muscarinic receptors
2. varicosities
3. ganglia
4. nicotinic receptors
14. In the parasympathetic division, second-order neurons originate in:
1. intramural ganglia or ganglia associated with the target organs
2. spinal segments or cranial nerves
3. the adrenal medulla and collateral ganglia
4. collateral ganglia or chain ganglia
15. The neurotransmitter released by all parasympathetic neurons is:
1. epinephrine
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2. acetylcholine (ACh)
3. norepinephrine (NE)
4. serotonin
16. The two types of parasympathetic receptors that occur on the postsynaptic membranes are:
1. adrenergic and cholinergic
2. alpha-2 and beta-2
3. nicotinic and muscarinic
4. alpha-1 and beta-1
17. Pelvic nerves carry which of the following types of information?
1. parasympathetic neurons innervating the urinary bladder
2. parasympathetic neurons innervating the stomach
3. sympathetic neurons synapsing in the inferior mesenteric ganglion
4. sympathetic neurons innervating the uterus and ovary
18. The major effects produced by the parasympathetic division include:
1. secretion by digestive glands
2. increased smooth muscle activity along the digestive tract

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3. constriction of the respiratory passageway
4. all of the above
19. The division of the ANS that innervates only visceral structures serviced by the cranial nerves or lying
within the abdominopelvic cavity is the:
1. motor somatic division
2. parasympathetic division
3. sympathetic division
4. peripheral division
20. Where dual innervation exists, the two divisions of the ANS commonly have:
1. opposing effects
2. inhibitory effects
3. no effect
4. stimulatory effects
21. In the absence of stimuli, autonomic tone is important to autonomic motor neurons because:
1. it can decrease their activity to avoid overstimulation
2. it can increase their activity on demand
3. it shows a resting level of spontaneous activity

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4. its activity is determined by the degree to which they are stimulated
22. The lowest level of integration in the ANS consists of:
1. regulatory centers in the midbrain that control the viscera
2. lower motor neurons that participate in cranial and spinal visceral reflexes
3. regulatory centers in the posterior and lateral hypothalamus
4. centers in the medulla that control visceral functions
23. Both coordination and regulation of sympathetic function generally occur in centers in the:
1. medulla and spinal cord
2. cerebral cortex
3. cerebellum
4. posterior and lateral hypothalamus
24. In the ANS, simple reflexes which provide relatively rapid automatic response to stimuli are based in
the:
1. cerebellum
2. spinal cord
3. cerebrum
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25. The processing center of a visceral reflex is the:
1. sensory neuron
2. interneuron
3. polysynaptic
4. cholinergic
26. Which of the following statements about long reflexes is false?
1. They bypass the CNS.
2. Preganglionic and ganglionic neurons synapse in the autonomic ganglia.
3. The sensory portion of the reflex delivers information through the dorsal root of the spinal cord.
4. They are visceral reflexes.
5. Humko Nahi Pata Given Answer Is 0
27. Visceral reflexes provide:
1. voluntary sensory movements
2. voluntary motor control
3. automatic motor responses
4. automatic sensory stimulations

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28. The cellular mechanisms that seem to be involved in memory formation and storage include:
1. increased neurotransmitter release
2. facilitation of synapses
3. formation of additional synaptic connections
4. all of the above
29. The two components of the limbic system essential to memory consolidation are the:
1. cingulate gyrus and corpus callosum
2. amygdaloid body and hippocampus
3. intermediate mass and pineal gland
4. fornix and mamillary body
30. A state of awareness of and attention to external events and stimuli implies:
1. rapid eye movement (REM)
2. consciousness
3. dual innervation
4. amnesia
31. Increasing stimulation to the reticular activating system (RAS) makes an individual:
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1. produce fewer motor responses to external stimuli
2. more alert to sensory information
3. experience increased parasympathetic activity
4. more likely to fall asleep
32. Schizophrenia may be caused by an excessive production of which neurotransmitter?
1. dopamine
2. adrenaline
3. norepinephrine
4. serotonin
33. Disturbance of which of the following neurotransmitters produces motor problems, such as those found
in Parkinson's disease?
1. epinephrine
2. serotonin
3. dopamine
4. norepinephrine
34. A common age-related anatomical change in the nervous system is:
1. increased brain size and weight

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2. an increased number of neurons
3. increased blood flow to the brain
4. none of the above
35. One of the problems associated with aging and the nervous systems is the development of plaques in the
CNS. Which of the following accurately describes plaques?
1. an accumulation of extracellular fibrillar proteins and abnormal dendrites and axons
2. hardening of the arteries supplying the body and brain
3. narrowing of the gyri and widening of the sulci
4. a loss in the number of neurons
36. The axon of a ganglionic neuron is called a postganglionic fiber because:
1. it carries impulses away from the ganglion
2. it carries impulses to the target organ
3. it carries impulses toward the ganglion
4. all of the above
37. The effects produced by sympathetic postganglionic fibers in spinal nerves include:
1. stimulation of secretion by sweat glands
2. acceleration of blood flow to skeletal muscles

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3. dilation of the pupils and focusing of the eyes
4. all of the above
38. The summary effects of the collateral ganglia include:
1. acceleration of blood flow and stimulation of energy production
2. redirection of blood flow and energy use by visceral organs and release of stored energy
3. dilation of the pupils and focusing of the eyes
4. accelerating the heart rate and dilation of respiratory passageways
39. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors on a target cell triggers a:
1. depolarization that has an inhibitory effect
2. repolarization that has an inhibitory effect
3. depolarization that has an excitatory effect
4. hyperpolarization that results in a refractory period
40. The major structural difference between sympathetic preganglionic and ganglionic fibers is that:
1. preganglionic fibers are close to target organs and postganglionic fibers are close to the spinal cord
2. preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long
3. preganglionic fibers are long and postganglionic fibers are short

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4. preganglionic fibers innervate target organs while postganglionic fibers originate from cranial nerves
41. Which of the following adrenergic receptors produce stimulatory effects, including stimulation of
metabolism and energy consumption?
1. alpha-1
2. beta-1
3. alpha-2
4. beta-2
5. both a and b
42. The effects of parasympathetic stimulation are usually:
1. brief in duration and diverse in distribution
2. brief in duration and restricted to specific organs and sites
3. long in duration and diverse in distribution
4. long in duration and restricted to specific organs and sites
43. A medication that blocks beta receptors could help a patient with high blood pressure because:
1. beta-1 receptors in the heart do not stimulate an increase in the force and rate of heart contractions
2. beta-2 receptors trigger a decrease in the size of the respiratory passageways
3. beta-3 receptors trigger a decrease in levels of lipolysis

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4. all of the above
44. During a crisis, the event necessary for the individual to cope with stressful and potentially dangerous
situations is called:
1. sympathetic activation
2. splanchnic innervation
3. the effector response
4. parasympathetic activation
45. The two classes of sympathetic receptors include:
1. beta-1 and beta-2 receptors
2. alpha and beta receptors
3. ganglionic and preganglionic receptors
4. alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors
46. Intramural ganglia are components of the parasympathetic division that are located:
1. inside the tissues of visceral organs
2. in the intrinsic eye muscles
3. in the adrenal medulla
4. in the nasal and salivary glands

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47. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers of the vagus nerve entering the abdominopelvic cavity join the:
1. hypogastric plexus
2. celiac plexus
3. pulmonary plexus
4. cardiac plexus
48. Sensory nerves deliver information to the CNS along:
1. spinal nerves
2. cranial nerves
3. autonomic nerves that innervate peripheral effectors
4. all of the above
49. Which of the following lists only sympathetic reflexes?
1. defecation, urination, digestion, secretion reflexes
2. light, consensual light, sexual arousal, baroreceptor
3. swallowing, coughing, sneezing, vomiting reflexes
4. baroreceptor, vasomotor, pupillary dilation, sexual reflexes

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Вопрос №1 1
Вопрос №2 2
Вопрос №3 1
Вопрос №4 3
Вопрос №5 4
Вопрос №6 4
Вопрос №7 4
Вопрос №8 2
Вопрос №9 2
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Endcrine system
1. Hormones
1. are chemical signals produced in small amounts.
2. are secreted into ducts.
3. affect all the cells in the body.
4. usually are not transported.
5. all of these
2. Given these characteristics: 1. amplitude-modulated signals 2. all-or-none response 3. usually slower

response
4. effects usually more generally distributed,
List the characteristics that apply to the endocrine system when compared to the nervous system.
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1. 2,3
2. 1,2,4
3. 1,3,4
4. 1,2
5. 3,4
3. Name the intercellular chemical signal that is released by cells and has a local effect on the same cell
type as that from which the chemical signal is released.
1. autocrine chemical signal
2. pheromone
3. paracrine chemical signal
4. hormone
5. neurotransmitter
4. Chemical signals that are secreted into the environment and modify the behavior and physiology of
other individuals are called
1. autocrine chemical signals.
2. pheromones.
3. paracrine chemical signals.
4. hormones.
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5. neurotransmitters.
5. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine are examples of which of these types of intercellular chemical
signals?
1. autocrine chemical signals
2. pheromones
3. paracrine chemical signals
4. hormones
5. neurotransmitters
6. Neurohormones are intercellular chemical signals that are
1. produced by groups of cells and affect neurons.
2. released by cells and affect other cell types locally.
3. produced by neurons and act like hormones.
4. released by neurons and stimulate or inhibit other neurons.
7. __________ are released by cells and affect other cell types locally without being transported in blood.
1. Autocrine chemical signals
2. Pheromones
3. Paracrine chemical signals

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4. Hormones
5. Neurotransmitters
8. The lipid hormones are either __________ or derivatives of fatty acids.
1. glycolipids
2. phospholipids
3. steroids
4. triglycerides
5. glycerols
9. Hormones
1. are not secreted at a constant rate.
2. function to regulate the rates of many activities in the body.
3. secretion rate is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms.
4. help maintain homeostasis.
5. all of these
10. Hormones can be any of these types of molecules EXCEPT
1. proteins.
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2. glycoproteins.
3. polypeptides.
4. glycolipids.
5. steroids.
11. Estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and glucocorticoids are all examples of
1. proteins.
2. glycoproteins.
3. polypeptides.
4. amino acid derivatives.
5. steroids.
12. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and thyroid hormones are examples of
1. proteins.
2. glycoproteins.
3. polypeptides.
4. amino acid derivatives.
5. steroids.
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13. Increased blood glucose causes increased insulin secretion from the pancreas. This is an example of
1. hormonal regulation of hormone secretion.
2. neural regulation of hormone secretion.
3. nonhormonal regulation of hormone secretion.
14. Water-soluble hormones
1. have a long half-life.
2. have a short half-life.
3. bind to intracellular receptors.
4. both a and c
15. Hormones with a short half-life regulate activities that have a __________ onset with a __________
duration.
1. rapid, long
2. rapid, short
3. slow, long
4. slow, short
16. Given these events: 1. acetylcholine is released 2. action potentials travel through parasympathetic
neurons
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3. insulin is secreted 4. pancreatic cells depolarize
Arrange these events in the correct order after parasympathetic neurons are stimulated.
1. 1,2,3,4
2. 2,4,3,1
3. 2,1,4,3
4. 3,2,1,4
5. 4,2,3,1
17. TRH stimulates the secretion of TSH, which stimulates the secretion of thyroid hormones. Thyroid
hormones inhibit TRH and TSH secretion. This is an example of
1. hormonal regulation of hormone secretion.
2. neural regulation of hormone secretion.
3. nonhormonal regulation of hormone secretion.
18. Stimulation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system during exercise results in
secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine into the blood; when exercise ends, the amount of
epinephrine and norepinephrine in the blood decreases rapidly. This is an example of
1. acute hormone regulation.
2. chronic hormone regulation.
3. cyclic hormone regulation.

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19. The monthly change in secretion of reproductive hormones that occurs in women during their
reproductive years is an example of
1. acute hormone regulation.
2. chronic hormone regulation.
3. cyclic hormone regulation.
20. Which of these is an example of positive-feedback regulation in the endocrine system?
1. an increase in blood glucose causes an increase in insulin secretion; insulin moves glucose into cells
2. an increase in TSH causes an increase in thyroid hormone secretion; thyroid hormones inhibit TSH
secretion
3. before ovulation, an increase in LH causes an increase in estrogen, which causes an increase in LH
4. an increase in TRH causes an increase in TSH secretion; thyroid hormone inhibits TRH secretion
5. an increase in blood calcium causes an increase in calcitonin secretion; calcitonin moves calcium into the
blood.
21. Hormones that bind to plasma proteins
1. bind reversibly.
2. establish an equilibrium between free hormones and bound hormones.
3. must be free hormones to diffuse through the capillary walls.
4. usually bind only to specific types of plasma proteins.
5. all of these
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22. Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins, glycoproteins, epinephrine and norepinephrine
1. have relatively long half-lives.
2. are degraded rapidly by enzymes.
3. have half-lives that increase and decrease slowly.
4. regulate activities that have a long duration.
5. a, c, and d
23. ________ is a process in which hormones are made less active or are eliminated by attaching water-
soluble molecules such as sulfate or glucuronic acid groups to them in the liver.
1. Active transport
2. Conjugation
3. Excretion
4. Metabolism
5. Structural protection
24. If there is a decrease in the specific plasma protein to which a hormone binds,
1. more free hormone occurs.
2. less hormone binds to target cells.
3. blood levels of the hormone increase.

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4. all of these
25. Down-regulation occurs because
1. both hormone and receptor are taken into the cell by phagocytosis.
2. receptor molecules are degraded more quickly.
3. there is a decrease in the rate of receptor synthesis.
4. all of these
26. Because of the down-regulation of GnRH
1. the number of receptors for GnRH on the pituitary gland is increased.
2. the number of receptors for GnRH on the pituitary gland is unchanged.
3. the number of receptors for GnRH on the pituitary gland is decreased.
27. Up-regulation
1. is responsible for periodic decreases in sensitivity of some tissues to certain hormones.
2. is responsible for the increase of LH receptors in ovarian tissue.
3. occurs when one hormone decreases the sensitivity of a tissue to a second hormone.
4. all of these
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28. Which of these hormone types bind to intracellular receptors?
1. proteins
2. glycoproteins
3. polypeptides
4. epinephrine
5. steroids
29. Given these events: 1. activities of the cell are altered 2. G protein subunits separate
3. GTP replaces GDP on alpha subunit
List them in the correct order as they occur after a hormone binds to a membrane-bound receptor.
1. 1,2,3
2. 1,3,2
3. 2,1,3
4. 2,3,1
5. 3,1,2
30. Phosphodiesterase
1. converts GDP to GTP.
2. opens Na+ ion channels.
3. opens Cl- ion channels.

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4. breaks down cAMP to AMP.
5. separates the alpha subunit from the others.
31. Given these events: 1. alpha subunit attaches to GTP, 2. alpha subunit combines with Ca2+ ion channel
3. Ca2+ ions diffuse into cell 4. epinephrine binds to beta-adrenergic receptor 5. G protein subunits
separate
Arrange them in the correct order after epinephrine binds to a beta-adrenergic receptor on the heart.
1. 1,2,3,4,5
2. 2,4,3,1,5
3. 3,5,2,1,4
4. 4,5,1,2,3
5. 5,1,2,3,4
32. Given these events:1. alpha subunit binds to adenylyl cyclase 2. cAMP is produced 3. cAMP binds to
protein kinase 4. phosphate groups are attached to enzymes 5. phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP
Arrange them in the correct order as they occur after the G protein dissociates.
1. 1,2,3,4,5
2. 1,3,2,5,4
3. 2,3,5,4,1
4. 3,4,1,2,5
5. 5,4,3,2,1
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33. Which of these is NOT an intracellular mediator molecule?
1. cAMP
2. cGMP
3. ADH
4. DAG
5. IP3
34. Intracellular mediator molecules
1. often produce rapid responses.
2. influence already existing enzymes.
3. cause a cascade effect.
4. can cause a few molecules to affect the activities of many enzymes.
5. all of these
35. Given these events: 1. enzyme on receptor is activated 2. enzyme activity in cell is altered 3. insulin binds
to membrane-bound receptor 4. phosphate groups are attached to specific intracellular proteins
Arrange the events in the correct order as insulin influences intracellular activity.
1. 1,2,3,4
2. 2,1,4,3
3. 3,1,4,2
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4. 3,4,1,2
5. 4,3,2,1
36. Lipid-soluble hormones
1. can bind to plasma proteins.
2. attach to intracellular receptors in target cells.
3. tend to have slower onset and longer duration.
4. include steroids.
5. all of these
37. Intracellular hormone receptors are located
1. floating freely in the cytoplasm of target cells.
2. in the nucleus.
3. in the mitochondria.
4. in the endoplasmic reticulum.
5. both a and b
38. Given these events: 1.protein is synthesized 2.mRNA is synthesized 3.aldosterone binds to aldosterone
receptor in the cytoplasm 4.aldosterone-receptor complex moves into the nucleus 5.mRNA leaves the
nucleus
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Choose the correct sequence of events that occur after aldosterone diffuses through the membrane of a
target cell.
1. 1,2,3,4,5
2. 2,4,1,3,5
3. 3,4,2,5,1
4. 4,3,2,5,1
5. 5,1,3,4,2
39. The largest number of hormones binds to
1. membrane-bound receptors and control ion channels.
2. membrane-bound receptors and activate G proteins.
3. membrane-bound receptors that phosphorylate intracellular proteins.
4. intracellular receptors.
40. Target organs for specific hormones are determined by
1. whether the hormone is water-soluble or lipid-soluble.
2. how close the target organ is to the endocrine gland that secretes that hormone.
3. the type of receptors on that organ.
4. how much hormone is secreted.
5. the blood supply to the specific organ.

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41. The hypothalamus
1. regulates the secretory activity of the pituitary gland.
2. is connected to the pituitary gland by the optic chiasma.
3. has neurons that connect to the anterior pituitary.
4. contains the infundibulum, which secretes many hormones.
5. all of these
42. Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
1. are produced by neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus.
2. are transported in the hypothalamohypophysial portal system.
3. include GH and ACTH.
4. are classified as pheromones.
5. both a and b
43. One effect of ADH is to
1. decrease urine volume.
2. increase blood osmolality.
3. decrease blood volume.

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4. all of these
44. Oxytocin secretion causes
1. milk ejection in lactating females.
2. uterine contractions.
3. increased urine volume.
4. decreased blood volume.
5. both a and b
45. Hormones that are secreted from the anterior pituitary are produced in
1. the hypothalamus.
2. the anterior pituitary.
3. the posterior pituitary.
4. the infundibulum.
5. neurosecretory cells.
46. Releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones
1. are secreted from the posterior pituitary.
2. are all neurohormones.

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3. travel through the hypothalamohypophysial tract.
4. influence the release of hormones from the posterior pituitary.
5. affect target cells throughout the body.
47. The factors that stimulate secretion of ADH include
1. stress.
2. decreased blood osmolality.
3. decreased blood volume.
4. all of these
48. A person with no ADH secretion (diabetes insipidus) might have symptoms including
1. high blood pressure.
2. extremely low urine output.
3. extreme thirst and dehydration.
4. increased water retention.
5. all of these
49. Oxytocin secretion is stimulated by
1. decreased blood osmolality.

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2. increased blood pressure.
3. stretches of the uterus.
4. stress.
5. GnRH.
50. Anterior pituitary hormones
1. have a long half-life.
2. bind to intracellular receptors.
3. include oxytocin and ADH.
4. are proteins, glycoproteins, or polypeptides.
5. are stimulated by tropic hormones.
51. Growth hormone causes
1. increased somatomedin production.
2. increased fat storage.
3. increased glycogen breakdown.
4. increased use of glucose as an energy source.
5. decreased uptake of amino acids into the cells.

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52. GH has a negative-feedback effect on the secretion of
1. GH-IH.
2. GH-RH.
3. TSH.
4. ADH.
5. ACTH.
53. Hypersecretion of GH in adults produces
1. dwarfism.
2. giantism.
3. acromegaly.
54. A molecule that has the same effects as opiate drugs (such as morphine, opium, and heroin) is
1. ACTH.
2. beta endorphin.
3. lipotropin.
4. MSH.
5. PRH.
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55. All of these hormones are neurohormones produced in the hypothalamus EXCEPT
1. GnRH.
2. PRH.
3. PIH.
4. FSH.
5. GH-RH.
56. The major, more potent form of thyroid hormone that interacts with target cells is
1. tetraiodothyronine (T4).
2. triiodothyronine (T3).
3. thyroglobulin.
4. thyroxine-binding globulin.
5. tyrosine.
57. Which of these molecules binds to most thyroid hormones and increases the half-life of thyroid
hormones?
1. thyroglobulin
2. tyrosine
3. triiodothyronine (T3)
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4. tetraiodothyronine (T4)
5. thyroxine-binding globulin
58. Which of these symptoms is a result of hyperthyroidism?
1. rapid heart rate
2. cretinism
3. cold intolerance
4. myxedema
5. reduced appetite
59. Which of these conditions causes increased TRH secretion?
1. increased T3 secretion
2. increased T4 secretion
3. hypothermia
4. prolonged fasting
5. all of these
60. T3 and T4
1. are synthesized in parafollicular cells of the thyroid.

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2. are bound to thyroglobulin during synthesis.
3. are synthesized from iron and the amino acid tyrosine.
4. are produced in equal amounts by the thyroid.
5. all of these
61. A deficiency of iodine in the diet causes
1. increased TSH secretion.
2. decreased T3 and T4 production.
3. increased TRH production.
4. thyroid enlargement (goiter).
5. all of these
62. Thyroid hormones cause
1. increased glucose, fat, and protein metabolism.
2. increased body temperature.
3. increased ATP production.
4. normal growth and development.
5. all of these
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63. The cells in the thyroid responsible for calcitonin secretion are
1. follicle cells.
2. thyroglobulin cells.
3. cortical cells.
4. parafollicular cells.
5. hypothalamic cells.
64. Which of these conditions produce(s) elevated TSH secretion?
1. iodine deficiency
2. surgically removed thyroid
3. pituitary tumor
4. all of these
65. When parathyroid hormone increases,
1. osteoclast activity decreases.
2. calcium reabsorption in the kidney decreases.
3. calcium absorption in the small intestine decreases.
4. blood calcium level decreases.
5. blood phosphate level decreases.

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66. Which of these symptoms occur as a result of hypersecretion of PTH?
1. increased muscular excitability
2. muscle tetany
3. kidney stones
4. depolarization of cell membrane
5. all of these
67. The adrenal medulla
1. is derived from mesoderm.
2. is the outer portion of adrenal glands.
3. contains the zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis.
4. is part of the parasympathetic division of the ANS.
5. produces epinephrine and norepinephrine.
68. All of these cause increased secretion of hormones from the adrenal medulla EXCEPT
1. high blood glucose levels.
2. stimulation by sympathetic neurons.
3. emotional excitement.
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4. stress.
5. exercise.
69. Aldosterone
1. is a glucocorticoid hormone.
2. is secreted by the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex.
3. increases sodium concentration in the blood.
4. increases potassium concentration in the blood.
5. all of these
70. Hyposecretion of aldosterone causes
1. alkalosis.
2. hyperkalemia.
3. high blood pressure.
4. skeletal muscle weakness.
5. hypernatremia.
71. If cortisol secretion increases,
1. protein catabolism (breakdown) decreases.

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2. fat catabolism (breakdown) decreases.
3. the inflammatory response decreases.
4. blood glucose level decreases.
5. glycogen deposits in cells decrease.
72. Which of these inhibits CRH secretion?
1. stress
2. ACTH
3. cortisol
4. hypoglycemia (low blood sugar)
5. both b and c
73. Glucagon increases
1. breakdown of glycogen to glucose.
2. glucose synthesis from amino acids and fats.
3. blood sugar levels.
4. fat breakdown.
5. all of these
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74. All of these are symptoms of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT
1. polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia.
2. hyperglycemia.
3. peripheral vascular disease.
4. insulin shock.
5. acidosis.
75. Which of these factors increases insulin secretion?
1. sympathetic stimulation
2. hypoglycemia
3. secretion of gastrointestinal hormones
4. decreased amino acids in the blood
5. both b and c
76. Immediately after a meal, which hormone level increases?
1. cortisol
2. epinephrine
3. glucagon
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4. growth hormone
5. insulin
77. Melatonin
1. is produced by the posterior pituitary.
2. production increases as light increases.
3. inhibits GnRH secretion.
4. increases skin pigmentation.
5. all of these
78. Which of these autocrine chemical signals, produced by most tissues of the body, can promote
inflammation?
1. endorphins
2. enkephalins
3. thymosins
4. prostaglandins
5. melatonins
79. Which of these substances is responsible for the processing of T cells?
1. endorphin
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2. enkephalin
3. prostaglandin
4. thymosin
5. melatonin
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Sensory systems
1. Which of the following would not be classified as a special sense?
1. olfaction
2. touch
3. vision
4. gustation
2. The ultimate destination(s) for interpreting the sense of smell is (are) the:
1. hypothalamus
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2. olfactory cortex
3. limbic system
4. all of the above
3. The factor that ensures that you quickly lose awareness of a new smell but retain sensitivity to others is
called:
1. central adaptation
2. olfactory sensitivity
3. olfactory discrimination
4. neuronal replacement
4. The CNS interprets smell on the basis of the particular pattern of:
1. neuronal replacement
2. sensory impressions
3. cortical arrangement
4. receptor activity
5. Even though acuity varies widely, human olfactory organs can discriminate among many smells based
on the:
1. nature of the odorant
2. type of receptor cells

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3. number of receptors
4. olfactory sensitivity
6. While eating kung pao chicken, Rachel bites into a small, innocent-looking red pepper. Her eyes begin
to water, and she reaches for her water glass. This message of "peppery hot" food has traveled to her
CNS via which cranial nerve?
1. facial (VII)
2. trigeminal (V)
3. vagus (X)
4. glossopharyngeal (IX)
7. The function of the canal of Schlemm is to:
1. supply oxygen to the retina
2. serve as a passageway for the optic nerve
3. stabilize the shape of the eye and support the retina
4. return aqueous humor to the body's circulation by passage into veins of the sclera
8. After synapsing in the thalamus, gustatory information is projected to the appropriate portion of the:
1. medulla

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3. cranial nerves VII, IX, and X
4. medial lemniscus
9. Gustatory reception begins when dissolved chemicals contacting the taste hairs bind to receptor
proteins of the:
1. gustatory cells
2. basal cells
3. circumvallate papillae
4. filiform papillae
10. A 10-year-old girl is experimenting with makeup. On which of the following structures does she apply
her metallic pink eye shadow?
1. lacrimal caruncle
2. medial canthus
3. conjunctiva
4. superior palpebrae
11. At 1:00 p.m., Emma is carefully studying an image of the eye in her A&P textbook. When she focuses
directly on the image, it falls on what part of her retina?
1. fovea
2. ora serrata
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3. optic nerve
4. optic disk
12. A lipid-rich product that helps to keep the eyelids from sticking together is produced by the:
1. conjunctiva
2. lacrimal glands
3. Meibomian gland
4. gland of Zeis
13. The fibrous tunic, the outermost layer covering the eye, consists of the:
1. lacrimal sac and orbital fat
2. pupil and ciliary body
3. iris and choroid
4. sclera and cornea
14. Which of the following could cause the formation of cataracts?
1. injury
2. radiation
3. aging
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4. adverse reactions to drugs
5. all of the above
15. The primary function of the lens of the eye is to:
1. biochemically interact with the photoreceptors of the retina
2. absorb light after it passes through the retina
3. focus the visual image on retinal receptors
4. integrate visual information for the retina
16. While Andy is mowing the lawn, a rock strikes him in his right eye, damaging his eye and causing
infection and degeneration in his right optic tract. Which part of his brain can no longer receive visual
information?
1. left visual cortex
2. either prefrontal cortex
3. right visual cortex
17. When photons of all wavelengths stimulate both rods and cones, the eye perceives:
1. either "red" or "blue" light
2. "white" light
3. all the colors of the visible light spectrum

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4. "black" objects
18. Axons converge on the optic disc, penetrate the wall of the eye, and proceed toward the:
1. cerebral cortex area of the parietal lobes
2. retina at the posterior part of the eye
3. retinal processing areas below the choroid coat
4. diencephalon at the optic nerve (II)
19. The sensation of vision arises from the integration of information arriving at the:
1. visual cortex of the cerebrum
2. lateral geniculate of the left side
3. reflex centers in the brain stem
4. lateral geniculate of the right side
20. The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the:
1. sacculus
2. tympanic membrane
3. utriculus
4. pharyngotympanic tube
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21. Which of the following auditory ossicles directly attaches to the tympanic membrane?
1. saccule
2. stapes
3. utricle
4. incus
5. malleus
22. Which of the following auditory ossicles directly attaches to the tympanic membrane?
1. saccule
2. stapes
3. utricle
4. incus
23. The structure in the cochlea of the inner ear that provides information to the CNS is the:
1. scala tympani
2. organ of Corti
3. basilar membrane
4. tectorial membrane
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24. The receptors that provide the sensation of hearing are located in the:
1. ampulla
2. cochlea
3. tympanic membrane
4. vestibule
25. What is the name given to the collection of calcium carbonate crystals whose movement over hair cells
triggers impulses to the brain concerning body position?
1. ampullae
2. kinocilia
3. otoliths
4. saccules
26. Ascending auditory sensations synapse in the thalamus and then are delivered by projection fibers to
the:
1. auditory cortex of the parietal lobe
2. auditory cortex of the frontal lobe
3. auditory cortex of the occipital lobe
4. auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

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27. Olfactory secretions that absorb water and form a thick, pigmented mucus are produced by:
1. salivary glands
2. olfactory bulbs
3. Bowman's glands
4. basal cells
28. During the olfaction process, the first synapse occurs at the:
1. initial receptor site
2. olfactory epithelium
3. olfactory bulbs of the cerebrum
4. olfactory cortex of the cerebral hemisphere
29. Neuronal replacement in adult humans is one of the few examples that occurs in the:
1. optic receptor population
2. vestibuloreceptor population
3. gustatory receptor population
4. olfactory receptor population

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30. The tongue papillae that provide friction to move objects around in the mouth but do not contain taste
buds are:
1. fungiform papillae
2. filiform papillae
3. circumvallate papillae
31. Drugstores often carry reading glasses of various strengths for older people who can no longer read
materials that are close to them. What type of accommodation problem are these glasses meant to
solve?
1. emmetropia
2. presbyopia
3. glaucoma
4. myopia
32. The ultimate higher-order olfactory destination is the:
1. hypothalamus
2. thalamus

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33. The factor that quickly reduces your sensitivity to a new taste is:
1. exposure to different papillae
2. neurotransmitter release
3. central adaptation
4. receptor stimulation threshold
34. A taste receptor sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to pressure illustrates the concept of:
1. phasic reception
2. receptor potential
3. transduction
4. receptor specificity
35. During the focusing process, when light travels from the air into the relatively dense cornea:
1. pupillary reflexes are triggered
2. the sclera assumes an obvious color
3. reflexive adjustments occur in both pupils
4. the light path is bent
36. Exposure to bright light produces a:

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1. very slow reflexive decrease in pupillary diameter
2. rapid reflexive decrease in pupillary diameter
3. rapid reflexive increase in pupillary diameter
4. slow reflexive increase in pupillary diameter
37. The color of the eye is determined by:
1. the number and distribution of pigment cells in the lens
2. the thickness of the iris and the number and distribution of pigment cells
3. the reflection of light from the aqueous humor
4. light reflecting through the cornea onto the retina
38. In rating visual acuity, a person whose vision is rated 20/15 is better than normal since this person can:
1. read letters without the aid of a lens at 35 feet from the chart
2. read letters at 15 or 20 feet that normal individuals cannot read at all
3. read letters at 20 feet that are only discernible by the normal eye at 15 feet from the chart
4. read letters at 15 feet that are only discernible by the normal eye at 20 feet from the chart
39. Which of the following is not a part of the brain used in the auditory pathway?
1. auditory cortex
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2. inferior colliculus
3. medial geniculate nucleus
4. primary motor cortex
40. The role that vitamin A plays in the eye is:
1. it activates opsin for rhodopsin-based photoreception
2. it acts as coenzyme for the activation of transducin
3. the protein part of rhodopsin is synthesized from vitamin A
4. the visual pigment retinal is synthesized from vitamin A
41. There is an old saying that states, "All cats are gray at dusk." Which of the following statements
explains this saying?
1. Rods and cones are stimulated equally, but the brain does not know how to process this confusing
information, so the resulting color is gray.
2. Only rods are stimulated, and because they detect black and white, the resulting image is one of a gray
cat.
3. Neither rods nor cones are stimulated.
4. At dusk, only cones are stimulated, and they are equally stimulated. The combination of all the cone
colors is gray.
42. When one or more classes of cones are nonfunctional, the result is:
1. image inversion
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2. color blindness
3. the appearance of "ghost" images
4. creation of a blind spot
43. The most detailed information about the visual image is provided by the:
1. cones
2. rods
3. optic disc
4. rods and cones
44. The region of the retina called the "blind spot" is an area that structurally comprises the:
1. optic disc
2. choroid coat
3. visual cortex
4. suprachiasmatic nucleus
45. The partial crossover that occurs at the optic chiasm ensures that the visual cortex receives:
1. different images from the right and left eyes
2. a composite picture of the entire visual field

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3. an image that is inverted
4. an image that is reversed before reaching the cortex
46. The waxy material that slows the growth of microorganisms in the external acoustic canal and reduces
the chances of infection is:
1. gustducin
2. phenylthiourea
3. cerumen
4. umami
47. As a result of taking gentamicin for an infection, Colin's hair cells in the cochlea became damaged. What
type of deafness might he experience?
1. conductive deafness
2. an inherited form of deafness
3. nerve deafness
48. Information about the direction and strength of mechanical stimuli is provided by the:
1. vestibular ganglia
2. hair cells
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3. auditory ossicles
4. endolymph
49. The receptors in the inner ear that provide sensations of gravity and linear acceleration are the:
1. semicircular and cochlear ducts
2. otolith and statoconia
3. ampulla and cupula
4. saccule and utricle
50. Information about the region and intensity of stimulation is related to the CNS over the cochlear branch
of cranial nerve:
1. X
2. VII
3. IV
4. VIII
51. The energy content of a sound determines its intensity, which is measured in:
1. decibels
2. furlongs
3. millimeters
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Higher brain function
1. Which of the following results in memory distortion?
1. The overconfidence effect
2. The hindsight bias
3. Confabulation
4. All of the above
2. What does the misinformation effect refer to?
1. Distortion of memory by information provided after an event

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2. Overestimation of the ability to recall events correctly
3. Inaccurate recall of the origin of information
3. What is memory thought to be related to?
1. Changes in neurotransmitter release from neurons
2. Fluctuations in hormone levels
3. Protein synthesis in the brain
4. All of the above
4. Which of the following can enhance memory?
1. Massed practice
2. Staying awake for as long as possible after studying
3. Rote memorization
4. Rehearsing
5. What is the name for forgetting events that occurred before an injury?
1. Anterograde amnesia
2. Retrograde amnesia
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3. Source amnesia
4. Interference
6. What are three reasons people forget?
1. Decay, ineffective coding, interference
2. Interference, retrieval failure, overlearning
3. Overlearning, repression, deep processing
4. Retrieval failure, deep processing, decay
7. What is the idea that people forget things they don't want to remember?
1. Repression
2. Motivated forgetting
3. Psychogenic amnesia
4. All of the above
8. Which of the following is not true of forgetting?
1. Nonsensical information is forgotten faster than meaningful information
2. Processing information at a deeper level makes it less likely that it will be forgotten
3. Decay theory provides a good explanation for loss of long-term memories

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4. Information is sometimes forgotten because of interference from other information we learn
9. Most people find they have no problem riding a bicycle to classes in college even though they haven't
ridden one since they were young. What type of memory can account for this?
1. Semantic memory
2. Episodic memory
3. Procedural memory
4. Explicit memory
10. What does phonemic encoding relate to?
1. How words look
2. How words sound
3. The meaning of words
4. The color of words on a page
11. _____________ is a Neurotransmitter than stimulates the skeletal muscles and acts primarily on the
parasympathetic nervous system. It is mainly found in the brain and helps with memory.
1. Dopamine
2. Serotonin
3. Acetylcholine
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4. Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid
5. Glutamate
12. _____________ are Neurotransmitters that are involved in sleep, motor function, mood and pleasure.
Two types are Epinephrine and Norepinephrine.
1. Dopamine
2. Catecholamines
3. Serotonin
4. Acetylcholine
13. A Neurotransmitter found in the brain and ANS, known as a 'feel-good transmitter' is the
____________.
1. Dopamine
2. Catecholamines
3. Serotonin
4. Acetylcholine
5. Glutamate
14. Considered a stimulant, this Neurotransmitter is released by the mast cells as part of the inflammatory
process. It can also play a role in emotions and stimulate pain receptors.
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1. Dopamine
2. Catecholamines
3. Serotonin
4. Acetylcholine
5. Histamine
15. This Neurotransmitter usually works as an inhibitor in the CNS, and effects biological cycles, sleep, and
moods. Can also be described as a 'feel-good receptor'.
1. Dopamine
2. Catecholamines
3. Serotonin
5. Glutamate
16. The Neurotransmitter that is generally inhibitory and found in the brain is the _____________.
1. Catecholamines
2. Serotonin
3. Acetylcholine
4. Histamine
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17. This Neurotransmitter is generally excitatory and is found in the CNS, it is thought to be responsible for
as much as 75% of the excitatory signals in the brain.
1. Dopamine
2. Catecholamines
3. Acetylcholine
5. Glutamate
18. _______________ are endogenous morphines that block the brain from feeling pain and is generally
inhibitory.
1. Cholecystokinin
2. Substance P
3. Endorphins & Enkephalins
4. Somatostatin
5. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
19. ___________ is excitatory and is found in the brain, spinal cord, sensory pain pathways, and GI tract. It
transmits pain information.
1. Cholecystokinin
2. Substance P
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3. Endorphins & Enkephalins
4. Somatostatin
5. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
20. Polygraphs detect which of the following?
1. Hormone changes
2. Cognitive appraisal
3. Emotional experience
4. Autonomic arousal
21. During emotional states, epinephrine and norepinephrine are released because of activation of which of
the following?
1. Sympathetic nervous system
2. Cortex
3. Thalamus
4. Amygdala
22. What are display rules?
1. Norms that inform people about appropriate emotional expression
2. Rules that describe how polygraphs display data

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3. Norms for displaying autonomic responses during polygraph tests
4. Displays of emotion that are not really felt
23. What is the part of the limbic system involved in regulating emotion?
1. The cortex
2. The hypothalamus
3. The amygdala
4. The adrenal
24. What is the galvanic skin response?
1. An increase in the skin's electrical conductivity
2. A response that occurs when subjects secrete sweat
3. A way of measuring emotion
4. All of the above
25. Differences among emotions at the biological level are characterized by which of the following?
1. Activation of different brain areas, different cognitive appraisals, different patterns of autonomic activity
2. Different patterns of autonomic activity, different nonverbal behaviors, different neurotransmitters
3. Different neurotransmitters, different patterns of autonomic activity, activation of different brain areas
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4. Activation of different brain areas, different nonverbal behaviors, different neurotransmitters
26. If someone has intrinsic motivation to go for a jog every evening, she is most likely to jog for which
reason?
1. She likes the way she feels when she jogs
2. She wants to please her mother by losing some weight
3. She wants other people to admire her for jogging
4. All of the above
27. Which of the following is likely to be true?
1. When the level of glucose in the blood falls, people always feel hungry
2. When the level of glucose in the blood is low, whether or not people feel hungry may depend on
environmental factors
3. Blood glucose level is not related to hunger
4. When people eat, their blood glucose level falls
28. Which statement best describes the relationship between testosterone level and sex?
1. Sexual activity decreases testosterone
2. Testosterone increases sex drive
3. Testosterone increases sex drive and sexual activity increases testosterone

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4. Testosterone increases sex drive and sexual activity decreases testosterone
29. A disadvantage of incentives is that they may do which of the following?
1. Increase motivation in general
2. Decrease intrinsic motivation
3. Decrease extrinsic motivation
4. Decrease opportunities for achievement
30. What type of brain waves predominate in stage 4 sleep?
1. Delta waves
2. Alpha waves
3. Theta waves
4. Beta waves
31. What does the suprachiasmatic nucleus do?
1. Secretes melatonin, which regulates the sleep cycle
2. Is used to measure eye activity during sleep
3. Is the organ that causes dreaming
4. Regulates circadian rhythms of sleep

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32. Which of the following accurately describes people who have sleep apnea?
1. They tend to be alert during the day
2. They stop breathing periodically during the night
3. They tend to sleep very heavily at night
4. All of the above
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Physiology 1

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cell transport

1. It will not permeate the membrane

2. It can only cross the membrane through the lipid bilayer

3. It causes water to flow across the membrane

4. It is as diffusible through the membrane as water

5. It is transported across the membrane by a carrier

4. The movement of water across a plasma membrane occurs by

3. simple diffusion (osmosis).

5. Which of these statements about the facilitated diffusion of glucose is true?

3. This transport requires energy obtained from ATP.

1. the movement of Na+ out of a cell

3. the movement of K+ out of a cell

7. Red blood cells crenate in

1. They have the same osmolality.

2. They have the same osmotic pressure.

3. They are isotonic to each other.

4. All of these are true.

11. Which of these statements regarding an increase in blood osmolality is true?

1. It can occur as a result of dehydration.

2. It causes a decrease in blood osmotic pressure.

3. It is accompanied by a decrease in ADH secretion.

4. All of these are true.

12. Which of these statements about the Na+/K+ pump is true?

1. Na+ is actively transported into the cell.

2. K+is actively transported out of the cell.

4. The pumps are constantly active in all cells.

1. It uses cellular ATP.

2. It is used for cellular uptake of blood glucose.

3. It is a form of active transport.

4. None of these are true.

14. Which of these is not an example of cotransport?

2. movement of Na+ and K+ through the action of the Na+/K+ pumps

3. movement of Na+ and glucose across the kidney tubules

4. movement of Na+ into a cell while Ca2+ moves out

15. Interstitial fluid

1. is an ultrafiltrate of plasma, formed by filtration processes across the capillary wall

1. sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)

2. potassium (K+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates

3. calcium (Ca2+) and hydrogen (H+)

4. sodium (Na+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates

1. sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)

2. potassium (K+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates

3. calcium (Ca2+) and hydrogen (H+)

4. sodium (Na+), magnesium (Mg2+) and proteins and organic phosphates

18. The main property of the cell membrane is:

19. The absorption of large particles by cells is called:

20. The absorption of globules of fluid by cells is called:

1. downhill transport (transport down the concentration gradient)

2. transport not depending on the concentration gradient

3. transport against the concentration gradient

1. active transport (uphill)

2. passive transport (downhill)

2. very small molecules

3. energy that the cell provides

1. Depolarization of an axon is produced by

1. inward diffusion of Na+ .

4. inward active transport of Na+.

2. Repolarization of an axon during an action potential is produced by

1. inward diffusion of Na+ .

4. inward active transport of Na+.

3. As the strength of a depolarizing stimulus to an axon is increased,

1. the amplitude of action potentials increases.

2. the duration of action potentials increases.

3. the speed with which action potentials are conducted increases.