COMEDK 2024 Preparation Guide Ebook

COMEDK 2024
Preparation
Guide
Content
About
1. Comdek Common Entrance Test
a. Introduction
b. Exam Dates
c. Exam Pattern
d. Syllabus
2. Preparation Study Material
3. Mock Tests
a. Mock Test 1
b. Mock Test 2
c. Mock Test 3
d. Mock Test 4
e. Mock Test 5
About
Welcome to the definitive resource for mastering the Consortium of Medical, Engineering, and
Dental Colleges of Karnataka (COMEDK) in 2024. Crafted with precision and expertise, this
ebook is your companion on the journey to success in one of Karnataka's most esteemed
entrance examinations.
COMEDK serves as the gateway to prestigious undergraduate programs in various disciplines
across the Karnataka state. As the landscape of education continually evolves, staying ahead
with thorough preparation and strategic insights becomes indispensable. This guide is
meticulously curated to equip aspiring candidates like you with the tools, knowledge, and
confidence needed to excel in COMEDK 2024.
What You Will Find in the Ebook:
● Introduction: Gain a thorough understanding of COMEDK, its significance, and its role
in shaping your academic journey.
● Exam Dates: Stay updated with crucial dates and deadlines to ensure you're on track
with your preparation schedule.
● Exam Pattern: Familiarize yourself with the structure, format, and marking scheme of
COMEDK 2024 to formulate an effective exam strategy.
● Syllabus: Delve into the detailed syllabus, ensuring you cover all the essential topics
and domains as prescribed for COMEDK 2024.
● Preparation Study Material: Access curated study materials designed to cater

specifically to the syllabus and requirements of COMEDK 2024, aiding in comprehensive
preparation.
● Mock Tests: Put your knowledge to the test with a series of 5 mock tests meticulously
crafted to simulate the actual exam environment. These tests are invaluable for
assessing your progress, identifying strengths and weaknesses, and fine-tuning your
exam-taking strategy.
Embark on your COMEDK 2024 preparation journey with confidence, armed with the insights
and resources provided in this comprehensive guide. Let this ebook be your trusted companion
as you strive towards achieving your academic aspirations and unlocking the doors to a brighter
future.
Happy learning!
Warm regards,
Team Careers360
Comdek Common Entrance Test
Introduction
COMEDK, the Consortium of Medical, Engineering, and Dental Colleges of Karnataka, annually
conducts a computer-based entrance examination for admission to undergraduate courses in
engineering, medical, and dental colleges across Karnataka. The exam assesses candidates'
knowledge based on the syllabus of their 10+2 or equivalent examinations. Eligibility for the
COMEDK exam requires candidates to meet specified academic qualifications. Following
qualification, candidates attend mandatory counseling sessions where seats in colleges are
allotted based on merit and preferences. Final seat allotment is determined by both merit and
the choices made by candidates during counseling sessions.
Exam Dates
The COMDEK 2024 exam date is 12 May 2024.
Exam Pattern
COMEDK Exam Pattern 2024

Section Name No of Questions
Physics 60
Chemistry 60
Mathematics 60
Total 180
Syllabus
Units and Measurements

Motion in a Straight Line
Motion in a Plane
Laws of Motion
Work, Energy and Power
Physics
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Gravitation
Mechanical Properties of Solids
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Thermal Properties of Matter
Thermodynamics
Kinetic Theory
Oscillations
Waves
Electric Charges and Fields
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Current Electricity
Moving Charges and Magnetism
Magnetism and Matter
Electromagnetic Induction
Alternating Current
Electromagnetic Waves
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Wave Optics
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Atoms
Nuclei
Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and
Simple Circuits
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Structure of Atom
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Chemical Thermodynamics
Equilibrium
Redox Reactions
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and
Chemistry
Techniques
Hydrocarbons
Solutions
Electrochemistry
Chemical Kinetics
The d- and f-Block Elements
Coordination Compounds
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Amines
Biomolecules
Sets
Relations & Functions
Trigonometric Functions
Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Linear Inequalities
Permutations and Combinations
Binomial Theorem
Sequence and Series
Straight Lines
Conic Sections
Introduction to Three-dimensional Geometry
Limits and Derivatives
Statistics
Maths Probability
Relations and Functions
Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Matrices
Determinants
Continuity and Differentiability
Application of Derivatives
Integrals
Application of Integrals
Differential Equations
Vector Algebra
Three Dimensional Geometry
Linear Programming
Probability
Preparation Study Material
Physics
Chapter Name - Physics and Measurement

Concept Name Study link
1 Physical Quantity STUDY HERE
Fundamental And Derived Quantities And
2 Units STUDY HERE
3 System Of Unit STUDY HERE
4 Practical Units STUDY HERE
5 Dimensions Of Physical Quantities STUDY HERE
6 Dimensionless Quantities STUDY HERE
7 Applications Of Dimensional Analysis STUDY HERE
8 Significant Figures STUDY HERE
9 Errors Of Measurements STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Kinematics

1 Kinematics Terminologies STUDY HERE
2 Mathematical Tools STUDY HERE
3 Scalars And Vectors STUDY HERE
4 Vector Addition And Vector Subtraction STUDY HERE
5 Multiplication Of Vectors STUDY HERE
6 Distance And Displacement STUDY HERE
7 Speed And Velocity STUDY HERE
8 Acceleration STUDY HERE
9 Kinematics Graphs STUDY HERE
10 Equation Of Motions STUDY HERE
11 Uniform Circular Motion STUDY HERE
12 Motion Of Body Under Gravity STUDY HERE
13 Projectile Motion STUDY HERE
14 Horizontal Projectile Motion STUDY HERE
15 Equation Of Path Of A Projectile STUDY HERE
16 Projectile On An Inclined Plane STUDY HERE
17 Relative Velocity STUDY HERE
18 Boat River Problem STUDY HERE
19 Rain-man Problem STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Laws Of Motion

1 Inertia STUDY HERE
2 Forces STUDY HERE
3 Common Forces In Mechanics STUDY HERE
4 Equilibrium Of Concurrent Forces STUDY HERE
5 Newton’s First Law Of Motion STUDY HERE
6 Linear Momentum STUDY HERE
7 Newton's Laws Of Motion STUDY HERE
Acceleration Of Block On Horizontal
8 Smooth Surface STUDY HERE
Acceleration Of Block On Smooth Inclined
9 Plane STUDY HERE
10 Motion Of Bodies In Contact STUDY HERE
Motion Of Blocks When Connected With
11 String STUDY HERE
12 Motion Of Connected Blocks Over Pulley STUDY HERE
13 Incline With Mass And Pulley STUDY HERE
14 Spring Force STUDY HERE
15 Apparent Weight Of Body In A Lift STUDY HERE
16 Recoiling Of Gun STUDY HERE
17 Rocket Propulsion STUDY HERE
18 Friction STUDY HERE
19 Kinetic Friction STUDY HERE
20 Static Friction STUDY HERE
Graph Between Applied Force And The
21 Force Of Friction STUDY HERE
22 Angle Of Repose STUDY HERE
Calculation Of Necessary Force In
23 Different Conditions On Rough Surface STUDY HERE
24 Acceleration Of Block Against Friction STUDY HERE
Motion Of Two Bodies One Resting On
25 The Other STUDY HERE
26 Motion Of An Insect In The Rough Bowl STUDY HERE
Minimum Mass Hung From The String To
27 Just Start The Motion STUDY HERE
28 Maximum Length Of Hung Chain STUDY HERE
Coefficient Of Friction Between A Body
29 And Wedge STUDY HERE
30 Stopping Of Block Due To Friction STUDY HERE
31 Sticking Of A Block With Accelerated Cart STUDY HERE
32 Centripetal Force And Centrifugal Force STUDY HERE
Sticking Of Person With The Wall Of
33 Rotor STUDY HERE
34 Skidding Of Vehicle On A Level Road STUDY HERE
Skidding Of Object On A Rotating
35 Platform STUDY HERE
36 Bending A Cyclist STUDY HERE
37 Banking Of Road STUDY HERE
38 Reaction Of Road On Car STUDY HERE
Centripetal Force For Non-uniform Circular
39 Motion STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Rotational Motion

1 Rotational Motion Of Rigid Body STUDY HERE
2 Center Of Mass STUDY HERE
3 Center Of Mass Of The Uniform Rod STUDY HERE
4 Centre Of Mass Of Semicircular Ring STUDY HERE
5 Centre Of Mass Of Semicircular Disc STUDY HERE
6 Centre Of Mass Of A Triangle STUDY HERE
7 Centre Of Mass Of Hollow Hemisphere STUDY HERE
8 Centre Of Mass Of Solid Hemisphere STUDY HERE
9 Centre Of Mass Of Hollow Cone STUDY HERE
10 Centre Of Mass Of A Solid Cone STUDY HERE
11 Motion Of The Centre Of Mass STUDY HERE
Relationship Between Linear And Angular
12 Motion STUDY HERE
13 Torque STUDY HERE
14 Rotational Equilibrium STUDY HERE
15 Moment Of Inertia STUDY HERE
16 Moment Of Inertia Of A Rod STUDY HERE
17 Moment Of Inertia Of A Rectangular Plate STUDY HERE
18 Parallel And Perpendicular Axis Theorem STUDY HERE
19 Moment Of Inertia Of A Ring STUDY HERE
20 Moment Of Inertia Of A Disc STUDY HERE
21 Moment Of Inertia Of Hollow Cylinder STUDY HERE
22 Moment Of Inertia Of The Solid Cylinder STUDY HERE
23 Moment Of Inertia Of Hollow Sphere STUDY HERE
24 Moment Of Inertia Of A Solid Sphere STUDY HERE
25 Moment Of Inertia Of Solid Cone STUDY HERE
26 Angular Momentum STUDY HERE
Law Of Conservation Of Angular
27 Momentum STUDY HERE
Work, Energy And Power For Rotating
28 Body STUDY HERE
Rigid Bodies: Translational Motion And
29 Rotational Motion STUDY HERE
30 Rolling Without Slipping STUDY HERE
Rolling Without Slipping On An Inclined
31 Plane STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Gravitation
1 Newton's Law Of Gravitation STUDY HERE
2 Acceleration Due To Gravity STUDY HERE
3 Mass And Density Of Earth STUDY HERE
4 Gravitational Field Intensity STUDY HERE
5 Gravitational Potential STUDY HERE
6 Gravitational Potential Energy STUDY HERE
Relation Between Gravitational Field And
7 Potential STUDY HERE
8 Work Done Against Gravity STUDY HERE
9 Kepler’s Laws Of Planetary Motion STUDY HERE
10 Escape Velocity STUDY HERE
11 Orbital Velocity STUDY HERE
12 Orbital Velocity of Satellite STUDY HERE
13 Time Period And Energy Of A Satellite STUDY HERE
14 Geostationary And Polar Satellites STUDY HERE
15 Weightlessness STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Properties of Solids and Liquids

1 Elasticity STUDY HERE
2 Stress And Strain STUDY HERE
3 Stress Strain Relationship STUDY HERE
4 Hooke’s Law STUDY HERE
5 Work Done In Stretching A Wire STUDY HERE
Relation Between Volumetric Strain,
6 Lateral Strain And Poisson’s Ratio STUDY HERE
7 Pressure In A Fluid STUDY HERE
8 Variation Of Pressure STUDY HERE
9 Pascal's Law STUDY HERE
Variation Of Pressure In An Accelerated
10 Fluid STUDY HERE
11 Barometer And Manometer STUDY HERE
12 Archimedes Principle STUDY HERE
13 Type Of Flow STUDY HERE
14 Equation Of Continuity STUDY HERE
15 Bernoulli's Theorem STUDY HERE
16 Viscosity STUDY HERE
17 Stokes' Law And Terminal Velocity STUDY HERE
18 Surface Tension STUDY HERE
19 Surface Energy STUDY HERE
20 Excess Pressure STUDY HERE
21 Contact Angle STUDY HERE
22 Capillary Action STUDY HERE
23 Temperature And Its Scales STUDY HERE
24 Thermometer And Its Types STUDY HERE
25 Thermal Expansion STUDY HERE
26 Thermal Stress And Thermal Strain STUDY HERE
27 Thermal Expansion In Liquids And Gases STUDY HERE
28 Heat STUDY HERE
29 Change Of State STUDY HERE
30 Triple Point Of Water STUDY HERE
31 Joule's Law Of Heating STUDY HERE
32 Calorimetry Principle STUDY HERE
33 Heating Curve STUDY HERE
34 Heat Transfer STUDY HERE
35 Staedy Conduction Heat Transfer STUDY HERE
36 Law Of Thermal Conductivity STUDY HERE
37 Electrical Analogy For Thermal Conduction STUDY HERE
38 Combination Of Metallic Rods STUDY HERE
39 Heat Transfer By Convection STUDY HERE
40 Heat Transfer By Radiation STUDY HERE
41 Black Body Radiation STUDY HERE
42 Kirchhoff's Law STUDY HERE
43 Wien's Displacement Law STUDY HERE
44 Stefan Boltzmann Law STUDY HERE
45 Newton's Law Of Cooling STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Kinetic Theory of Gases

1 States Of Matter STUDY HERE
2 Kinetic Theory Of Gases Assumptions STUDY HERE
3 The Gas Laws STUDY HERE
4 Ideal Gas Equation STUDY HERE
5 Real Gas And Equation STUDY HERE
6 Pressure Of An Ideal Gas STUDY HERE
7 The Maxwell Distribution Laws STUDY HERE
8 Mean Free Path STUDY HERE
9 Degree Of Freedom STUDY HERE
10 Kinetic Energy Of Ideal Gas STUDY HERE
11 Specific Heat Of A Gas STUDY HERE
12 Mayer's Formula STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Thermodynamics

1 Introduction To Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
Thermodynamic State Variables And
2 Equation Of State STUDY HERE
3 Thermodynamic Equilibrium STUDY HERE
Heat, Internal Energy And Work -
4 Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
5 First Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
6 Isobaric Process STUDY HERE
7 Isochoric Process STUDY HERE
8 Isothermal Process STUDY HERE
9 Adiabatic Process STUDY HERE
10 Polytropic Process STUDY HERE
11 Cyclic And Non Cyclic Process STUDY HERE
12 Reversible And Irreversible Process STUDY HERE
13 Heat Engine STUDY HERE
14 Second Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
15 Entropy STUDY HERE
16 Carnot Engine STUDY HERE
17 Refrigerator Or Heat Pump STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electrostatics

1 Electric Charge STUDY HERE
2 Electric Charge And Electrification STUDY HERE
3 Coulomb's Law STUDY HERE
4 Electric Field STUDY HERE
5 Electric Field Lines STUDY HERE
Electric Field Intensity: Continuous Charge
6 Distribution STUDY HERE
7 Electric Field Due To A Uniformly Charged Ring STUDY HERE

8 Electric Field Of Charged Disk STUDY HERE
Electric Field Due To An Infinitely Long Charged
9 Wire STUDY HERE
10 Motion of charged particle in uniform electric field STUDY HERE

11 Electric Dipole STUDY HERE
12 Electric Field Of A Dipole STUDY HERE
Torque On An Electric Dipole In A Uniform Electric
13 Field STUDY HERE
14 Electric Flux STUDY HERE
15 Electric Flux Through Cone Or Disc STUDY HERE
16 Gauss Law And It's Application STUDY HERE
17 Electric Potential STUDY HERE
18 Relation Between Electric Field And Potential STUDY HERE

Electric Potential Of Uniformly Charged Ring, Rod,
19 And Disc STUDY HERE
Potential Due To Hollow Conductiong, Solid

20 Conducting, Hollow Non Conducting STUDY HERE
Electric Potential Of A Dipole And System Of
21 Charges STUDY HERE
22 Equipotential Surface STUDY HERE
23 Electrostatic Potential Energy STUDY HERE
24 Potential Energy Of A Dipole In An Electric Field STUDY HERE

25 Capacitor And Capacitance STUDY HERE
26 The Parallel Plate Capacitor STUDY HERE
27 Spherical And Cylindrical Capacitors STUDY HERE
28 Combination Of Capacitors - Parallel And Series STUDY HERE

29 Energy Stored In Capacitor STUDY HERE
30 Dielectrics STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Oscillations and Waves

1 Periodic And Oscillatory Motions STUDY HERE
Simple Harmonic Motion (S.H.M.) And Its
2 Equation STUDY HERE
Important Terms In Simple Harmonic
3 Motion STUDY HERE
Simple Harmonic Motion And Uniform
4 Circular Motion STUDY HERE
5 Composition Of Two SHM STUDY HERE
6 Energy In Simple Harmonic Motion STUDY HERE
7 Oscillations Of A Spring-mass System STUDY HERE
8 Oscillation Of Two Particle System STUDY HERE
9 Oscillation Of Pendulum STUDY HERE
10 Angular Simple Harmonic Motion STUDY HERE
11 Physical Pendulum STUDY HERE
Motion Of A Ball In Tunnel Through The
12 Earth STUDY HERE
13 Time Period Of Torsional Pendulum STUDY HERE
14 The Oscillation Of Floating Bodies STUDY HERE
15 Free, Forced And Damped Oscillation STUDY HERE
16 Wave Motion STUDY HERE
17 Types Of Wave STUDY HERE
18 Travelling Waves STUDY HERE
19 Travelling Sine Wave STUDY HERE
Relation Between Phase Difference And
20 Path Difference STUDY HERE
21 Speed Of Transverse Wave On A String STUDY HERE
22 Power Transmitted Along The String STUDY HERE
Interference And Principle Of
23 Superposition STUDY HERE
Reflection And Transmission Of Waves
24 On A String STUDY HERE
25 Standing Wave On A String STUDY HERE
26 Sonometer STUDY HERE
27 Sound Wave STUDY HERE
28 Propagation Of Sound Wave STUDY HERE
29 Displacement Wave And Pressure Wave STUDY HERE
30 Velocity Of Sound In Different Media STUDY HERE
Newton's Formula For The Velocity Of
31 Sound In Gas STUDY HERE
32 Intensity Of Sound Waves STUDY HERE
33 Sound Wave Interference STUDY HERE
34 Standing Sound Waves STUDY HERE
35 End Correction STUDY HERE
36 Resonance Column Method STUDY HERE
37 Beats STUDY HERE
38 Doppler Effect STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Current Electricity
1 Electric Current STUDY HERE
2 Current Density STUDY HERE
3 Drift Velocity STUDY HERE
4 Ohms Law STUDY HERE
5 Mobility Of Electron STUDY HERE
6 Resistance And Resistivity STUDY HERE
Change Of Resistance In Wires By
7 Stretching STUDY HERE
8 Resistor Colour Code STUDY HERE
9 Heat And Power Developed In A Resistor STUDY HERE
Resistors In Series And Parallel
10 Combinations STUDY HERE
11 Emf Of A Cell STUDY HERE
12 Internal Resistance Of A Cell STUDY HERE
13 Current Given By A Cell STUDY HERE
14 Grouping Of Cells STUDY HERE
Charging Of Battery And Discharging Of
15 Battery STUDY HERE
16 Kirchhoff First Law STUDY HERE
17 Kirchhoff's Second Law STUDY HERE
18 Galvanometer STUDY HERE
19 Ammeter STUDY HERE
20 Voltmeter STUDY HERE
21 Wheatstone's Bridge STUDY HERE
22 Meter Bridge STUDY HERE
Potentiometer - Principle And
23 Applications STUDY HERE
24 Calculation Of Resistance By Symmetry STUDY HERE
25 Charging Of Capacitor And Inductor STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
1 Biot-savart Law STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Due To Current In Straight
2 Wire STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Due To Circular Current
3 Loop STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field On The Axis Of Circular
4 Current Loop STUDY HERE
Ampere's Circuital Law And Its
5 Applications STUDY HERE
6 Solenoid STUDY HERE
7 Toroid STUDY HERE
Force On A Moving Charge In Magnetic
8 Field STUDY HERE
Motion Of A Charged Particle In Uniform
9 Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
10 Lorentz Force STUDY HERE
11 Cyclotron STUDY HERE
Force On A Conductor Carrying Current
12 In A Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Force Between Two Parallel Current
13 Carrying Conductors STUDY HERE
Torque On Current Loop And Magnetic
14 Moment Derivation STUDY HERE
Magnetic Moment Of Revolving Electron
15 And Bohr Magneton STUDY HERE
16 Moving Coil Galvanometer STUDY HERE
17 Magnetic Field Lines STUDY HERE
18 Bar Magnet As An Equivalent Solenoid STUDY HERE
19 The Dipole In A Uniform Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
20 Gauss Law Of Magnetism STUDY HERE
21 Earth's Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
22 Magnetization And Magnetic Intensity STUDY HERE
23 Magnetic Properties Of Materials STUDY HERE
24 Hysteresis Curve STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Induction And Alternating Currents

1 Magnetic Flux STUDY HERE
2 Faraday's Law Of Induction STUDY HERE
3 Lenz's Law STUDY HERE
4 Motional Electromotive Force STUDY HERE
5 Induced Electric Field STUDY HERE
6 Time Varying Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
7 Eddy Currents STUDY HERE
8 Self Inductance STUDY HERE
9 Mutual Inductance STUDY HERE
10 Energy Stored In An Inductor STUDY HERE
11 AC Generator STUDY HERE
Average And Rms Value Of Alternating
12 Current And Voltage STUDY HERE
13 AC Voltage Applied To A Resistor STUDY HERE
14 AC Voltage Applied To An Inductor STUDY HERE
15 AC Voltage Applied To A Capacitor STUDY HERE
16 Series LR Circuit STUDY HERE
17 Series RC Circuit STUDY HERE
18 Series LCR Circuit STUDY HERE
19 Resonance In Series LCR Circuit STUDY HERE
20 Quality Factor In An AC Circuit STUDY HERE
21 Power And Power Factor In AC Circuits STUDY HERE
22 LC Oscillations STUDY HERE
23 Transformers STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Waves

1 Displacement Current STUDY HERE
2 Maxwell's 4 Equations STUDY HERE
3 Nature Of Electromagnetic Waves STUDY HERE
Energy Density And Intensity Of EM
4 Waves STUDY HERE
5 Electromagnetic Spectrum STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Optics

1 Laws Of Reflection STUDY HERE
2 Reflection On A Plane Mirror STUDY HERE
3 Object And Image Velocity In Plane Mirror STUDY HERE
4 Spherical Mirrors STUDY HERE
5 Image Formation By Spherical Mirrors STUDY HERE
Spherical Mirror Formula And
6 Magnification STUDY HERE
7 Refraction Of Light STUDY HERE
8 Real Depth And Apparent Depth STUDY HERE
9 Total Internal Reflection STUDY HERE
10 Refraction Of Light Through Glass Slab STUDY HERE
Refraction And Dispersion Of Light
11 Through A Prism STUDY HERE
12 Refraction At Spherical Surface STUDY HERE
Concave And Convex Lenses - Image
13 Formation STUDY HERE
14 Lens Maker's Formula STUDY HERE
15 Power Of Lens And Mirror STUDY HERE
16 Magnification In Lenses STUDY HERE
Relation Between Object And Image
17 Velocity In Lens STUDY HERE
18 Compound Lenses STUDY HERE
19 Silvering Of Lens STUDY HERE
20 Lens Displacement Method STUDY HERE
21 Structure And Functions Of Human Eye STUDY HERE
22 Simple Microscope STUDY HERE
23 Compound Microscope STUDY HERE
24 Astronomical Telescope STUDY HERE
25 Terrestrial Telescope STUDY HERE
26 Wavefronts STUDY HERE
27 Huygens Principle STUDY HERE
Interference Of Light - Condition And
28 Types STUDY HERE
29 Young's Double Slit Experiment STUDY HERE
30 Optical Path STUDY HERE
31 Ydse With Thin Slab STUDY HERE
32 Lloyd's Mirror Experiment STUDY HERE
33 Fresnel's Biprism STUDY HERE
34 Thin Film Interference STUDY HERE
35 Diffraction Of Light STUDY HERE
36 Fraunhofer Diffraction By A Single Slit STUDY HERE
Resolving Power Of Microscope And
37 Telescope STUDY HERE
38 Polarization Of Light STUDY HERE
39 Malus's Law STUDY HERE
40 Polarization By Reflection And Brewster's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

1 Electron Emission STUDY HERE
2 Photon Theory Of Light STUDY HERE
3 The Photoelectric Effect STUDY HERE
4 Einstein's Photoelectric Equation STUDY HERE
5 Radiation Pressure STUDY HERE
Wave Nature Of Matter And De Broglie's
Chapter Name - Atoms And Nuclei
Rutherford's Atomic Model And
1 Limitations STUDY HERE
2 Bohr Model Of The Hydrogen Atom STUDY HERE
3 Energy Level - Bohr's Atomic Model STUDY HERE
4 Line Spectra Of Hydrogen Atom STUDY HERE
De-broglie's Explanation Of Bohr's
5 Second Postulate STUDY HERE
6 Effect Of Nucleus Motion On Energy STUDY HERE
7 Atomic Collision STUDY HERE
8 Nucleus Structure STUDY HERE
9 Binding Energy Per Nucleon STUDY HERE
10 Radioactive Decay STUDY HERE
11 Law Of Radioactivity Decay STUDY HERE
12 Simultaneous And Series Disintegration STUDY HERE
13 Nuclear Fission STUDY HERE
14 Nuclear Fusion STUDY HERE
15 X-rays STUDY HERE
16 Continuous X-ray STUDY HERE
17 Characteristic X-rays STUDY HERE
18 Moseley's Law STUDY HERE
19 Bragg's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electronic Devices

1 Band Theory Of Solids STUDY HERE
Types Of Semiconductor: Intrinsic And
2 Extrinsic Semiconductor STUDY HERE
3 Electric Conductivity STUDY HERE
4 Zener Diode STUDY HERE
5 Special Purpose P-N Junction Diodes STUDY HERE
6 P-N Junction STUDY HERE
Semiconductor Diode - Forward Bias And
7 Reverse Bias STUDY HERE
8 P-N Junction As A Rectifier STUDY HERE
Bipolar Junction Transistor (N-P-N And
9 P-N-P Transistor) STUDY HERE
Transistor As A Device - Switch And
10 Amplifier STUDY HERE
11 Logic Gates STUDY HERE
Chemistry
Chapter Name - Some Basic Concepts In Chemistry

1 Nature and Characteristics of Matter STUDY HERE
Properties of Matter and Their
2 Measurement STUDY HERE
3 Uncertainty In Measurement STUDY HERE
Laws Of Chemical Combination For
4 Elements And Compounds STUDY HERE
5 DALTON'S ATOMIC THEORY STUDY HERE
6 Atomic Mass And Molecular Mass STUDY HERE
7 Mole Concept Basic STUDY HERE
8 Percent Composition Formula STUDY HERE
9 Empirical and Molecular Formula STUDY HERE
10 Stoichiometric Calculations STUDY HERE
11 Gravimetric Analysis STUDY HERE
12 Molarity And Mole Fraction STUDY HERE
13 Law of Equivalence STUDY HERE
14 Oleum and its % labeling STUDY HERE
Some Basic Concept in Chemistry
15 Formula STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Atomic Structure

1 Thomson atomic model STUDY HERE
Rutherford atomic model and its
2 limitations STUDY HERE
Atomic Number(Z), Mass number(A),
3 Isotopes and Isobars STUDY HERE
4 Electromagnetic radiation STUDY HERE
5 Planck's quantum theory STUDY HERE
6 Photoelectric effect STUDY HERE
7 Hydrogen Spectrum STUDY HERE
8 Bohr's Model Of An Atom STUDY HERE
9 Zeeman and Stark's effect. STUDY HERE
10 De Broglie Relationship STUDY HERE
11 Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle STUDY HERE
Frequency, Time Period and Angular
12 Frequency STUDY HERE
13 Quantum Numbers STUDY HERE
14 Shape of Orbitals STUDY HERE
15 Radial nodes and planar nodes STUDY HERE
Hund's Rule, Pauli Exclusion Principle,
16 and the Aufbau Principle STUDY HERE
17 Electronic Configuration of Elements STUDY HERE
Stability Of Orbitals: Half-Filled And
18 Completely-Filled STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Classification Of Elements And Periodic Table

1 Development Of Modern Periodic Table STUDY HERE
2 Mendeleev’s Periodic table STUDY HERE
3 Modern periodic table STUDY HERE
Electronic Configuration in Periods and
4 Groups STUDY HERE
Nomenclature Of Elements With Atomic
5 Number STUDY HERE
Classification of Elements and Periodicity
6 in Properties STUDY HERE
7 Metals, Non-metals and Metalloids STUDY HERE
8 Atomic Size & Atomic Radius STUDY HERE
9 Ionisation Enthalpy STUDY HERE
10 Electron Gain Enthalpy STUDY HERE
11 Electronegativity STUDY HERE
Physical and chemical properties of
12 elements STUDY HERE
13 Modern periodic table trend STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

1 Chemical Bonding STUDY HERE
2 Lewis Electron Dot Structures STUDY HERE
3 Formal Charge And Its Properties STUDY HERE
4 Limitations of The Octet Rule STUDY HERE
5 Ionic Bond or Electrovalent Bond STUDY HERE
6 Lattice Energy STUDY HERE
Bond Parameters - Bond Order, Angle,
7 Length, and Energy STUDY HERE
8 Dragos Rule STUDY HERE
9 Resonance Structures STUDY HERE
10 Fajan’s Rule STUDY HERE
11 Valence Bond Theory STUDY HERE
12 Pi Bonds STUDY HERE
13 Hybridisation STUDY HERE
14 VSEPR Theory STUDY HERE
15 Molecular geometry STUDY HERE
16 Molecular Orbital Theory STUDY HERE
17 Energy Level Diagram STUDY HERE
18 Dipole Moment STUDY HERE
19 Ionic Bond - Partially Covalent in Nature STUDY HERE
20 Van Der Waals Forces STUDY HERE
21 Hydrogen Bonding STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Chemical Thermodynamics

1 Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
2 Thermodynamic Property STUDY HERE
3 State Functions STUDY HERE
Reversible, Irreversible, Polytropic
4 Process STUDY HERE
5 Zeroth Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
Introduction To Heat, Internal Energy And
6 Work STUDY HERE
7 Isothermal Expansion of an Ideal Gas STUDY HERE
Graphical Comparison of Thermodynamic
8 Processes STUDY HERE
Heat Capacity - Relationship between Cp
9 and Cv STUDY HERE
10 Thermochemistry STUDY HERE
11 Enthalpy Change STUDY HERE
Standard Enthalpy Of Formation,
12 Combustion And Bond Dissociation STUDY HERE
Lattice Enthalpy, Hydration Enthalpy And
13 Enthalpy Of Solution STUDY HERE
Enthalpy of Neutralization of Strong Acid
14 and Strong Base STUDY HERE
15 Ionization And Electron Gain Enthalpy STUDY HERE
16 Resonance Energy STUDY HERE
17 Kirchoff’s Equation STUDY HERE
18 Hess’s Law STUDY HERE
19 Born Habers Cycle STUDY HERE
20 Bomb Calorimeter STUDY HERE
21 Entropy Change STUDY HERE
22 Spontaneity in Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
Gibbs Energy Change And Criteria For
23 Equilibrium STUDY HERE
24 Third Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
25 Chemical thermodynamics formula STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Equilibrium

1 Equilibrium STUDY HERE
2 Law Of Mass Action STUDY HERE
3 Equilibrium Constant STUDY HERE
4 Relation between Kp and Kc STUDY HERE
5 Degree of Dissociation STUDY HERE
6 Le Chatelier's Principles on Equilibrium STUDY HERE
7 Ionic Equilibrium STUDY HERE
Bronsted Lowry and Lewis Acid-Base
8 theory STUDY HERE
9 Ionization Of Acids And Bases STUDY HERE
10 Ka and Kb Relationship STUDY HERE
11 pH Of Acids And Bases STUDY HERE
12 Common ion effect STUDY HERE
13 Buffer Solution STUDY HERE
14 Salt Hydrolysis STUDY HERE
15 Solubility and Solubility Product STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Redox Reaction and Electrochemistry
1 Oxidation Number STUDY HERE
2 Redox Reactions STUDY HERE
3 Displacement Reaction STUDY HERE
4 Electrochemistry STUDY HERE
5 Electrochemical Series STUDY HERE
6 Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis STUDY HERE
7 Galvanic Cells STUDY HERE
8 Salt Bridge STUDY HERE
9 Standard Hydrogen Electrode STUDY HERE
10 Gibbs Free Energy of Reaction STUDY HERE
11 Nernst Equation STUDY HERE
12 Concentration Cells STUDY HERE
13 Molar Conductivity STUDY HERE
14 Kohlrausch's Law STUDY HERE
Types Of Battery - Primary cell &
15 Secondary cell STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Solutions

1 Types of Solutions STUDY HERE
2 Expression of Concentration of Solutions STUDY HERE
3 Vapour Pressure of solutions STUDY HERE
4 Ideal Solution STUDY HERE
5 Raoult’s Law STUDY HERE
6 Azeotropic Mixture STUDY HERE
7 Elevation in Boiling Point STUDY HERE
8 Depression in Freezing Point STUDY HERE
9 Osmotic Pressure STUDY HERE
10 Reverse Osmosis STUDY HERE
11 Isotonic, Hypertonic, Hypotonic Solution STUDY HERE
Van't Hoff Factor and Abnormal Molar
12 Mass STUDY HERE
13 Solubility and Henry's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Chemical Kinetics

1 Rate of Reaction STUDY HERE
2 Rate Law STUDY HERE
3 Order of Reaction STUDY HERE
4 Zero Order Reaction STUDY HERE
5 First Order Reaction STUDY HERE
6 Second Order Reaction STUDY HERE
7 nth Order Reaction STUDY HERE
8 Methods of Determining Reaction Order STUDY HERE
9 Molecularity of reaction STUDY HERE
10 Pseudo First Order Reaction STUDY HERE
11 Elementary and Complex Reactions STUDY HERE
12 Arrhenius Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - The d- and f-Block Elements

1 Transition Elements STUDY HERE
2 Colour Of Transition Elements STUDY HERE
3 Properties Of Interstitial Compounds STUDY HERE
4 KMnO4 - Potassium Permanganate STUDY HERE
5 Potassium Dichromate - K2Cr2O7 STUDY HERE
6 F Block Elements STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Coordination Compounds

1 Coordination Compounds STUDY HERE
2 Werner's Theory STUDY HERE
Valence Bond Theory of Coordination
3 Compounds STUDY HERE
4 Crystal Field Theory (CFT) STUDY HERE
Factors Affecting the Stability of
5 Complexes STUDY HERE
6 Isomerism in Coordination Complexes STUDY HERE
7 Organometallic Compounds STUDY HERE
8 Pi - Complex STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Some Basic Principles Of Organic Chemistry

Organic Compounds - Classification Of
1 Organic Compounds STUDY HERE
2 Functional Groups STUDY HERE
3 Homologous Series STUDY HERE
IUPAC Nomenclature of Organic
4 Chemistry STUDY HERE
5 Isomerism STUDY HERE
6 Organic Chemistry STUDY HERE
7 Carbocations STUDY HERE
8 Carbanions STUDY HERE
9 Alkyl Free Radicals STUDY HERE
10 Nucleophiles and Electrophiles STUDY HERE
11 Inductive Effect STUDY HERE
12 Electromeric Effect STUDY HERE
13 Mesomeric or Resonance Effect STUDY HERE
14 Hyperconjugation STUDY HERE
15 Tautomerism STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Hydrocarbons
1 IUPAC Nomenclature of Alkanes STUDY HERE
2 Adsorption and Degree of Unsaturation STUDY HERE
3 Preparation of Alkanes STUDY HERE
4 Physical Properties of Alkanes STUDY HERE
5 Chemical Properties of Alkanes STUDY HERE
Conformation, Sawhorse and Newman
6 Projections STUDY HERE
7 Nomenclature and Isomerism of Alkenes STUDY HERE
8 Preparation of Alkenes STUDY HERE
9 Chemical Properties of Alkenes STUDY HERE
10 Hydroboration and Oxidation STUDY HERE
11 Preparation of Alkynes STUDY HERE
12 Chemical Properties of Alkynes STUDY HERE
13 Aromaticity STUDY HERE
14 Reaction of Aromatic Compounds STUDY HERE
15 Electrophilic Substitution Reaction STUDY HERE
16 Friedel-Crafts Reaction STUDY HERE
Benzene Reactions - Sulfonation,
17 Nitration and Halogenation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Halogens

1 Alkyl Halides STUDY HERE
Physical & Chemical Properties of
2 Haloalkanes STUDY HERE
3 Haloarene STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Oxygen

1 Preparation of Alcohols STUDY HERE
Physical and Chemical Properties of
2 Alcohols STUDY HERE
3 Preparation of Phenols STUDY HERE
Physical and Chemical Properties of
4 Phenols STUDY HERE
5 Williamson's Ether Synthesis STUDY HERE
Methods of Preparation of Aldehydes and
6 Ketones STUDY HERE
7 Reaction of Aldehydes and Ketones STUDY HERE
8 Carboxylic Acids STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

1 Preparation of Amines STUDY HERE
2 Test for Amines STUDY HERE
3 Basicity of Amines STUDY HERE
4 Azo-Coupling Reaction STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Biomolecules

Classification of Carbohydrates and its
1 Structure STUDY HERE
2 Tests for Carbohydrates STUDY HERE
3 Properties of Glucose STUDY HERE
4 Amino Acids STUDY HERE
5 Proteins STUDY HERE
6 Enzymes STUDY HERE
7 Vitamins STUDY HERE
Maths
Chapter Name - Sets, Relations and Functions

1 Sets, Roster and Set Builder form of Sets STUDY HERE
2 Equal and Equivalent Sets STUDY HERE
Subsets, Proper Subset, Improper
3 Subset, Intervals STUDY HERE
4 Finite set, Infinite set, Singleton set STUDY HERE
5 Power set, Universal set STUDY HERE
6 Union of sets, Properties of union STUDY HERE
Intersection of Set, Properties of
7 Intersection STUDY HERE
8 Difference of set STUDY HERE
Complement of a set, Law of
9 Complement, Property of Complement STUDY HERE
10 Cardinal number of some sets STUDY HERE
11 De-Morgan's Laws STUDY HERE
Ordered pair, Cartesian product of two
12 sets STUDY HERE
13 Relation, Number of relation STUDY HERE
14 Domain, Range of Relation STUDY HERE
15 Relation, and its types STUDY HERE
16 Functions, Image and Pre-image STUDY HERE
Domain of function, Co-domain, Range of
17 function STUDY HERE
18 Inequalities STUDY HERE
19 Transcendental function STUDY HERE
20 Logarithmic Inequalities STUDY HERE
21 Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
22 Inverse Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
23 Modulus Function, Properties of Modulus STUDY HERE

Function
24 Algebraic function STUDY HERE
25 Piecewise function STUDY HERE
26 One to One Function STUDY HERE
27 Many One Function STUDY HERE
28 Onto Function or Surjective STUDY HERE
29 Into Function and Bijective function STUDY HERE
Composition of function: Conditions and
30 Properties STUDY HERE
31 Inverse of a function STUDY HERE
32 Even and Odd Function STUDY HERE
33 Periodic Functions STUDY HERE
34 Vertical and Horizontal Transformation STUDY HERE
35 Transformations of Functions STUDY HERE
f(x) = min{g1(x), g2(x).......... } or
36 max{g1(x), g2(x).......... } STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations

1 Powers of Iota STUDY HERE
2 Complex number STUDY HERE
3 Algebraic operation on Complex Numbers STUDY HERE

4 Multiplication of Complex Numbers STUDY HERE
5 Conjugates of Complex Numbers STUDY HERE
Modulus of complex number and its
6 Properties STUDY HERE
7 Argument of complex number STUDY HERE
8 Polar form of complex numbers STUDY HERE
9 Euler form of complex number STUDY HERE
10 Square root of complex numbers STUDY HERE
11 De-moivre’s theorem STUDY HERE
12 Cube roots of unity STUDY HERE
13 nth root of unity STUDY HERE
14 Rotation Of Complex Numbers STUDY HERE
Distance formula and Equation of
15 perpendicular bisector STUDY HERE
16 Quadratic Equation STUDY HERE
Nature Of Roots Depending Upon
17 Coefficients And Discriminant STUDY HERE
18 Transformation of Quadratic Equations STUDY HERE
19 Condition for common roots STUDY HERE
Graphical Representation of Quadratic
21 Sign of Quadratic Expression STUDY HERE
22 Quadratic Inequalities STUDY HERE
23 Quadratic Equation in two Variables STUDY HERE
24 Location of Roots STUDY HERE
25 Remainder Theorem STUDY HERE
26 Rational Inequalities Calculator STUDY HERE
27 Irrational equations and Inequalities STUDY HERE
28 Exponential Equations In Quadratic Form STUDY HERE
29 Logarithmic Equations in Quadratic form STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Trigonometry

1 Measuring Angles STUDY HERE
2 Trigonometric Ratios STUDY HERE
3 Trigonometric Identities STUDY HERE
4 Sign of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Graphs of General Trigonometric
5 Functions STUDY HERE
6 Trigonometric Ratios of Allied Angles STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Compound
7 Angles STUDY HERE
Sum-to-Product and Product-to-Sum
8 Formulas STUDY HERE
9 Product To Sum Formulas STUDY HERE
10 Double Angle Formulas STUDY HERE
11 Triple Angle Identities STUDY HERE
12 Half Angle Formula STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratio of Submultiple of an
13 Angle STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Some Specific
14 Angles STUDY HERE
15 Summation Of Series In Trigonometry STUDY HERE
16 Conditional Trigonometric Identities STUDY HERE
Maximum and Minimum value of
17 Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
General Solution of Trigonometric
18 Equations STUDY HERE
19 Simultaneous Trigonometric Equations STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Equation using Minimum
20 and Maximum value of Function STUDY HERE
21 Trigonometric Inequality STUDY HERE
22 Law of Sines STUDY HERE
23 Law of Cosines STUDY HERE
24 Law Of Tangents STUDY HERE
25 Projection Formula STUDY HERE
26 Semiperimeter and Half Angle Formulae STUDY HERE
27 Area of Triangle STUDY HERE
28 Circumcircle of a Triangle STUDY HERE
29 In-Circle and In-Centre STUDY HERE
30 Escribed Circle of Triangle STUDY HERE
31 Important Solutions of Triangle Formulas STUDY HERE
32 Height and Distance STUDY HERE
33 Inverse Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Domain and Range of Trigonometric
34 Functions STUDY HERE
35 Inverse Functions STUDY HERE
36 Graph of Inverse Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary
37 Angles STUDY HERE
Sum and difference of angles in terms of
38 arctan STUDY HERE
39 Multiple Angles STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Matrices and Determinants

1 Determine The Order Of Matrix STUDY HERE
2 Types of Matrices STUDY HERE
Triangular matrix (Upper and Lower
3 triangular matrix) STUDY HERE
4 Matrix operations STUDY HERE
5 Matrix Multiplication STUDY HERE
6 Transpose of a Matrix STUDY HERE
Symmetric Matrix & Skew Symmetric
7 Matrix STUDY HERE
8 Conjugate of a Matrix STUDY HERE
9 Hermitian matrix STUDY HERE
10 Skew Hermitian Matrix STUDY HERE
11 Trace of a matrix and properties STUDY HERE
Orthogonal matrix and Unitary matrix and
12 Idempotent matrix STUDY HERE
Periodic matrix and Nilpotent matrix and
13 involutory matrix STUDY HERE
14 Elementary row operations STUDY HERE
15 Singular Matrix STUDY HERE
16 Minors And Cofactors STUDY HERE
17 Adjoint and Inverse of a Matrix STUDY HERE
18 Inverse Matrix STUDY HERE
19 Multiplication of Two Determinants STUDY HERE
20 Properties of Determinants STUDY HERE
21 System of Linear Equations STUDY HERE
22 Cramer’s Rule STUDY HERE
Homogeneous System of Linear
24 Solving Linear Equations Using Matrix STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Sequence and Series

1 Sequence And Series STUDY HERE
2 Arithmetic Progression STUDY HERE
3 Sum of n Terms of an AP STUDY HERE
4 Arithmetic Mean in AP STUDY HERE
5 Geometric Progression STUDY HERE
6 Geometric Mean In GP STUDY HERE
7 Sum To n Terms Of a GP STUDY HERE
8 Harmonic Progression STUDY HERE
9 Harmonic Mean in HP STUDY HERE
10 Relation between A.M., G.M. and H.M. STUDY HERE
11 Arithmetico Geometric Series STUDY HERE
Sum of an Infinite Arithmetic Geometric
12 Series STUDY HERE
13 SUMMATION FORMULA STUDY HERE
14 Sum of Common Series STUDY HERE
If the differences of successive terms of a
15 series are in A.P.and G.P STUDY HERE
16 Method of Difference STUDY HERE
17 Sum to n Terms of Special Series STUDY HERE
18 Application of AM-GM Inequality STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Co-ordinate geometry

1 Coordinate Axes STUDY HERE
2 Distance Between Two Points Formula STUDY HERE
3 Section Formula & Conic Sections STUDY HERE
Centroid, Incentre and Circumcentre and
4 Orthocentre of a Triangle STUDY HERE
5 Incentre STUDY HERE
6 Circumcentre and Orthocentre STUDY HERE
7 Excenters of Triangle STUDY HERE
8 Area of Triangle in Coordinate Geometry STUDY HERE
9 Locus STUDY HERE
10 Transformations of Axes STUDY HERE
11 Rotation of Axes About Origin STUDY HERE
12 Straight Lines STUDY HERE
13 Equation of Straight Line STUDY HERE
14 Angle Between Two Lines STUDY HERE
Position of two points with respect to a
15 line STUDY HERE
16 Parallel and Perpendicular Lines STUDY HERE
17 Distance of a Point From a Line STUDY HERE
18 Point of Intersection Formula STUDY HERE
19 Family of Lines STUDY HERE
20 Line Equally Inclined with two lines STUDY HERE
21 Equation of the Bisectors STUDY HERE
22 Foot of Perpendicular and Image STUDY HERE
23 Pair of Straight Line STUDY HERE
Homogeneous Equations in Two
24 Variables STUDY HERE
25 Circle STUDY HERE
26 Explain parametric equation of a circle. STUDY HERE
Locus of Mid Point of the Chord of the
27 Circle STUDY HERE
28 Diametric Form of a Circle STUDY HERE
29 Intercepts Made by Circle on the Axis STUDY HERE
30 Position of a Point With Respect to Circle STUDY HERE
31 Line and Circle STUDY HERE
32 Length of Intercept Cut-Off from a line STUDY HERE
Equation of the Tangent and Normal to
33 the Circle STUDY HERE
34 Power of a point wrt Circle STUDY HERE
35 Chord of Contact STUDY HERE
36 Pair of Tangent STUDY HERE
37 Director Circle STUDY HERE
38 Diameter Of A Circle STUDY HERE
39 Intersection of Two Circle STUDY HERE
40 Common Chord of two Circles STUDY HERE
41 Family of Circles STUDY HERE
42 Angle of Intersection of Two Circle STUDY HERE
43 Radical Axis STUDY HERE
44 Conic Sections STUDY HERE
45 Parabola STUDY HERE
Equation of parabola when equation of axis
and tangent at vertex and latusrectum are
46 given STUDY HERE
47 Position of a Point with Respect to a Parabola STUDY HERE
48 Line and a Parabola STUDY HERE
49 Tangent to a Parabola STUDY HERE
Normal in point and Parametric and Slope
50 form of parabola STUDY HERE
51 Normal at t1 meets the parabola again at t2 STUDY HERE
52 Co-normal Points STUDY HERE
53 Chord of Contact and Diameter of Parabola STUDY HERE
54 Subtangent and Subnormal STUDY HERE
55 Some Standard Property of Parabola STUDY HERE
56 Ellipse STUDY HERE
57 Latus Rectum STUDY HERE
58 Parametric equation of Ellipse STUDY HERE
59 Horizontal and Vertical Ellipse STUDY HERE
60 Position of a point with respect to Ellipse STUDY HERE
61 Line and the Ellipse STUDY HERE
62 Equation of Tangent to Ellipse STUDY HERE
Equation of Normal in Point Form and
63 Parametric Form STUDY HERE
64 Diameter of Ellipse STUDY HERE
65 Director Circle of Ellipse STUDY HERE
Length of sub-Tangent and Sub-Normal of an
66 Ellipse STUDY HERE
67 Hyperbola STUDY HERE
68 Position of a point with respect to Hyperbola STUDY HERE
69 Line and the Hyperbola STUDY HERE
70 Tangents to Hyperbolas STUDY HERE
Equation of Normal of Hyperbola in Point
71 ,Parametric Form STUDY HERE
72 Director Circle of Hyperbola STUDY HERE
73 Asymptotes of Hyperbolas STUDY HERE
74 Rectangular Hyperbola STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Limit , Continuity and Differentiability

1 Limit STUDY HERE
2 Left-Hand Limits and Right-Hand Limits STUDY HERE
3 Algebra of Limits STUDY HERE
Limit of Indeterminate Form and Algebraic
4 limit STUDY HERE
5 Limit of Algebraic function STUDY HERE
6 Limit Using Expansion STUDY HERE
7 Sandwich Theorem STUDY HERE
8 Limits of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
9 Exponential and Logarithmic Limits STUDY HERE
10 Limits of the form (1 power infinity) STUDY HERE
11 L’ Hospital’s Rule STUDY HERE
Limit of the form (0 power 0 or infinity
12 power 0) STUDY HERE
13 Differentiation STUDY HERE
Derivative of Polynomials and
14 Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
15 Differentiation Rules STUDY HERE
16 Differentiation of Implicit Function STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Function in Parametric
17 Form STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Inverse Trigonometric
18 Function (cos/sine/tan) STUDY HERE
19 Differentiation Using Logarithm STUDY HERE
Differentiation of a Function wrt Another
Function and Higher Order derivative of a
20 Function STUDY HERE
21 Differentiation of Determinants STUDY HERE
22 Differentiation of Function and Relation STUDY HERE
23 Differentiation of Inverse Function STUDY HERE
24 Continuity and Discontinuity STUDY HERE
Directional Continuity and Continuity over
25 an Interval STUDY HERE
Non - Removable, Infinite and Oscillatory
26 Type Discontinuity STUDY HERE
Continuity and Discontinuity obtained by
27 Algebraic Operations STUDY HERE
28 Continuity of Composite Function STUDY HERE
29 The Intermediate Value Theorem STUDY HERE
Differentiability and Existence of
30 Derivative STUDY HERE
Examining differentiability Using Graph of
31 Function STUDY HERE
32 Continuity And Differentiability STUDY HERE
33 Differentiability of Composite Function STUDY HERE
34 Derivative as Rate Measure STUDY HERE
Approximations and Errors using
35 Derivatives STUDY HERE
36 Tangent to the Curve at a Point STUDY HERE
37 Angle of Intersection between Two Curves STUDY HERE
Length of Tangent and Normal and
38 Subtangent and subnormal STUDY HERE
39 Rolle’s Theorem STUDY HERE
40 Monotonicity and Extremum of Functions STUDY HERE
41 Inflection Point STUDY HERE
42 Maxima and Minima in Calculus STUDY HERE
43 First Derivative Test STUDY HERE
44 Application of Monotonicity STUDY HERE
45 Nature of Roots of Cubic Polynomial STUDY HERE
Application of Extremum in Plane Geometry
46 and Solid geometry STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Integral Calculus

Integration as an Inverse Process of
1 Differentiation STUDY HERE
2 Integration of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
3 Integration by Substitution STUDY HERE
Fundamental Formulae of Indefinite
Integration (Inverse Trigonometric
4 Functions) STUDY HERE
5 Integrals of Particular Function STUDY HERE
6 Trigonometric Integrals STUDY HERE
7 Integration By Parts Formula STUDY HERE
8 Integration Using Partial Fraction STUDY HERE
9 Integration of Irrational Algebraic Function STUDY HERE
10 Reduction Formula STUDY HERE
11 Indirect Substitution in Integral STUDY HERE
12 Definite Integral - Calculus STUDY HERE
13 Definite integral as the limit of a sum STUDY HERE
Evaluation of Definite Integrals by
14 Substitution STUDY HERE
15 Properties of the Definite Integral STUDY HERE
16 Piecewise Definite integration STUDY HERE
Application of Even- Odd Properties in
17 Definite Integration STUDY HERE
18 Newton-Leibnitz's Formula STUDY HERE
Application of Inequality in Definite
19 Integration STUDY HERE
20 Area Between Two Curves - Calculus STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Differential Equations

1 Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Formation of Differential Equation and
2 Solutions of a Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Differential equations with variables
3 separable STUDY HERE
4 Homogeneous Differential Equation STUDY HERE
5 Linear Differential Equation STUDY HERE
6 Bernoulli’s Equation STUDY HERE
7 Orthogonal Trajectory STUDY HERE
8 Exact Differential Equation STUDY HERE
9 Application of Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Vector Algebra

1 3D Geometry STUDY HERE
2 Vectors and Scalars STUDY HERE
3 Vectors Joining Two Points STUDY HERE
4 Types Of Vectors STUDY HERE
Direction Cosines & Direction Ratios Of A
5 Line STUDY HERE
6 Vector Addition and Subtraction STUDY HERE
Multiplication Of Vectors And Scalar
7 Quantity STUDY HERE
8 Section Formula STUDY HERE
9 Linear Combination of Vectors STUDY HERE
10 Dot Product Of Two Vectors STUDY HERE
Finding Components of a vector Along
11 and Perpendicular to another Vector STUDY HERE
12 Cross product STUDY HERE
Geometrical Interpretation of Product of
13 Vectors STUDY HERE
14 Scalar Triple Product of Vectors STUDY HERE
15 Proof of the Vector Triple Product STUDY HERE
16 Lagrange's Identity STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Three Dimensional Geometry

1 Equation Of A Line In Three Dimensions STUDY HERE
2 Image of a Point in the given Line STUDY HERE
3 Shortest Distance between Two Lines STUDY HERE
4 Equation of A Plane In The Normal Form STUDY HERE
Equation of a plane perpendicular to a
given vector and passing through a given
5 point STUDY HERE
Equation of a plane passing through three
6 non collinear point STUDY HERE
Equation of a Plane Passing Through a
Given Point and Parallel to Two Given
7 Vectors STUDY HERE
Angle Between Two PlanesAngle
8 Between Two Planes - Planes & Angles STUDY HERE
9 Family of Plane STUDY HERE
Perpendicular Distance Of A Point From
10 A Plane STUDY HERE
11 Image of a Point in the Plane STUDY HERE
12 Two Sides of a Plane STUDY HERE
Equation of The Plane Bisecting the
13 Angle Between Two Planes STUDY HERE
Line of Intersection of Two Plane and
14 Angle Between a Line and a Plane STUDY HERE
15 Coplanarity of Two Lines STUDY HERE
16 Equation of Sphere STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Permutations and Combinations

Introduction Permutation and
1 Combination STUDY HERE
2 Fundamental Principle Of Counting STUDY HERE
3 Permutation STUDY HERE
Permutation Of Objects When Few Are
4 Identical STUDY HERE
5 Applications Of Permutation STUDY HERE
6 Geometrical Permutations STUDY HERE
7 Rank Of A Word In A Dictionary STUDY HERE
8 Introduction Of Combinations STUDY HERE
9 Applications Of Selections STUDY HERE
10 Selection Of Any Number Of Objects STUDY HERE
11 Formation of Groups STUDY HERE
Finding Number Of Solutions Of
13 Distribution Of Things STUDY HERE
14 Derangement STUDY HERE
15 Permutation Vs Combination STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Statistics and Probability

1 Introduction STUDY HERE
2 Representation of Data STUDY HERE
3 Central Tendency STUDY HERE
4 Measures of Dispersion STUDY HERE
Dispersion (Variance and Standard
5 Deviation) STUDY HERE
6 Coefficients of Dispersion STUDY HERE
Some Important Point Regarding
7 Statistics STUDY HERE
Important Terminologies and Definitions
8 of Probability STUDY HERE
9 Algebra of Events STUDY HERE
10 Basic Probability Practise Session STUDY HERE
11 Set Theoretical Notations of Probability STUDY HERE
12 Conditional Probability STUDY HERE
13 Multiplication Theorem on Probability STUDY HERE
14 Independent Event STUDY HERE
Total Probability Theorem and Bayes'
15 Theorem STUDY HERE
Random Variables and its Probability
16 Distributions STUDY HERE
17 Bernoulli Trials and Binomial Distribution STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Binomial Theorem and its Simple Applications

Binomial Theorem - Formula, Expansion,
1 Problems and Applications STUDY HERE
2 Some Standard Expansions STUDY HERE
3 General and Middle Terms STUDY HERE
4 Greatest Term (numerically) STUDY HERE
5 An Important Theorem STUDY HERE
6 Problems on Divisibility STUDY HERE
7 Finding last digits STUDY HERE
8 Important Result (Comparison) STUDY HERE
9 Multinomial Theorem STUDY HERE
10 Series Involving Binomial Coefficients STUDY HERE
Differentiation form of Binomial
11 Coefficients STUDY HERE
12 Use of Integration in Binomial STUDY HERE
13 Product of two Binomial Coefficients STUDY HERE
14 Binomial Inside Binomial STUDY HERE
15 Binomial Theorem for any Index STUDY HERE
Important Results of Binomial Theorem
16 for any Index STUDY HERE
Mock Test 1
Physics
Q. 1 In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength the separation of slits is d and
distance of screen is D such that D > > d > > . If the Fringe width is , the distance from
point of maximum intensity to the point where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity
on either side is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Malus Law -
angle made by E vector with transmission axis.
- wherein
Intensity of transmitted light after polarisation .
Intensity of incident light.
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
Here
so
(i)
(ii)
Therefore, from equation (i) and (ii)
Correct option is 2.
Q. 2 Using monochromatic light of wavelength , an experimentalist sets up the Young’s double
slit experiment in three ways as shown.
If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :
Option 1:
520 nm
Option 2:
540 nm
Option 3:
560 nm
Option 4:
580 nm
Correct Answer:
540 nm
Solution:
Given
Now
Q. 3 A ray of light is incident from a denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle for total internal
reflection is and the Brewster’s angle of incidence is , such that
. The relative refractive index of the two media is :
Option 1:
0.2
Option 2:
0.4
Option 3:
0.8
Option 4:
0.9
Correct Answer:
0.8
Solution:
= refractive index of the rarer medium.
= refractive index of the rarer medium.
In the case of Brewster’s angle
From Brew's law:
or
Q. 4 An object is at a distance of 10 cm from a mirror and the image of the object is at a distance
of 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object. Then nature of the mirror and its
focal length is:
Option 1:
Convex, 15cm
Option 2:
Concave, 1.5cm
Option 3:
Convex, 7.5cm
Option 4:
Concave, 7.5cm
Correct Answer:
Concave, 7.5cm
Solution:
As we learn
Sign Convention -
1) All distance are measured from pole.
2) Distance measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive.
3) Distance measured in the direction opposite to that of incident rays are taken as negative.
4) Distance above the principal axis as positive and below the principal axis as negative.
u = -10 cm
v = - 30cm from sign convention
from mirror formula
f = -7.5 cm
since focal length is negative hence its mirror concave

Q. 5 A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of refractive index at an angle of incidence
600 as shown the total deviation after two refraction is
Option 1:
300
Option 2:
450
Option 3:
750
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
600
Solution:
At point A:
from symmetry
Apply snell's law at B
total deviation =600
Q. 6 A right angled prism of apex angle 40 and r. i. 1.5 is located in front of vertical plane mirror
as shown in fig.A horizontal ray of light is falling on the prism. Find the total deviation
produced in the light ray at it emerges second time from the prism:
Option 1:
80 cw
Option 2:
60 cw
Option 3:
1800 cw
Option 4:
1760 cw
Correct Answer:
1760 cw
Solution:
As we learn
Deviation from thin prism -

- wherein
Applicable when A is very small
( i.e. thin prism )
Deviation produced by prism is
Angle of incidence of mirror is , so deviation produced by mirror is
deviation produced by the prism for second refraction is
Net deviation is 1760 cw
Q. 7 The focal length of the objective and the eyepiece of compound microscope are 2cm and 3cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and eyepiece is 15 cm. The final image formed by
eyepiece is at infinity the distance (in cm) of the object and image produced by the objective,
measured from the objective lens are respectively.
Option 1:
2.4 and 12
Option 2:
2.4 and 15
Option 3:
2.3 and 3
Option 4:
2.3 and 12
Correct Answer:
2.4 and 12
Solution:
As we learnt
Length of compound microscope -

Image distance from objective.
Object distance from eyepiece
= 2 cm = 3cm
l = 15cm
Final image formed at infinity hence image formed by objective is at focal point of eyepiece
For objective:
or
or,
Q. 8 Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are
three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the
dimension of length?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
To convert a physical quantity from one system to other -
- wherein
As a research tool to derive new relation -
Use the method of dimensional analysis between the quantities can be derived
Let Length
Comparing Power of both sides

Q. 9
A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and is (c
is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Time period of a simple pendulam -
Equating exponents of similar quantities
a=0 b=1/2 c=-1/2
- wherein
on comparing both sides we get
Q. 10 If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two
vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
Option 1:
0o
Option 2:
90o
Option 3:
45o
Option 4:
180o
Correct Answer:
90o
Solution:
As we learnt in
Parallelogram law of vector Addition -
If two vector are represented by both magnitude and direction by two adjacent side of parallelogram taken from
same point then their resultant is also represented by both magnitude and direction taken from same point but by
diagonal of parallelogram.
- wherein
Represents law of parallelogram vector Addition
Q. 11 The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of
projection of the projectiles is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal Range -
Horizontal distance travelled by projectile from the point of projectile to the point on ground where its hits.
- wherein
Special case of horizontal range
For man horizontal range.
R=H
Q. 12 A particle moves so that its position vector is given by . Where is

a constant.
Which of the following is true?
Option 1:
Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to .
Option 2:
Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to .
Option 3:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Option 4:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
Correct Answer:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector or cross product -
Vector or cross product of two vector & written as is a single vector whose magnitude is equal to
product of magnitude of & and the sine of smaller angle between them.
- wherein
Figure 6 shows representation of vector or cross product of vectors.
shows representation of vector or cross product of vectors
For two perpendicular vectors
and
So, velocity is to r and is directed towards the origin.
Q. 13 A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms-1 and angle with
the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms-1 at the
same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired
from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms-2) is:
(given g = 9.8 ms-2)
Option 1:
3.5
Option 2:
5.9
Option 3:
16.3
Option 4:
110.8
Correct Answer:
3.5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal Range -
Horizontal distance travelled by projectile from the point of projectile to the point on ground where its hits.
- wherein
Special case of horizontal range
For man horizontal range.

Range should be equal
(P plant, e earth)
Q. 14 Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a

propagating electromagnetic wave?
Option 1:
A charge moving at constant velocity
Option 2:
A stationary charge
Option 3:
A chargeless particle
Option 4:
An accelerating charge
Correct Answer:
An accelerating charge
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total radiant Flux (Power) -
q = Charge
= Acceleration of particle
c = Speed of light in vacuum
- wherein
The accelerated charge particle produce EM wave. P is total radiant flux emitted by charge at any instant.
Electromagnetic wave can be produced by an accelerating charge.
Q. 15 The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from:
Option 1:
3 2
Option 2:
4 2
Option 3:
4 3
Option 4:
2 1
Correct Answer:
4 3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Infrared Waves -
Frequency Range Hz to Hz
- wherein
Wavelength Range 7500 to 1 mm
Energy diffference for infrared radiation will be smaller than those ultraviolet region.
Transition corresponding to Infra red region is:

Q. 16 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is
. The peak value of the magnetic field is:-
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between Eo and Bo -
- wherein
= Electric field amplitude
= Magnetic field amplitude

C= Speed of light in vacuum
Erms=6 V/m
peak value
magneitc field peak value
Q. 17 From a sphere of mass M and radius R, a smaller sphere of radius is carved out such that
the cavity made in the original sphere is between its centre and the periphery. (See figure).
For the configuration in the figure where the distance between the centre of the original
sphere and the removed sphere is 3R, the gravitational force between the two spheres is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Newton's Law of Gravitation -

Force
Gravitalional constant
Masses
Distance between masses
- wherein
Force is along the line joining the two masses
Volume of removed sphere
Vremoved =
Volume of the sphere (remaining)
Vremain =
Therefore the mass of removed sphere and remaining sphere are at respectively and
Q. 18 When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we Learned
Electric charge -The loss of electrons gives a Positive charge.

By using
Q. 19 When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the body is
Option 1:
Unchanged
Option 2:
Charged positively
Option 3:
Charged negatively
Option 4:
An insulator
Correct Answer:
Charged positively
Solution:
When a positively charged body is connected to the earth, electrons flow from earth to body and the body becomes
neutral.
Q. 20 Two copper balls, each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106
atoms is transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of
copper is 63.5)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Properties of Charge -
Transferable
- wherein
It can be transferred from one body to another.
Number of atoms in given mass =
Transfer of electron between balls =
Hence magnitude of charge gained by each ball.
Force of attraction between the balls
Q. 21 The electric field near a conducting surface having a uniform surface charge density is
given by
Option 1:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 2:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 3:
and is normal to the surface
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Surface charge distribution -
charge per unit Area
- wherein
(Plane sheet, sphere, cylinder etc)
Electric field near the conductor surface is given by and it is perpendicular to surface.
The correct option is 3.
Q. 22 The current produced in wire when 107 electron/sec are flowing in it

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23 A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly inside a long cylinder closed at one end,
enclosing a certain mass of gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the position is
disturbed from its equilibrium position, its oscillates simple harmonically. The period of the
oscillation will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the piston be displaced through distance towards left, then volume decreases, pressure increases.
If is increase in pressure and is decrease in volume, then considering the process to take place
gradually (i.e. isothermal)
This excess pressure is responsible for providing the restoring force to the piston of mass .
Hence
Comparing it with
Q. 24 A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of the material of the bob is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In vacuum,
Let be the volume and be the density of the mass of the bob.
Net downward force acting on the bob inside the liquid
= weight - upthrust
So, time period of the bob inside the liquid
Q. 25 The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at - bt2, where a and b
are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
i.e, current flows from t=0→t=t0
the heat produced is

Q. 26 A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained
across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite
direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the
wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is :
Option 1:
5:1
Option 2:
5:4
Option 3:
3:4
Option 4:
3:2
Correct Answer:
3:2
Solution:
Given that,
Length l = 100 cm
The emf when the two cells are connected in series then the balance point is 50 cm.
....(I)
The emf when the two cells are connected in opposite direction then the balance point is 10 cm.
....(II)
From equation (I) and (II)
Using elimination method we get,
Now, we will find the ratio of E₁ and E₂

Q. 27 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of
E.M.F. because the method involves :
Option 1:
cells
Option 2:
potential gradients
Option 3:
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
Option 4:
a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
Correct Answer:
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potentiometer -
It is a device used to measure e.m.f of a given cell and to compare e.m.f's of cells
- wherein
It is also used to measure internal resistance of given cell
Because the method involves a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer the device can be
used to measure P.D internal resistance of a cell and compare emf's of two sources.
Q. 28 The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length,
its new resistance will be :
Option 1:
nR
Option 2:
Option 3:
n2 R
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
n2 R
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resistance formula -
- wherein
resistivity of material
Number of free electrons per unit volume.
According to the question, l2 = nl1

Q. 29 The potential difference (VA - VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is
Option 1:
-3 V
Option 2:
+3 V
Option 3:
+6 V
Option 4:
+9 V
Correct Answer:
+9 V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential difference -
The voltage accross the terminals of a cell when it is supplying current to external resistance is known as
Potential Difference .
- wherein
=2 2+3+1 2=9V
Q. 30 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R
Option 1:
230
Option 2:
46
Option 3:
26
Option 4:
13
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Q. 31 A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is
given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Current in the circuit
The potential difference across R:
When,
Hence the correct option is 2.
Q. 32 If N0 is the original mass of the substance of halflife period =5 years, then the amount
of substance left after 15 years is
Option 1:
N0/8
Option 2:
N0/16
Option 3:
N0/2
Option 4:
N0/4
Correct Answer:
N0/8
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of nuclei after disintegration -
or
Number of nucleon activity at a time t is exponentional function
Now,
No is the initial amount of substance and N is the amount left after decay.
So,
Q. 33 In the nuclear fission reaction,
given that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is
the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the
reaction is nearly
[ Boltzmann's constant
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nuclear fission -
e.g.
- wherein
In nuclear fission neutron trigger the reaction & in the process more than one neutron is released.
At temperature T, the kinetic energy is .
Q. 34 The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Energy emitted due to transition of electron -
- wherein
Highest difference of energy is between n = 1 and n = 3.
According to . Correct option is III. Since I is absorption of photon.
Q. 35 For which of the following Bohr model is not valid?
Option 1:
Hydrogen atom
Option 2:
singly ionised helium atom
Option 3:
Deuteron atom
Option 4:
singly ionised neon atom
Correct Answer:
singly ionised neon atom
Solution:
Bohr's theory is applicable to hydrogen-like atoms (single electron system).
But does not have one electron
So Bohr model is not valid for
Q. 36 A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1 The
ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From conservation of momentum
m1 v1 = m 2 v2
Hence, A1v1 = A2v2

Q. 37 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain
minimum:
Option 1:
frequency
Option 2:
power
Option 3:
wavelength
Option 4:
intensity
Correct Answer:
frequency
Solution:
Q. 38 Electron used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
Option 1:
increase by 2 times
Option 2:
decrease by 2 times
Option 3:
increase by 4 times
Option 4:
increase by 4 times
Correct Answer:
decrease by 2 times
Solution:
As we learnt in
De - Broglie wavelength with charged particle -
- wherein
wavelength decreases by a factor of 2.
Q. 39 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine A receives heat from a reservoir
at 600 K and rejects heat to a reservoir at temperature T. Engine B receives heat rejected by
engine A and in turn rejects it to a reservoir at 100 K. If the efficiencies of the two engines A
and B are represented by ηA and ηB, respectively,then what is the value of ? (Work
output is same for both)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Efficiency of a carnot cycle -
are in kelvin
- wherein
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
from eqn1:
Q. 40 A gas is compressed is isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed
separately through and adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
Option 1:
Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
Option 2:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Option 3:
Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
Option 4:
Which of the case (wheather compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires
more work will depend upon the atomicty of the gas.
Correct Answer:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Comparision between isothermal and adiabatic process in compression -
- wherein
Consider the P-V indicator diagram shown below.
ia Isothermal process
ib Adibatic process
Since slope of adiabatic process is greater than slope of isothermal process.

Work done under adiabatic process is greater than work done under isothermal process as area under ib
is greater than area under ia.
Q. 41
Two hypothetical planets of masses m1 and m2 are at rest when they are infinite distance
apart. Because of the gravitational force they move towards each other along the line joining
their centres. What is their speed when their separation is ‘d’ ?
(Speed of m1 is 1 and that of m2 is 2)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Initial energy of the system = 0
Final energy =
From conservation of energy
From conservation of Linear Momentum

Similarly
Q. 42 ‘n’ moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A→B as shown in the figure. The maximum
temperature of the gas during the process will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At any point between A & B, we can write relation between P & V by using the equation of the straight line
From ideal gas equation
PV = nRT
For temperature to be maximum at any point
Q. 43 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp
and Cv, respectively. If
and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Divide equation (1) by Cv we get
Q. 44 When 100 g of a liquid A at 100oC is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75oC , the

temeprature of the mixture becomes 90oC. The temperature of the mixture (in oC), if 100 g
of liquid A at 100oC is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50oC, will be :
Correct Answer: 80
Solution:
Specific Heat -
- wherein
C = specific heat
Change in temperature
m = Amount of mass
For (I)
now for (II)
From (1) & (2)
Q. 45 Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at each
and left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of and specific heat of
while liquid in B has density of and specific heat of
which of the following best describes their temperature versus time
graph schematically ?(assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Newton's Law of Cooling -
- wherein
Temperature difference is not very large.
From given
and
By newtons law of cooling
at
and we know
So slope of T v/s t curve for A is more than B.
Q. 46 A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7×10−2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5×10−6 kg m2
is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken ( in
seconds) for 10 complete oscillations is :
(give answer till 2 decimal places)
Correct Answer:
6.65
Solution:
As we learned in
The time period of Oscillating Bar Magnet -
Using
we get T = 0.665 s
For 10 oscillations, total time taken = t = 6.65 s

Q. 47 A wire carrying current I is tied between points P and Q and is in the shape of a circular arch
of radius R due to a uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to the plane of the paper,
shown by xxx) in the vicinity of the wire. If the wire subtends an angle at the centre of
the circle (of which it forms an arch) then the tension in the wire is :
Option 1:
IBR
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
IBR
Solution:
As we learned in
Total magnetic force -

Q. 48 Three straight parallel current carrying conductors are shown in the figure. The force
experienced by the middle conductor of length 25 cm is :
Option 1:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Option 2:
6 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 3:
9 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Solution:
Force due to wire one

towards right
Force due to wire two
towards left
Net force =
Q. 49 The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias
resistance is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
10−6
Option 3:
106
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
10−6
Solution:
.
Forward Resistance
Reverse bias Resistance
Ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance
Q. 50 To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
Option 1:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate
both input should be 1.

C=1
Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.
So the Correct option is 3.
Q. 51 A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as shown below :
The currents I, IZ and IL are respectively
Option 1:
5 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
Option 2:
15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 3:
12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 4:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Correct Answer:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Solution:
In the given figure
Voltage across RL= 2K is same as that across zener dioxide i.e 10V
Total applied potential = 60 V
Potential difference across 4K will be 50 V
Current through 4K =
Current through diode
Q. 52 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The
induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:
Option 1:
4.8 V
Option 2:
0.8 V
Option 3:
1.6 V
Option 4:
3.2 V
Correct Answer:
3.2 V
Solution:
Induced emf in the loop is given by where A is the area of the loop.
So
Q. 53 A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the
condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the
inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 54 In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively
Option 1:
100 V, 2.0 A
Option 2:
150 V, 2.2 A
Option 3:
220 V, 2.2 A
Option 4:
220 V, 2.0 A
Correct Answer:
220 V, 2.2 A
Solution:
and are equal and out of phase with each other and thus get cancelled.
Thus and
Q. 55 A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000
times. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.
How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up?
Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20%
efficiency rate. Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :
Option 1:
2.45×10−3 kg
Option 2:
6.45×10−3 kg
Option 3:
9.89×10−3 kg
Option 4:
12.89×10−3 kg
Correct Answer:
12.89×10−3 kg
Solution:
As we discussed in
If only conservative forces act on a system, total mechanical energy remains constant -
Total work done by the person in lifting the weight = mgh
Total mechanical energy produced by burning 1 kg fat
Total fat burn

Q. 56 Two particles, of masses M and 2M, moving as shown, with speeds of 10 m/s and 5 m/s,
collide elastically at the origin. After the collision, they move along the indicated directions
with
speeds and . The values of and are approximately :
Option 1:
6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Option 2:
3.2 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Option 3:
6.5 m/s and 3.2 m/s
Option 4:
3.2 m/s and 12.6 m/s
Correct Answer:
6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Solution:
................................(1)
............................................(2)
On adding (1) and (2)
Q. 57 Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial
speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the
time variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first? (Assume
stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g=10 m/s2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 58
Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are
being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the
blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force (in N) applied by
the wall on block B is :
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Solution :
Q. 59 A uniform disc of radius R and mass M is free to rotate only about its axis. A string is
wrapped over its rim and a body of mass m is tied to the free end of the string as shown in
the figure. The body is released from rest. Then the acceleration of the body is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 60 From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum possible volume is cut.
Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to
one of its faces is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
M.O.I. of the cube about the given axis.
Chemistry
Q. 1 In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX, the degree of ionization is 0.3 .Taking
for water as 1.85 K molal-1 , the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case of dissociation
Freezing point of solution = -0.4810 oc.
Correct option is (1)

Q. 2 Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is
further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg.
Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be, respectively
Option 1:
200 and 300
Option 2:
300 and 400
Option 3:
400 and 600
Option 4:
500 and 600
Correct Answer:
400 and 600
Solution:
Given that 1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y are present
(1)
After adding 1 mole y the vapour pressure is 560
(2)
By solving equation 1 & 2
Therefore, option(3) is correct.
Q. 3 The Van't Hoff factor will be highest for:
Option 1:
Sodium chloride
Option 2:
Magnesium chloride
Option 3:
Sodium phosphate
Option 4:
Urea
Correct Answer:
Sodium phosphate
Solution:
Van't Hoff factor for dissociation of strong electrolyte
Na3PO4 gives the maximum ions and hence it shows the highest Van't Hoff factor.
Therefore, option(3) is correct
Q. 4 Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the

solution is 1.4 S m-1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 . The
molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol-1 is :
Option 1:
5 x 10-4
Option 2:
5 x 10-3
Option 3:
5 x 103
Option 4:
5 x 102
Correct Answer:
5 x 10-4
Solution:
Specific conductance,
Resistivity,
Resistance, R=
Now, for a 0.5 M solution, R=280
molar conductivity,
Therefore, the correct option is (1).
Q. 5 The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+ / Ni and Fe2+ / Fe are –0.76, –0.23 and –
0.44 V respectively.
The reaction X + Y2+ X2+ + Y will be spontaneous when :
Option 1:
X = Ni, Y = Fe
Option 2:
X = Ni, Y = Zn
Option 3:
X = Fe, Y = Zn
Option 4:
X = Zn, Y = Ni
Correct Answer:
X = Zn, Y = Ni
Solution:
For a spontaneous reaction, Eo must be positive.
So, Eo = Eo reduced constituent - Eo oxidized constituent

Eo = (-0.23) - (-0.76)
[We get this by maximizing EoR and minimizing EoO]
Alternatively, we can also solve this qualitatively. Elements with a low value of SRP are good reducing
agents and therefore, can be easily oxidized. Also, elements with a low negative value of SRP are good
oxidizing agents and can be reduced easily. Keeping the above in mind, we can clearly see that
and the reaction is:
Q. 6 Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000°C to furnish aluminium metal ( At. Mass = 27
amu,1 Faraday= 96,500 Coulombs ) The cathode reaction is
To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by this method would require
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 7 6.02 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of
solution is:
Option 1:
0.1 M
Option 2:
0.02 M
Option 3:
0.01 M
Option 4:
0.001 M
Correct Answer:
0.01 M
Solution:
As we learnt in
no. of moles = mol = 10-3 mol
Vol. = 100 ml
Molarity, M =
Therefore, Option(3) is correct.
Q. 8 In an experiment it showed that 10 ml of 0.05M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M

solution of AgNO3 , which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for
the symbol of the element other than chlorine):
Option 1:
X2Cl
Option 2:
X2Cl2
Option 3:
XCl2
Option 4:
XCl4
Correct Answer:
XCl2
Solution:
Moles = Molarity X volume in litre.
No. of moles of AgNO3=M X V = 0.1 X 10 (In ml) = 0.1 X 10 X 10-3 (in L) = 10-3 mol
No. of moles the chloride= 0.05 X 10 X 10-3 (in L)= 0.5 x 10-3 mol.
Suppose the formula for the chloride is XCln then moles of chloride ion = n x 0.5 x 10-3
The reaction goes as follows:
Then, going by stoichiometry we get
1 mol of Ag = 1 mol of Cl
so. 10-3 mol = n x 0.5 x 10-3
So, the formula is XCl2
Q. 9 The osmotic pressure of solution increases, if
Option 1:
Temperature is decreased
Option 2:
Solution concentration is increased
Option 3:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Option 4:
Volume is increased
Correct Answer:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Solution:
As we learned
Osmotic Pressure -
Osmotic Pressure ( ) is excess pressure developed on solution side due to osmosis.
As soon as the solute molecules increases the osmotic pressure of solution increase.
Therefore, option (3) is correct.
Q. 10 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
Option 1:
The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCl >
CH3COOH > sucrose.
Option 2:
The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation where M is the molarity
of the solution.
Option 3:
Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its
mole fraction.
Option 4:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Correct Answer:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Solution:
As we have learnt
Freezing -
Freezing occurs when liquid solvent is in equilibrium with solid solvent. As non volatile
solute decreases, the vapour pressure freezing point decreases.
The extent of depression in freezing point varies with the number of solute particles for a fixed solvent
only and it is a characteristics feature of the nature of solvent also. So for two different solvents the
extent of depression may vary even if number of solute particles be dissolved.
Q. 11 The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 gram of glucose in 100 g of a solvent
in 0.10C. The molal elevation constant of the liquid is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of :
Option 1:
Electrostatic attractions
Option 2:
van der Waals forces
Option 3:
Dipole - Dipole interactions
Option 4:
Hydrogen bonding
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
As learnt in
The double-helical structure of DNA is the operation of hydrogen bonding.
Hence, the option number (4) is correct.
Q. 13 The dipeptide, Gln-Gly, on treatment with CH3COCl followed by aqueous work up gives :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of the dipeptide Gln-gly is given as
Now, acetylation occurs at the free hydroxy and amino groups. Amides do not undergo acetylation.
So, Gly-Gly on treatment with CH3COCl followed by hydrolysis gives
Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)

Q. 14
A is :
Option 1:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Option 2:
Glucose oxime
Option 3:
Glucosazone
Option 4:
Gluconic acid
Correct Answer:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Glucose reacts with Hydrogen cyanide and undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction to form its
cyanohydrin.
Q. 15 What type of redox reaction is the following?
Option 1:
Decomposition Reaction
Option 2:
Combination Reaction
Option 3:
Displacement Reaction
Option 4:
Disproportionate Reaction
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The different types of redox reactions are:
Disproportionation Reactions
This is the reaction that involves the breakdown of a compound into different compounds. Some
examples of this type of reaction are:
This must be noted here that all decomposition reactions are not redox reactions. For example, the
decomposition of calcium carbonate is not a redox reaction.
These types of reactions are the opposite of decomposition reactions and hence involve the combination
of two compounds to form a single compound. Some examples include:
Displacement reactions, also known as replacement reactions, involve compounds and the replacing of
elements. They occur as single and double replacement reactions. In other words, in these types of
reactions, an atom or an ion in a compound is substituted by another element. The general
representation of this reaction is as follows:
Disproportionation Reactions
Disproportionation reactions are those reactions in which a single element in one oxidation state is
simultaneously oxidized and reduced. Some examples include:
-
Since the reaction fits the form: and either A or B is in elemental

form so it's a combination reaction.
Therefore,option(2) is correct.
Q. 16 If the reaction quotient of the cell
is , then what is x?
Option 1:
0.2
Option 2:
0.01
Option 3:
0.1
Option 4:
0.02
Correct Answer:
0.01
Solution:
As we have learned
M(s) is Solid -
[M] = 1
- wherein
Reaction is
as [Ag]= [Zn] =1
Therefore, Option(2) is correct
Q. 17 If the conductivity of the cell is ,then find the resistance of the cell. Cell constant
=
Option 1:
3.2
Option 2:
500
Option 3:
0.002
Option 4:
0.3125
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
We know,

Q. 18 Consider the given complexes
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Out of the following, select the set containing only paramagnetic complexes
Option 1:
(i), (ii)
Option 2:
(ii), (iii)
Option 3:
(i), (iii)
Option 4:
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i), (iii)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Cyanide ions are strong field ligands and cause pairing of electrons.
The electronic arrangement in the central metal ions in the given complexes with the Strong field ligand is
shown below:
Hence, only complexes (i) and (iii) are paramagnetic as they contain unpaired electrons
Q. 19 In any ferric salt, on adding potassium ferrocyanide, a Prussian blue colour is obtained,
which is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Potassium Ferrocyanide reacts with ferric chloride to form Prussian's Blue

Q. 20 An aqueous solution of potash alum gives
Option 1:
Two types of ions
Option 2:
Only one type of ion
Option 3:
Four types of ions
Option 4:
Three types of ions
Correct Answer:
Three types of ions
Solution:
Potash alum is a mixed salt of and and upon dissolution in water, it gives all the
three ions from which it is made viz.
Q. 21 What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml

solution:
Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
Q. 22 A container at contains at pressure and an excess of
(neglect the volume of solid ). The volume of the containers is now decreased by
moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container,
when pressure of attains its maximum value, will be :
(Given that : )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Before compression,
After Compression
For the maximum Volume of the container, let's assume that
The correct answer is option 1.

Q. 23 The equilibrium constants of the following are:
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward direction.
is the equilibrium constant for the reverse direction.
, - - - - - - - -- (1)
.......................(2)
- - - - - - - - - - (3)
adding (1) (2) (3)
Q. 24 The of , are respectively,

. Which one of the following salts
will precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of
?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us calculate the solability of each salt
1 0 0
1-s 2s s
s s
s s
s s
Since the solubility of is the maximum hence, it will precipitate last.
Q. 25 and two nearly insoluble salts, have the same values of at

room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard of and ?
Option 1:
The molar solubilities of in water are indetical.
Option 2:
The molar solubility of in water is less than that of .
Option 3:
The salts and are more soluble in than in pure water.
Option 4:
The addition of the salt of to solution of will have no effect on their solubilities.
Correct Answer:
The molar solubility of in water is less than that of .
Solution:
Also
Clearly s' > s
Q. 26 Apart from +3 oxidation state, other stable oxidation states shared by f-block elements
is/are:
Option 1:
+2 only
Option 2:
+2 and +4
Option 3:
+4 only
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
+2 and +4
Solution:
As we have learned
Valence characteristics of f- block elements -
– They are all metals.
– They show variable valency.The +3 is the most important oxidation state.Few elements show +2 and
+4 oxidation states.
-
+2 and +4 oxidation state are also shown by f-block elements.
Q. 27 The complex, has electronic configuration and has one unpaired

electron, which of the following statements are true?
1 ) The complex is octahedral
2) It is outer sphere complex
3) It is diamagnetic
4) Coordination number of this compound is 6
Option 1:
1,2,3,4
Option 2:
1,2,3
Option 3:
2,3
Option 4:
1,2,4
Correct Answer:
1,2,4
Solution:
As we have learned
Metallic character of transition elements -
Transition elements have relatively low ionisation energies and have one or two electrons in their outer
most energy level (ns1 or ns2).As a result, metallic bonds are formed.The unpaired d- electron also result
in the formation of the metallic bond.
Since there are 6 H2O molecules attached as the ligand, thus its coordination number is 6 and its
geometry is octahedral but since it has 1 unpaired electron thus the complex is paramagnetic.
Therefore, Option(4) is correct,

Q. 28 Which ones are dihalogen derivatives of alkanes?
Option 1:
a, b only
Option 2:
a, b and d only
Option 3:
b only
Option 4:
a,b and c only
Correct Answer:
a,b and c only
Solution:
Dihalogen derivatives of hydrocarbons contain two halogen atoms apart from carbon and hydrogen
Here, in
It is Dihalogen derivatives of alkene not alkane.
In (c) Hydrogen is replaced from the alkane group, not from the Benzene group, so it is Dihalogen
derivatives of alkane.
a,b and c are Dihalogen derivatives of alkene.

Q. 29 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bond dissociation energies of the halogen family decrease down the group as the size of the atom
increases. The bond dissociation energy of fluorine, is, however, lower than those of chlorine and
bromine because of interelectronic repulsions present in the small atom of fluorine. Thus, bond energy
decreases in the order
Q. 30 In which case change in entropy is negative?
Option 1:
Evapouration of water
Option 2:
Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
Option 3:
Sublimation of solid to gas
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
degree of randomness decreases
entropy decreases and is negative.
Q. 31 U is equal to :
Option 1:
Adiabatic work
Option 2:
Isothermal work
Option 3:
Isochoric work
Option 4:
Isobaric work
Correct Answer:
Adiabatic work
Solution:
Adiabatic Process -
Heat exchange between the system and surroundings is zero.
So,
No change in internal energy = Adiabatic work
Ans(1)
Q. 32 molecular is tetrahedral having:

Option 1:
Two bonds
Option 2:
One bond
Option 3:
Four bonds
Option 4:
Three bonds
Correct Answer:
Four bonds
Solution:
One s and three p orbital undergo sp3 hybridization. Four sp3 hybrid orbitals form four σ bonds with
oxygen atoms. They are σ sp3 – p. Four pπ – dπ bonds are also formed with oxygen atoms by the
unpaired electrons.
Q. 33 Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?
Option 1:
BeCl2, XeF2
Option 2:
Tel2, XeF2
Option 3:
Option 4:
IF3, XeF2
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Species Number of electron Structure

38 Linear
72 Linear
158 Bent
72 Linear
124 Linear
72 Linear
80 T-shaped
72 Linear
In this question, in place of isoelectronic there should be same number of valence electron.
Q. 34 The species, having bond angles of 120° is :
Option 1:
PH3
Option 2:
CIF3
Option 3:
NCl3
Option 4:
BCl3
Correct Answer:
BCl3
Solution:
Hybridisation -
When one s - and two p - orbitals of the same shell of an atom mix to form three new equivalent
orbitals.The hybridised orbital is called sp2 orbital.
- wherein
Shape is Trigonal planar

Q. 35 Which one of the following has highest metallic character?
Option 1:
K
Option 2:
Ni
Option 3:
Al
Option 4:
Ca
Correct Answer:
K
Solution:
As we have learned
Decreasing order of metallic character -
K has highest metallic character among the given elements as it has the highest size among the given
elements thus removing the electron from potassium is easiest.

Q. 36 Consider the Hunsdiecker reaction given below
What should be the order of reactivity of the above reaction if R is Carbon.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The reaction mechanism involves formation of free radicals and 1o carbon free radicals will react faster
due to lesser steric hinderance followed by 2o and then 3o.
Q. 37 A reaction at 1 bar is non-spontaneous at low temperature but becomes spontaneous at

high temperature. Identify the correct statement about the reaction among the following :
Option 1:
Both ∆H and ∆S are negative.
Option 2:
Both ∆H and ∆S are positive.
Option 3:
∆H is positive while ∆S is negative.
Option 4:
∆H is negative while ∆S is positive.
Correct Answer:
Both ∆H and ∆S are positive.
Solution:
ΔG=ΔH−TΔS
At low temperature,
TΔS < ΔH
ΔG > 0 and the reaction is non-spontaneous.
At high temperature,
TΔS > ΔH
ΔG < 0 and the reaction is spontaneous.
Q. 38 The order of reactivity of the given haloalkanes towards nucleophile is:
Option 1:
RI >RBr >RCl
Option 2:
RCl>RBr>RI
Option 3:
RBr>RCl>RI
Option 4:
RBr>RI>RBr
Correct Answer:
RI >RBr >RCl
Solution:
The reactivity for nucleophile will be higher for those which can release H+ or R+ as easily as possible.
Thus, the correct order is:
RI > RBr > RCl
Q. 39 The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of the element by and large
means?
Option 1:
Increase in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 2:
Decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii.
Option 3:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 4:
Increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii.
Correct Answer:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
As a result of the Lanthanoid contraction, both the atomic radii and ionic radii decrease gradually in the
lanthanoid series.
Therefore,option(3) is correct
Q. 40 An octahedral complex of Co3+ is diamagnetic. The hybridisation involved in the

formation of the complex is :
Option 1:
sp3d2
Option 2:
dsp2
Option 3:
d2sp3
Option 4:
dsp3d
Correct Answer:
d2sp3
Solution:
As we discussed in
Hybridisation -
sp3d2 - square bipyramidal or octahedral
d2sp3 - octahedral
sp3 - tetradedral
dsp2 - square planar
- wherein
sp3d2 - outer complex
d2sp3 - inner complex

sp3 -
dsp2 -
diamagnetic octahedralcomplex of is hybridised.
Q. 41 Consider the coordination compound, [Co(NH3)6]Cl3.
In the formation of this complex, the species which acts as the Lewis acid is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Central atom -
In coordination entity, the atom/ion to which a fixed no of ions/groups are bound in a definite
geometrical arrangement around it.
- wherein
eg: is called Central metal atom
In works as lewis acid and works as lewis base.
Q. 42 In which of the following pairs A is more stable than B?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is resonance stabilised while is stable due to hyperconjugation, Since resonance is
dominating over hyperconjugation,
So, is more stable than .
option(1): B is more stable than A as B involves resonance.
Option(2): B is more stable than A as B has more alpha hydrogen(7 to 4) which implies more number of
hyperconjugation structures. This makes B more stable.
Option(3): B is more stable than A as a six-membered ring is more stable than a 3 membered ring due to
the lesser ring strain of the six-membered ring.
Option(4): A is more stable than B due to the possibility of resonance with each of the phenyl groups
attached to C.B doesn't show any resonance.
Q. 43 A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC. The energy
of activation (in kJ/mol) of reaction is:
Correct Answer:
55.14
Solution:
Given,
A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC.
Case 1 ; T1= 27oC = 300 K , t1/2 = 20 min
Case 1 ; T2= 47oC = 320 K , t1/2 = 5 min
Now,
Arrhenius Equation -
= Rate constant
So,
Take both sides (ln)-
Put values from the above calculations-

Q. 44 For the first-order reaction:
(A) The concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially with time.
(B) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature.
(C) The half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant.
(D) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration.
The correct statements are -
Option 1:
Only A and B
Option 2:
Only B and C
Option 3:
A, B, and D
Option 4:
A, B, C, and D
Correct Answer:
A, B, and D
Solution:
A) The concentration of reactant which is following first-order kinetics always decreases exponentially
and becomes zero at infinity.
B) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature
As the temperature increases, the rate constant increases and the half-life decreases since half-life is
inversely dependent on the rate constant.
K increase on increasing T.
C) The half-life of the reaction does not depend on the initial concentration of the reactant.
D) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration
After eight half-lives.
So, A, B, and D are correct.
Option 3 is correct.
Q. 45 The half life of a first order reaction varies with temperature according to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt for a first order reaction,
Now, ln(c) = b and Ea/R = a
So,
Hence, option number (1) is correct.
Q. 46 For a reaction scheme if the rate of formation of B is set to be

zero then the concentration of B is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction:
Given,
Question [B]=?
So, Net rate of formation of
Correct Option is 4.
Q. 47 The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from higher orbitals to the
orbital of radius 211.6 pm. This transition is associated with :
Option 1:
Lyman series
Option 2:
Balmer series
Option 3:
Paschen series
Option 4:
Brackett series
Correct Answer:
Balmer series
Solution:
As we have learned,
Q. 48 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
Option 1:
Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Option 2:
Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
Option 3:
Both bond angle and bond length change
Option 4:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Correct Answer:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Solution:
= Both bond angles ad bond length remains same
Q. 49 Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No. of electrons in
No. of electrons in
and , both are hybridized and thus have similar structure.
Q. 50 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :
Option 1:
Sublimation
Option 2:
Chromatography
Option 3:
Crystallisation
Option 4:
Steam distillation
Correct Answer:
Steam distillation
Solution:
The 1:1 mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is separated by steam distillation
Q. 51 The major product of the reaction
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 52 Arrange the following in the order of basicity :
Option 1:
c>a>b
Option 2:
b > a> c
Option 3:
a>b>c
Option 4:
a>c>b
Correct Answer:
a>b>c
Solution:
All the given bases are aromatic amines having their lone pairs in conjugation with the Benzene ring.
Among the given bases, " a" is most basic because of methyl at the para position and "c" is least basic
because it shares lone pair with both phenyl rings.
Therefore, the correct order of basic strength of the given aromatic amines follow the order:
(a) > (b) > (c)
Q. 53 Which of the following is a peptide bond ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between two amino acids which is formed by condensation
reaction.
The bond formed between two amino acids by the elimination of a water molecules is called peptide
linkage or bond
Therefore, Option (2) is correct
Q. 54 6.02 x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of the
solution is:
Option 1:
0.01 M
Option 2:
0.001 M
Option 3:
0.1 M
Option 4:
0.02 M
Correct Answer:
0.01 M
Solution:
As we learnt in
Molarity (M) = (Number of moles of solute)/(volume of solution in litres)
Molarity is defined as the number of moles of the solute in 1 litre of the solution.
No. of molecules (given) =
No. of moles
Volume of solution = 100 ml = 0.1 L
Therefore,
Q. 55 When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to:
Option 1:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Option 2:
2 mol of HCl (g)
Option 3:
0.5 mol of HCl (g)
Option 4:
1.5 mol of HCl (g)
Correct Answer:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Moles of a gas at STP = given volume of gas / 22.4 litre
Concept of limiting reagent and excess reagent -
The reactant which gets consumed and thus limits the amount of product formed is called the limiting
reagent.
Therefore, 22.4 L volume at STP is occupied by
Therefore, 11.2 L volume will be occupied by,

Since, Cl2 possesses a minimum number of moles,
thus it is the limiting reagent.
As per the equation,
Q. 56 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much?
(At. wt.Mg = 24; O = 16)
Option 1:
Mg, 0.16 g
Option 2:
O2 , 0.16 g
Option 3:
Mg, 0.44 g
Option 4:
O2, 0.28 g
Correct Answer:
Mg, 0.16 g
Solution:
The reaction is as follows:
moles of
moles of
According to reaction stoichiometry, 1 mole of Mg require 1/2 moles of O2.
So, moles of Mg require moles of O2 or 0.02083 moles of O2
Clearly, O2 is the limiting reagent.

moles of Mg required by 0.0175 moles of O2
we know 1 mole of Mg = 24 gram
so, 0.00667 mol = 0.00667 X molar mass
= 0.00667 X 24
= 0.16 g
Q. 57 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00m aqueous solution?
Option 1:
0.177
Option 2:
1.770
Option 3:
0.0354
Option 4:
0.0177
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given,
It is a 1.0 molal aqueous solution.
If we have 1 mole of solute in 1 molal solution.
Then, wt. of solvent will be = 1 kg
It is an aqueous solution means the solvent is water.

Q. 58 Identify the wrong statement in the following :
Option 1:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Option 2:
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
Option 3:
Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
Option 4:
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of
the periodic table.
Correct Answer:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Solution:
The Atomic radius of the elements decreases across a period from left to right due to an increase in
effective nuclear charge. On moving down a group, since, the number of shells increases, so atomic
radius increases. Amongst isoelectronic species, the ionic radius increases with increases in negative
charge or decrease in positive charge.
Q. 59 In the following sequence of reactions,
the compound D is
Option 1:
propanal
Option 2:
butanal
Option 3:
-butyl alcohol
Option 4:
-propyl alcohol.
Correct Answer:
-propyl alcohol.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Test for alcohols by Victor - Meyer's test -
Reagents used
- wherein
The reaction of Haloalkanes with Mg in the presence of ether - Grignard reagent is obtained
- wherein
Q. 60 Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated
nitric acid, gives:
Option 1:
nitrobenzene
Option 2:
2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
Option 3:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Option 4:
p-nitrophenol
Correct Answer:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Solution:
Direct nitration of phenol is difficult as it gets oxidised by the nitrating mixture
. However, picric acid is formed as a minor product in the reaction.
To get a better yield of Picric acid, it is prepared by treating phenol first with concentrated sulphuric acid
which converts it to phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid, and then with concentrated nitric acid to get 2,4,6-
trinitrophenol.
Maths
Q. 1 Let be the number of all possible triangles formed by joining vertices of an n-sided
regular polygon. If then the value of n is
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we have learnt,
If there are n points in the plane and out of which no three are collinear then, total no. of triangles that
can be formed using these n points = nC3
Now,
no. of the selection of 3 vertices out of n vertices

Q. 2
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Limit is of 0/0 form. We can rationalize the irrational powers
Q. 3
The integral is equal to (where C is a
constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
Integrals for Trigonometric functions -
-
Q. 4 If the equations have a common root,
then a : b : c is :
Option 1:
3:1:2
Option 2:
1:2:3
Option 3:
3:2:1
Option 4:
1:3:2
Correct Answer:
1:2:3
Solution:
For
Discriminant = 4-12 = -8 < 0
So it has 2 imaginary roots. Let these roots be p+iq and p-iq
Now case 1: If the first root is common between the equations, then p+iq is a root of second equation.
Now as coefficients of second equation are real, so its other root must be p-iq. So, both roots are
common in these 2 equations
Case 2: If the second root is common between the equations, then p-iq is a root of second equation. Now
as coefficients of second equation are real, so its other root must be p + iq. So, both roots are common in
these 2 equations in this case as well
So, in any case, both roots will be common in these 2 equations
So applying condition for both roots common,

a/1 = b/2 = c/3
Q. 5 If a point P has co-ordinates (0, -2) and Q is any point on the circle, x2 + y2 - 4x - 2y + 4 = 0,
then the maximum value of PQ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Greatest distance of a point A from a circle
(for both cases P lying inside and outside the circle)
Now,
Q is point on the circle
Centre C (2, 1)
PQ = Maximum distance =PC + r

Q. 6 The value of k for which the function
is continuous at, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Result of 1 to the power of infinity Form -

-
Let
Put
So that,
Q. 7 The number of real values of λ for which the system of linear equations
2x+4y−λz=0
4x+λy+2z=0
λx+2y+2z=0
has infinitely many solutions, is :

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
As we learnt in
By using the concept of
Cramer's rule for solving system of linear equations -
When and ,
then the system of equations has infinite solutions.
- wherein
and
are obtained by replacing column 1,2,3 of by column
It will give only one real value of
Q. 8 If then is equal to:

Option 1:
125 y
Option 2:
224 y2
Option 3:
225 y2
Option 4:
225 y
Correct Answer:
225 y
Solution:
As we learnt in
Differential Equations -
An equation involving independent variable (x), dependent variable (y) and derivative of
dependent variable with respect to independent variable
- wherein
So that
Q. 9
The integral equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Since all variables must be converted into a single variable ,

Q. 10 The function f defined by
is:
Option 1:
increasing in R.
Option 2:
decreasing in R.
Option 3:
decreasing in (0, ∞) and increasing in (−∞, 0).
Option 4:
increasing in (0, ∞) and decreasing in (−∞, 0).
Correct Answer:
increasing in R.
Solution:
First Derivative Test to Get Extrema -
First Derivative Test to Get Extrema

First find the value of x such that f’(x) = 0, let at x = a, f’(x) = 0
Now, find f”(x) at x = a.
1. If f”(a) < 0, then f(x) is maximum at x = a
2. If f”(a) > 0, then f(x) id minimum at x = a
3. If f”(a) = a
Then, find f’’’(x) at x = a.
If f’’’(a) ≠ 0, then f(x) has neither maximum nor minimum (inflection point) at x = a.
But, if f”’(a) = 0, then find fourth derivative of f(x) at x = a, i.e. f iv(x) at x = a.
If f iv(a) < 0, then f(x) is maximum at x = a and if f iv(a) > 0 then f(x) is minimum at x = a and so on.
SUMMARY
-
So,
for
Q. 11 The function : N → N is defined by
where N is the set of natural numbers and denotes the greatest integer less than or
equal to , is :
Option 1:
one-one and onto.
Option 2:
one-one but not onto.
Option 3:
onto but not one-one.
Option 4:
neither one-one nor onto.
Correct Answer:
neither one-one nor onto.
Solution:
Taking x in an interval of five natural numbers, we have the following:
Therefore, here, x ∈N. hence, f(x) is neither a one-one function nor onto function.
Q. 12 If the arithmetic mean of two numbers a and b, a > b > 0, is five times their geometric mean,
then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learned in
Arithmetic mean of two numbers (AM) -
and
Geometric mean of two numbers (GM) -
In this Question,
If
We know,
Therefore:
Q. 13 An aeroplane flying at a constant speed, parallel to the horizontal ground, km above it, is
observed at an elevation of from a point on the ground. If, after five seconds, its
elevation from the same point, is , then the speed (in m/s) of the aeroplane, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
400
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
400
Solution:
Angle of Elevation -
If an object is above the horizontal line from the eye, we have to raise our head to view the object.
- wherein
Q. 14 The area (in sq. units) of the parallelogram whose diagonals are along the vectors
Option 1:
26
Option 2:
65
Option 3:
20
Option 4:
52
Correct Answer:
65
Solution:
Geometrical Interpretation of Vector product -
Area of Parallelogram
If and , are two non-zero, non-parallel vectors represented by AD and AB respectively and let Ө be
the angle between them.
NOTE:
As we learnt in
Vector Product of two vectors(cross product) -
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
is unit vector perpendicular to both
and
Position vector of a point -
- wherein
Area of parallelogram =
where are diagonals
magnitude
Q. 15 The number of ways in which the examiner can assign 30 marks to 8 questions, giving not
less than 2 marks to any questions, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence,
Q. 16 Let f be a polynomial function such that for all Then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is given a polynomial function
Let having degree
becomes degree
becomes degree
Now it is given that
If we consider only degree
Assume
we get
and
Now Comparing coefficient of
Here a=0 or b=0
a cannot be zero so b=0
c=0
Similarly d=0
Hence
and
Option 2 is correct
Q. 17 The area (in sq. units) of the region common between the curves, x2 + y2 = 4 and y2 = 3x, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Finding point of intersection first
x2 + 3x - 4 = 0
x2 + 4x - x - 4 =0
x=1
and
Using symmetry,
Q. 18 The real number k for which the equation, has two distinct real roots in
[0,1].
Option 1:
does not exist.
Option 2:
lies between 1 and 2 .
Option 3:
lies between 2 and 3 .
Option 4:
lies between -1 and 0 .
Correct Answer:
does not exist.
Solution:
As we have learned
Quadratic Expression Graph when a> 0 & D > 0 -
Real and distinct roots of
&
- wherein
is the abscissa of vertex
and , it should lie in(0,1 ) but it's not true
S, no value of 'k' exists

Q. 19 The locus of the point of intersection of the straight lines, tx−2y−3t=0 and x−2ty+3=0 (t R),
is
Option 1:
an ellipse with eccentricity
Option 2:
an ellipse with the length of major axis 6
Option 3:
a hyperbola with eccentricity
Option 4:
a hyperbola with the length of conjugate axis 3
Correct Answer:
a hyperbola with the length of conjugate axis 3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Locus -
Path followed by a point p(x,y) under given condition (s).
- wherein
It is satisfied by all the points (x,y) on the locus.
Conjugate axis -
The line through the centre and perpendicular to transverse axis.
- wherein
On solving, from second equation
Bow from first equation
Here a=3, b=
Length of conjugrate axis
Q. 20 if
for some positive real number a, then a is equal to :
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
8
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Q. 21 Let A be any 3×3 invertible matrix. Then which one of the following is not always true ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Inverse of a matrix -
Option 1:
Option 2: adj (adj (A)) =
Put n = 3
Option 3: and 4
so option 4 is not always true
Q. 22 The curve satisfying the differential equation, y dx − (x + 3y2) dy = 0 and passing through the
point (1, 1), also passes through the point:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
Let us now find out the integrating factor I.F.,

Hence the solution of the equation is
Now checking options:
satisfies this equation
Q. 23
If and then the ordered
pair (A, B) is equal to : (where C is a constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Rule of integration by Partial fraction -
Linear and non-repeated:
Let
Find ...
By comparing and
Q. 24 A tangent to the curve,
meets x-axis at A and y-axis at B. If AP : BP=1 : 3 and (1)=1, then the curve also passes
through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Selection formula -
- wherein
If P(x,y) divides the line joining A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) in ration
A slope of a line -
- wherein
Slope of line joining A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) .
We have,
Now, Slope m=
Also, slope =
So,
Q. 25 Let f (x)=210⋅x + 1 and g(x) = 310.x−1. If (fog)(x) = x, then x is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using
Then,
Q. 26 If the sum of the first n terms of the series

, then n equals :
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sum of n terms of an AP -
or
In this Question,
(Negative value of n is rejected)
Q. 27
The expression can be written as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 28 If the vector is written as the sum of a vector , parallel to , and
a vector perpendicular to
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if and only if there exists a scalar m such as that
- wherein
m is a Scalar.
Properties of Scalar Product -
- wherein
Provided that
Vector Product of two vectors -
- wherein
So
Q. 29 On the sides AB,BC,CA, of 3,4,5 distibct points (excuding vertices A,B,C) are
respectively chosen. the number of trangles that can be constructed using these chosen
points as vertices are:
Option 1:
210
Option 2:
205
Option 3:
215
Option 4:
220
Correct Answer:
205
Solution:
Single triangle needs 3 vertices
Case 1:
One point in each side
Case 2:
1 point from side AB & 2 points from BC
Case 3:
1 point from side BC & 2 points from AC
Case 4:
1 point from side AC & 2 points from BC

Case 5:
1 point from side AB & 2 points from AC
Case 6:
1 point from side AC & 2 points from AB
Total Triangle = 60+18+12+40+30+30+15=205
Second Approach
Totel vertices =3+4+5=12
Q. 30
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Put
Q. 31
,then k is equal to:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Since all variables must be converted into single variable ,
put t = x-1
Q. 32
If z is a complex number of unit modulus and argument ,then arg equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Arg (z)=
So,
Thus, arg
Q. 33 If two parallel chords of a circle, having diameter 4 units, lie on the opposite sides of the
centre and subtend angles at the center respectively, then the
distance between these chords, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Circle -
A circle is the locus of a moving point such that its distance from a fixed point is constant.
- wherein
and using the concept of chords;

;
thus distance between them is
Q. 34
If for , the derivative of
is then equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
The functions and are the inverse trigonometric

functions.
- wherein
If
then,
Let,
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x we get:
................ ( 1 )
Now,
................... ( 2 )
From ( 1 ) and ( 2 )
On comparison,
Q. 35
If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now,
Now Put
similarly for
Q. 36 if and
then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
-24
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
eg:
......................(i)
from (i)
Q. 37
Let
If , where C is a constant of integration, then the ordered pair

(a, b) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence, and b = 0
Q. 38 The normal to the curve y(x−2)(x−3)=x+6 at the point where the curve intersects the y-axis
passes through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of Normal -
Equation of normal to the curve y = f(x) at the point P(x1, y1) on the curve having a slope MN is
-
equation of normal
Q. 39
The function defined as , is
Option 1:
injective but not surjective
Option 2:
surjective but not injective
Option 3:
neither injective nor surjective
Option 4:
invertible
Correct Answer:
surjective but not injective
Solution:
So that
So that it is not strictly increasing or decreasing function.

So that it is not one-one.
Correct option is 2
Q. 40 The number of ways in which 5 boys and 3 girls can be seated on a round table if a
particular boy B1 and a particular girl G1 never sit adjacent to each other, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rule for Circular Permutations -
(n - 1)! = Clockwise + Anticlockwise arrangement.
Ex. Seating arrangement of persons round a table.
- wherein
DISTINCT arrangement.
Number of ways = Total - when B1 and G1 sit together
Total ways to seat 8 people on table = 7!
When B1 and G1 sit together
Number of ways
Q. 41 ABCD is a trapezium such that AB and CD are parallel and BC CD.
If ADB = , BC= p and CD = q, then AB is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
,
,
Thus
Q. 42
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Triple Product -
- wherein
x and y are scalars.
and
Scalar Product of two vectors -
- wherein
is the angle between the vectors
Also,
Also,
So,
Q. 43 The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular from the point (1, −2, 1) on the plane
containing the lines
and
is
Option 1:
(2, −4, 2)
Option 2:
(−1, 2, −1)
Option 3:
(0, 0, 0)
Option 4:
(1, 1, 1)
Correct Answer:
(0, 0, 0)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cartesian equation of plane passing through a given point and normal to a given vector -
- wherein
Putting in
We get
First, we find the equation of plane normal vector of plane containing and is
Unit vector
Hence, equation of plane is of the form
It passes through (-1,1,3)
So plane is
Foot of perpendicular is (0,0,0)
Q. 44
The term independent of x in expansion of is :
Correct Answer:
210
Solution:
As we have learned
General Term in the expansion of (x+a)^n -

Now,
For term independent of x,
Q. 45
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 The objective function of a linear programming model is given as,
maximize,
Subject to constraint 1:
Constraint 2:
What is the objective function value if is used as a possible solution?
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Different Types of Linear Programming Problems -
As we learnt in
Corner Point Method -
This method of solving an LPP graphically is based on the principle of extreme points theorem.
-
at
Q. 47 The line of intersection of the planes
and
, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Equation of line as intersection of two planes -
Let the two intersecting planes be
and
then the parallel vector of the line formed their intersection can be obtained by
and points can be obtained by putting and solving
and
say
Now the equation will be
putting z = 0
3x-y = 1 and x + 4y = 2
Q. 48
The sum of the rational terms in the binomial expansion of is
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
41
Correct Answer:
41
Solution:
There are only two rational terms - first term and last term.
Q. 49 Let . The set of all x such that , is the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
(1,2)
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 50 The mean age of 25 teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher retires at the age of 60 years
and a new teacher is appointed in his place. If now the mean age of the teachers in this
school is 39 years, then the age (in years) of the newly appointed teacher is :
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
30
Option 3:
35
Option 4:
40
Correct Answer:
35
Solution:
No concept add
mean age years
years
= sum of ages
new teacher be of age let the
now
Q. 51
The last integral value of of such that satisfies,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
satisfies
Q. 52 If the common tangents to the parabola, x2=4y and the circle, x2+y2=4 intersect at the point
P, then the distance of P from the origin, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Standard equation of parabola -
- wherein
Condition of tangency -
- wherein
If is a tangent to the circle
Tangent to is
Also
If we put D=0
Hence Equation of Tangent is
As both the tangents intersect at y-axis
Distance from the origin is given by y coordinates or x=0
Q. 53
The integral is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Properties of Definite integration -
When
- wherein
Put the at the place of x in
Also,
=2
Q. 54 The number of solutions of the equation in the interval

is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 55
If be two complex numbers such that is a purely imaginary number ,
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 56 Consider an ellipse, whose centre is at the origin and its major axis is along the x-axis. If its
eccentricity is and the distance between its foci is 6, then the area (in sq. units) of the
quadrilateral inscribed in the ellipse, with the vertices as the end points of major and minor
axes of ellipse, is
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
80
Option 4:
40
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
Given
and
Hence a = 5
Area of quadrilateral ABCD = 4 Ar( )
= 40
Q. 57 The area (in sq. units) of the region
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Area along x axis -
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Point of intersection of
Q. 58 Let and be two sets.Then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Now,
Q. 59 A square, of each side 2, lies above the x-axis and has one vertex at the origin. If one of the
sides passing through the origin makes an angle 300 with the positive direction of the x-axis,
then the sum of the x-coordinates of the vertices of the square
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Parametric form -
- wherein
Where is the inclination of the line and is the distance between and
x-coordinates of A is
angle of OB with positive x-axis is
Hence x - coordinate of B is
x-cordinate of C is -2sin =-1
Hence Sum=
Q. 60 A line drawn through the point P(4, 7) cuts the circle x2+y2=9 at the points A and B. Then
PA⋅PB is equal to :
Option 1:
53
Option 2:
56
Option 3:
74
Option 4:
65
Correct Answer:
56
Solution:
As we learnt
Length of a tangent -
- wherein
Length of tangent from a external point to circle
Since we know,
Mock Test 2
Physics
Q. 1 In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference , at a certain point on the screen
between two interfering waves is of the wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this
point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to:
Option 1:
0.80
Option 2:
0.94
Option 3:
0.85
Option 4:
0.74
Correct Answer:
0.85
Solution:
Resultant Intensity of two wave -
- wherein
The intensity of wave 1
The intensity of wave 2
Phase difference
Putting
we get
At the centre
and at that point
Q. 2 In young's double slit experiment, 16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the
screen when light of wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400
nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be:
Option 1:
30
Option 2:
28
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
24
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Q. 3 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of the focal lenth 10cm. The
magnification of the image is:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learn
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
Object distance from pole of mirror.
Image distance from pole of mirror.
focal length of the mirror.

Q. 4 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10cm. The
magnification of the image is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learned
Mirror Formula -
- wherein

Q. 5 Maximum intensity in YOSE is I1. The intensity at a point on the screen where the phase
difference between two interfering beam is :
Option 1:
0.25 I1
Option 2:
0.75 I1
Option 3:
I1
Option 4:
0.5 I1
Correct Answer:
0.75 I1
Solution:
As we learn
Young Double Slit Experiment -
- wherein
Distance of a point on screen from central maxima
Path difference at that point

Q. 6 Which of the following is true about an object in light rays.
Option 1:
there are two types of objets real object and vitrul object
Option 2:
it may be point object or an extended pbject
Option 3:
both (A) ,and (B)
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both (A) ,and (B)
Solution:
as we lern
Object -
A source of light rays that are incident on an optical element. It may be a point object or an extended
object .They are of two kind real object & virtual object.
- wherein
There are two types of objects, rel object and virtual object
Q. 7 if keeping the incedence ray fixed ,the mirrior rotates by an angle the reflected light will
deviate from its original path by an angle
Option 1:
o
Option 2:
00
Option 3:
2 0
Option 4:
4 0
Correct Answer:
2 0
Solution:
as we learn
Rotation of Mirror -
Keeping the incidence ray fixed, When mirror is rotated by an angle , the reflected ray is rotated by an
angle .
- wherein
The reflected raywill deviate by an angle 2
Q. 8 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will
be:
Option 1:
Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = -1
Option 2:
Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = -2
Option 3:
Force if a = 0, b = - 1, c = - 2
Option 4:
Pressure if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
Correct Answer:
Pressure if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
Solution:
and
and
and
i.e option 4 is correct
Q. 9 The dimensions of are:
Option 1:
[L-1 T]
Option 2:
[L T-1]
Option 3:
[L1/2 T1/2]
Option 4:
[L1/2 T-1/2]
Correct Answer:
[L T-1]
Solution:
As we learnt in
Permeability of free space -
Dimension of permeablity of free space ( )-
- wherein
Where, C = Speed of light
C=
Q. 10 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t - 2t2 and y = 10t respectively,
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
5m /s2
Option 3:
-4m /s2
Option 4:
-8m /s2
Correct Answer:
-4m /s2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Introduction to Differentiation -
- wherein
x = 5t - y = 10t
vx=5-4t vy=10
ax=-4 ay=0
Acceleration of particle at
Q. 11 The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s . The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east . If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross he river along the
sortest path , the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t north is given by :
Option 1:
30 west
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
30 west
Solution:
Boat - River Problem -
To cross river in the shortest path
condition ( velocity of boat along river flow must be zero)
width of river
v = Speed of Boat w.r.t. river
u = speed of river
Q. 12 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked
up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the
moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk
up on the moving escalator will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Velocity of Preeti
Velocity of escalator
distance
Q. 13 The displacement time graphs of two moving particles make angles of and with the
x-axis as shown in the figure. the ratios of their respective velocity are
Option 1:
1:1
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For the displacement-time graph,
Slope = velocity
Q. 14 Out of below four equations of Maxwell which shows monopole do not exists
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Gauss's law for magnetism -
i.e Total magnetic flux passing through a closed area is equal to zero.
And this Gauss Law for magnetism shows that monopole does not exist
Q. 15 The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an
electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to:
Option 1:
reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
Option 2:
the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum
Option 3:
unity
Option 4:
the speed of light in vacuum
Correct Answer:
reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 16 The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 ke V. To which part of the spectrum does it
belong ?
Option 1:
Infra - red rays
Option 2:
Ultraviolet rays
Option 3:
- rays
Option 4:
X - rays
Correct Answer:
X - rays
Solution:
As we learnt in
X Rays -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 0.1 to 100
The wavelength corresponding to 15KeV
This belong to X-ray region of EM wave.
Q. 17 Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
E=
Q. 18 A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled,

then the outward electric flux will:
Option 1:
Be doubled
Option 2:
Increase four times
Option 3:
Be reduced to half
Option 4:
Remain the same
Correct Answer:
Remain the same
Solution:
As we learnt in
Gauss's Law -
Total flux linked with a closed surface called Gaussian surface.
Formula:
Qenc - charge enclosed by closed surface.

Electric flux through a surface =
since is constant, flux will remain same.
Q. 19 Within a spherical charge distribution of charge density ρ(r), N equipotential surfaces of

potential V0, V0 + V, V0 + 2V, .......... ( ), are drawn and have increasing
radii r0, r1, r2,..........rN, respectively. If the difference in the radii of the surfaces is constant
for all values of V0 and then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between field and potential -
- wherein
Potential gradient.
If P lies inside -
We know
Here and are same for any pair of surfaces.
E= constant
Now, electric field inside the spherical charge distribution
E would be constant of
Q. 20 A parallel plate capacitor is made of two plates of length l, width w and separated by
distance d. A dielectric slab (dielectric constant K) that fits exactly between the plates is held
near the edge of the plates. It is pulled into the capacitor by a force where U is
the energy of the capacitor when dielectric is inside the capacitor up to distance x (See
figure). If the charge on the capacitor is Q then the force on the dielectric when it is near the
edge is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 The electric field in a region of space is given by, where E0=100 N/C. The
flux of this field through a circular surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly
:
Option 1:
0.125 Nm2/C
Option 2:
0.02 Nm2/C
Option 3:
0.005 Nm2/C
Option 4:
3.14 Nm2/C
Correct Answer:
0.125 Nm2/C
Solution:
New flux
Q. 22 A charged particle is suspended in equilibrium in a uniform vertical electric field of intensity 20000
V/m. If mass of the particle is , the charge on it and excess number of electrons on
the particle are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electric field of intensity =20,000 V/m
The mass of particle =9.6 x 10-16 kg
For charge in equilibrium, qE=mg

Q. 23 The ratio of densities of nitrogen and oxygen is 14:16. The temperature at which the speed
of sound in nitrogen will be same at that in oxygen at is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
(since given the velocities are same)
Q. 24
Intensity level of a sound of intensity I is 30 dB. The ratio is (where I0 is the threshold for
hearing)
Correct Answer:
1000
Solution:
Q. 25 The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In parallel Grouping -
Power
150R = 100(5+R) => 150R = 500+100R
Q. 26 A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere

range. The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be:
Option 1:
0.001
Option 2:
0.01
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
0.05
Correct Answer:
0.001
Solution:
As we learnt in
Required shunt -
- wherein
Current through galvanometer
Full scale deflection current
The value of shunt required for converting it into ammeter of range 25 ampere is
Q. 27 In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500
and R = 100 the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is:
Option 1:
4V
Option 2:
2V
Option 3:
12 V
Option 4:
6V
Correct Answer:
2V
Solution:
Q. 28 If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt - 100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the
percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is:
Option 1:
20%
Option 2:
2.5%
Option 3:
5%
Option 4:
10%
Correct Answer:
5%
Solution:
Q. 29 A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 . Find the points A and B as shown in
the figure, at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance
R of the sub circuit between these points is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In series Grouping -
- wherein
Equivalent Resistance
Let x be resistance per unit length of the wire
Upper Portion
Lower Portion
Equivalent resistance between A and B is
-------------------------(i)
-----------------------------------(ii)
or
Let
=>
Q. 30 A wire of resistance 4 is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched
wire would be:
Option 1:
16
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resistance formula -
- wherein
resistivity of material
Number of free electrons per unit volume.
Volume of wire remains constant
New resistance
Q. 31 The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of
10 is:
Option 1:
1.0
Option 2:
0.2
Option 3:
0.5
Option 4:
0.8
Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
given
Q. 32 Bragg's law for X-rays is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bragg's law -
(condition of constructive maxima )

d=distance between parallel lines
= wavelength
= angle between light & plane
Q. 33 The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life time of another
radio-active element Y . Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then
Option 1:
X and Y decay at same rate always
Option 2:
X will decay faster than Y
Option 3:
Y will decay faster than X
Option 4:
X and Y have same decay rate initially
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So
And corresponding Activity is given as
The correct option is 2

Q. 34 Question is based on the following paragraph.
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and
Germer demonstrated this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the
diffraction from a crystal is obtained by requiring that electron waves reflected from the
planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see figure).
Question : Electrons accelerated by potential are diffracted from a crystal. If

should be about
Option 1:
50
Option 2:
2000
Option 3:
100
Option 4:
500
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bragg’s formula -
- wherein
Condition of constructive interference is
Take n = 1
So
&
Square both side
Q. 35 X- rays are -
Option 1:
Stream of neutral particles
Option 2:
Stream of negatively charged particles
Option 3:
Stream of protons
Option 4:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Correct Answer:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Solution:
As we learn
Characteristics x-ray -
=
- wherein
Characteristics x ray can be defined by knocking out of electron from inner orbit of an atom
Q. 36 Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in their respective first excited
states. They get de-excited by emitting photons of wavelengths ,
respectively. The ratio is closest to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The nucleus emits radiation of order of 0.1 (like rays)
And the energy of rays is in order of Mev.
Similary for hydrogen-like atoms
that energy of hydrogen-like atoms is in order of eV.
or atom emits radiation of order of
ratio
or
Q. 37 The momentum of a photon of energy h v will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Kinetic mass of photon -
- wherein
For photon E = pc.

Q. 38 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5eV respectively
illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons will be
Option 1:
1:4
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
1:1
Option 4:
1:5
Correct Answer:
1:2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conservation of energy -
- wherein
Q. 39 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is
Option 1:
4 RT
Option 2:
15 RT
Option 3:
9 RT
Option 4:
11 RT
Correct Answer:
11 RT
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total internal energy -
- wherein
Change in internal energy
(Always)
is degree of freedom
Internal energy of a system is

or
Q. 40 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram.
Match the following
Column-1 Column-2
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
Q. Process II b. Isobaric
R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
Option 1:
P a, Q c, R d, S b
Option 2:
P c, Q a, R d, S b
Option 3:
P c, Q d, R b, S a
Option 4:
P d, Q b, R a, S c
Correct Answer:
P c, Q a, R d, S b
Solution:
Q. 41
In a certain region of space, the gravitational field is given by Taking the
reference point to be at and potential at the reference point as .
Then find the potential at a general point ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As or
Q. 42 In the given (V - T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2 ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Cannot be predicted
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For an ideal gas
or
For V-T graph slope
From figure,
or
or
Q. 43 In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their
speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be:
Option 1:
4P
Option 2:
2P
Option 3:
P
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
2P
Solution:
Pressure of a gas -
- wherein
m = mass of a molecule
n = number of molecule /volume
< v2 > = Rms velocity
Pressure of a gas
if mass is halved and speed is doubled pressure becomes 2P

Q. 44 A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is long, with diameter of cross-
section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing on it and stretches
the cord by by applying a constant force. When released, the stone flies off with a
velocity of . Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of the cord while
stretched. The young's modulus (Nm-2) of rubber is closest to :
Option 1:
100000000
Option 2:
1000
Option 3:
1000000
Option 4:
10000
Correct Answer:
1000000
Solution:
For string
for stone
So apply energy conservation.
P.E. stored in string = K.E of stone

Q. 45 A small spherical droplet of density d is floating exactly half immersed in a liquid of density p
and surface tension T. The radius of the droplet is (take note that the surface tension applies
an upward force on the droplet) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 Needles N1,N2,and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
Option 1:
attract all three of them
Option 2:
attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
Option 3:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Option 4:
attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
Correct Answer:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Solution:
Ferromagnetic substance magnetizes strongly in the direction of magnetic field N1 is made up of
this material paramagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the direction of magnetic field. N2 is made of
this material. Diamagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the opposite direction of magnetic field. N3 is
made of this material.
∴ Magnet will attack N1 strongly, N2 weakly and it will repel N3 weakly.

Q. 47 An electron, moving along the x-axis with an initial energy of 100 eV, enters a region of the
magnetic field at S(See figure). The field extends between x=0 and
x=2 cm. The electron is detected at the point Q on a screen placed 8cm away from point S.
The distance d between P and Q (on the screen) is: (in cms)
(electron's charge , mass of electron
Correct Answer:
12.87
Solution:
The radius of charged particles -
m=mass of particle
P=momentum of particle
k= kinetic energy of the particle

R = 2.25 cm
here
Similarly
so
Q. 48 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper
carrying same current 'I' along the same direction is shown in Fig. Magnitude of force per
unit length on the middle wire ' B' is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Force between two parallel current carrying conductors -
- wherein
I1 and I2 current carrying two parallel wires
a-seperation between two wires
Force between wires A and B = Force between B and C
, net force on wire B
Q. 49 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of is
4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is
, then the input signal voltage is
Option 1:
10 mV
Option 2:
20 mV
Option 3:
30 mV
Option 4:
15 mV
Correct Answer:
20 mV
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
Three layered semiconducting device .

NPN or PNP
- wherein
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. collector is moderately doped .
3. Base is lightly doped & very thin
Q. 50 The increase in the width of the depeltion region in a p-n junction diode is due to:
Option 1:
forward bias only
Option 2:
reverse bias only
Option 3:
both forward bias reverse bias
Option 4:
increase in forward current
Correct Answer:
reverse bias only
Solution:
In reverse biasing, the positive terminal of the battery is connected to the n-type whereas the negative
terminal is connected to the p-type junction. So the positive terminal tend to pull the electrons (near to
the depletion layer) in n-type towards itself whereas the negative terminal pulls the holes towards itself
which results in increase in the width of depletion layer.
Q. 51 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current
flowing through the resistance R1 will be
Option 1:
2.5 A
Option 2:
10.0 A
Option 3:
1.43 A
Option 4:
3.13 A
Correct Answer:
2.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
In the given figure is in Reverse biased mode. hence no current will flow through it while is in
forward biased mode hence will offer Zero resistance
Correct Option is 1.
Q. 52 A 220-volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0
ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the
primary windings of the transformer is
Option 1:
5.0 ampere
Option 2:
3.6 ampere
Option 3:
2.8 ampere
Option 4:
2.5 ampere
Correct Answer:
5.0 ampere
Solution:
Q. 53 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 54 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac

source of 200 volt, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
2.0 A
Option 3:
4.0 A
Option 4:
8.0 A
Correct Answer:
4.0 A
Solution:
Q. 55 A particle of mass m is dropped from a height h above the ground. At the same time
another particle of the same mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a
speed of . If they collide head-on completely inelastically, the time taken for the
combined mass to reach the ground, in units of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
time for collision -
After t1 -
and
at the time of collision
and height from ground
so time
Hence the correct option is (3).

Q. 56 A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest , along a
horizontal straight line. The distance moved by the box in time 't' is proportional to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 57 Two blocks of masses 50 Kg and 30 Kg connected by a massless string pass over a tight
frictionless, pulley and rest on two smooth planes inclined at angles and respectively
with horizontal as shown in the figure. If the system is released from rest then find the time
taken by 30 Kg block to reach the ground
Option 1:
20 sec
Option 2:
30 sec
Option 3:
10 sec
Option 4:
50 sec
Correct Answer:
10 sec
Solution:
As we have learned
Double inclined plane with different angles -

- wherein
Adding (1) and (2)
Now
Q. 58
A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale. (g=10m/s2)
Correct Answer:
1200
Solution :
Reading of weighing scale = m(g+a) = 80(10 + 5) = 1200 N
Q. 59 A cylinder of mass Mc and sphere of mass Ms are placed at points A and B of two inclines,
respectively.
(See Figure). If they roll on the incline without slipping such that their accelerations are the
same, then
The ratio is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Acceleration along inclined plane
For sphere
For cylinder
Q. 60 A hollow hemisphere of mass m is placed on a hollow sphere of mass m. The center of mass
of given arrangement from point A is at the height
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure
hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:
Correct Answer:
0.478
Solution:
Q. 2 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a
solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 3 Which of the following mixture form maximum boiling azeotrope?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Benzene + Toluene
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution showing negative deviation from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotropes. The mixture of
and form non-ideal solution which shows negative deviation form Raoult's law.

Q. 4 Which of the following is true about chemical cells?
Option 1:
Convert chemical energy to electrical energy
Option 2:
most batteries are chemical cells
Option 3:
i and ii
Option 4:
none
Correct Answer:
i and ii
Solution:
As we learnt
Chemical Cells -
The cells in which electrical energy is produced from the energy change accompanying chemical
reactions or a physical process are known as chemical cells.
Chemical cells convert chemical energy to electrical energy
Q. 5 What is the value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction when
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Standard Gibbs Energy -
- wherein
K= equilibrium constant of the reaction
Q. 6 Iodine reacts with concentrated to yield Y along with other products. The oxidation
state of iodine in Y, is :
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
7
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Oxidation state of oxygen family -
Oxygen shows -2,+2 and -1
oxidation states other elements show +2,+4 and +6 oxidation states
Rules for Oxidation Number -
The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is -2. There are two exceptions.
In peroxide (H2O2; Na2O2), the oxidation number is -1.
- wherein
As we have learned in oxidation number the reaction is
The reaction occurs as follows:
Y here is HIO3 and the oxidation state of iodine in HIO3 is given below:
Q. 7 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide

and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in
the sample ?
(At. Wt. : Mg = 24)
Option 1:
75
Option 2:
96
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
84
Correct Answer:
84
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Moles = given mass of substance/ molar mass of the substance
By the stoichiometry of the reaction above, we know that 1 mol of the gives 1 mol of MgO.
moles of MgO obtained
Moles of MgO that should have been obtained in a pure sample = 0.238
moles of in the sample
= moles of MgO in the sample
= 0.2
Q. 8 The number of water molecules is maximum in :
Option 1:
18 molecules of water
Option 2:
1.8 gram of water
Option 3:
18 gram of water
Option 4:
18 moles of water
Correct Answer:
18 moles of water
Solution:
Mole Concept -
one mole = 6.0221367 1023 = NA
Let us check the number of molecules in each option.
18 molecules of water have 18 molecules
1.8 grams of water has
18 grams of water has
18 moles of water has 18 NA molecules
Q. 9 On increasing the temperature, the value of will
Option 1:
Increase
Option 2:
Decrease
Option 3:
Remain Same
Option 4:
Either Increase or Decrease
Correct Answer:
Increase
Solution:
Henry's constant depends on temperature and nature of gas.
increases on increasing temperature.
Therefore, option (1) is correct
Q. 10 On increasing pressure of a gas, solubility of gas in liquid:

Option 1:
Decreases
Option 2:
Increases
Option 3:
First Increases then decreases
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
Increases
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Solubility of Gases on Temperature and Pressure -
As
On increasing pressure, the collision of gas molecules on the liquid surface increases thus solubility of
the gas in liquid increases.
Q. 11 The value of & are 80, 145, 75, and 35 Kbar respectively, the least
soluble gas in water is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Gases having more values will have less solubility.
Among the given gases 'He' has the highest value.
Q. 12 Which of the following forces stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins i.e. further folding of
the secondary structure?
Option 1:
disulphide linkages
Option 2:
hydrogen bond
Option 3:
electrostatic forces of attraction
Option 4:
all of these
Correct Answer:
all of these
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Tertiary proteins are obtained when polypeptides undergo further folding and coiling of secondary
protein
Structure is stabilized by :
1. Ionic bond
2. Disulphide bond
3. bond
4. Vander waals forces
5. Electrostatic forces

Q. 13
The above reaction is catalysed by which class of enzymes ?
Option 1:
Ligases
Option 2:
Hydrolases
Option 3:
Lyases
Option 4:
Oxidareductases
Correct Answer:
Ligases
Solution:
As we have learned
Ligase -
Enzymes are responsible for linking together of two molecules into one at the expense of energy.
- wherein
Eg. Synthetase
Ligases remove the elements of water from two fundamental groups to form a single bond.

Q. 14 Which of the following are water-soluble vitamins?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Ascorbic acid
d ) Pyridoxine
e) Vitamin D
Option 1:
c,d
Option 2:
a,b,e
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
c,e
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Water-soluble vitamins -
They are soluble in water but not in fats or oils.
Vitamin groups, Vitamin are water-soluble vitamins.
Pyridoxine (Vitamin ) and ascorbic acid ( Vitamin ) are water-soluble.

Q. 15 For the cell , different half cells and their standard
electrode potential are given below :
If which cathode will give a maximun value of per electron

transfered?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that
And
from above
For Ag2+/Ag
Electron transfer :
n (reaction) = 2 , n1(Zn) = 2, n2(Ag) = 1
and
After putting the value:
After calculating the other 1.16 will be the maximum.
Therefore,option(4) is correct.
Q. 16 The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in at is :
(Faraday's constant, )
Option 1:
-384
Option 2:
384
Option 3:
192
Option 4:
-192
Correct Answer:
-384
Solution:

Q. 17 An example of a disproportionation reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Disproportionation reactions are those reactions where oxidation & reduction occur on the same species,
simultaneously
the oxidation state of Cu :
in KMnO4 reaction, Mn is going +7 to +6 and +4, only reduction.
In MnO4- and I- reaction, Mn is going to +7 to +2 and I is going to -1 to zero, both reduction and oxidation
but with different atoms.
In NaBr and Cl2 reaction, both reduction and oxidation but with different atoms.
Q. 18 [Co2(CO)8] displays :
Option 1:
one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Option 2:
one Co−Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
Option 3:
no Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Option 4:
no Co−Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
Correct Answer:
one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Solution:
The structure of [Co2(CO)8]
In one Co-Co bond, six terminal bond and two bridge CO are present
Q. 19 In the extraction of which of the following, complex ion is formed:
Option 1:
Cu
Option 2:
Ag
Option 3:
Fe
Option 4:
Na
Correct Answer:
Ag
Solution:
The extraction of Silver is done using the McArthur Forest Cyanide method.
Sodium dicyano argentate

Sodium tetracyano zincate
Q. 20 Types of isomerism shown by
Option 1:
Optical
Option 2:
Co-ordination
Option 3:
Geometrical
Option 4:
Linkage
Correct Answer:
Linkage
Solution:
As we have learnt,
is an ambidentate ligand and can be attached from both the N site as well as the O site in the form
of and respectively.
Hence, the given complex can show Linkage isomerism
Q. 21 The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be , while it should have
been for pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the
diluted sample ?
Option 1:
2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 2:
Option 3:
1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 4:
1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Freezing point of milk
Freezing point of milk (diluted)
Q. 22 The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N*H) in a 0.10 M
aqueous pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 x 10-9) is:
Option 1:
0.0060%
Option 2:
0.013%
Option 3:
0.77%
Option 4:
1.6%
Correct Answer:
0.013%
Solution:
% pyridine that form pyridinium
Correct answer is option is (2)
Q. 23 The solubility of with solubility product in solution would be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now , as is a strong electrolyte.
The correct answer is option 2
Q. 24 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
Option 1:
BF3
Option 2:
PF3
Option 3:
CF4
Option 4:
SiF4
Correct Answer:
PF3
Solution:
A lewis base is a compound that can donate a lone pair of electrons while a lewis acid accepts a lone pair
of electrons.
behave like lewis's base because it has one pair of electrons, while can accept lone pair of an
electron in and in vacant orbitals and act as lewis acid.
has complete octet and acts as none.
Henec, the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 25 Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction
has a value of at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant
for the following reaction at the same temperature?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward direction.
is the equilibrium constant for the reverse direction.
for
Q. 26 Which of the following is Turnbull's blue?
Option 1:
Ferricyanide
Option 2:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Option 3:
Ferrous cyanide
Option 4:
Ferri ferrocyanide
Correct Answer:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Solution:
Turnbull's blue has the formula
It is named as Ferrous ferricyanide
Q. 27 Which of the following can be detected by the borax bead test ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both a and b
Correct Answer:
Both a and b
Solution:
Borax bead -
Used for the detection of coloured basic radicals in borax bead test.
Therefore,option (4) is correct.
Q. 28 The major product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is:
Option 1:
Ethane
Option 2:
Ethene
Option 3:
Ethylalcohol
Option 4:
Nitroethane
Correct Answer:
Nitroethane
Solution:
Reaction of alkyl halide with AgNO_{2} -
Alkyl halides when treated with AgNO2 in aqueous ethanol, Nitro alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
Q. 29 For the reaction, A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + D(g), H0 and S0 are, respectively, −29.8 kJ mol−1 and
−0.100 kJ K−1 mol−1 at 298 K. The equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298 K is :
Option 1:
1.0 × 10−10
Option 2:
1.0 × 1010
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 30 The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are −393.5 and −283.5 kJ mol−1,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is:
Correct Answer:
-110
Solution:
Q. 31 The heat of atomization of methane and ethane are 360 kJ/mol and 620 kJ/mol, respectively.
The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking the C - C bond is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The heat of the atomization of methane is 360 kJ/mol.
This corresponds to the breaking of four C−H bonds.
Hence, the heat corresponding to the breaking of one C−H bond is
The heat of atomization of ethane is 620 kJ/mol.
This corresponds to the breaking of one C−C bond and six C−H bonds.
The heat corresponding to the breaking of on C-C bond will be 620−6(90)=80 kJ/mol
This corresponds to 1 mole. For one single bond, the required energy that can be obtained by dividing
with Avogadro's number is given by
The energy is related to wavelength by relation

Substitute values in the above expression.
Q. 32 Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
Option 1:
CO, NO
Option 2:
O2, NO+
Option 3:
CN-, CO
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
CN-, CO
Solution:
Bond Order -
Bond order is defined as one half the difference between the number of electrons present in the bonding
and the antibonding orbitals.
- wherein
Bond order
O2 : N b = 10, N a = 6, Bond order = 2
NO+ : N b = 10, N a = 4, Bond order = 3
CN- : N b = 10, Na = 4, Bond order = 3

CO : N b = 10, Na = 4, Bond order = 3
N2 : N b = 10, Na = 4, Bond order = 3
O-2 : N b = 10, Na = 7, Bond order = 1.5
NO : N b = 10, Na = 5, Bond order = 2.5
Q. 33 Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3- :
Option 1:
It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
Option 2:
It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
Option 3:
It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
Option 4:
It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
Correct Answer:
It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
Solution:
Shape of molecules -
-
hybridised and it is octahedral.
Q. 34 Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
Option 1:
The H - C - H bond angle in CH4, the H - N - H bond angle in NH3, and the H - O - H bond angle in H2O
are all greater than 90o.
Option 2:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
Option 3:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
Option 4:
The H - C - H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
Correct Answer:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in
valence shell.
2. Order of repulsion
3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atom.
From the above fugure it is clear that H—O—H bond angle in is smaller than H—C—H bond angles
in .
Q. 35 Of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, the highest oxidation state is
achieved by which one of them?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 36 The major product of the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given substrate undergoes dehydrohalogenation to form an alkene and the
subsequent polymerisation reaction occurs as:
It is to be mentioned that the chlorine attached to the Benzene ring will not undergo substitution with
KOH very easily due to partial double bond character between the benzene ring and the chloro group.
Q. 37 The following reaction is performed at 298 K .
2NO(g) + O2 (g) 2NO2 (g)
The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K.
What is the standard free energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K ?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given that
and we know that
Q. 38 Which of the following potential energy (PE) diagram represents the reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
reaction occurs in two steps. The first step is the formation of the Carbocation while the second step
is the attack of the nucleophile to form the final product.
Since the formation of the Carbocation is the slow step in the reaction, the energy profile diagram will
have a higher peak for the formation of the carbocation. The second peak represents the activation
energy required for the nucleophile to bond with the Carbocation which will have a lower peak than the
slowest step.
Q. 39 The number of - electrons retained in ions is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electronic Configuration -
The 'd' block elements follow the general configuration .
Q. 40 Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

Option 1:
Th
Option 2:
Ac
Option 3:
Pa
Option 4:
U
Correct Answer:
Ac
Solution:
Electronic configuration - Actinoids follow the general configuration
Due to the electronic configuration of Actinium, it only shows a +3 oxidation state because,
after the loss of 3 electrons, actinium acquires noble gas electronic configuration.
Q. 41 Which of the statements is not true?
Option 1:
On passing through acidified solution, a milky colour is observed.
Option 2:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis.
Option 3:
solution in acidic medium is orange.
Option 4:
solution becomes yellow on increasing pH beyond 7.
Correct Answer:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis.
Solution:
Due to hygroscopic nature of
Correct Answer is Option 2
Q. 42 When is reduced with the compound obtained will be

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
LiAlH4 is a strong reducing agent, it reduces carboxylic group into primary alcoholic group without
affecting the double bond in the compound
Q. 43 A bacterial infection in an internal wound grows as ,
where the time t is in hours. A dose of antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to reach the
wound.
Once it reaches there, the bacterial population goes down as .
What will be the plot of vs. t after 1 hour ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From t hour =>
After 1 hour, it is given :
at t = 1 hour ,
Now,
After 1 hour the graph will be from 1 hour to t hour and N' from eNo to N.
This equation is similar to the straight-line equation (Y=mx+C)
So, the curve will be a straight line and the slope will be positive.
Option (3) is correct.

Q. 44 A first order reaction has a rate constant, , calculate the Half life of
reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Half life for a first order reaction is given as:
Q. 45 For a first order reaction, calculate the ratio between the time taken to complete 3/4 th of
the reaction and time taken to complete half of the reaction?
Option 1:
4/3
Option 2:
8/3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 46 The half life of a first order reaction is 60 min. How long (in min.) will it take to consume 90%
of the reaction?
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
For the first-order reaction,
Q. 47 Which one is the wrong statement?
Option 1:
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by , where m = mass of the particle, = group velocity of
the particle.
Option 2:
The uncertainty principle is
Option 3:
Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
Option 4:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
Correct Answer:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
Solution:
As we learned in
The principal quantum number determines the size and to large extent the energy of the orbital.
For a hydrogen-like atom, the energy of the 2s orbital is the same as the energy of the 2p orbital.
Q. 48 In which pair of ions do both the species contain bond?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Q. 49 The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion- exchange resins follows
the order:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resin decreases as the size of
alkali metal ion increases.
Since the order of the size of alkali metal ion follows the order-
Therefore, the ease of adsorption follows the order-
Q. 50 The IUPAC name of the compound
is _______.
Option 1:
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Option 2:
5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Option 3:
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 51 Reaction of benzene diazonium with A will give us benzene. A is
Option 1:
Fluroboric acid
Option 2:
Hypophosphorus acid
Option 3:
Potassium halide
Option 4:
water
Correct Answer:
Hypophosphorus acid
Solution:
As we have learned
Benzene can be obtained by reacting benzene diazonium with H3PO2

Q. 52 Consider the reaction given below
The major product (A) obtained in the reaction is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of tertiary arylamines with HNO2 -
Tertiary arylamines react with nitrous acid to form p - Nitroso aromatic compounds. Electrophilic
aromatic substitution occurs on the benzene ring in which a Nitroso group is substituted on the Benzene
ring.
The reaction is given below
Q. 53
The above process in which and form remain in equilibrium with acyclic form and a
change in optical rotation is observed which is called as -
Option 1:
Mutarotation
Option 2:
Epimerisation
Option 3:
Condensation
Option 4:
Inversion
Correct Answer:
Mutarotation
Solution:
When either of the two forms of glucose ( and ) is dissolved in
water , there is spontaneous change in specific rotation till the equilibrium value of
The above phenomenon is called as mutarotation.
Q. 54 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution ?
Option 1:
0.177
Option 2:
1.770
Option 3:
0.0354
Option 4:
0.0177
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learned in
Q. 55 If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 x 1023 mol-1 to 6.022 x 1020 mol-1, this would
change :
Option 1:
the definition of mass in units of grams.
Option 2:
the mass of one mole of carbon.
Option 3:
the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.
Option 4:
the ratio of elements to each other in a compund.
Correct Answer:
the mass of one mole of carbon.
Solution:
As we learnt in
One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are atoms in
exactly 12 g (or 0.012 kg) of the 12C isotope.
1 mole of substance = 6.0221367 X 1023 units of that substance (such as atoms, molecules, or ions). The
number 6.0221367 X 1023 is known as Avogadro's number or Avogadro's constant.
1 mol of carbon has mass = 12 g
atoms of carbon mass = 12 g
So if now, 1 mole = 6.022 1020
then 6.022 1020 atoms of carbon mass =
1 mol of carbon atom mass = 0.012 g
Q. 56 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of
water produced in this reaction will be -
Option 1:
1 mol
Option 2:
2 mol
Option 3:
3 mol
Option 4:
4 mol
Correct Answer:
4 mol
Solution:
The reaction will be-
Two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 will produce two moles of water.
5 Moles of H2 can produce 5 moles of water while 2 moles of O2 can produce 4 moles of water.
Thus, O2 is the limiting reactant and 4 moles H2O will be produced.
Q. 57 25.3 g of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is dissolved in enough water to make 250 ml of

solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, the molar concentration of sodium ion
(Na+) and carbonate ion are respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol-1
Option 1:
0.477 M and 0.477 M
Option 2:
0.955 M and 1.910 M
Option 3:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Option 4:
1.90 M and 1.910 M
Correct Answer:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Solution:
Q. 58 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Size of isoelectronic species -
Smaller the value of z/e, the larger the size of that species. Smaller z means the effective nuclear charge
is small hence size is large.
Cations lose electrons and are smaller in size than the parent atom, whereas anions add electrons and
are larger in size than the parent atom. Hence the order is
For isoelectronic species, the ionic radii decrease with an increase in atomic number, i.e., nuclear charge.
Hence the correct orders are as given below:
Q. 59 The increasing order of the acidity of the following carboxylic acids is:
Option 1:
I < III < II < IV
Option 2:
IV < II < III < I
Option 3:
II < IV < III < I
Option 4:
III < II < IV < I
Correct Answer:
III < II < IV < I
Solution:
As we learnt in
Acidic strength of carboxylic acid -
-NO2 and -Cl are electron withdrawing groups while -OH is electron donating group.
Ring deactivating groups increases the acidic character whereas ring activating groups decreases the
acidic strength.

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Between OH and OMe, OH is more attacking species due to the formation of phenoxide ion by OH group.
Maths
Q. 1 5- digit numbers are to be formed using 2,3,5,7,9 without repeating the digits.If p be the
number of such numbers that exceed 20000 and q be the number of those that lie between
30000 and 90000 then p:q is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number greater than 20000 or p
1st place can be placed with 5 possibilities and second with 4 possibilities and so on
So
And
Number greater than 30000 and less than 90000 or q
1st place can be placed with 3 possibilities(3,5,7) and second with 4 possibilities and so on
So
Q. 2 Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a circular
sector. Then the maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is :
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
As we have learned
Method for maxima or minima -
By second derivative method :
- wherein
So,
So ,
Hence
Q. 3
If
where k is a constant of integration, then A + B + C equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Q. 4
Let ,where z is any non-zero complex number.
The set is equal to:
Option 1:
(-1,1)
Option 2:
[-1,1]
Option 3:
[0,1)
Option 4:
(-1,0]
Correct Answer:
(-1,1)
Solution:
Now,
Q. 5 The eccentricity of an ellipse having centre at the origin, axes along the co-ordinate axes
and passing through the points (4, −1) and (−2, 2) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Eccentricity -
- wherein
For the ellipse
It passes through (4,-1) and (-2,2)
and
Q. 6
If , then 'a' is equal to :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
1 to the power of infinity Form -
It is form.
Q. 7 For two 3 × 3 matrices A and B, let A + B = 2B' and 3A + 2B = I3, where B' is the transpose of B
and I3 is 3 × 3 identity matrix. Then :
Option 1:
5A + 10B = 2I3
Option 2:
10A + 5B = 3I3
Option 3:
B + 2A = I3
Option 4:
3A + 6B = 2I3
Correct Answer:
10A + 5B = 3I3
Solution:
Given A + B = 2B' .............(1)
Taking transpose of both the sides
(A + B)' = (2B')'
A' + B' = 2(B')'
A' + B' = 2B ...........(2)
Also given, 3A + 2B = I ....(3)
Taking transpose of both the sides
3A' + 2B' = I ....(4)
(Note: Transpose of I is I itself)
Now from these 4 equations we need to get a relation in A and B by eliminating A' and B'
Let us first eliminate B'
From (4): 3A' + A + B = I (Using (1)) ....(5)
And 2 x (2):
2A' + 2B' = 4B
2A' + A + B = 4B
2A' + A - 3B = 0 .....(6)
From (5) and (6) we can eliminate A' as well
From (5): 3A' = I - A - B .....(7)
From (6): 2A' = 3B - A .....(8)

2x(7) - 3x(8): 0 = 2I + A - 11B .....(9)
From (9) and (3): A = B = I/5
For option (B) : 10A + 5B = 2I + I = 3I
Hence option (B) is correct
Q. 8 If
and y(0)=1,then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Solution of Differential Equation -
put
- wherein
Equation with convert to
Now put
Q. 9
If
is equal to :
Option 1:
log4
Option 2:
Option 3:
log2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
log2
Solution:
Integration By PARTS -
Let and are two functions then
- wherein
Where is the Ist function is he IInd function

Q. 10
If the function is differentiable at x = 1, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rule for continuous -
A function is continuous at x = a if and only if
L.H.L R.H.L value at x = a.
- wherein
Where
1+b=0 b=-1
Now f(x) will be continuous at x=1
Q. 11
For, let and
then the value of is approximately equals to:
Correct Answer:
1.67
Solution:
Put n = 0
Put n = 1
Put n = 2
( same as fo(x))
So at n = 0, 3, 6, ...............96,99;
at n = 1, 4, 7, ...................97,100,103;
and n = 2, 5, 8,............98,101,104 ;
Q. 12 Let Sn =
If 100 Sn = n, then n is equal to :
Correct Answer:
199
Solution:
Its term is
.....
Adding all these
Now
Q. 13 A value of for which , is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have given
Q. 14 In a triangle ABC, right angled at the vertex A, if the position vectors of A, B and C are
respectively
then the point (p, q) lies on a line :
Option 1:
parallel to x-axis.
Option 2:
parallel to y-axis.
Option 3:
making an acute angle with the positive direction of x-axis.
Option 4:
making an obtuse angle with the positive direction of x-axis
Correct Answer:
making an acute angle with the positive direction of x-axis.
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Replace (p,q) with (x,y)
3x-2y+13=0
Acute angle with +x-axis

Q. 15 A committee of 4 person is to be formed from 2 ladies , 2 old men and 4 young men such
that it includes at least 1 lady, at least 1 old man and at most 2 young men . Then the total
number of ways in which this committee can be formed is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case 1
0 young men 2 old men and 2 lady
Case 2
Case 3
Case 4
Hence
Q. 16 The minimum distance of a point on the curve y = x2 − 4 from the origin is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept @ZWYX and use of maxima/minima
Let point at minimum distance from O is
Q. 17 The area (in sq. units) of the region described by A = {(x, y)|y ≥ x2 − 5x + 4, x + y ≥ 1, y ≤ 0} is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Point of intersection of
y= x2-5x+4 and x+y=1 are x=1,3
at x=1, y=0;
x=3, y= -2
Req Area
Q. 18 The values of for which one root of the equation

exceeds and the other is lesser than , are given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
There are two cases that arise
Case 1 a - 3 > 0 and 3a + 11 < 0
Case 2 a - 3 < 0 and 3a + 11 > 0
Q. 19 If y = mx + c is the normal at a point (in first quadrant) on the parabola y2 = 8x whose focal
distance is 8 units, then |c| is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here
We know that for ,
Focal distance = a + x-coordinate of the point
Thus 8 = 2 + at2
2t2 = 6
Now
Put value
Comparing with y = mx + c
Q. 20 If is a differentiable function in the interval (0, ∞) such that = 1 and

for each , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
L - Hospital Rule -
- wherein
Now, let y=f(x)
If
Put, x=1, y=1
Put,
Q. 21 If is a solution of the system of linear equations
such that the point (a, b, c) lies on the plane then equals :
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
and given
solve for a,b, and c
so that
Q. 22 The order and the degree of the differential equation of all ellipses with centre at the origin,
major axis along x-axis and
eccentricity \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} are, respectively :
Option 1:
2, 2
Option 2:
1, 1
Option 3:
2, 1
Option 4:
1, 2
Correct Answer:
1, 1
Solution:
As we learned in
Order of a Differential Equation -
The order of a differential equation is the order of highest order occurring in a differential equation
- wherein
order of
is 2.
Let the equation of ellipse is

Q. 23
The integral
is equal to: (where C is a constant of integration.)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 24 If m and M are the minimum and the maximum values of
then M−m is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Method for maxima or minima -
First and second derivative method :

- wherein
Let,
So that
m=4
and
Q. 25
If and then S:
Option 1:
is an empty set
Option 2:
contains exactly one element
Option 3:
contains exactly two elements
Option 4:
contains more than two elements
Correct Answer:
contains exactly two elements
Solution:
Put at the place of
(i)
(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 2
and
Q. 26 For any three positive real numbers a, b and c, 9(25a2+b2)+25(c2−3ac)=15b(3a+c). Then:

Option 1:
b, c and a are in A.P.
Option 2:
a, b and c are in A.P.
Option 3:
a, b and c are in G.P.
Option 4:
b, c and a are in G.P.
Correct Answer:
b, c and a are in A.P.
Solution:
multiply and divide by 2
225a2+9b2+25c2+225a2+9b2+25c2-2(15a)(3b)-2(3b)(5c)-2(5c)(15a) = 0
So that 15a - 3b = 0 and 3b - 5c = 0
So that
Now
a, b,c are not in A.P.
Now
And a + b = 2k/5
So b, c, a are in A.P.
Q. 27 The number of solutions of the equation, (in principal values)is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation is
So, the number of solutions is 3.
Q. 28 If and are unit vectors satisfying , then the angle between the
vectors and is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 29 The sum of the digits in the unit’s place of all the 4-digit numbers formed by using the
numbers 3, 4, 5 and 6, without repetition, is :
Option 1:
432
Option 2:
108
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
18
Correct Answer:
108
Solution:
No. of 4 digits number formed = 4 !
Now each digit comes equal no. of times at unit place = 3!
Each digit appears at unit place
So sum = 3! (3+4+5+6)
= 6 x 18
= 108
Q. 30
Option 1:
−2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
−2
Solution:
Now use series expansion
Q. 31 The value of the integral
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is :
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Using Property
Q. 32 If p and q are non-zero real numbers and , then a quadratic

equation whose roots are is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence, the required quadratic equation is
Q. 33 The two adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 2 and 5 and the angle between them is
600. If the area of the
quadrilateral is then the perimeter of the quadrilateral is :
Option 1:
12.5
Option 2:
13.2
Option 3:
12
Option 4:
13
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have Learnt
Using concept ABDC, Cyclic quadrilateral (opp. angles are supplementary), and concept of properties
of triangle
Area of
Area of
now,
(Using cosine's rule)
and
(Using cosine's rule)
Also
Hence, Perimeter =(x+y)+5+2=5+7=12

Q. 34 Let a, b R, (a ≠ 0). If the function defined as
is continuous in the interval [0, ∞), then an ordered pair (a, b) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given function is
since the function is continuous

Q. 35
If then adj is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we leant in
Multiplication of matrices -
-
Adjoint of a square matrix -
Transpose of the matrix of co-factors of elements of is called the adjoint of
- wherein
adj A= Transpose of cofactors
so that
Q. 36 The solution of the differential equation
and y(0)=1, is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given differential equation is
Q. 37 For if is a differentiable function such that
then y(x)
equals : (where C is a constant.)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
differentiate above equation
Again differentiate
Solve the differential equation
Q. 38 Let . Then is an increasing function in the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 39 For then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
COMPOSITION OF FUNCTIONS -
Let f∶ A → B and g∶ B → C be two functions.

composition of f and g, denoted by g o f, then g o f (x) = g (f (x)), ∀ x ∈ A.
-
Q. 40 Let if is such that a+b+c=3 and
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
330
Solution:
As we learnt in
Summation of series of natural numbers -
and
Now,
f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
a+b+c=3
f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)+xy
Then
f(1) = a + b + c =3
f(1) =3
put x = 1, y = 1
f(2) = f(1) + f(1) + 1 1
=2f(1)+1
=2 3+1=7
put x=1, y = 2
f(3)= f(1)+f(2)+2 1
=3+7+2
=12
Similarly f(4) = 18 (By putting x = 2 and y = 2)
f(1)+f(2)+f(3)+ f(4)+.....------= 3+7+12+18---
Now, as differences of cosecutive terms are 4, 5, 6, ..... which is an AP, so
Let An2+Bn+C
put n =1: 3 = A+B+C
At n =2: 7 = 4A+2B+C
At n =3: 12 = 9A+3B+C
Subtracting these equations
4 = 3A+B and 5 = 5A+B
1= 2A
B+C =
2B+C
=7-2 = 5
C=0
So
put n =10
= 330
Q. 41 Statement 1: The number of common solutions of the trigonometric equations

and in the interval is two :
Statement 2 : The number of solutions of the equation, in the

interval is two.
Option 1:
Statement 1 is true ; Statement 2 is true ; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
Option 2:
Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1
Option 3:
Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
Option 4:
Statement 1 is true ; Statement 2 is false.
Correct Answer:
Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1
Solution:
Hence, there are two common solutions, there each of the statement- 1 and 2 are true but statement- 2
is not a correct explanation for statement-1.
Q. 42 Let be two unit vectors such that if then

is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

- wherein
and
Scalar Product of two vectors (dot product) -
- wherein
Squaring both sides

Q. 43 If a variable plane, at a distance of 3 units from the origin, intersects the coordinate axes at
A, B and C, then the locus of the centroid of ABC is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Intercept form -
- wherein
Let the plane cuts the coordinate axis at

Centroid of triangle -
- wherein
Distance of a point from plane (Cartesian form) -
The length of perpendicular from to the plane
is given by
where,
So,
Q. 44 If for positive integers , , the coefficients of the and powers of x
in the expansion of are equal,then n is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 45 A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m high and its elevation from a point O on
the ground is 450. It flies off horizontally straight away from the point O.After one second,
the elevation of the bird from O is reduced to 300. Then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Height and Distances -
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
-
Q. 46 Following is an infeassible solution for the linear programming model given below:
Maximize,
Subject to constraint
Constraint 2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Different Types of Linear Programming Problems -
As we learnt in
Corner Point Method -
This method of solving a LPP graphically is based on the principle of extreme points theorem.
-
At (1,3), it is maximum
Q. 47 If the line lies in the plane,
2x−4y+3z=2,
then the shortest distance between this line and the line
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learned
Shortest distance between two skew lines (vector form) -
Shortest distance between is given by
- wherein
shortest distance is among the line which is perpendicular to both
shortest distance will be projection of PQ = on LM
So,
Where
So distance = 0
Q. 48
If the 7th term in the binomial expansion of , , is equal to 729,
then x can be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
e
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
e
Solution:
Given expansion is
According to the question
Q. 49 The number of values of in for which
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Trigonometric Equations -
The equations involving trigonometric function of unknown angles are known as trigonometric
equations.
- wherein
e.g.
Hence, possible solutions are
Hence solutions are
Q. 50 Three people P, Q and R independently try to hit a target. If the probabilities of their hitting
the target are respectively, then the probability that the target is hit by P or Q
but not by R is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Addition Theorem of Probability -
in general:
Independent events -
Two or more events are said to be independent if occurrence or non-occurrence of any of them does not
affect the probability of occurrence of or non - occurrence of other events.
P (P or Q not R) =
Q. 51 Let z satisfy and .
Statement I : z is a real number.
Statement II: Principal argument of z is .
Option 1:
Statement I is true;Statement II is true;Statement II is a correct explanation for statement I.
Option 2:
Statement I is false; Statement II is true .
Option 3:
Statement I is true;Statement II is false.
Option 4:
Statement I is true;Statement II is true;Statement II is not a correct explanation for statement I.
Correct Answer:
Statement I is false; Statement II is true .
Solution:
Hence, z is not a real number

So, statement-1 is false and 2 is true.
Q. 52 Let k be an integer such that the triangle with vertices (k, −3k), (5, k) and (−k, 2) has area 28
sq. units. Then the value of k is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Area = 28 sq units
or
On solving k= 2 is the only integral solution
Q. 53
The integral is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Differentiating,
Q. 54
if is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 55 If a complex number z satisfies the equation , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation is
put z = x + iy in the above equation
Now, equating real and imaginary part, we get

z = -2 - i
Q. 56 The radius of a circle, having minimum area, which touches the curve y=4−x2
and the lines, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
and concept
Perpendicular distance of a point from a line -
- wherein
is the distance from the line .
This figure shows the circle with least area satisfying the conditions.
Circle touches y=x;
In the figure, centre (x,y) of the circle is (0,4-r)
Now using distance formula to determine the radius of the circle,
On rationalising,
Q. 57
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Walli's Method -
Definite integral by first principle
where
- wherein
Q. 58 Two ships A and B are sailing straight away from a fixed point O along routes such that
AOB is always 1200. At a certain instance, OA = 8 km, OB = 6 km and the ship A is sailing at
the rate of 20 km/hr while the ship B sailing at the rate of 30 km/hr. Then the distance
between A and B is changing at the rate (in km/hr) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Now, [Differenting both side by t]

Now, at the given instant, OA=8, OB=6 .......................... (2)
.......................... (2)
Using (1) and (2),
Q. 59 The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is at the origin is . If one of its directrices is x = −
4, then the equation of the normal to it at is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have
Directrix: x = - 4
So a = 2
Now,
Hence, the equation of the ellipse is
Using point form of normal, the equation of normal at is
Q. 60 A hyperbola passes through the point and has foci at (±2, 0).
Then the tangent to this hyperbola at P also passes through the point
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As foci lie on x-axis and mid-point of foci is th eorigin, so the equation of hyperbola can be assumed to
be
Focus is
Also we know,
Hyperbola passes through , so
Solving these 2 equations we get
Equation of hyperbola is
Equation of tangent at P using point form is
Out of the given options satisfies it.

Mock Test 3
Physics
Q. 1
Focal length of a convex lens water is 40cm. Find its focal length in air. Given that
and
Option 1:
80 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
10 cm
Option 4:
40 cm
Correct Answer:
10 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
refractive index of medium of object
refractive index of lens
are radius of curvature of two surface

Q. 2 An astronomical teloscope has an angular magnification 8 for a distant objects. Determine
the focal length of eye piece if the the sepration between objective and eye piece is 36cm:
Option 1:
32 cm
Option 2:
2 cm
Option 3:
30 cm
Option 4:
4 cm
Correct Answer:
4 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Length of compound microscope -
- wherein
Image distance from objective.
Object distance from eyepiece
so
36
Q. 3 An object is placed between two plane morriors inclined at an angle of 600 the number of
image formed are
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
as we learn
Combination of two plane Mirror -
No. of image formed
a) If even number
Number of image =
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is placed on the angle bisector.
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is not placed on the angle bisector.
number of images=
Q. 4 In the given figure the image formed will be
Option 1:
real
Option 2:
virtual
Option 3:
real or virtual depending upon the distance of object from mirror
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
virtual
Solution:
as we learn
Image -
Point of convergence or apparent point of divergence of rays. Image can be real or virtual.
- wherein
The image formed will be virtual
Q. 5 An object of length 9 Cm is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 'F
' at a distance 4F the length of image will be
Option 1:
2 Cm.
Option 2:
3Cm
Option 3:
4Cm
Option 4:
5Cm
Correct Answer:
3Cm
Solution:
as we learn
Longitudinal magnification -
- wherein
Longitudinal magnification is used when object is placed along principal axis.
u = object distance
v = image distance
Q. 6
In the given digram the mirror and object is moving with speed 2 m/s
as shown then the velocity of image with respect to object
Option 1:
0 m/s
Option 2:
5 m/s
Option 3:
2 m/s
Option 4:
4 m/s
Correct Answer:
0 m/s
Solution:
AS we learn
Relation between object and image velocity if object is moving along principal axis -
= -
= -
- wherein
= velocity of light
= velocity of image
= velocity of mirror
= velocity of object w.r.t. mirror
= velocity of image w.r.t. mirror
Q. 7 If the speed of light in vacum 10 m/s then the velocity of light in a medium of refrective
index 1.3 is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Refractive index -
- wherein
speed of light in vacuum.
speed of light in medium.
Q. 8 If the dimensions of a physical quantity quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical
quantity will be:
Option 1:
Velocity if a=1, b=0,c=-1
Option 2:
Acceleration if a=1,b=1,c=-2
Option 3:
Force if a=0,b=-1,c=-2
Option 4:
Pressure if a=1,b=-1,c=-2
Correct Answer:
Pressure if a=1,b=-1,c=-2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Time period of a simple pendulum -
Equating exponents of similar quantities
a=0 b=1/2 c=-1/2
- wherein
Q. 9 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%,
3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows: % error in P is:
Option 1:
10%
Option 2:
7%
Option 3:
4%
Option 4:
14%
Correct Answer:
14%
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relative error /Fractional error -
Ratio of mean absolute error to mean value of the quantity measured
- wherein
% In P = [ 3 1 + 2(2) + 1(3) + 1(4)]
% error In P = 14%
Q. 10 A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude

of velocity after 10 seconds will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
5 Units
Option 4:
9 Units
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point
B is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of path -
it is equation of parabola
Acceleratio due to gravity
initial velocity
Angle of projection
- wherein
Path followed by a projectile is parabolic is nature.
From Fig, x component remains unchanged, while the y component is Reverse, so velocity at point B will
be
Q. 12 A projectile is given an initial velocity of , where is along the ground and is

along the vertical. If g = 10m/s2 , the equation of its trajectory is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 20 ms-1 from a top of a

multistory building. The height of the point from where the ball is thrown is 25 m from the
ground. The height to which the ball rises from the ground and time taken before the ball
hits the ground is (g:=10 ms-2)
Option 1:
20 m, 2s
Option 2:
40m, 3s
Option 3:
40m,5s
Option 4:
45m,5s
Correct Answer:
45m,5s
Solution:
Initially, the ball is thrown upward from the top of the building(point A)
At maximum height (point B) its velocity becomes zero
For the upward journey (AB) :
Therefore, it takes 2 sec to reach the maximum height
For journey B to C:
After reaching the maximum point at B from A. the ball will reach eventually to point C
Q. 14 Displacement current is continuous
Option 1:
When electric field is changing in circuit
Option 2:
When magnetic field is changing
Option 3:
In both types
Option 4:
Through resistance and wires only
Correct Answer:
When electric field is changing in circuit
Solution:
As we learned
Continuity of electric current -
The total current (displacement conduction) going into the volume is equal to the total current coming
out of it.
So, 'A' is correct

Q. 15 In a plane electromagnetic wave the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency
and amplitude . The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned,
- wherein
So the magnitude of Oscillating mag. field
Q. 16 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolate and gamma rays is
Option 1:
Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Option 2:
Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
Option 3:
microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
Option 4:
infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Correct Answer:
Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Solution:
As we learnt in
Micro Wave -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 1 mm to 0.3 mm
Infrared Waves -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 7500 to 1 mm
Ultra-Violet Radiation -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 100 to 3750

Ray (Gamma Ray) -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 0.0001 to 0.1
Q. 17 Infinity number of the masses, each 1 kg , are placed along the X-axis at
. The magnitude of the resultant
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational constant G at the origin is . Then 'n'
will be :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we know
Total Potential (v) [because particle along both sides]

As, m =1 kg
So, V= 4G
Hence n = 4.
Q. 18 A charge of Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute
itself
Option 1:
Uniformly in the metal object
Option 2:
Uniformly on the surface of the object
Option 3:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Option 4:
Such that the total heat loss is minimised
Correct Answer:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Solution:
As we learned
Charge on a conductor -
Charge given to a conductor always resides on it's outer surface.
Potential energy depends upon the charge at peaks of irregularities. Since every event in the universe leads to the
minimisation of energy
Q. 19 The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of magnitude 50 V/cm, if e/m value of the
electron is C/kg, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 Charge Q = 10 is distributed over a circumference of ring of radius 3 m alng x-y plane

with centre at origin. Find electric potential at point (0,0,4) .
Option 1:
1.8 X 104 V
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1.8 V
Option 4:
1.4 X 108 V
Correct Answer:
1.8 X 104 V
Solution:
The electric potential due to charged ring at its axial position is given by
Q. 21 Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ as shown in the following
figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Magnitude of the Resultant force -
- wherein
Hence force experienced by the charge at A in the direction normal to BC is zero.
Q. 22 Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5 nC distributed uniformly throughout its
volume. The hemisphere lies on a plane and point P is located on the plane, along a radial
line from the centre of curvature at distance 15 cm. The electric potential (in Volt) at point P
due to the hemisphere, is :
Option 1:
150
Option 2:
300
Option 3:
450
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Outside the sphere (P lies outside the sphere) -
- wherein
- surface charge density.
By argument of symmetry, it will be half of the potential produced by the full sphere
Q Charge on hemisphere = Q,
so charge on sphere = 2Q
Q. 23 Two cars are moving in 2 perpendicular roads towards a crossing with speeds of 72 km/hr
and 36 km/hr. If first car blows horn of 280 Hz then frequency (in Hz) of horn heard by driver
of second car when line joining the car makes with roads, will be
(Take velocity of sound is air = 330 m/s)
Correct Answer:
298
Solution:
As we learnt in
Doppler Effect when source and observer are not in line -
- wherein
are velocities of car 1 and car 2 respectively
are angle shown in the fig.

Q. 24 The length of the sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. There are two bridges be placed from A to B,
and the wire is divide into 3 segments whose fundamental frequency is in ratio 1:2:3. What
will be the ratio of their length?
Option 1:
(30, 40, 40) cm
Option 2:
(20, 80, 10) cm
Option 3:
(60,30, 20) cm
Option 4:
(10, 60, 40) cm
Correct Answer:
(60,30, 20) cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sonometer -
It is a device used to measure the velocity of the transverse mechanical wave in a stretched wire.
- wherein
The principle of sonometer is based on resonance of string vibration.
,
Q. 25 Two cities are 150km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through
copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5
. The power loss in the wires is:
Option 1:
19.2W
Option 2:
19.2kW
Option 3:
19.2J
Option 4:
12.2kW
Correct Answer:
19.2kW
Solution:
As we learnt in
Power dissipiated in external resistance -
Power loss=
Power loss=
Q. 26 The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 and R , respectivilty. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at . The
resistance 'R' is:
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
20
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
As we learnt in
Meter bridge -
To find the resistance of a given wire using a meter bridge and hence determine the specific resistance of
its materials
- wherein
Divide and
Or,
From equation
Q. 27 See the electric circuit shown in the figure.
Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Apply Kirchoff law:
Q. 28 In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of

galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Current through the shunt
Resistance of ammeter RA is
Q. 29 A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 ohm. The resistance that must be
connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to get a potential
gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is:
Option 1:
44 ohm
Option 2:
48 ohm
Option 3:
32 ohm
Option 4:
40 ohm
Correct Answer:
32 ohm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential gradient -
- wherein
internal resistance
So for 400 cm
Q. 30 A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of
e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length I of the
potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Current in the circuit having
voltage dropped in potentiometer wire of length L is:
since the balanced point is obtained at length I of the potentiometer wire, the emf of the cell E has to
match the voltage dropped in length I of the wire.
Q. 31 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 shows full scale deflection when a current of
1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0
amp by:
Option 1:
putting in series a resistance of 15
Option 2:
putting in series a resistance of 240
Option 3:
putting in parallel a resistance of 15
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Galvanometer is a very sensitive instrument therefore it cannot measure heavy currents. In order to
convert a Galvanometer into an Ammeter, a very low shunt resistance is connected in parallel to
Galvanometer. The value of shunt is so adjusted that most of the current pass through the shunt.
If the resistance of the galvanometer is and it gives full-scale deflection when current is passed
through it.
Then,
Let a shunt of resistance ( ) is connected in parallel to the galvanometer.
If the total current through the circuit is I.
So option C is correct
Q. 32 Muon ( ) is a negatively charged ( |q| = |e| ) particle with a mass = , where

is the mass of the electron and e is the electronic charge. If is bound to a proton to
form a hydrogen like atom, identify the correct statements.
(A) Radius of the muonic orbit is 200 times smaller than that of the electron.
(B) The speed of the in the orbit is times that of the electron in the orbit.
(C) The ionization energy of muonic atom is 200 times more than that of an hydrogen atom.
(D) The momentum of the muon in the orbit is 200 times more than that of the electron.
Option 1:
(A), (B), (D)
Option 2:
(A), (C), (D)
Option 3:
(B), (D)
Option 4:
(C), (D)
Correct Answer:
(A), (C), (D)
Solution:
As we learnt
Radius of nth orbital -

- wherein
and
Energy of electron in nth orbit -
- wherein
Velocity of electron in nth orbital
hence, option (2) is correct
Q. 33 An x- ray tube is operated at 25 Kv. The minimum wavelength produced is :

Option 1:
0.25 A0
Option 2:
0.5 A0
Option 3:
0.75 A0
Option 4:
1.25 A0
Correct Answer:
0.5 A0
Solution:
As we learn
Continuous x-ray -
- wherein
Also called cutoff wavelength . All other wavelength are greater than this.
Q. 34 In x-ray diffraction first maxima occur at =300 then the wavelength of X-ray are
( ):
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Bragg's law -
(condition of constructive maxima )
d=distance between parallel lines
= wavelength
= angle between light & plane
Here in X-ray diffraction n=1
Q. 35 If the Rydbarg's constant is R then the wave number in second brackett series is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Brackett Series -
- wherein
When electron jump from higher orbital to n=4 energy level
Q. 36 In the Bohr's model of hydrogen - like atom the force between the nucleus and the electrons
is modified as,
Where is a constant . For the atom, the radius of the nth orbit in the terms of the Bohr
radius
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From Bohr's postulate
comparing both we get
So,
Q. 37 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
gun can be increased by
Option 1:
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Option 2:
increasing the filament current
Option 3:
decreasing the filament current
Option 4:
decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Correct Answer:
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Solution:
As we learnt in
Galvanometer in Davisson Germer Experiment -
To measure the small values of current:
- wherein
Electron is accelerated by applying potential difference between anode & cathode hence velocity of
electron emitted from the electron gun can be increased by increasing potential difference between the
anode and the filament.
Q. 38 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
Option 1:
1.8 V
Option 2:
1.2 V
Option 3:
0.5 V
Option 4:
2.3 V
Correct Answer:
0.5 V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Stopping Potential /Cut-off Potential -
It is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side.
Stopping potential is amount of voltage needed to stop maximum energy electron.
Here maximum Kinetic energy = 0.5 eV
Stopping potential = 0.5 V
Q. 39
A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is :
Option 1:
1J
Option 2:
90 J
Option 3:
99 J
Option 4:
100 J
Correct Answer:
90 J
Solution:
As we learnt in
Coefficient of performance (beta) -
- wherein
For a perfect refrigerator
Efficiency of a carnot cycle -
are in kelvin
- wherein
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
For a carnot cycle
= Coefficient of performance
= Efficiency of carnot engine

Q. 40 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation
. The heat capacity (in terms of R) of the gas during this process is
Option 1:
1.5
Option 2:
2.5
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
From eqn(1),
For monoatomic gas,
Q. 41 A particle of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 4m from center on an axis of a uniform ring

of mass 5 kg and radius 3 m. Calculate the potential difference to increase the distance of
the particle from 4m to m in terms of G will be.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Potential at point A
Potential at point B
Potential difference
Q. 42 The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius 'r') is inversely proportional to:
Option 1:
r3
Option 2:
r2
Option 3:
r
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
r2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Formula for mean free path -

- wherein
Diameter of the molecule
pressure of the gas
temperature
Boltzmann's Constant
mean free path is inversely proportional to r2.
Q. 43
The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Specific heat capacity at constant pressure -
- wherein
f = degree of freedom
R= Universal gas constant
Specific heat of gas at constant volume -
- wherein
f = degree of freedom
R= Universal gas constant
n= degree of freedom
Q. 44 Consider a solid sphere of Radius R and mass density

The minimum density of a liquid in which it will float
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As
Buoyant force-
The buoyant force is given as
Where FB=Buoyant force
= density of the fluid
V= Volume of the solid body immersed in the liquid or Volume of the fluid displaced
So
Applying force balance

So the correct option is 1.
Q. 45 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a
distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body
at a temperature T K is given by
(where is Stefan's constant)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
(Where is Stefan's constant)
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have leaqrned
Rate of Loss of Heat -
Power of radiation
Intensity of this energy at a distance R is

Q. 46 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1cm and width 1.25cm carries a current of 85 and
subjected to magnetic field of strength 0.85T. Work done for rotating the coil by
against the torque is
Option 1:
4.55
Option 2:
2.3
Option 3:
1.15
Option 4:
9.1
Correct Answer:
9.1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Work done by current carrying coil -
work done = NIAB (1- )
N = 250, A= L X b = 2.1 cm X 1.25 cm
, ,
Q. 47 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic
field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic
field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be
Option 1:
nB
Option 2:
n2B
Option 3:
2nB
Option 4:
2n2B
Correct Answer:
n2B
Solution:
As we learnt in
Magnetic field due to Circular Current Carrying arc -
- wherein
Let L be the length of the wire
At the centre of loop

Q. 48 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of
3.57 x 10-2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 x 1011 C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the
electron is
Option 1:
1 GHz
Option 2:
100 MHz
Option 3:
62.8 MHz
Option 4:
6.28 MHz
Correct Answer:
1 GHz
Solution:
As we learnt in
Radius of charged particle -
Frequency of charged particle -
-
Frequency =
Q. 49 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V.
The resistance of collector is 3 . If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 ,
the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :
Option 1:
200 and 1000
Option 2:
15 and 200
Option 3:
150 and 15000
Option 4:
20 and 2000
Correct Answer:
150 and 15000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Amplifier -
Transistor is used as an amplifier
- wherein
in such circuit output is amplified as compared to input .
Voltage gain =
Power gain=
Q. 50 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
For forward biased P type should be at higher potential from the figure only 1 is in forward biased mode.
Q. 51 The given electrical network is equivalent to:
Option 1:
AND gate
Option 2:
OR gate
Option 3:
NOR gate
Option 4:
NOT gate
Correct Answer:
NOR gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
NOR Gate -
NOT + OR Gate
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
= =
It represent NOR gate

Q. 52 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf
with time would be
Option 1:
a
Option 2:
b
Option 3:
c
Option 4:
d
Correct Answer:
a
Solution:
induced emf
During 0 to = constant
So, e =-ve
For to , =0
i.e., e=0
For to , = constant
i.e., e =+ve
Q. 53 In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e=200 100t volts is connected to a capacitor of

capacity 1 . The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is
Option 1:
10 mA
Option 2:
100mA
Option 3:
200mA
Option 4:
20mA
Correct Answer:
20mA
Solution:
As we learnt in
Wave Form (Sinusoidal) -
R.M.S. Value=
average value=
- wherein
Q. 54 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200volt, 100Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
Option 1:
4.0A
Option 2:
8.0A
Option 3:
Option 4:
2.0A
Correct Answer:
4.0A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Inductive reactance (XL) -
Opposition offered by inductive circuit.
- wherein
Inductive reactance =
Then at 100Hz,
Q. 55 A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If
the frictional force on the elevator is 4000N , then the speed of the elevator at full load is
close to: (1 HP=746 W, g=10 ms-2).
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Power -
Instantaneous power-
Where,
i.e. power is equal to the scalar product of force with velocity

so, net force act on elevator =mg+F
Fnet=(2000 x 10+4000)=24000 N
using power =Fnet x speed
So speed= =1.9 m/s
So, Option (4) is correct.
Q. 56 After perfectly elastic oblique collision of two bodies of equal masses (if the second body is
at rest), the scattering angle would be
Correct Answer: 90
Solution:
Perfectly elastic oblique collision -
Let two bodies moving as shown in figure.
By law of conservation of momentum
Along x-axis-
….. (1)
Along y-axis-
…..(2)
By law of conservation of kinetic energy
….(3)
And In Perfectly Elastic Oblique Collision
Value of e=1
So along line of impact (here along in the direction of )
We apply e=1
And we get ….. (4)
So we solve these equations (1),(2),(3),(4) to get unknown.
Special condition
Then, from equation (1), (2) and (3)
We get,
i.e; after perfectly elastic oblique collision of two bodies of equal masses (if the second body
is at rest), the scattering angle would be .
So, answer is -
Q. 57 In case (i) plane is smooth and in case (ii) plane is rough. If the time taken by the block in
case (ii) to come down is 3 times to the time to come down in case (i) then the coefficient of
friction of plane in case (ii) is?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Length covered in both cases is same so for smooth wedge
For rough wedge
Now
Solving
Q. 58 Calculate the acceleration of block of the following diagram. Assume all surfaces are
frictionless . Here m1 = 100kg and m2 = 50kg
Option 1:
0.33m/s2
Option 2:
0.66m/s2
Option 3:
1m/s2
Option 4:
1.32m/s2
Correct Answer:
1.32m/s2
Solution:
(i)
(ii)
solving (i) and (ii)
Q. 59 Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is . Initially the body is ate rest. In
order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of , the angular acceleration of
must be applied about the axis for a duration of :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
Q. 60 A circular disc of radius b has a hole of radius a at its centre (see figure). If the mass per unit
area of the disc varies as , then the radius of gyration of the disc about its axis passing
through the centre is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 A mixture of 100 m mol of and 2 g of sodium sulphate was dissolved in water
and the volume was made up to 100 mL .The mass of calcium sulphate formed and the
concentration of in resulting solution , respectively , are : (Molar mass of
, are 74, 143 and 136 g , respectively ;
)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Mol of Na2SO4 = 2/142 = 14 m mol

Q. 2 Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range . At 350 K , the vapor
pressures of pure A and pure B are , respectively . The
composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mol percent of A at
this temperature is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that
Q. 3 Solution of two components containing n1 moles of 1st component and n2 moles of 2nd
component is prepared, M1 and M2 are molecular weight of component 1 and 2
respectively. If d is the density of the solution in g mL-1, C2 is the molarity and x2 is the mole
fraction of 2nd component, C2 can be expressed as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 The equivalent conductances of Ba2+ and Cl- are 63.5 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 and 76 ohm-1 cm2 eq-
1,respectively, at infinite dilution. The equivalent conductance (in ohm-1 cm2) of BaCl at
2
infinite dilution will be:
Option 1:
101
Option 2:
239.5
Option 3:
203
Option 4:
139.5
Correct Answer:
139.5
Solution:
From Kohlrausch's Law :
Q. 5 The resistance of a 0.1 N solution of acetic acid is 250 when measured in a cell of cell
constant 1.15 cm-1. The equivalent conductance (in ohm-1 cm2 eq-1) of 0.1 N acetic acid is:
Option 1:
9.2
Option 2:
24.6
Option 3:
36.8
Option 4:
46
Correct Answer:
46
Solution:

Q. 6 The potential (in V) of a hydrogen electrode in a solution with pH = 5 at
25oC is :
Option 1:
0.295
Option 2:
-0.295
Option 3:
-0.59
Option 4:
0.59
Correct Answer:
-0.295
Solution:
Q. 7 The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 x1023 mol-1)
Option 1:
6.026 x 1022
Option 2:
1.806 x 1023
Option 3:
3.600 x 1023
Option 4:
1.800 x 1022
Correct Answer:
1.806 x 1023
Solution:
Q. 8 Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?
Option 1:
8 g H2
Option 2:
64 g SO2
Option 3:
44 g CO2
Option 4:
48 g O3
Correct Answer:
8 g H2
Solution:
No. of moles of H2
No. of moles of SO2
No. of moles of CO2

No. of moles of O3
So, H2 has more number of molecules among these.
Q. 9 A mixture has 18 g water and 414 g of ethamol. The mole fraction of water in mixture is :
Option 1:
0.1
Option 2:
0.4
Option 3:
0.7
Option 4:
0.9
Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:
As we learn
Mole Fraction -
The mole fraction of water =

Q. 10 Which of the following will have highest freezing point at 1 atm?
Option 1:
0.1 M Nacl solution
Option 2:
0.1 M sugar solution
Option 3:
0.1 M BaCl2 solution
Option 4:
0.1 M Fecl3 solution
Correct Answer:
0.1 M sugar solution
Solution:
As we learn
Non electrolyte solute -
Solute which neither dissociates nor associates when dissolved in solvent.
e.g. Glucose ,Urea
Lesser the number of particles in solution, lesser the depression in freezing point, hence higher freezing
point.
Q. 11 0.6% solution of urea (mol. wt =60) would be isotonic with -
Option 1:
0.1 M glucose
Option 2:
0.1 M Kcl
Option 3:
0.6% glucose soln
Option 4:
0.6 KCl solution
Correct Answer:
0.1 M glucose
Solution:
As we learn
Isotonic solutions -
Solutions having same osmotic pressures.
- wherein
at constant Temp.
Isotonic solutions - Having same osmotic pressure,
(At const. temp)
Q. 12 A certain compound gives a negative test with ninhydrin and positive test with Benedict's
solution. The compound is:
Option 1:
Protein
Option 2:
Monosaccharide
Option 3:
Lipid
Option 4:
An amino acid
Correct Answer:
Monosaccharide
Solution:
A compound which gives a negative test with ninhydrin, it cannot be a protein or an amino acid. As it
gives a positive test with Benedict's solution. So, it must be a monosaccharide but not a lipid.
Therefore, (2) option is correct.
Q. 13 Match the following:
Species Deficiency disease
(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi
(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy
(iii) Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
(iv) Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Vitamin - Night blindness , Xerophthalmia
Vitamin (Thiamine) - Beriberi
Vitamin (Riboflavin) - Cheilosis
Vitamin (Niacin) - Pellagra

Vitamin (Pyridoxine) - Convulsions , Anaemia
Vitamin - Pernicious anaemia
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) - Scurvy
Vitamin - Rickets ( in children's )
Osteomalacia ( in adults )
Vitamin E - Increased RBCs fragility , muscular weakness
Vitamin K - Poor blood clotting
Hence, the correct match is
(i) Riboflavin - (c) Cheilosis

(ii) Thiamine - (a) Beriberi
(iii) Pyridoxine - (d) Convulsions
(iv) Ascorbic acid - (b) Scurvy
Q. 14 Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves:
Option 1:
6 molecules of ATP
Option 2:
18 molecules of ATP
Option 3:
10 molecules of ATP
Option 4:
8 molecules of ATP
Correct Answer:
18 molecules of ATP
Solution:
As we have learned in
Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves 18 molecules of ATP.

Q. 15 A certain amount of charge is passed through acidulated water. A total of 504 mL of
hydrogen and oxygen were collected at STP. Find the magnitude of charge that is passed
during electrolysis in coulombs.
Option 1:
2895 C
Option 2:
5040 C
Option 3:
1680 C
Option 4:
8467.2 C
Correct Answer:
2895 C
Solution:
Q. 16 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R).
Assertion: Zn metal can displace Ag metal from a solution containing the complex ion [Ag(CN)2].
Reason : E0zn+2/zn is greater than E0Ag+/Ag.
Mark the correct choice as:
Option 1:
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
Option 2:
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
Option 3:
If assertion is true but reason is false
Option 4:
If both assertion and reason are false
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Electrochemical series -
The standard reduction potential of a large number of electrodes has been measured using standard
hydrogen electrode as the reference electrode. These various electrodes can be arranged in increasing
electrode potential.
Zn is more reactive metal than Ag. So it displaces less reactive. Ag metal from its salt solution.
Reduction potential of Ag+ is greater than that of Zn+2, hence Ag+ has higher tendency to get reduced to
Ag. Therefore reason is the false statement while Assertion is true.

reason (R).
Assertion : Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for strong electrolyte.
Reason : The number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreses on dilution.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Conductivity -
Inverse of resistivity is called conductivity.
- wherein
SI unit of Conductivity =
On increasing dilution (decreasing the concentration) the number of ions per unit volume that carry the
current in the solution decreases. Therefore conductivity always decreases with decrease in
concentration both for weak and strong electrolytes. Hence reason is the correct explanation for the
given assertion.
Q. 18 The oxidation state of cobalt in the complex compound is
Option 1:
+3
Option 2:
+6
Option 3:
+5
Option 4:
+2
Correct Answer:
+3
Solution:
Applying charge balance on the cationic complex gives us
Q. 19 The coordination number of a metal in coordination compounds is
Option 1:
Same as primary valency
Option 2:
Sum of primary and secondary valencies
Option 3:
Same as secondary valency
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Same as secondary valency
Solution:
According to Werner's theory, primary valency of complex compound is its oxidation number while
secondary valency is the co-ordination number.
Hence, the co-ordination number of any metal is the same as its secondary valency
Q. 20 Which complex has square planar structure?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is hybridised and thus has a square planar structure
and are hybridised and are tetrahedral
is hybridised and is an octahedral complex
Therefore, Option (4) is correct
Q. 21 Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
Option 1:
Molality
Option 2:
Molarity
Option 3:
Mole fraction
Option 4:
Weight percentage
Correct Answer:
Molarity
Solution:
As we learned in
Volume is dependent on temperature thereby making molarity dependent on temperature.
Q. 22 Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by and to give the compound
.
At equilibrium, the concentration
If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at , then the value of Kc will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Law of Chemical equilibrium -
At a given temperature, the product of the concentration of the reaction products raised to the
respective stoichiometric coefficient in the balanced chemical equation divided by the product of the
concentration of the reactants raised to their individual stoichiometric coefficients has a constant value.
are equilibrium concentration

The Correct answer is option 2.
Q. 23 The pH of a saturated solution of is . The value of the solubility product

of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The Correct answer is option 2
Q. 24 Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of
these will record the highest pH value?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Value of pH -
Acidic solution has pH < 7
Basic solution has pH > 7
A neutral solution has pH = 7
For all the species except BaCl2, pH will be lower than 7 because they are salt of a weak base and strong
acid.
is a salt of a strong base and strong acid so, its pH will be 7, the highest.
The Correct answer is option 1
Q. 25 Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because :
Option 1:
These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali.
Option 2:
Acids and alkalies in this solution are shielded from attack by other ions.
Option 3:
They have large excess of ions.
Option 4:
They have a fixed value of pH.
Correct Answer:
These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali.
Solution:
Buffer Solutions - The solutions which resist change in pH on dilution or with the addition of small
amounts of acid or alkali are called buffer solutions.
Many body fluids e.g. blood
Buffer solutions resist a change in pH because they react with any added acid or base to give a salt.
Q. 26 Which of the statements is not true?
Option 1:
On passing through acidified solution, a milky colour is observed
Option 2:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis
Option 3:
solution in acidic medium is orange
Option 4:
solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
Correct Answer:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis
Solution:
A hygroscopic substance is one that readily attracts water from its surroundings, through either
absorption or adsorption.
Being hygroscopic, sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7
cannot be used in volumetric analysis
All other given statements are true.
Q. 27 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?
Option 1:
They have higher melting points than pure metal.
Option 2:
They retain metallic conductivity.
Option 3:
They are chemically reactive.
Option 4:
They are much harder than the pure metal.
Correct Answer:
They are chemically reactive.
Solution:
Formation of Interstitial Compounds -
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed when small atoms like H, C, or N are trapped inside
the crystal lattices of metals. They are usually nonstoichiometric and are neither typically ionic nor
covalent, for example, TiC, Mn4N, Fe3H, VH0.56, and TiH1.7, etc. The formulas quoted do not, of course,
correspond to any normal oxidation state of the metal. Because of the nature of their composition, these
compounds are referred to as interstitial compounds. The principal physical and chemical characteristics
of these compounds are as follows:
(i) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
(ii) They are very hard, some borides approach diamonds in hardness.
(iii) They retain metallic conductivity.
(iv) They are chemically inert.
Interstitial compounds are chemically unreactive, much harder than pure metal, they have a higher
melting point than pure metal, and retain metallic conductivity.
Q. 28 The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
(Cold)
Q. 29 For complete combustion of ethanol,

the amount of heat produced as in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol-1 at 250C. Assuming
ideality the Enthalpy of combustion (in kJ mol-1), for the reaction will be:
-1
(R = 8.314 kJ mol )
Correct Answer:
-1366.95
Solution:
Q. 30 The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is -46.0 kJ/mol. If the enthalpy of formation of H2
from its atoms is -436 kJ/mol and that of N2 is -712 kJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy (in
kJ/mol) of N-H bond in NH3 is :
Correct Answer:
352
Solution:
Let x be the bond enthalpy of N-H bond then

Q. 31 The molar heat capacity (Cp) of CD2O is 10 cals at 1000 K. The change in entropy (in cal deg-
1) associated with cooling of 32 g of CD O vapour from 1000 K to 100 K at constant pressure
2
will be :
(D = deuterium, at. mass = 2 u)
Correct Answer:
-23.03
Solution:
Entropy for isobaric process -
Q. 32 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules
Option 1:
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Option 2:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Option 3:
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
Option 4:
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Correct Answer:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Solution:
Bond strength -
The energy required to break one mole of bonds of particular type in gaseous state is called bond energy
or bond strength.
- wherein
The same amount of energy is released in formation of one mol of particular bond.
Bond dissociation enthalpies of halogen family decreases down the group as the size of atom increases.
The bond dissociation enthalpy of fluorine, is however, lower than those of chlorine and bromine
because of inter electronic repulsion present in small atoms of flourine.
Hence order of bond dissociation enthalpies for halogen is
Q. 33 Predict the correct order among the following:
Option 1:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
Option 2:
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
Option 3:
bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Option 4:
lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Correct Answer:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
valence shell.
-
According to VSERPR theory the repulsive forces between lone pair are greater than between lone pair
and bond pair which are further greather than bond pair and bond pair.
Q. 34 Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column
II and mark the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral
(b) XeO3 (ii) square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal
(d) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Option 1:
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Option 2:
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Option 3:
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Option 4:
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Correct Answer:
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
valence shell.
Dettermination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
distorted octahedron
pyramidal
square pyramidal
square planar
Q. 35 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(At no.s. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
Option 1:
Yb2+
Option 2:
Ce2+
Option 3:
Sm2+
Option 4:
Eu2+
Correct Answer:
Yb2+
Solution:
The electron configuration of Yb is [Xe] 4f14,6s 2 and due to no unpaired electrons in Yb2+ it is
diamagnetic.
Option 1:
CH2=CHCH2CH=CHCH3
Option 2:
CH2=CHCH=CHCH2CH3
Option 3:
CH3CH=C=CHCH2CH3
Option 4:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Correct Answer:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Solution:
Conjugated alkene in which double bonds are more substituted is the major product. When
dibromoalkane is heated with CH3OH/KOH, it undergoes dehydrohalogentation. Two molecules
of HBr are eliminated to form alkadiene.
Q. 37 The entropy (So) in (JK-1mol-1) of the following substances are :
The entropy change for the reaction
Correct Answer:
-312.7
Solution:
Given reaction
Q. 38 Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given below yields :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Preparation of haloalkanes by treating alkenes with NBS -
NBS (N-bromosuccinimide) undergo free radical substitution at allylic position.
- wherein
It is free radical substitution reaction

Q. 39 can be prepared from as per the reaction:
The reaction can go to completion by removing ions by adding:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Correct option Co2
Q. 40 Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Therefore the correct option is 1.
Q. 41 Sc (Z=21) is a transition element but Zn (Z=30) is not because
Option 1:
both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
Option 2:
both and ions are colourless and form white compounds
Option 3:
in case of orbitals are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
Option 4:
last electron is assumed to be added to 4s level in case of Zn
Correct Answer:
in case of orbitals are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
Solution:
Transition Elements -
The elements in which second last shell is incompletely filled called Transition elements.
- wherein
Transition elements are those in which second last shell is incompletely filled.
In , the config is
wheareas in config is
In , the 3d being completely filled, its not a transtion element.
Q. 42 The major product formed in the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cleavage of ether by acid -
– Products forms are alcohol and haloalkane.
– When HX is in excess
- wherein
Q. 43 Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate
25 times. What is the kinetic order of this reactant?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Let the reaction rate -
Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate 25 times.
Q. 44 If k1 and k2 are the rate constants at temperature T1 and T2 then which of the following
relation holds good?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have the rate constant K1 at temperature T1 and rate constant K2 at temperature T2.
We know that the Arrhenius equation is given as follows:

On subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:
where, Ea is activation energy.
Q. 45 A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B. Both compounds decompose by first-

order kinetics. The half-lives for A and B are and , respectively. If the
concentrations of A and B are equal initially, the time required for the concentration of A to
be four times that of B (in s) is : (Use e ln 2 = 0.693)
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
900
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
120
Correct Answer:
900
Solution:
We know this for first-order reactions-
So, half-lives
The concentration of A to be four times that of B

So, At and Bt are related as [A] = 4[B]
If the concentrations of A and B are equal initially, A0 = B0
Then,
t = 900 sec
Q. 46 If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second, the
order of this reaction is :
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second -
Here half-life is constant.
In First order reaction, Half-Life is constant.
Ans = 1
Q. 47 If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen atom is A, then the longest
wavelength in Paschen series of He+ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
we know that,
Q. 48 Which one of the following is the wrong statement?
Option 1:
The uncertainty principle is:
Option 2:
Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
Option 3:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen-like atoms.
Option 4:
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by
where m=mass of the particle , v=group velocity of the particle
Correct Answer:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen-like atoms.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total energy of electron in nth orbit -
Where z is atomic number
Total energy of electron in nth orbit
for length 2s & 2p electrons, n = 2
they have the same energy.
Q. 49 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Option 1:
H+
Option 2:
Li+
Option 3:
Na+
Option 4:
Mg2+
Correct Answer:
Li+
Solution:
Isoelectronic species are those which have an equal number of electrons present in them.
Electronic Configuration of beryllium -
- Be and are isoelectronic to each other.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 50 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is:
Option 1:
Chromatography
Option 2:
Crystallisation
Option 3:
Steam distillation
Option 4:
Sublimation
Correct Answer:
Steam distillation
Solution:
Steam Distillation -
This method is used to separate substances which are steam volatile and are immiscible with water.
- wherein
e.g. O-nitrophenol and P-nitrophenol
Steam distillation is the most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and para
nitrophenols as there are intramolecular H-bonds in ortho nitrophenol.
Q. 51 Pick the correct option about the reduction of nitro group:
a) in neutral medium converts to azobenzene
b) in neutral medium converts to hydroxylamine
c) in basic medium converts to azobenzene
d) in basic medium converts to hydroxylamine
Option 1:
a,c
Option 2:
a,d
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
b,d
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Reduction in neutral medium -
In a neutral medium, it converts into hydroxylamine {Reagent Zn + NH4Cl } and in the basic medium, it
converts to azobenzene { Reagent Zn + NaOH }
- wherein
In the neutral medium, it converts to hydroxylamine and in basic medium, it converts to azobenzene.
Q. 52 Mulliken barker test induces which of the following?
Option 1:
Reduction of group to
Option 2:
yellow precipitate
Option 3:
Fehling's test
Option 4:
White precipitate
Correct Answer:
Reduction of group to
Solution:
As we have learned
Mulliken - Barker test
The ethanolic solution of nitrobenzene is treated with zinc dust and solution. The mixture is
heated and filtered in a test tube containing Tollen's reagent. A grey or black precipitate ( Ag mirror ) is
formed.
In the test is reduced to group. Hydroxylamine group then reduces the fehlings
reagent and gets oxidised to nitroso compound
Therefore, Option (1) is correct.
Q. 53 RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains
Option 1:
ribose sugar and thymine
Option 2:
ribose sugar and uracil
Option 3:
deoxyribose sugar and thymine
Option 4:
deoxyribose sugar, and uracil.
Correct Answer:
ribose sugar and uracil
Solution:
As we learned, Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
It is made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and
bases (Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
DNS deoxyribose sugar
RNA ribose sugar
Also, instead of thymine, uracil is present in RNA.
Q. 54 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is :
Option 1:
1.7700
Option 2:
0.1770
Option 3:
0.0177
Option 4:
0.0344
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
1.00 molal solution means 1 mole of solute in 1 kg (or 1000 g) of water.
Number of moles of solute = 1
Number of moles of solvent = 1000/18 = 55.55
Mole Fraction of solute = 1/ (1+ 55.55) = 0.017
Q. 55 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is:
Option 1:
0.1770
Option 2:
0.0177
Option 3:
0.0344
Option 4:
1.7700
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given,
It is a 1.0 molal aqueous solution.
If we have 1 mole of solute in 1 molal solution.
Then, wt. of solvent will be = 1 kg
It is an aqueous solution means the solvent is water.

Q. 56 A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at
STP will be
Option 1:
2.8
Option 2:
3.0
Option 3:
1.4
Option 4:
4.4
Correct Answer:
2.8
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Moles = given mass of substance/ molar mass of the substance

Total moles of CO is 0.1 mole or 2.8 gm.
Q. 57 In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?
Option 1:
0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
Option 2:
0.18 g of water
Option 3:
18 mL of water
Option 4:
10-3 mol of water
Correct Answer:
18 mL of water
Solution:
We know that,
If the mass of water is maximum then the mole will be maximum hence number of molecules of water
will be maximum.
Mass of solution = Density of Solution X Volume of Solution
Now,
A) 22.4 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K = 18 g of water
0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K g of water
B) 0.18 g of water
C) As density of water = 1 g/ml
and weight of water = volume of water
So 18 g = 18 ml
D) 1 mol of water =18 g

So Option C has a maximum mass of water
which is 18 g of water which is 1 mole of water and its contain molecules
Q. 58 Which of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F, O?
Option 1:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Option 2:
Al < Ca < O < C < F
Option 3:
Al < O < C < Ca < F
Option 4:
C < F < O < Al < Ca
Correct Answer:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Solution:
As we learnt
Variation of electron gain enthalpy in periodic table -
1. Electron gain enthalpy decreases down the group.

2. Generally, electron gains enthalpy increases (more negative) along the period.
Electron gain enthalpy increases along the period as the attraction between incoming electron and the
nucleus increases or Zeff Increases.
Also, it decreases down the group due to increased atomic size.
Increasing order of electron gain enthalpy:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Q. 59 Which one of the following will give 2 different types of alcohol upon reduction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Alcohol formation by reduction of esters -
Yields two alcohols
- wherein
Esters with two different R groups yields different alcohols :

Q. 60 When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with tert. butanol , which of the following is
formed?
Option 1:
Tert. butyl methyl ether
Option 2:
Benzene
Option 3:
Tert. butyl benzene
Option 4:
Phenol
Correct Answer:
Benzene
Solution:
As we learnt,
Zerewitinoff Method -
The reaction of the alcohol with the Grignard reagent.
- wherein
C6H5MgBr + (CH3)3C-OH C6H6 + [(CH3)3Co]MgBr
Maths
Q. 1 An eight digit number divisible by 9 is to be formed using digits from 0 to 9 without
repeating the digits. The number of ways in which this can be done is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here, 0+1+2+......+9= 45, which is divisible by 9
Now we have to select 8 digits to form an 8-digit number, which means we have to reject 2 no.s while
keeping the sum divisible by 9
So, (0,9), (1,8) (2,7), (3,6) ,(4,5) can be rejected.
1) if (0,9) is rejected, we can form numbers in 8 ! ways
2) If other 4 sets are rejected, we can form numbers in 7 (7!) (0 can't be at first place)
So no. of ways = 4* 7 (7!)
Adding (1) and (2): (8)! + 28 (7!)= 36 (7!)
Q. 2 If
then the minimum value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
clearly, tan A + tan B is minimum when
Q. 3 The area (in sq. units) of the region

is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -

x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
and
Area
, after standard calculation.

Q. 4
If and are roots of the equation , such that , then
p belongs to the set :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 If the tangent at a point P, with parameter t, on the curve x = 4t2 + 3, y = 8t3 − 1, t R, meets
the curve again at a point Q, then the coordinates of Q are :
Option 1:
( t2 + 3, −t3 −1 )
Option 2:
( 4t2 + 3, −8t3 −1 )
Option 3:
( t2 + 3, t3 − 1 )
Option 4:
( 16t2 + 3, −64t3 −1 )
Correct Answer:
( t2 + 3, t3 − 1 )
Solution:
As learnt in concept @MNOP
and
at P;
Tangent at P is
We get
Hence
Hence, Q = ( t2 + 3, t3 −1 )
Q. 6
Let then log p
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
1 to the power of infinity Form -
It is form
Q. 7 If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the following system of linear equations
x+y+z=1
x+ay+z=1
ax+by+z=0
has no solution, then S is :
Option 1:
an infinite set
Option 2:
a finite set containing two or more elements
Option 3:
a singleton
Option 4:
an empty set
Correct Answer:
an empty set
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
= 1 (a -b) - 1(1 -a) + 1 (b - a2) = 0
=a - b - 1 + a + b - a2 = 0
=> 2a - 1 -a2 =0
=> a2- 2a +1 =0
=> (a - 1)2 = 0
=> a = 1
It is independent of b
Q. 8 If a curve passes through the point and satisfies the differential
equation, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Linear Differential Equation -
- wherein
P, Q are functions of x alone.

Put
Q. 9
The integral
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Let
Thus I=
Q. 10 A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent respectively to form a square of
side=x units and a circle of radius=r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the
circle so formed is minimum, then :
Option 1:
2x = (π+4) r
Option 2:
(4−π) x = πr
Option 3:
x = 2r
Option 4:
2x = r
Correct Answer:
x = 2r
Solution:
As we learnt in
Circle -
A circle is the locus of a moving point such that its distance from a fixed point is constant.
- wherein
Let the length of two parts be 'a' and '2-a'
and
where x is side of square
r is radius of circle
sum of Areas
of
Hence
Q. 11 In a certain town, 25% of the families own a phone and 15% own a car ; 65% families own
neither a phone nor a car and 2,000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the
following three statements :
(a) 5% families own both a car and a phone.
(b) 35% families own either a car or a phone.
(c) 40,000 families live in the town.
Then,
Option 1:
Only (a) and (b) are correct.
Option 2:
Only (a) and (c) are correct.
Option 3:
Only (b) and (c) are correct
Option 4:
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Correct Answer:
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Solution:
Let P denote families owning a phone, C denote families owning a car
Let us find all the percentages first
Families owning none of phone or car = n(U) - n(P ∪ C) = 65 (given)
n(U) - n(P ∪ C) = 65 (given)
100 - n(P ∪ C) = 65
n(P ∪ C) = 35% (statement (b) is correct)
Also, n(P ∪ C) = n(P) + n(C) - n(P ∩ C)
35 = 25 + 15 - n(P ∩ C)
n(P ∩ C) = 5%
So families owning both phone and car is 5% (statement (a) is correct)
Let x families live in the town.
So, 5% of x = 2,000
5x/100 = 2,000
x = 40,000
So, total 40000 families live in this town (statement (c) is correct)
Q. 12 Let x, y, z be positive real numbers such that and

. Then is equal to :
Option 1:
270
Option 2:
258
Option 3:
342
Option 4:
216
Correct Answer:
216
Solution:
As we have learned
Relation between AM, GM and HM of two positive numbers -
Now,
This is the AM between these 12 numbers
Now let us find GM between these 12 numbers

Now, as
But given
Which means as given A.M = G.M
Q. 13 if then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Now,
Q. 14 Let be three vectors such that
.
If the angle between , then
is equal to
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 15 8 - digit numbers are formed using the digits 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4. The number of such
numbers in which the odd digits do not occupy odd places, is :
Option 1:
160
Option 2:
120
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
48
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Odd nos - 1,1,3
Even nos . - 2,2,2,4,4
Let us first find places for odd numbers
1,1,3 can come at any of the 4 even places (2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th)
First select three places for them in 4C3 ways (=4)
Now, 1,1,3 can be arranged in these 3 places in (3!)/(2!) ways (=3)
So, number of ways for arranging 1,1,3 = 4 x 3 = 12
Now 2,2,2,4,4 can be arranged in remaining 5 places
Number of ways of doing that = 5! / (3!)(2!) = 10 ways
So total number of ways = 12 x 10 = 120

Q. 16
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for Trigonometric limit -
- wherein
Q. 17
For x>0,let
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein

Put t= (substitution)
Q. 18
If z is a complex number such that then the minimum value of
Option 1:
is strictly greater than
Option 2:
is strictly greater than but less than
Option 3:
is equal to
Option 4:
lies in the interval (1, 2)
Correct Answer:
lies in the interval (1, 2)
Solution:
As we have learned
Triangle Law of Inequality in Complex Numbers -

- wherein
|.| denotes modulus of z in complex numbers
Hence,
3/2 lies in the interval (1,2)
Q. 19 If a variable line drawn through the intersection of the lines
meets the coordinate axes at A and B, (A ≠ B), then the locus of the midpoint of AB is :
Option 1:
6xy = 7(x + y)
Option 2:
4( x + y )2 − 28( x + y ) + 49=0
Option 3:
7xy = 6( x + y )
Option 4:
14( x + y )2 − 97( x + y ) + 168 = 0
Correct Answer:
7xy = 6( x + y )
Solution:
As we have learned
Section formula -
- wherein
If P(x,y) divides the line joining A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) in ration
Family of straight lines -
- wherein
are the equations of the lines and is a constant.
Family of lines
Now for x = 0
This (h,k ) satisfies
Q. 20 The distance, from the origin, of the normal to the curve,
at is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Slope – point from of a straight line -
- wherein
slope
point through which line passes
at
Slope of normal =
equation of normal
Distance from origin=
= 2 units
Q. 21
If and
Q=PAPT, then PT Q2015 P is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Transpose of a Matrix -
The matrix obtained from any given matrix , by interchanging its rows and columns.
- wherein
2015 times
Now , if
so , .
Q. 22 If y(x) is the solution of the differential equation
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
-1
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
=8 - 8 - 13 log | 2 | + 13 log 2 = 0
Hence, y =0 is the solution of the given differential equation.
Hence, y(-4) = 0.
Q. 23 The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the curves y + 2x2 = 0 and y + 3x2 = 1 , is
equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
y+2x2=0; y+3x2=1
y= -2x2; y=1-3x2
Calculate the point of intersection first
-2x2= 1-3x2
=> x2=1
=> x= 1
=>
=>
Q. 24 If Rolle's theorem holds for the function at the point

equals
Correct Answer:
-1
Solution:
Rolle's Theorems
Let f(x) be a function with following properties
1. f(x) is continuous function in [a,b]
2. f'(x) is exists for every point in (a,b)
3. f(a) = f(b)
Then there is at least one c lying in (a,b) such that f'(c) = 0
Now,
It is continuous and differentiable in any interval as it is a polynomial, hence it is continuous in [-1,1] and
differentiable in (-1,1)
Now f(-1) = f(1)

where, and
Also
As Rolle's Theorem is satisfied at x = 1/2, hence f '(1/2) = 0
b = 1/2
So,
Q. 25 Let A = {x1,x2,x3......,x7} and B = { y1 ,y2 ,y3 } be two sets containing seven and three distinct
elements respectively. Then the total number of functions : A B that are onto, if there
exist exactly three elements x in A such that (x) = y2, is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Onto function -

&
Number of onto functions
No. of onto functions.
Since if there exist exactly three elements x in A. which give single image y2. If means four elements of A
will give image of y1 and y3. So that (24 - 2) of .
Q. 26 Let a1, a2, a3, ......, an, ..... be in A.P. If a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72, then the sum of its first 17
terms is equal to :
Option 1:
306
Option 2:
153
Option 3:
612
Option 4:
204
Correct Answer:
306
Solution:
Given that
a1, a2, a3, ......, an, .... are in AP
Also given that

a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72
a3 + a15 = a7 + a11 = a1 + a17 = 36
Sum of first 17 term
Q. 27 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point P on the horizontal ground
was observed to be . After moving a distance 2 metres from P towards the foot of the
tower, the angle of elevation changes to . Then the height of the tower (in metres) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now, PQ=2
Q. 28 In a parallelogram , and , then has

the value:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

- wherein
Thus let A be position vector of B is , D is
..............(i)
Also here,
Put in (i)
Q. 29 The number of ways of selecting 15 teams from 15 men and 15 women, such that each team
consists of a man and a woman, is
Option 1:
1120
Option 2:
15!
Option 3:
1880
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
15!
Solution:
Let us fix men (M1, M2, ......,M15), and pair them with women
To find a team-mate for M1, we have 15 options
......
To find a team-mate for M15, we have 1 option
So, total number of ways = 15.14.13.12.......1 = 15!
Q. 30 Let the tangents drawn to the circle, x2+y2=16 from the point P(0, h) meet the x-axis at points
A and B. If the area of is minimum, then h is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Maxima Minima -
A functions graph follow up and down along x-axis then upper part is known as maxima and lower part is
known as minima.
Let equation of tangent is
Q. 31
If where C is a constant, then g(2) is equal
to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Put
So,
Q. 32 Let and be the roots of equation are in A.P. and

then the value of is ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Sum of Roots in Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
are root of quadratic equation

Product of Roots in Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
are roots of quadratic equation:
Also
Also p+r =2q

Q. 33 The point (2, 1) is translated parallel to the line L : x − y = 4 by units. If the new point Q
lies in the third quadrant, then the equation of the line passing through Q and perpendicular
to L is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Parametric form -
- wherein
Where is the inclination of the line and is the distance between and
- wherein
slope

Condition for perpendicular lines -
- wherein
Here are the slope of perpendicular lines.
So,
Line Required
Q. 34 Let k be a non - zero real number. If
is a continuous function, then the value of k is :
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Evaluation of Exponential Limits -

- wherein
Q. 35 The number of distinct real roots of the
equation, in the
interval is
Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
C1 C1+C2+C3
Q. 36 The solution of the differential equation if
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Put & Q = 2y
Its solution is
2+1=x
x=3
Q. 37 Let be a function such that
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
Properties of Definite Integration -
For periodic function
Let Period (T) then
- wherein
Where is periodic function with period T and n is any integer.
Hence
Q. 38 The equation of a normal to the curve,
at x = 0, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Use the concept of
Equation of Normal -
Equation of normal to the curve y = f(x) at the point P(x1, y1) on the curve having a slope MN is
Put x = 0
Q. 39 Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of
subsets of the set A x B, each having at least three elements is :
Correct Answer:
219
Solution:
As we learnt in
SUBSETS -
A set A is said to be a subset of a set B if every element of A is also an element of B.
- wherein
It is represented by . eg. A B if A={2,4} and B= {1,2,3,4,5}
Let A having elements {a, b, c, d} and B having {e, f}
Then having 8 elements and no. of subsets = 28 = 256
No. of subsets = and (ae, be)...........=256
Now 8 subsets having only one element
{ae},{af},{be},.......{df}
Similarly
No of sets having two elements
{ae,af}, {ae,be}, .....{ae,df}=7 elements
{af,be},{af,bf}..........= 6 elements
7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 28 (having two elements)

and a subset having single element
28 + 8+1 = 37
Atleast three elements = 256 - 37 = 219
Q. 40 If the 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of a non-constant A.P. are in G.P., then the common ratio of this
G.P. is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
A, B, C are in G.P where A, B, C are 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of an A.P
For AP, let first term is a and common difference is d, and for GP first term is G and common ratio be r
then
A, B and C are in G.P.
So let A = G, B= Gr, and C = Gr2
A = a+d = G
B = a+4d = Gr
C= a+8d = Gr2
Now,
Q. 41 Statement I : The equation has a solution for all
Statement II : For any ,
Option 1:
Both statements I and II are true.
Option 2:
Both statements I and II are false.
Option 3:
Statement I is true and statement II is false.
Option 4:
Statement I is false and statement II is true.
Correct Answer:
Statement I is false and statement II is true.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Important Results of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -

- wherein
When
Statement 1: cubing both sides
The statement along with (1) becomes
Solution for (2) is
Now (3) is defined only if
However, this is an insufficient condition as sin-1 x is between which will impose additional
constraints.
Not true
Statement 2: (true)
Now, attains maxima at and minima at

Hence,
Hence,
Q. 42 Let be three non-zero vectors such that no two of them are collinear and
if is the angle between vectors
then a value of is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Triple Product (VTP) -
- wherein
are three vectors.

and
- wherein
Thus
Q. 43 The distance of the point (1, 3, −7) from the plane passing through the point (1, −1, −1),
having normal perpendicular
to both the lines and is:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
Normal vector of Plane=
Equation of plane is of the form
With Point (1,-1,-1) we get
5-7-3=C=-5
So plane is 5x+7y+3y+5=0
distance from (1,3,-7) is
Q. 44 The ratio of the coefficient of to the term independent of in the expansion of

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Term that is independent of x when 30 - 3r = 0
r = 10
The term independent of x is

Q. 45 In a
Then the ordered pair is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Also,
From (1) and (2),

Q. 46 A linear programming model given below:
Maximize ,
Subject to constraint
Constraint
What is the objective function value if is used as possible solution ?
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Solution of Linear Programming Problems -
As we learnt in
Objective Function -
Linear function Z = ax + by, where a, b are constants which has to be maximized or minimized.
- wherein
Ex. Z = 2x + 5y
Z= 3+2 1=3+2=5
Q. 47 The plane which bisects the line joining the points and at right angles
also passes through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
(4,0,-1) lies in this plane
Q. 48 If the coefficients of x3 and x4 in the expansion of (1 + ax + bx2) (1 - 2x)18 in powers of x are

both zero, then (a, b) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Expression of Binomial Theorem -
Now,
coeff of
coeff of
and
and
a = 16
b = 272/3
Q. 49
if then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now using formula in first two terms,
as x (= 5) > 0, y (=5) > 0, xy = 5.5 = 25 > 1, so

Q. 50 An unbiased coin is tossed eight times. The probability of obtaining at least one head and at
least one tail is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of throws = 8
Let 'getting at least one head' be represented by A, and 'getting at least one tail' be represented by B
P(Atleast one H and atleast one T)
= P (A ∩ B)
= 1 - P ((A ∩ B)')
= 1 - P (A' U B') (Using DeMorgan's Law)
Now A' means getting no Head (all tails) and B' means getting no Tails (all heads)
= 1 - ( P(A') + P(B') - 0) (As A' ∩ B' is empty set)
Q. 51 Let be a complex number. Then the set of all complex numbers z satisfying
the equation for some real number k, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Property of Modulus of z(Complex Number) -
- wherein
|.| denotes modulus of complex number
Definition of Modulus of z(Complex Number) -
is the distance of z from origin in Argand plane
- wherein
Real part of z = Re (z) = a & Imaginary part of z = Im (z) = b
Now,
And
Q. 52 A circle passes through (−2, 4) and touches the y - axis at (0, 2). Which one of the following
equations can represent a diameter of this circle ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using Family of circles, a circle touching a given line L=0 at (x1,y1) is
Since circle touches x=0 at the point (0, 2), so let the equation of circle be
It passes through
Thus,
Equation of circle is
Centre of the circle is (-2, 2)
Out of the given options, the line in option (B) satisfies this point, hence it is a diameter if the given circle
Q. 53 Let be a continuous function. If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
NEWTON LEIBNITZ THEOREM -
By newton leibnitz rule

Putting
Q. 54
If is the arithmetic mean of
and , then
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
1.4
Solution:
As we learnt in
Trigonometric Ratios of Submultiples of an Angle -
where-in
This shows the transformation formulae and double angle formulae.
Therefore,
dividing (2) by (1), we get
Now, we are given that is the arithmetic mean of and .
[By making triangle]
Thus,
Q. 55 If equations
, and
Have a common root ,then a:b:c equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Quadratic Expression Graph when a > 0 & D < 0 -

No Real and Equal root of
&
- wherein
Condition for both roots common -
- wherein
&
are the 2 equations
has determinant = 9-32 = -23 < 0
So , non real roots which means both roots are common (as complex roots occurs in conjugate )
So, a:b:c = 2:3:4

Q. 56 Let a and b respectively be the semitransverse and semi-conjugate axes of a hyperbola
whose eccentricity satisfies the equation 9e2−18e+5=0. If S(5, 0) is a focus and 5x=9 is the
corresponding directrix of this hyperbola, then a2−b2 is equal to :
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
-7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
-5
Correct Answer:
-7
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of directrices -
- wherein
For the Hyperbola
or
for Hyperbola
Also
Also,
Q. 57
The integral
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
=>
If
Q. 58 Let 10 vertical poles standing at equal distances on a straight line, subtend the same angle
of elevation at a point O on this line and all the poles are on the same side of O. If the
height of the longest pole is ‘h’ and the distance of the foot of the smallest pole from O is ‘a’,
then the distance between two consecutive poles is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For all poles to subtend the same angle, the longest pole must be farthest, smallest pole must be nearest,
while all other poles are arranged in ascending order of height. Let distance between 2 cosecutive poles
be x. Then,
In,
..............( 1 )
Q. 59 A ray of light is incident along a line which meets another line, 7x − y + 1 = 0, at the point (0,
1). The ray is then reflected from this point along the line, y + 2x = 1. Then the equation of
the line of incidence of the ray of light is :
Option 1:
41x − 38y + 38 = 0
Option 2:
41x + 25y − 25 = 0
Option 3:
41x + 38y − 38 = 0
Option 4:
41x − 25y + 25 = 0
Correct Answer:
41x − 38y + 38 = 0
Solution:
Q. 60 A straight line through origin O meets the lines 3y = 10 − 4x and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0 at points A

and B respectively. Then O divides the segment AB in the ratio
Option 1:
2:3
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
4:1
Option 4:
3:4
Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
Given equation of the lien are
4x + 3y = 10
and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0
these lines are parallel to each other
Length of perpendicular from (0,0) to the line 4x + 3y = 10
Length of perpendicular from (0,0) to the line 8x + 6y = 5

Mock Test 4
Physics
Q. 1 Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by
Option 1:
Two different light source
Option 2:
Two different light source but of same power
Option 3:
Two different light source of same colour
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
None of the above
Solution:
As we learn
Coherent Source -
If they produce wave of same frequency with a constant phase different.
- wherein
Necessary condition to observe interference.
Two coherent sources of ligh can be obtainrd by one source only
Q. 2 In a wave the path difference corresponding to a phase difference of is

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Relation between phase & path difference -
- wherein
Phase difference
Path Difference
Wavelength
Q. 3 When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a
plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index:
Option 1:
equal to that of glass
Option 2:
less than one
Option 3:
greater than that of glass
Option 4:
less than that of glass
Correct Answer:
equal to that of glass
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
refractive index of medium of object
refractive index of lens
are radius of curvature of two surface
This can happen only when the refractive index of liquid is equal to refractive index of lens.
Q. 4 A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of prism of angle A (assumed
to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the
prism is , the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placed at a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal
length 'f2'. A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens - concave
mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance 'd' must equal:
Option 1:
f1+f2
Option 2:
-f1+f2
Option 3:
2f1+f2
Option 4:
-2f1+f2
Correct Answer:
2f1+f2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
Thin lens formula -
- wherein
are object and image distance from lens.
First image will form at distance from lens.
For final image to return to infinity, the first image must be centre of curvature of mirror. Hence distance
of image I from the mirror must be equal to
Correct option 3.
Q. 6 The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance
between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are:
Option 1:
10 cm, 10 cm
Option 2:
15 cm, 5 cm
Option 3:
18 cm, 2 cm
Option 4:
11 cm, 9 cm
Correct Answer:
18 cm, 2 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Astronomical Telescope -
- wherein
= focal length of objective
focal length of eyepiece
magnifying power =
Also
Q. 7 In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons
of two wavelengths 1 = 12000 and 2 = 10000 . At what minimum distance from the
common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one
interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
Option 1:
3 mm
Option 2:
8 mm
Option 3:
6 mm
Option 4:
4 mm
Correct Answer:
6 mm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
let mth bright fringe of first will concide with nth bright fringe of other
minimum Value of m=5 & n= 6
Minimum distance of such point from Central
Maxima
Q. 8 The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be
Option 1:
0.4
Option 2:
40
Option 3:
400
Option 4:
0.04
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
As we learnt in
To convert a physical quantity from one system to other -

- wherein
Q. 9 The pair of quantities having same dimensions is
Option 1:
Young's modulus and energy
Option 2:
Impulse and surface tension
Option 3:
angular momentum and work
Option 4:
work and torque
Correct Answer:
work and torque
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dimension -
The power to which fundamental quantities must be raised in order to express the given physical
quantities.
Work and torque

Q. 10 The output, in the folowing gate logic, would be:
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
A
Option 4:
1+A
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learned
Some Important relation -
-
We know 1+A=1 always, hence the output of OR gate would be always 1, irrespective of any value of A
1 A OR
1 0 1
1 1 1
Similarly
We know that output of AND gate is zero, if atleast one input to AND gate is zero.
A 0 AND
1 0 0
0 0 0
Hence X=0
Q. 11 A bus is moving with a speed of 10ms-1 on a straigth road. A scooterist wishes to overtake
the bus in 100s. If the bus is at a distance of 1km from the scooterist, with what speed
should the scooterist chase the bus?
Option 1:
40ms-1
Option 2:
25ms-1
Option 3:
10ms-1
Option 4:
20ms-1
Correct Answer:
20ms-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Case of Relative velocity. -
When A and B are moving along a straight line in the same direction.
= Velocity of object A.
= Velocity of object B.
Relative velocity of A wr to B is
All are in same direction.
- wherein
a)
= (20 - 5) ms-1
= 15 ms-1
b)
= (5 - 20) ms-1
= - 15 ms-1
Relative velocity of scooter with respect to bus, v = vS - vB
Q. 12 A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He
uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in
the measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in
the estimation of g is
Option 1:
e 2 - e1
Option 2:
e1 + 2e2
Option 3:
e 1 + e2
Option 4:
e1 - 2e2
Correct Answer:
e1 + 2e2
Solution:
Q. 13 The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of
projection is
Option 1:
60°
Option 2:
15°
Option 3:
30°
Option 4:
45°
Correct Answer:
60°
Solution:
Q. 14 An eletromagnetic wave of frequency v=3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric
medium with relative permittivity . Then
Option 1:
wavelength is doubled and frequency is unchanged
Option 2:
wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
Option 3:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
Option 4:
wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
Correct Answer:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
Solution:
As we learnt in
Wavelength of EM Wave -
- wherein
= Wavelength in vacuum
= Refractive index of medium
frequency of an electromagnetic wave is independent of medium
and frequency is unchanged

Q. 15 Light with an energy flux of falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at
normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 , the average force exerted on the surface is:-
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Momentum of EM wave -
- wherein
u = Energy of EM wave
For a perfectly reflecting surface

Q. 16 A radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is (C=Velocity of light)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Momentum of EM wave -
- wherein
u = Energy of EM wave
For a photon E = pC
in case of reflection, change in momentum is 2p
momentum transferred
Q. 17 The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of Earth
(radius R), is:
Option 1:
5R
Option 2:
15R
Option 3:
3R
Option 4:
4R
Correct Answer:
3R
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector form of formula -
Positive vector
- wherein
So,
Weight at surface of earth is =
Weight at height
According to question
or Re + h = 4 Re or h = 3 Re
Q. 18 A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The magnitude of the electric field
due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre
Option 1:
Increases as r increases for r<R
Option 2:
Decreases as r increases for
Option 3:
Decreases as r increases for
Option 4:
both a and c
Correct Answer:
both a and c
Solution:
As we learned
Uniformly charged Non conducting sphere -
Suppose charge Q is uniformly distributed in the volume of a non conducting sphere of Radius R.
- wherein
For non-conducting solid sphere
and
i.e. for r<R; E increases as r increases
and for R<r< ; E decreases as r increases
Q. 19 Which of the following is correct
Option 1:
for charged non-conducting sphere
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Potential - If P lies at centre of uniformly charged non-conducting sphere -
i.e
Q. 20 The electric potential V at any point x, y, z (all in metres) in space is given by The
electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is
Option 1:
8 along negative X-axis
Option 2:
8 along positive X-axis
Option 3:
Option 4:
16 along positive Z-axis
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
- wherein
Potential gradient.
By using Hence at point (1m, 0, 2m). volt/mi.e. 8
along – ve x-axis.
Q. 21 The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by

. Value of electric field at x = 1m is
Option 1:
– 20 V/m
Option 2:
6 V/m
Option 3:
11 V/m
Option 4:
– 23 V/m
Correct Answer:
– 20 V/m
Solution:
As we learned
- wherein
Potential gradient.
By using
x = 1m
Q. 22 If the potential function is given by then the magnitude of electric field intensity at
the point (2, 1) will be
Option 1:
11
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learned
In space -
, ,
By using i.e.,
Q. 23 A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with the speed of 300 ms -1 along the positive x-
axis. Each point of the wave moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will be
the mathematical expression of this travelling wave ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So the equation that suits the following is -
Q. 24 Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5
m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The
frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]:
Option 1:
350 Hz
Option 2:
361 Hz
Option 3:
411 Hz
Option 4:
448 Hz
Correct Answer:
448 Hz
Solution:
As we learnt in
Frequency of sound when source and observer are moving towards each other -
- wherein
Speed of sound
Speed of observer
speed of source
Original frequency
apparent frequency
Q. 25 A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in
series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading
in the ammeter will be:
Option 1:
0.25 A
Option 2:
2A
Option 3:
1A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ammeter -
It is a device used to measure current and always connected in series
- wherein
Resistance of ammeter is
As ammeter is in series with 40.8 Ω
Total resistance of the circuit
R=40.8Ω Ω+19.2Ω
From omni's law
Q. 26 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm.
The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the
Figure, is:
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
0.6
Correct Answer:
0.6
Solution:
Q. 27 A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf and internal
resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of
the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal:
Option 1:
- r and
Option 2:
r and -
Option 3:
- and r
Option 4:
and - r
Correct Answer:
- r and
Solution:
The terminal potential difference (V) of a cell is given as
V= - Ir ----------(1)
compare with straight-line equation y=mx+c
Slope =-r, Intercept =
Q. 28 The thermo e.m.f. E in volts of a certain thermo-couple is found to vary with temperature
difference in °C between the two junctions according to the relation
The neutral temperature for the thermo-couple will be
Option 1:
450°C
Option 2:
400°C
Option 3:
225°C
Option 4:
30°C
Correct Answer:
225°C
Solution:
Q. 29 Consider the following two statement:
(A) Kirchhoffs junction law follows from the conservation of charge.
(B) Kirchhoffs loop law follows from the conservation of energy.
Which of the following is correct?
Option 1:
Both A and B are wrong
Option 2:
A is correct and B is wrong
Option 3:
A is wrong and B is correct
Option 4:
Both A and B correct
Correct Answer:
Both A and B correct
Solution:
As we learnt in
Kirchoff's first law -
In a circuit at any junction the sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the sum of the
currents leaving the junction .
- wherein
This law is also known as Junction rule or current law
and,
Kirchoff's second law -
This law is based on conservation of energy.
Both A and B are correct.
Q. 30 A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current

in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 31 In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point A is taken to be zero, the potential
at point B is
Option 1:
-2V
Option 2:
+1V
Option 3:
-1 V
Option 4:
+2 V
Correct Answer:
+1V
Solution:
Applying Kirchhoff voltage law in the circuit as shown in the figure below.
Q. 32 When electron jumps from higher orbital to n = 3, energy level then this is belongs to
spectral series:
Option 1:
Lymen
Option 2:
Pfund
Option 3:
Paschen
Option 4:
Balmer
Correct Answer:
Paschen
Solution:
As we learn
Paschen Series -
- wherein
When electron jump from higher orbital to n=3 energy level
Q. 33 If the energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 ev then the energy of He+ ion in
the first excited state will be -
Option 1:
-6.8 ev
Option 2:
-54.4 ev
Option 3:
-27.2 ev
Option 4:
-13.6 ev
Correct Answer:
-13.6 ev
Solution:
As we learn
Energy of electron in nth orbit -
- wherein
Q. 34 In a radioactive decay chain , the initial nucleus is . At the end there are 6 -
particles and 4 - particles which are emitted. . If the end nucleus is , A and Z are given
by :
Option 1:
A = 208 ; Z = 80
Option 2:
A = 200 ; Z = 81
Option 3:
A = 202 ; Z = 80
Option 4:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Correct Answer:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Solution:
α -decay -
- wherein
β minus decay -
- wherein
Initially
Let finally
So let reaction
Balance Z -
Balance A -
So A =208 and Z = 82
Q. 35
A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) = . If
Bohr's quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary
with quantum number n as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 36 For a radioactive material T is half life, then the fraction that would remain after a time T/2 is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Number of nuclei in terms of half life -
- wherein
Very useful to determine number of nuclei in terms of half life

Fraction remain after n half lives
Q. 37 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is Hz. If light of frequency

Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is
nearly
Option 1:
2V
Option 2:
3V
Option 3:
5V
Option 4:
1V
Correct Answer:
2V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conservation of energy -
- wherein
&
Stopping Potential /Cut-off Potential -
It is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side.
Q. 38 An electron is accelerated through a potential diffrence of 10000 V . Its debrogile wavelength

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
12.2 nm
Correct Answer:
Solution:
De - Broglie wavelength of Electron -
- wherein
SO v=10000
SO
Q. 39 An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P -
V diagram:
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and U1,
U2, U3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then:
Option 1:
Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 = U2 = U3
Option 2:
Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3
Option 3:
Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3
Option 4:
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
Correct Answer:
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Property of internal energy -
U (internal energy) is a state function.
- wherein
i.e. It depends only on initial and final state.
Since change in internal energy is a state function hence
work done is
Since
Q. 40 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of
its temperature. The ratio of
for the gas is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of state -
- wherein
On solving
In the given question
or = constant ......(1)
From adiabatic equation
.....(2)
From equation 1 and 2
Q. 41 A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near
the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 42 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature; the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be
1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ideal gas equation PV=nRT
OR
where
Divide the two equation
Given
Q. 43 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at constant
volume is 5.0 JK-1 mol-1. If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms-1, then the heat
capacity at constant pressure is
(Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-l)
Option 1:
7.5 JK-1 mol-1
Option 2:
7.0 JK-1 mol-1
Option 3:
8.5 JK-1 mol-1
Option 4:
8.0 JK-1 mol-1
Correct Answer:
8.0 JK-1 mol-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Atomicity or adiabatic coefficient (gamma) -
- wherein
for Monoatomic gas
for Diatomic gas
for Triatomic gas
given M = 4gm
Velocity of sound
Q. 44 A body cools in 7 minutes from to . The temperature of the surrounding is
. The temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Method-1
Using exact law of cooling
Case-I:
Case-II: or
Dividing (2) by (1)
Or
Methode-2
Using newton’s average law of cooling
Case-I:- .......(i)
Case-II:- ........(ii)
Dividing (2) by (1)
Q. 45 The pressure (in pa) that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to
keep its length constant when its temperature is raised by 1000C is :
(For steel Young’s modulus is 2 x 1011 N m-2 and coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 x
10-5 K-1)
Correct Answer: 220000000
Solution:
As we have learned
Thermal Strain -
- wherein
Thermal strain
Thermal stress = Y strain

Pressure required =
Q. 46 A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires of work to turn it

through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be:
Option 1:
3J
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
3J
Solution:
--------------------- (i)
The Torgue on the needle is
in magnitude
-----------------(ii)
from equation (i) and (ii)
Q. 47 A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform
magnetic field. What should be the energy of an - particle to describe a circle of same
radius in the same field?
Option 1:
1 MeV
Option 2:
0.5 MeV
Option 3:
4 MeV
Option 4:
2 MeV
Correct Answer:
1 MeV
Solution:
Radius of a particle moving in magnetic field is given by
E = Kinetic energy
Rproton = R -particle
and
therefore, E = Ep= 1 MeV

Q. 48 Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each
other. The currents flowing in them are I and 2 I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field
induction at the centre will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 49 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of . The voltage gain of the amplifier is:
Option 1:
3000
Option 2:
4000
Option 3:
1000
Option 4:
2000
Correct Answer:
2000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
Three layered semiconducting device .
NPN or PNP
- wherein
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. collector is moderately doped .
3. Base is lightly doped & very thin
Voltage gain
Q. 50
Given : A and B are input terminals.
Logic 1 = > 5 V
Logic 0 = < 1 V
Which logic gate operation, the following circuit does ?
Option 1:
AND Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
NOR Gate
Correct Answer:
AND Gate
Solution:
As we have learned
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input

Y is out put
When both inputs > 5 V then
When one of the inputs is > 5 V and other < 1 V we get
When both input are < 1V Then
Hence A B output
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0
Q. 51 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
Option 1:
0A
Option 2:
10-2 A
Option 3:
10-1 A
Option 4:
10-3 A
Correct Answer:
10-2 A
Solution:
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
The potential difference =10V
since diode is ideal and it is in forward biased mode it will not offer resistance
Q. 52 A 800 turn coil of effective area is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field

. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90 around any of its coplanar axis in
0.1 s , the emf induced in the coil will be :
Option 1:
2V
Option 2:
0.2 V
Option 3:
0.0002 V
Option 4:
0.02 V
Correct Answer:
0.02 V
Solution:
Rate of change of magnetic Flux -
- wherein
change in flux
N = 800
case 1 B and A are parallel
So
case 2 B and A are perpendicular
So
Q. 53 A series of LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the
circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is If instead C is removed from
the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage. The power factor
of the circuit is:
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
0.5
Option 3:
1.0
Option 4:
-1.0
Correct Answer:
1.0
Solution:
Q. 54 An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
Potential difference across, C and R is 40 V, 10V and 40V, respectively. The amplitude of
current flowing through LCR series circuit is . The impedance of the circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 55 If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in the gravitational field of a point mass m,
find the correct relation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Work Done in Conservative and Non-Conservative Field -
1. Conservative field-
In the conservative field, work done by the force depends only upon the initial and final position.
In the conservative field, work done by the force does not depend on the path.
In the conservative field, work done by the force along a closed path is zero.
2. Conservative force-
The forces of these type of fields are known as conservative forces.

Example: Electrostatic forces, gravitational forces, the spring force
So,
As gravitational field is conservative in nature. So work done in moving a particle from A to B does not
depends upon the path followed by the body. It always remains the same.
Q. 56 A 10 kg satellite completes one revolution around the earth at a height of 100 km in 108
minutes. The work done by the gravitational force of earth will be
Option 1:
108 x 100 x 10 J
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Zero
Solution:
3. Zero work
Under three condition Work can be zero
a. If the force is perpendicular to the displacement
Means
E.g-When a body moves in a circle the work done by the centripetal force is always zero.
b. If there is no displacement (means s = 0)

E.g- When a person tries to displace a wall by applying a force and can't able to move the
wall
So the work done by the person on the wall is zero.
c. If there is no force acting on the body (means F=0)
E.g-Motion of an isolated body in free space.
So,
Work done by centripetal force in circular motion is always equal to zero .
Q. 57 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure.
The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are
respectively:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
g, g
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction or Normal Force -

A force which is perpendicular to the surface in contact.
- wherein
Before cut Kx = 4mg
After cut T=0

Q. 58 A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the
same stone is dropped from a height 100% more than previous height, the momentum
when it hits the ground will change by:
Option 1:
41%
Option 2:
200%
Option 3:
100%
Option 4:
68%
Correct Answer:
41%
Solution:
change
Q. 59
A rod ' ' has non-uniform linear mass density given by where a and b
are constants and The value of x for the centre of mass of the rod is at :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 60 Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body
is zero.
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a
large load.
Option 1:
(b) and (d)
Option 2:
(a) and (b)
Option 3:
(b) and (c)
Option 4:
(c) and (d)
Correct Answer:
(b) and (d)
Solution:
As we learnt in concept
Centre of gravity -
Centre of gravity of a body is a point, through which the resultant of all the forces experienced by various
particles of the body due to attraction of earth, passes irrespective of the orientation of the body.
1) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of body is wrong
2) M.A=load / effort
Chemistry
Q. 1 A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of CH2Cl2 and 11.95 g of CHCl3. If vapour pressure of
CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 at 298 K are 415 and 200 mmHg respectively, the mole fraction of CHCl3 in
vapour form is : (Molar mass of Cl=35.5 g mol−1)
Option 1:
0.162
Option 2:
0.675
Option 3:
0.325
Option 4:
0.486
Correct Answer:
0.325
Solution:
Q. 2 Excess of NaOH(aq) was added to 100 mL of FeCl3(aq) resulting into 2.14 g of Fe(OH)3. The
molarity of FeCl3(aq) is :
(Given molar mass of Fe=56 g mol−1 and molar mass of Cl=35.5 g mol−1)
Option 1:
0.2 M
Option 2:
0.3 M
Option 3:
0.6 M
Option 4:
1.8 M
Correct Answer:
0.2 M
Solution:
The chemical equation for the reaction is as follows:
3NaOH(aq) + FeCl3(aq) —> 3NaCl(aq) + F(OH)3(aq)
Therefore, the mole ratio of FeCl3 and Fe(OH)3 is 1 : 1
Now moles of Fe(OH)3 is given by:

Moles = Given mass / Molar mass
Molar mass of Fe(OH)3 = 56 + 48 +3 = 107 grams / moles
2.14 g / (107g / mole) = 0.02 moles.
Therefore, the moles for FeCl3 are also 0.02 moles
Now, Molarity = moles per volume(L)
The molarity of FeCl3 is thus : (0.02 / 100) x 1000
Therefore, the molarity of FeCl3 = 0.2M
Thus, option (1) is correct
Q. 3 Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1: 1
molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant
at 25°C. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
Option 1:
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
Option 2:
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
Option 3:
The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
Option 4:
Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
Correct Answer:
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
Solution:
As we learned in
Liquids which are more volatile exert more vapour pressure.
More volatile liquids are those when intermolecular forces are weak.
When we look at vapour pressure data of benzene (12.8 kPa) and toluene (3.85 kPa) we find that benzene
is more volatile than toluene and hence will exert greater pressure and will have a higher percentage in
the vapour phase.

reason (R).
Assertion: Galvonized iron does not rust
Reason: Zn has a more negative electrode potential than Fe.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Corrosions -
Slow formation of undesirable compounds such as oxides, sulfides or carbonates at the surface of metals
by reaction with moisture and other atmospheric gases is known as corrosion.
Zn is used for covering the iron to protect it from rusting. This process is called galvanization. Zn is more
reactive metal than iron.
Zn has more negative electrode potential (standard reduction potential) than that of Fe. Therefore Zn
loses electrons in preference to iron. When the layer of zinc comes in contact with moisture, oxygen and
co2 a protective thin layer of Znco3. Zn(oH)2 is formed. Hence reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.

reason (R).
Assertion : In electrolysis, the quantity of electricity needed for depositiong 1 mole of Ag is different
from that required for 1 mole copper.
Reason: The atomic masses of Ag and Cu are different.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Faraday's first law of electrolysis -
The mass of any substance deposited or dissolved at any electrode during electrolysis is directly
propotional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
- wherein
W=ZIt
Z = mass of electrolyte get deposited
Z = electro chemical equivalent
Ag+ + e- Ag
to deposit 1 mole Ag, 1 Faraday charge ( change on 1 mol electrons) is needed.
Cu+2 + 2e- cu
to deposit 1 mole cu, 2 F charge is required.
Q no of equivalents of the substance as number of equivalents are different so charge required is

different for Cu and Ag. Therefore reason is not the correct explanation.
Q. 6 The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1
ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron = ):
Option 1:
6 x 1023
Option 2:
6 x 1020
Option 3:
3.75 x 1020
Option 4:
7.48 x 1023
Correct Answer:
3.75 x 1020
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given, I = 1 ampere ,and t = 60 sec
So,
Since
So, option 3 is correct.
Q. 7 The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia

through Haber's process is:
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
20
Option 3:
30
Option 4:
40
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
The reaction is :
For 20 moles of ammonia, the balanced equation is:
So, 30 moles of H2 are required.
Q. 8 Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms?
Option 1:
1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7 ]
Option 2:
1g of Ag(s) [ Atomic mass of Ag = 108 ]
Option 3:
1g of Mg(s) [ Atomic mass of Mg = 24 ]
Option 4:
1g of O2(g) [ Atomic mass of O = 16 ]
Correct Answer:
1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7 ]
Solution:
For Li:
Number of atoms in 1 g
For Ag:
For Mg:
For O2:
Thus, the number of atoms in 1 g of Li is the highest among these.
Q. 9 The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.450C when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g
of benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a dimer in benzene, percentage association of
acetic acid in benzene will be :
(Kf for benzene=5.12 K kg mol−1)
Option 1:
74.6%
Option 2:
94.6%
Option 3:
64.6%
Option 4:
80.4%
Correct Answer:
94.6%
Solution:
In benzene ,
t=0 1 -
t=t 1-
Given:
w = 0.2g W = 20 g T = 0.45 K
As we know ,
, observed M = 113.78 (acetic acid)
Molecular weight of acetic acid = 60
% degree of association = 94.5 %
Q. 10 At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732mm. If Kb
= 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
Option 1:
101°C
Option 2:
100°C
Option 3:
102°C
Option 4:
103°C
Correct Answer:
101°C
Solution:
As we learned in
Mathematical Expression -
Where -
Now,
Let's find the molar mass of the solute first By Roalt's law of partial pressure,
Then we know that
Q. 11 The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium
hydroxide is:
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learned in the concept
Vant off factor(i) = Total number of ions present in the solution.

So, the total number of ions in the solution is 3.
Clearly, van't Hoff factor is 3
Q. 12 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
Option 1:
D-fructose
Option 2:
D-ribose
Option 3:
D-glucose
Option 4:
L-glucose.
Correct Answer:
D-glucose
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cellulose -
A straight chain polymer of
- wherein
Constituent of plant cell wall
Linkage : linkage
Cellulose is a straight chain polymer of D-glucose, which upon hydrolysis gives its monomer (D-glucose)
Q. 13 Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
Option 1:
Uracil
Option 2:
Cytosine
Option 3:
Guanine
Option 4:
Thymine
Correct Answer:
Uracil
Solution:
As we learnt in
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is deoxyribose, Phosphoric acid

and bases (Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and thymine)
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
In RNA uracil is present instead of thymine.
Q. 14 The correct match between items of List - I and List - II is :

List - I List - II
(A) Phenelzine (P) Pyrimidine
(B) Chloroxylenol (Q) Furan
(C) Uracil (R) Hydrazine
(D) Ranitidine (S) Phenol
Option 1:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 2:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 3:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Option 4:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Correct Answer:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
Phenelzine contains Hydrazine
Chlaroxylenol contains Phenol
Uracil is the Pyrimidine base
Ranitidine contains Furan ring.
Q. 15 Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is
because
Option 1:
zinc is lighter than iron
Option 2:
zinc has lower melting point than iron
Option 3:
zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
Option 4:
zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
Correct Answer:
zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
Solution:
Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible.
Iron gets oxidized in presence of moisture which is known as rusting. To protect the iron, it is coated with
zinc because zinc has a higher negative reduction potential than iron, so zinc gets oxidized before iron, so
it protects the iron from getting oxidized.
Zn has higher negative SRP (Standard reduction potential) so it works as anode and protects iron to make
iron as the cathode. So, iron will reduce and zinc will oxidize.
The reverse is not possible because even if the zinc is coated with iron means iron will be in contact with
moisture, zinc will get oxidized first due to high negative reduction potential.
Q. 16 The Gibb's energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500oC is as follows:
The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at
500oC is at least:
Option 1:
3.0 V
Option 2:
2.5 V
Option 3:
5.0 V
Option 4:
4.5 V
Correct Answer:
2.5 V
Solution:
The given reaction is -
The Half cell reactions will be-

Electron transferred,
Now,
Q. 17 Molar conductivities at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9
and 91.0 respectively.
for CH3COOH will be :
Option 1:
180.5 S cm2 mol-1
Option 2:
290.8 S cm2 mol -1
Option 3:
390.5 S cm2 mol-1
Option 4:
425.5 S cm2 mol-1
Correct Answer:
390.5 S cm2 mol-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
The formula for limiting molar conductivity for electrolyte -
are limiting molar conductivities of cation and anion respectively.

Now,
Q. 18 Which of the following is not true about valence bond theory?
Option 1:
It states there should be maximum overlapping of atomic orbitals
Option 2:
Greater is overlapping, higher is the strength of chemical bond.
Option 3:
It explains magnetic properties
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
It explains magnetic properties
Solution:
Valence bond theory does not explain the magnetic properties of the molecules.
Q. 19 The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic Mn (II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable
ligand for this complex is :
Option 1:
CO
Option 2:
ethylenediamine
Option 3:
NCS-
Option 4:
CN-
Correct Answer:
NCS-
Solution:
As we have learnt in magnetic moment,
implies that the number of unpaired electrons = 5 .
Now, has a configuration and presence of 5 unpaired electrons will only be possible for weak
field ligands like
Q. 20 Which of the following has a square planar geometry?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Electronic configuration of and are given as
Now, as Pt belongs to the 5d series, weaker ligands are also able to cause pairing because of greater
splitting due to larger size of the orbiratal.
Hence, it has hybridisation and square planar geometry.
Electronic configuration of
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Hence, it has hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Q. 21 Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For an ideal solution, intermolecular forces between the components are identical to that present in pure
components.
Q. 22 Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lewis acids and bases - Lewis defined an acid as a species that accepts electron pairs and bases which
donate an electron pair.
In lewis acid, many acids do not have protons but have vacant orbitals to accept lone pair of electrons.
has no lone pair of electrons but can accept lone pair of electrons acting as a lewis acid.
Whereas, have lone pair of electrons and act as lewis bases.
Q. 23 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium:
Option 1:
Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Option 2:
CuS > ZnS > Na2S
Option 3:
ZnS > Na2S > CuS
Option 4:
Na2S > CuS > ZnS
Correct Answer:
Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Solution:
Ionic character of the compound decrease as the size of the cation increases and solubility decrease as
ionic character decreases.
Solubility order is
Q. 24 At the of water is times its value at C. What will be the of neutral

solution?
Option 1:
6.13
Option 2:
7.00
Option 3:
7.87
Option 4:
5.13
Correct Answer:
6.13
Solution:
Pure water is always neutral, at different temperatures the pH scale can change but water is always
neutral.
On an increase of temperature range of the pH scale decreases.
At
At
the COrrect answer is option 1.

Q. 25 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The solubility of sulfides is directly proportional to the ionic character.
The more the covalent character, the lower the solubility of the salt.
Due to the poor shielding effect of d orbitals in d block elements, hence CuS and ZnS are more covalent
in comparison to Na2S.
in the case of Cu2+ and Zn2+, Cu2+ has a smaller size hence, more charge-to-size ratio, more polarizing
power, more covalent character, and lower solubility.
Q. 26 The pair of compounds that can exist together is :
Option 1:
FeCl3, SnCl2
Option 2:
HgCl2, SnCl2
Option 3:
FeCl2, SnCl2
Option 4:
FeCl3, KI
Correct Answer:
FeCl2, SnCl2
Solution:
The pair of compounds that can exist together is FeCl2, and SnCl2.
FeCl2and SnCl2(both are reducing agents and have lower oxidation no.)
Hence neither can reduce the other.
Q. 27 The reaction of aqueous with in acidic conditions gives :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of aqueous with in acidic conditions gives:
The oxidation number of Mn in MnSO4is +2. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 28 The absolute configuration of
is :
Option 1:
(2R, 3S)
Option 2:
(2S, 3R)
Option 3:
(2S, 3S)
Option 4:
(2R, 3R)
Correct Answer:
(2S, 3R)
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Chiral Carbon -
Those carbon on which four different groups are present.
- wherein
For C2
This rotation suggests R but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is R.
For C3
This rotation suggests S but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is S.
Q. 29 The standard enthalpy of formation ( fHo298) for methane, CH4 is -74.9 kJ mol-1. In order to
calculate the average energy given out in the formation of a C - H bond from this it is
necessary to know which one of the following?
Option 1:
the dissociation energy of the hydrogen molecule, H2.
Option 2:
the first four ionisation energies of carbon.
Option 3:
the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
Option 4:
the first four ionisation energies of carbon and electron affinity of hydrogen.
Correct Answer:
the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
Solution:
Enthalpy of Sublimation -
Amount of enthalpy change to sublimise 1 mole solid into 1-mole vapour at a temperature below its
melting point
Bond dissociation enthalpy -
It is the average of enthalpy required to dissociate the said bond present in the different gaseous
compounds into free atoms in the gaseous state.
The standard eventually of form
Now,
Step 1 :
Step 2 :
Hence dissociation energy of hydrogen and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon is required.
Q. 30 A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 370 C. As it does so ,it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w
for the process will be :
(R= 8.314 J/mol K) (In 7.5 = 2.01)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The process is isothermal reversible expansion
Hence dT = 0
U=0
Now, work is given by the formula
Now, using 1st law of thermodynamics
Q. 31 For which of the following processes, ΔS is negative?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The change in entropy for an ideal gas in terms of C(p) -
Where,
Molar heat capacity at constant pressure
Now,
for isothermal process
and
Q. 32 The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are
Option 1:
octahedral, sp3d2
Option 2:
trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
Option 3:
planar triangle, sp3d3
Option 4:
square planar, sp3d2
Correct Answer:
octahedral, sp3d2
Solution:
-
hybridisation(octahedrai geometry square planar shape).
Q. 33 In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Resonance -
For molecules and ions showing resonance it is not possible to draw a single Lewis structure.All the
properties can only be explained by two or more Lewis structures.
- wherein
Because of double bond character in the carbon-carbon bridge this compound will have an atom planar.
Q. 34 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen
bond?
Option 1:
H 2 O2
Option 2:
HCN
Option 3:
Cellulose
Option 4:
Concentrated acetic acid
Correct Answer:
Cellulose
Solution:
Hydrogen Bonding -
Attractive force which binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with the electronegative ( F, O, N ) atom of
another molecule.
- wherein
It is of two type
1. Intermolecular and
2. Intramolecular
H2O2 , HCN and concentrated CH3 COOH (acetic acid) form inter-molecular hydrogen bonding while
cellulose has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Q. 35 Reason of lanthanoid contraction is :
Option 1:
Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
Option 2:
Increasing Nuclear charge
Option 3:
Decreasing nuclear charge
Option 4:
Decreasing screening effect
Correct Answer:
Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
Solution:
The lanthanoid contraction results from the poor shielding effect of the 4f orbitals due to which outer 6s
electrons are more strongly attracted by the nucleus thus resulting in a decrease in size of the atoms
subsequent to lanthanoids i.e from hafnium.
Q. 36 Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of followed by treatment with a saturated

solution of gives
Option 1:
acetone
Option 2:
acetamide
Option 3:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Option 4:
acetyl iodide.
Correct Answer:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction of Grignard reagent with Alcohol -
Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Q. 37 At 320 K, a gas is 20% dissociated to A(g). The standard free energy change at 320 K and
1 atm in is approximately : (R=8.314 ; ln 2=0.693; ln 3=1.098)
Option 1:
4763
Option 2:
2068
Option 3:
1844
Option 4:
4281
Correct Answer:
4281
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between Gibbs energy and reaction Quotient -
- wherein
is standard Gibbs energy.
Q. 38 Among the following compounds which can be dehydrated very easily ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dehydration of alcohols -
Ease of dehydration
- wherein
The more stable carbocation generated, more easily it will dehydrated. The order of stability of
carbocations
tertiary > secondary > primary
Q. 39 Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?

(At nos. Ti=22, Cr=24, Mn=25, Ni=28):-
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Calculation of spin only magnetic moment -
where n = no. of unpaired electron
- wherein
magnetic moment,
=> x(x + 2) = 8
=> x = 2
Electronic confiq of
Clearly, no. of unpaired e- s= 2
Q. 40 Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by :
Option 1:
Hydrolysis
Option 2:
Oxidation
Option 3:
Cracking
Option 4:
Distillation under reduced pressure
Correct Answer:
Cracking
Q. 41 The number of d-electrons in Fe2+(Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which
one of the following ?
Option 1:
d - electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
Option 2:
p - electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
Option 3:
s - electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
Option 4:
p - electrons in CI (Z =17)
Correct Answer:
p - electrons in CI (Z =17)
Solution:
Fe(26) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6
Fe2+ (26) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d6
Number of d electrons in Fe2+ = 6
For Cl (17) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
So the number of d electrons in Fe2+ is not the same as the number of p electrons in Cl.
Q. 42 What is the chemical composition of power alcohol ?
Option 1:
30 % alcohol and 70 % petrol
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt,
Power alcohol -
A mixture of 80% petrol, 20% ethyl alcohol with co-solvent benzene.
It is used to run automobiles.
Mixture of alcohol and petrol in 20 : 80 ratio is called power alcohol . It is used in automobiles as they
generate energy from it for their operation.
Q. 43
For a first-order reaction, , (half-life) is 10 days. The time required for
conversion of A (in days) is :
(ln 2=0.693, ln 3=1.1)
Correct Answer:
4.1
Solution:
Fro the first-order reaction: -
Q. 44 decomposes to and and follows first order kinetics. After 50 minutes, the
pressure inside the vessel increases from 50 mmHg to 87.5 mmHg.
The pressure (in mmHg ) of the gaseous mixture after 100 minute at constant temperature
will be :
Correct Answer:
106.25
Solution:
t=0 50 0 0
t=50min
=25
t=100min
12.5
+ +
50 minutes is half-life period
for 100 minutes (2 half-life)

of Hg
Total Pressure at 100 minutes
=50+56.25
=106.25mm of Hg
Q. 45 for a reaction
What is the rate of the reaction with respect to A?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rate of reaction -
The rate of the reaction during the courses of a reaction in any instant of time is the change in
concentration of reacting species. Rate is a positive quantity.
Q. 46 For a reaction .
Which graph is correct for the rate of disappearance of A?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rate of disappearance of R
This can be seen that conc. of A decreases with time as the reaction proceeds.
So, Correct graph will be -

Q. 47 Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :
Option 1:
Principle quantum number
Option 2:
Magnetic quantum number
Option 3:
Azimutual quantum number
Option 4:
Spin quantum number
Correct Answer:
Spin quantum number
Solution:
As we learned in
Spin Quantum Number ( )-
It has two values +1/2 and -1/2
For the two electrons occupying the same orbital value of n, l and m are the same but is different.
Q. 48 The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
Option 1:
Schiff base
Option 2:
Ketone
Option 3:
Carboxylic acid
Option 4:
Aromatic acid
Correct Answer:
Schiff base
Solution:
The reaction
Q. 49 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Option 1:
H+
Option 2:
Li+
Option 3:
Na+
Option 4:
Mg2+
Correct Answer:
Li+
Solution:
Electronic config of
Electronic config of
Be2+ is isoelectronic with
Option (2) is correct answer.

Q. 50 The IUPAC name of the compound is :
Option 1:
5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Option 2:
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The IUPAC name of the compound will be "3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal"
Q. 51 The polymer obtained from the following reactions is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction occurs as
Q. 52
The basicity order of I, II and III is
Option 1:
III > I > II
Option 2:
II>I> III
Option 3:
I > II > III
Option 4:
I > III>II
Correct Answer:
III > I > II
Solution:
Reaction:
The basicity order will depend on the groups attached with 'N' other than the benzene ring.
In (III) −C2H5increases the basicity order due to its +I effect.
Therefore (III) has the highest basicity,
(II) has lowest basicity due to the -I effect of −COCH3group.
Hence the correct order is (III)>(I)>(II).
Q. 53 Among the following, the incorrect statement is :
Option 1:
Maltose and lactose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 2:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Option 3:
Cellulose and amylose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 4:
Lactose contains β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose.
Correct Answer:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Starch -
A polymer of that consists of having two components , amylose ( water soluble

unbranched chain ) and amylopectin ( water insoluble having branched chain)
- wherein
Main storage polysaccharide of plants
Amylose : , glycosidic linkage
Amylopectin : linkage and linkage
In amylose 1,4 - glycosidic linkage is present
Q. 54 An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen.
The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is :[ Atomic wt.C is 12, H is 1]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mass ratio of Carbon : Hydrogen = 78 : 22
molar ratio of Carbon : Hydrogen = 6.5 : 22
simplest ratio of Carbon : Hydrogen = 1 : 3.38
Thus, on the basis of the given data, the most probable answer is
Q. 55 What mass of pure will be required to neutralise
solution according to the following reaction?
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Give reaction
From above,
For 2 mole of = 1 mole of required

required
For some of solution of required
But is so,
Hence the correct option is 1.
Q. 56 One mole of carbon atom weighs 12 g, the number of atoms in it is equal to, ( Mass of
carbon - 12 is )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The number of atoms present in 12 g of carbon is equal to Avogadro's number ( )
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Q. 57 The right option for the mass of produced by 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic
mass of Ca =40)
Option 1:
1.12g
Option 2:
1.76g
Option 3:
2.64g
Option 4:
1,32g
Correct Answer:
1.76g
Solution:
Q. 58 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their
radii increase ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
In the case of isoelectronic species, radius decreases with an increase in nuclear charge.
So, the increasing order of radii of given species
Q. 59 Following conversion can be carryout using the reagent :
Option 1:
NaOH
Option 2:
NaOH/CaO,
Option 3:
,
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
,
Solution:
As we learned
Oxidation of Phenol -
Product form is conjugated diketone known as benzoquinone.
- wherein
Q. 60 Acetone upon reaction with methanol to give:
Option 1:
Acetal
Option 2:
Hemiacetal
Option 3:
Ketone
Option 4:
Ketal
Correct Answer:
Ketal
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Addition of ketones with alcohols -
Produces an unstable hemiketal intermediate and further stable compound called ketal.
- wherein
Ketal
Maths
Q. 1 If in a regular polygon the number of diagonals is 54, then the number of sides of this
polygon is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have learned
The number of diagonals of n sided convex polygon is (Where n > 3)

Now,
no. of diagonals =
Q. 2 Let k and K be the minimum and the maximum values of the function
in [0, 1] respectively, then the ordered pair (k, K) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Use the concept of
Maxima Minima -
known as minima.
Put x=0
Q. 3 The integral
is equal to:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
....(i)
Also,
.....(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii)
Q. 4
if are the root of equation ,
then the equation has root
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
- wherein
We have ,
Now ,
Q. 5 A hyperbola whose transverse axis is along the major axis of the conic
and has vertices at the foci of this conic. If the eccentricity of the
hyperbola is then which of the following points does NOT lie on it ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
the eccentricity of the hyperbola
Clearly point does not lies on it.

Q. 6
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Now put limit
Q. 7 Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix such that A2 − 5A + 7I = O.
Statement - I :
Statement - II : The polynomial A3 − 2A2 − 3A + I can be reduced to 5(A − 4I).
Option 1:
Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
Option 2:
Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Option 3:
Both the statements are true.
Option 4:
Both the statements are false.
Correct Answer:
Both the statements are true.
Solution:
Given that
The statement is 1 is true
Statement 2 is also correct
Q. 8 Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
Then y(e) is equal to :
Option 1:
e
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
2e
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
I.F.
Put x=1
0=c-2 = c=2
at x=e
Q. 9 The area (in sq. units) of the region described by
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Ponits of intersection of
Q. 10 If the function.
is differentiable, then the value of k + m is :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learned
Continuity at a point -
A function f(x) is said to be continuous at x = a in its domain if
1. f(a) is defined : at x = a.
-
Condition for differentiability -
A function f(x) is said to be differentiable at if both exist

and are equal otherwise non differentiable
FOr continuity at x= 3 ,
and for diffrentiability at x = 3 ,
solving (1) and (2)
m = 2/5
and k = 8/5
therfore m+k = 2
Q. 11 If is the set of
natural numbers,then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us 1st simplify set X
For n=1; X=0
For n=2; X=9
For n=3; X=54
And
For n=1; Y=0
For n=2; Y=9
For n=3; Y=18
For n=7; Y=54
Hence we can say
Q. 12 If the sum of the first ten terms of the series
then m is equal to:

Correct Answer:
101
Solution:
Q. 13 If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from three collinear points A, B and C, on a
line leading to the foot of the
tower, are 300, 450 and 600 respectively,then the ratio, AB : BC, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In
...................... ( 1 )
In
.................... ( 2 )
In
..................... ( 3 )
Now,
Q. 14 If equals:
Option 1:
17
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Thus
Q. 15 The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and
8, without repetition, is :
Option 1:
216
Option 2:
192
Option 3:
120
Option 4:
72
Correct Answer:
192
Solution:
Such numbers can be 4-digit or 5 digit
1. Four-digit numbers can be
3 options (6,7,8) for first place as number has to be greater than 6,000
2. Five-digit numbers
As all 5 digit numbers will be greater than 6000, so
5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120
Total = 192
Q. 16 Let be a polynomial of degree four having extreme values at
if
then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we learnt in
Evaluation of limits : (algebraic limits) : (Method of direct substitution) -
- wherein
Means at x = a f(x) defined.

Let
for finite value d=0, e=0
c=2
Now
So that
b=-2
c=2
So
=8-16+8=0
Q. 17
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
The rule for integration -
Integration of the differential of a function is the function itself.
- wherein
where
Q. 18
If z1, z2 and z3, z4 are 2 pairs of complex conjugate numbers, then
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
and
So,
Q. 19 Two sides of a rhombus are along the lines, x−y+1=0 and 7x−y−5=0. If its diagonals intersect
at (−1, −2), then which one of the following is a vertex of this rhombus ?
Option 1:
(−3, −9)
Option 2:
(−3, −8)
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
slope
Point of intersection of AB and AD is
Let C be
and
Slope of
Hence, slope of
equation of
Point satisfies the line BD
Q. 20
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Evaluation of Trigonometric limit -
-
Q. 21
if ,then the determinant of the matrix (A2016−2A2015−A2014) is :
Option 1:
2014
Option 2:
−175
Option 3:
2016
Option 4:
−25
Correct Answer:
−25
Solution:
We need to find determinant of the matrix

Q. 22 Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be governed by the differential equation
. If equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Solution of Differential Equation -
put
- wherein
Equation with convert to

Q. 23 The integral
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Fundamental Properties of Definite integration -
If the function is continuous in (a, b ) then integration of a function a to b will be same as the sum of
integrals of the same function from a to c and c to b.
- wherein
Q. 24
If g is the inverse of a function and is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Q. 25 if and the equation (where denotes the

greatest integer ) has no integral solution, then all possible values of a lie in the interval
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here, we have,
now, x - [x] = {x} = t (say)
And,
hence, we have
Now, Let us consider that this equation has some solution.
then, as LHS is always positive or zero.
And,
Hence,
therefore, for solution to happen LHS should also be same.
Hence, for no solution
Q. 26 Let the sum of the first three terms of an A.P. be 39 and the sum of its last four terms be
178. If the first term of this A.P. is 10, then the number of terms of the A.P. is :
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Let the AP is
given
Now
Q. 27
Let where
Then a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Formulae of Inverse Trigonometric Functions
when
Q. 28 if then a value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
24
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if and only if there exists a scalar m such as that
- wherein
m is a Scalar.
Q. 29 Let R= {(3,3), (5,5), (9,9), (12,12), (5,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,5)} be a relation on the set A=
{3,5,9,12}. Then R is :
Option 1:
reflexive , symmetric but not transitive
Option 2:
symmetric, transitive but not reflexive
Option 3:
an equivalence relation.
Option 4:
reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
Correct Answer:
reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
Solution:
Let R= {(3,3), (5,5), (9,9), (12,12), (5,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,5)} be a relation on the set
A= {3,5,9,12}
Clearly, every element of A is related to itself. Therefore, it is reflexive.
Now, R is not symmetric because 3 is related to 5 but 5 is not related to 3 .
Also, R is transitive relation because it satisfies the property that if aRb and bRc then aRc.
Q. 30 If and g are differentiable functions in [0, 1] satisfying (0) = 2 = g (1), g (0) = 0 and (1)=6,
then for some c [0, 1] :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
cauchy's Theorem -
for some
- wherein
We have
For some
Q. 31 The area of the region described by is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
aS LEARNT IN CONCEPT
Area along y axis -
Let be two curve, then area bounded by the curves and the lines
y = a and y = b is
- wherein
Q. 32 If and are roots of the equation, for some k
and then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
- wherein
and
Now ,
k= 2 acceptable for ln k to be definite
Q. 33 The centres of those circles which touch the circle, x2+y2−8x−8y−4=0, externally and also
touch the x-axis, lie on :
Option 1:
a circle.
Option 2:
an ellipse which is not a circle.
Option 3:
a hyperbola.
Option 4:
a parabola.
Correct Answer:
a parabola.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Common tangents of two circles -
When two circles touch each other externally, there are three common tangents, two of them are direct.
- wherein
Circle touching x-axis and having radius r -
- wherein
Where f is a variable parameter.
- wherein
Circle:
externally
radius of circle touching x-axis=k,

we get
On squaring both sides
compared to
Represent a parabola
Q. 34 If x= -1 and x = 2 are extreme points of then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Maxima Minima -
known as minima.
-
So solve
and
Q. 35
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Hence,
And
Given that these two matrices are equal, so by comparing the elements of these 2 matrices
15a - 2b = 0 and 10a + 3b =13

(Also for these values , so these values are correct)
Q. 36
if is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
eg:
Then
Now,
.............(i)
...........(ii)
So that,
Q. 37
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
-
and
Q. 38
if is continuous and , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Evaluation of Trigonometric limit -

-
Q. 39 Let where Then equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Double Angle Formula -
- wherein
These are formulae for double angles.
Q. 40
The value of is equal to
Option 1:
7785
Option 2:
8155
Option 3:
7775
Option 4:
8100
Correct Answer:
8155
Solution:
Now
So that
So
Q. 41 The number of for which
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we know that
Now,
he number of is 4.
Q. 42 If are three unit vectors in three-dimensional space, then the minimum value of
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Unit vector -
A vector of unit magnitude in direction of a vector is called unit vector along .
- wherein
It is denoted by .
- wherein
Dot product is commutative for , where is the angle between the vectors
Minimum value 3
Q. 43 The shortest distance between the lines
and
lies in the interval :
Option 1:
[0, 1)
Option 2:
[1, 2)
Option 3:
(2, 3]
Option 4:
(3, 4]
Correct Answer:
(2, 3]
Solution:
As we learnt in
Shortest distance between two skew lines (Cartesian form) -
Shortest distance between
and is given by
Where
Cross product of DRS is
So shortest distance =
It lies in interval (2,3]
Q. 44 The number of terms in the expansion of (1 + x)101 (1 + x2 - x)100 in powers of x is :
Correct Answer:
202
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
Q. 45 Let
be
two sets. Then :
Option 1:
P ⊂ Q and Q−P ≠ φ
Option 2:
Q⊄P
Option 3:
P⊄Q
Option 4:
P=Q
Correct Answer:
P=Q
Solution:
Let P
Let Q
From above, we observe that P = Q

Q. 46 Consider the following linear programming problem
Maximize
Subject to ,
all variables
which of the following points (x,y) is feasible?
Option 1:
(50,40)
Option 2:
(30,50)
Option 3:
(60,30)
Option 4:
(90,20)
Correct Answer:
(60,30)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Decision Variables -
In Z = ax+by, x and y are decision variables.
-
x = 60
y = 30 is feasible.
Q. 47 The distance of the point (1, −2, 4) from the plane passing through the point (1, 2, 2) and
perpendicular to the planes x − y + 2z = 3 and 2x −2y + z + 12=0, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

is given by
Normal vector of plane is
So equation of plane is
passes through (1,2,2)
3+6=C
3x+3y=9 => x+y=3
Distance
Q. 48 The coefficient of x50 in the binomial expansion of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
The given series is a G.P with a common ratio =
No. of terms = 1001
So sum =
Now coefficient of
Q. 49 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point A, due east of it is 450. The
angle of elevation of the top of the same tower from a point B, due south of A is 300. If the
distance between A and B is m , then the height of the tower (in metres), is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 50 From a group of 10 men and 5 women, four member committees are to be formed each of
which must contain at least one woman. Then the probability for these committees to have
more women than men is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let A be the event that at least one woman is selected in the committee
So A' is the event that no woman is selected in the committee
P (A) = P (atleast 1 woman) =1 - P(A') = 1- P(no woman is selected in the committee)
Let B be the event that there are more women than men in the committee
P (B) =
So,
(Note that here B is a subset of A, so their intersection equals B itself)
Q. 51
Lets be any complex number such that is a purely imaginary number. Then
is:
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
Any non-zero real number
Option 3:
A purely imaginary number
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Any non-zero real number
Solution:
Let (As it is purely imaginary)
So,
Q. 52 If one of the diameters of the circle, given by the equation, x2 + y2 − 4x + 6y − 12=0, is a chord
of a circle S, whose centre is at (−3, 2), then the radius of S is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
General form of a circle -
- wherein
centre =
radius =
Radius of given circle =5
Distance between centres= and

Now
Q. 53
The integral equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in concept
standard formulas.
- wherein

Let 2x = t and dx = dt/2
--------------------------------- (1)
Substituting
------------------------------------ (2)
From (1) & (2),

Q. 54 The number of real values of x lying in [0, 2π) , which satisfy the equation cos x + cos 2x +
cos 3x + cos 4x = 0, is
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
General Solution of Trigonometric Ratios
Now,
Thus,
Hence, there are a total number of 7 solutions.
Q. 55 The sum of the roots of the equation, ,is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Roots of Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
is the equation
Case (1)
Acceptable value =
case (2)
x < 3/2
Acceptable value
sum of roots =
Q. 56 Let P be the point on the parabola, y2=8x which is at a minimum distance from the centre C
of the circle, x2 + (y+6)2=1. Then the equation of the circle, passing through C and having its
centre at P is :
Option 1:
x2 + y2 − 4x + 8y + 12 = 0
Option 2:
x2+y2−x+4y−12=0
Option 3:
Option 4:
x2 + y2 − 4x + 9y + 18 = 0
Correct Answer:
x2 + y2 − 4x + 8y + 12 = 0
Solution:
As we learnt in
Parametric coordinates of parabola -
- wherein
For the parabola.
Equation of a circle -
- wherein
Circle with centre and radius .
Equation of normal of in
parametric form
If it passes through (0,-6)
Put a=2
we get t= -1
This point is (a, -2a) (2, -4)
Radius of circle = distance between and
Hence equation is
Q. 57
The integral is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein

Using by parts
Q. 58 A man is walking towards a vertical pillar in a straight path, at a uniform speed. At a certain
point A on the path, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 300.
After walking for 10 minutes from A in the same direction, at a point B, he observes that the
angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 600. Then the time taken (in minutes) by him,
from B to reach the pillar, is :
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Let PQ represent pillar. Say height = h
In ,
In
Now, the person is walking at a uniform speed, hence time taken will be proportional to distance
travelled.
Thus,
Hence, time required is 5 minutes.
Q. 59 The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose length of conjugate axis is equal to half of the
distance between its foci, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As per the question
(Using )
Q. 60
The points
Option 1:
Form an obtuse angled triangle.
Option 2:
Form an acute angled triangle.
Option 3:
Form a right angled triangle.
Option 4:
Lie on a straight line.
Correct Answer:
Lie on a straight line.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Area of triangle
where vertices of ∆ ABC are A(x1,y1) , B(x2,y2), C(x3,y3)
If area of triangle is zero, then the three points must be lying on the same line (collinear)
Let the points given be A, B, C
Area of
Since no triangle is formed.
Hence, points are collinear.

Mock Test 5
Physics
Q. 1 A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to
each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices and and R is
the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the
combination is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lens placed close to each other -
Equivalent focal length.
- wherein
are focal lenght of lenc 1, 2, 3, -----n

Focal length of convex lens is
Focal length of concave lens is
Resultant focal length is
or
Q. 2 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased,
which of the following statements is correct ?
Option 1:
The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected.
Option 2:
Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
Option 3:
The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
Option 4:
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Correct Answer:
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Radius of diffraction disc -
- wherein
Distance of screen from hole
slit width
If speed of electron is increased then its wavelength will decrease.
Since angular width
Hence angular width of central maximum will decrease.
Q. 3 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least
converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the
distance between the retina and the cornea - eye lens can be estimated be:
Option 1:
1.5 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
2.5 cm
Option 4:
1.67 cm
Correct Answer:
1.67 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Optical power of a mirror -
- wherein
focal length with sign and is in meters unit of power = diopter
Given,
and,
We have
Q. 4 In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where
the path difference is is K, ( being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point
where the path difference is , will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resultant Intensity of two wave -
- wherein
Intencity of wave 1
Intencity of wave 2
Phase difference
at a point where path difference is
When path a difference is
phase difference =
Q. 5 For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ' ' diffraction is produced by a
single slit whose width 'a' is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance
of the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For the condition of maxima
Q. 6 In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away.
A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for
obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern ?
Option 1:
0.5 mm
Option 2:
0.02 mm
Option 3:
0.2 mm
Option 4:
0.1 mm
Correct Answer:
0.2 mm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
We need to obtain 10 maxima of double slit with in central maxima of single slit
For single slit, angular width of central maxima =
or or ----------------------(1)
For interference pattern
Fringe width = ---------------------(2)
According to question
Q. 7 A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism.
The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively.
The prism will:
Option 1:
separate all the three colours from one another
Option 2:
not separate the three colours at all
Option 3:
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Option 4:
separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
Correct Answer:
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Solution:
As we learnt in
Critical angle -
= Refractive index of rarer medium / Refractive index of denser medium
- wherein
When angle of incidence of a travelling from a dence medium to rarer medium is greater than critical
angle, no refraction occurs.
angle of incidence at surface AC=
Critical Angle of incidence

For red
For green
For blue
Since refractive index of green and blue is greater than and hence their critical angles are less than
So green and blue will be completely reflected while red will emerge out of prism. Hence red will be
separated from green and blue.
Q. 8 The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in

temperature and voltage supply are
Option 1:
Instrumental errors
Option 2:
Personal errors
Option 3:
Least count errors
Option 4:
Random errors
Correct Answer:
Random errors
Solution:
Cause is not known so, It is Random error.
Q. 9 If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the
dimensional formula of surface tension will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
[E V-2 T-2]
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
[E V-2 T-2]
Solution:
P=power
Surface Tension =
Surface Tension
Q. 10 A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)-1. The acceleration of

particle is proportional to
Option 1:
(Velocity)2/3
Option 2:
(Velocity)3/2
Option 3:
(Distance)2
Option 4:
(Distance)-2
Correct Answer:
(Velocity)3/2
Solution:
Q. 11 A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration . Its speed after
10 s is
Option 1:
10 units
Option 2:
7 units
Option 3:
7 units
Option 4:
8.5 units
Correct Answer:
7 units
Solution:
Q. 12 A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x=(t+5)-1. The acceleration of
particle is proportional to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
(distance)2
Option 3:
(distance)-2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So
Similarly
dividing equation 1 with equation 2 we get

Q. 13 A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10m above the floor.
He throws a stone of 0.5kg mass downwards with a speed of 2m/s. When the stone reaches
the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be:
Option 1:
9.9m
Option 2:
10.1m
Option 3:
10m
Option 4:
20m
Correct Answer:
10.1m
Solution:
As we learnt in
Tips of distance -
Distance is a scalar quantity.
It is always positive.
S.I. Unit meter (m).
Dimension
Distance is depend on path followed by body .
- wherein
Displacement along circle is zero(0).
Semi circle
momentum remains conserved

where u - initial velocity of man
(negative sign shows that man moves upward)
Time taken by the stone
Distance moved by the man =
Distance of the man above floor = 10 + 0.1 = 10.1 m
Q. 14 In an Electromagnetic wave the amplitude of electric field is . The frequency of wave is

. The wave is propagating along z axis, the average energy density of electric
field will be.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Average energy density of EM wave -
- wherein
= Permittivity of vacuum
Energy density =
Q. 15 Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
Option 1:
Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same
time
Option 2:
The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
Option 3:
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each and perpendicular to the direction to
propagation of wave
Option 4:
These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
Correct Answer:
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each and perpendicular to the direction to
propagation of wave
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electromagnetic Wave -
Combination of mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic field is referred to as Electromagnetic

Wave.
EM wave have both electric and magnetic field mutually perpendicular and both perpendicular to
direction of propagation.
energy is equally divide between electric and magnetic field.
Both electric and magnetic field are in phase
They do not require any medium to propagate (e.g. vacuum)

Q. 16
Intensity of the electromagnetic wave (in ) is about
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learned
Average energy density of EM wave -
- wherein
= Permittivity of vacuum
Average Intensity of elecctro magnetic wave is
Q. 17 A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius
(R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
mg 2R
Option 3:
Option 4:
3 mgR
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mass = m, height = 2R
At height the acceleration due to gravity decreases , hence the value of acceleration due to gravity
becomes
Q. 18 A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E
. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after ‘t’ second is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Force on particle=
Hence, acceleration of the particle
Initial speed = u=0
Hence, the final velocity
Kinetic energy
Q. 19 A positively charged particle moving along x-axis with a certain velocity enters a uniform electric field
directed along positive y-axis. Its
Option 1:
Vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity remains constant
Option 2:
Horizontal velocity changes but vertical velocity remains constant
Option 3:
Both vertical and horizontal velocities change
Option 4:
Neither vertical nor horizontal velocity changes
Correct Answer:
Vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity remains constant
Solution:
As we have learned
Velocity at any instance -
- wherein
Vertical velocity changes due to electric field, but no change in horizontal velocity.
Q. 20
The potential energy of particle in a force field is, ,
where A and B are positive constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of the
field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is:
Option 1:
B / 2A
Option 2:
2A / B
Option 3:
A/B
Option 4:
B/A
Correct Answer:
2A / B
Solution:
For equilibrium
For stable equilibrium
should be positive for the value of r
is positive value for
Q. 21 Four point charges -Q, -q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The
relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:
Option 1:
Q = -q
Option 2:
Option 3:
Q=q
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Q = -q
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential of a System of Charge -
- wherein
Potential at the centre O due to given charge configuration is
-Q-q+2q+2Q=0 Q+q=0 or Q= - q
Q. 22 ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre , and represents three forces
acting along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero the
magnitude of is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Torque Experienced by the dipole -
- wherein
Taking anticlockwise torque
Q. 23 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz
and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
Option 1:
10 Hz
Option 2:
20 Hz
Option 3:
30 Hz
Option 4:
40 Hz
Correct Answer:
20 Hz
Solution:
As we learnt in
The frequency in open organ pipe -
- wherein
velocity of sound wave
length of pipe
number of overtones
Nearest harmonics of an organ pipe closed at one and differ by twice of its fundamental frequency
Q. 24 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n - 1), n, (n + 1). They
superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Beat -
A phenomena resuits when two sound wave having equal amplitude and travelling in a medium in the
same direction but having slightly different frequency.
Beat Frequency -
- wherein
Where are frequency of two wave differ slightly in value of frequency.
Beats produced is max difference two wave frequency
(1) and (2) x-(x-1) =1
(2) and (3) (x+1) -x = 1
(1) and (3) (x+1) (x-1) = 2
Q. 25 The rate of increase of thermo-e.m.f. with the temperature at the neutral temperature of a
thermocouple:
Option 1:
Is negative
Option 2:
Is positive
Option 3:
Is zero
Option 4:
Depends upon the choice of the two materials of the thermocouple
Correct Answer:
Is zero
Solution:
The slope of thermo-e.m.f. with temperature at neutral point is zero.
Q. 26 A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are

connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I.
Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn
from battery becomes 10I. The value of 'n' is
Option 1:
20
Option 2:
11
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
9
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
As we have learned
Current given by the cell -
- wherein
External resistance
internal resistance
In series Grouping -
- wherein
Equivalent Resistance
Case I Case II
And
Q. 27 A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of
the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the
correct relationship between I and n ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt
Series Grouping -
In series grouping anode of one cell is connected to cathode of other cell

- wherein
Main current / current from each cell -
- wherein
identical cells which connected in series
Q. 28 Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when 1) all are glowing and 2 ) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section B are glowing will be :
Option 1:
4: 9
Option 2:
9:4
Option 3:
1:2
Option 4:
2:1
Correct Answer:
9:4
Solution:
Q. 29 Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device ?

Option 1:
conductor
Option 2:
inductor
Option 3:
switch
Option 4:
fuse
Correct Answer:
fuse
Solution:
Current through the circuit -
- wherein
Answer is fuse as it will work as open circuit.So current passing will be zero.
Q. 30 Which of the following represents the variation of the resistivity with temperature (T) for
copper?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The variation of resistivity of copper with temperature is parabolic in nature.
Q. 31 A charged particle having drift velocity of in an electric field of
has mobility in of:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 32 The half life period of radium is 1600 years. Its average life time will be-
Option 1:
4215 yrs
Option 2:
3250 yrs
Option 3:
2319 yrs
Option 4:
5000 yrs
Correct Answer:
2319 yrs
Solution:
Average life -
Average life -
Q. 33 A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 andA2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s
respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in
the mixture will become equal after:
Option 1:
60 s
Option 2:
80 s
Option 3:
20 s
Option 4:
40 s
Correct Answer:
40 s
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of nuclei after disintegration -
or
- wherein
Number of nucleor activity at a time is exponentional function
For A1, N01=40g, t1/2= 20 sec
For A2, N02=160g, t1/2 = 10 sec
Let us say at t =t, amount of A1 and A2 become equal then at t = t

&
or
Q. 34 If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in fermi is:
Option 1:
2.4
Option 2:
1.2
Option 3:
4.8
Option 4:
3.6
Correct Answer:
4.8
Solution:
Q. 35 A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The Mass defect
in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is:
(given 1u = 931 MeV)
Option 1:
13.35 MeV
Option 2:
2.67 MeV
Option 3:
26.7 MeV
Option 4:
6.675 MeV
Correct Answer:
6.675 MeV
Solution:
Energy associated with 1u =931 MeV
Hence energy liberated = 0.02866 931 MeV= 26.7 MeV
As
Energy liberated per unit =
=6.675 MeV
Q. 36 A radio isotope 'X' with a half life 1.4 x 109 years decays to 'Y' which is stable. A sample of the
rock from a cave was found to contain 'X' and 'Y' in the ratio 1:7. The age of the rock is :
Option 1:
1.96 x 109 years
Option 2:
3.92 x 109 years
Option 3:
4.20 x 109 years
Option 4:
8.40 x 109 years
Correct Answer:
4.20 x 109 years
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of nuclei in terms of half life -

- wherein
Very useful to determine number of nuclei in terms of half life.
Since Y forms due to decay of X.
at t =t, suppose number of X=N
then number of Y =7N
Total number =8N =No.
Q. 37 An electromagnetic wave of wavelength is incident on a photosensitive surface of

negligible work function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-
Broglie wavelength then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Work Function negligible
Q. 38 The graph which shows the variation of the De Broglie wavelength (A) of a particle and its
associated momentum (p) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The Broglie wavelength of a particle is
momentum of particle
the graph will be a rectangular hyperbola
Hence the correct option is 3
Q. 39 A gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown. What is the net work done by the
gas?
Option 1:
-2000 J
Option 2:
2000 J
Option 3:
1000 J
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
1000 J
Solution:
As we learnt in
Work done in cyclic process -
It is the area under the cycle.
- wherein
Work is positive if cycle is clock wise. Work is negative if cycle is anti clock wise.
(for P - V diagram)
The given diagram is a P-V indicator diagram. Work done for P-V indicator diagram is area of the cycle.
Area of cycle
Work is positive as cycle is clockwise.
Q. 40 A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2 V,
and then adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure of the gas is:
Option 1:
64 P
Option 2:
32 P
Option 3:
Option 4:
16 P
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Equation of state -
- wherein
On solving
For Isothermal expansion,
For adiabatic expansion,

Q. 41 A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius
(R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
3 mgR
Option 3:
Option 4:
mg2R
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Gravitational Potential Energy at centre of earth relative to infinity -
mass of body
Mass of earth
- wherein
change in potential energy
Q. 42 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be
1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ideal gas equation PV=nRT
OR
where
Divide the two equation

Given
Q. 43 If cp and cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M,
then (where R is the molar gas constant)
Option 1:
cp-cv=R/M2
Option 2:
cp-cv=R
Option 3:
cp-cv=R/M
Option 4:
cp-cv=MR
Correct Answer:
cp-cv=R/M
Solution:
Q. 44 There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1
and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 900 angles at the centre. The radius joining
their interface makes an angle with vertical. Ratio is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Pressure at interface A must be the same from both sides in equilibrium.
So
Q. 45 Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are welded together to form a Y - shaped structure.
Area of cross - section of each rod = 4 cm2. End of copper rod is maintained at 1000C
where as ends of brass and steel are kept at 00C. Lengths of the copper, brass and steel rods
are 46, 13 and 12 cms respectively. The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings
except at ends. Thermal conductivities of copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12
CGS units respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper rod is :
Option 1:
1.2 cal/s
Option 2:
2.4 cal/s
Option 3:
4.8 cal/s
Option 4:
6.0 cal/s
Correct Answer:
4.8 cal/s
Solution:
The arrangement of rods is shown in the above figure.
So using
So
Q. 46 A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic

pole. It:
Option 1:
will become rigid showing no movement
Option 2:
will stay in any position
Option 3:
will stay in north-south direction only
Option 4:
will stay in east-west direction only
Correct Answer:
will stay in any position
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at any other Place -
Total intensity can be resolved into horizontal component (BH) and vertical component (Bv)
A compass needle which is allowed to move a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It will
Stay in any Position as the horizontal. Component of earth is naganetic field become Zero at
the geomagnetic pole.
Q. 47 An -particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83cm in the presence of a magnetic field
of . The wavelength associated with the particle will be:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
0.1
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
0.01
Correct Answer:
0.01
Solution:
As we learnt in
Radius of charged particle -
-
Q. 48 A bar magnet of length 'l' and magnetic dipole moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as
shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
M
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Magnetic moment or magnetic dipole moment -
- wherein
It is a vector quantity directed from south to north.

Let m be the strength of each pole of bar magnet of length l.
when bar magnet bent in the form of an arc.
new magnetic dipole moment
Q. 49 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
X = A.B
Correct Answer:
X = A.B
Solution:
As we learnt in
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
Q. 50 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true:
Option 1:
Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 2:
Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 3:
Electron are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Option 4:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Correct Answer:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Solution:
The n-type semiconductor can be produced by doping impurity atoms of valence 5 i.e. pentavalent
atoms, i.e., phosphorous.
Q. 51 Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by
the battery is:
Option 1:
0.75 A
Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
0.25 A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learned in
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
Since D2 is in Reverse biased mode, hence no current will flow through it.
Diode D1 is in forward biased mode hence it will offer zero resistance
Q. 52 In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns each having area is

rotated at 360rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude
. The maximum value of the emf produced will be________ .
Correct Answer:
1584
Solution:
Ans: (1584)
Q. 53 A square loop of side ad resistance is placed in a magnetic field of . If the plane

of the loop is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, the magnetic flux through
the loop is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence correct option is 1
Q. 54 A light bulb and an inductor coil are connected to an ac source through a key as shown in
the figure below. The key is closed and after sometime an iron rod is inserted into the
interior of the inductor. The glow of the light bulb
Option 1:
remain unchanged
Option 2:
will fluctuate
Option 3:
increases
Option 4:
decreases
Correct Answer:
decreases
Solution:
After inserting the iron rod
As L increases, emf induced across the inductor will increase leaving less voltage across the bulb.
Therefore, the glow of the light bulb decreases.
Q. 55 A body of mass makes an elastic collision with a second body at rest and continues to
move in the original direction but with one fourth of its original speed.What is the mass (in
kg) of the second body ?
Correct Answer: 1.2
Solution:
Perfectly Elastic Collision -
- wherein
mass of body =
initial velocity of body
mass of body
A B
rest
(from e=1)
momentum balance
Q. 56 A body of mass moving with an unknowm velocity of , undergoes a collinear collision

with a body of mass moving with a velocity . After collision , and move with
velocities of and , respectively.
If and , the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Perfectly Elastic Collision -
Law of conservation of momentum and that of Kinetic Energy hold good.
- wherein
before collision:
after collision:
&
Q. 57 A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is:
Option 1:
20 ms-1
Option 2:
30 ms-1
Option 3:
5 ms-1
Option 4:
10 ms-1
Correct Answer:
30 ms-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bending a Cyclist -
From figure.
(i)
(ii)
(i) & (ii)

V = velocity
r = radius of track
angle with which cycle leans
- wherein
* radius of curve is small.
* velocity of the cyclist is large
Q. 58 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The
coefficient of friction between the types of the car and the road is s. The maximum safe
velocity on this road is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
If friction is also present in banking of road -
angle of banking
coefficient of friction
V = velocity
- wherein
Maximum speed on a banked frictional road

Q. 59 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through
centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities 1 and 2. They are
brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of
energy during this process is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resolving power
Law of conservation of angular moment -
- wherein
If net torque is zero
i.e.
angular momentum is conserved only when external torque is zero .

Loss in K.E =
Q. 60 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the
angluar acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Torque -
- wherein
This can be calculated by using either
= perpendicular distance from origin to the line of force.
= component of force perpendicular to line joining force.

and,
Analogue of second law of motion for pure rotation -
- wherein
Torque equation can be applied only about two point
(i) centre of motion.
(ii) point which has zero velocity/acceleration.
Chemistry
Q. 1 The solubility of N2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr partial pressure is 0.01 g L−1. The solubility
(in g L−1) at 750 torr partial pressure is :
Option 1:
0.0075
Option 2:
0.015
Option 3:
0.02
Option 4:
0.005
Correct Answer:
0.015
Solution:
Q. 2 Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and dichloromethane (CH2CI2) at 25oC are 200
mmHg and 415 mmHg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5
g of CHCI3 and 40 g of CH2CI2 at the same temperature will be :
(Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH2CI2 = 85 u)
Option 1:
615.0 mmHg
Option 2:
347.9 mmHg
Option 3:
285.5 mmHg
Option 4:
173.9 mmHg
Correct Answer:
347.9 mmHg
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rault's Law -
The total vapour pressure of a binary mixture of miscible liquids be having ideally is given by
Where and are mole fraction of A and B in liquid phase.
Where and are vapour pressures of pure liquids.
Moles of
Moles of
Now, Mole fraction of CHCl3
And, Mole fraction of CH2Cl2
Q. 3 PA and PB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an
ideal binary solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure
of the solution will be.
Option 1:
PA + XA ( PB - PA)
Option 2:
PA + XA (PA - PB)
Option 3:
PB + XA (PB - PA)
Option 4:
PB + XA (PA - PB)
Correct Answer:
PB + XA (PA - PB)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Raoult's law -
The total vapour pressure of a binary mixture of miscible liquids be having ideally is given by
Where and are mole fractions of A and B in the liquid phase
Given,
So,
Total pressure = Vapour pressure of A+ Vapour pressure of B
So, Option 4 is correct.
Q. 4 Standard reduction potentials of the half-reactions are given below:
The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
More positive the value of reduction potential, the stronger will be the oxidising agent thus is the
strongest oxidising agent.
Reduction Potentials are -
More Negative value or low value of reduction potential shows good reducing properties thus strongest
oxidising agent is .
Now, see below the value of oxidation potential has the highest value among others, It will be a better
reducing agent.
Q. 5 Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For
which one of the standard potential value has a positive sign?
Option 1:
Ni (Z = 28)
Option 2:
Cu (Z = 29)
Option 3:
Fe (Z = 26)
Option 4:
Co (Z = 27)
Correct Answer:
Cu (Z = 29)
Solution:
We know the standard electrode potential values-
The standard potential value of Cu has a positive sign.
Q. 6 Standard reduction potential of the half reaction are given below
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The more negative the value of the reduction potential, the stronger will be reducing agent, thus I- is the
strongest reducing agent. The more positive value of reduction potential shows good oxidizing
properties. Thus strongest oxidizing agent is F2.
Q. 7 Select the correct statement from the following:

A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
B. The mass of the electron is .
C. All the isotopes of a given elements show same chemical properties.
D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons
E. Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
Option 1:
A, B and C only
Option 2:
C, D and E only
Option 3:
A and E only
Option 4:
B, C and E only
Correct Answer:
B, C and E only
Solution:
Statement (A) and (D) are incorrect.
Because → Atoms of all element are composed of there fundamental particles (e, p, n)
(D) 'Protons' & 'Neutrons' are collectively known as nucleons.
Q. 8 Which of the following reaction will NOT given primary amine as the product?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Obeyance to Raoult's Law
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ideal Solutions-
Interactions between A - A; B - B are similar to A - B Interactions.
(Obeyance to Raoult's Law)

Q. 10 Accumulation of lactic acid , a monobasic acid in tissues leads to pain and a
feeling of fatigue. In a aqueous solution, lactic acid is dissociated. The value of
the dissociation constant, for this acid will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ionization constant of weak acids -
If the degree of dissociation is less than five percent, then
Degree of dissociation
According to Oswald's formula
The correct answer is option 3

Q. 11 Of the following 0.10 aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?
Option 1:
KCl
Option 2:
C6H12O6
Option 3:
Al2(SO4)3
Option 4:
K2SO4
Correct Answer:
Al2(SO4)3
Solution:
As we learned in
Where,
Everything else remains the same.
So,
Now,
will exhibit the largest freezing point depression.
Q. 12 Which of the following is the correct structure of Adenosine ?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nucleoside -
Made up of two components :
1. Pentose sugar
2. Nitrogenous base
Q. 13
What are A and B ?
Option 1:
Glucose and manmose
Option 2:
mannose and galactose
Option 3:
Glucose and fructose
Option 4:
fructose and galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose and fructose
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of glucose and fructose from sucrose ( cane sugar ) -
Sucrose is boiled with dilute or in alcoholic solution , glucose (dextorotatory) and fructose
(laevorotatory) are obtained in equal amount .
- wherein
Glucose and fructose are obtained when sucrose is boiled with dilute acid
Q. 14
What is A ?
Option 1:
Fructose
Option 2:
Glucose
Option 3:
mannose
Option 4:
Galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of glucose from starch -
By the hydrolysis of starch.
- wherein
Starch can be hydralysed to glucose by boiling with dilute acid or by actiion of enzymes like amylase
Q. 15 Four successive members of the first series of the tranisiton metals are listed below. For
which one of them the standard potential value has a positive sign?
Option 1:
Co (Z=27)
Option 2:
Ni (Z=28)
Option 3:
Cu (Z=29)
Option 4:
Fe (Z=26)
Correct Answer:
Cu (Z=29)
Solution:
Standard electrode potential -
The thermochemical parameters related to the transformation of the solid metal atoms to M2+ ions in
solution and their standard electrode potential Eo shown in fig.
-
Among the transition metals given, only has a positive standad potential
Q. 16 Limiting molar conductivity of is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
The formula for limiting molar conductivity for electrolyte -
are limiting molar conductivities of cation and anion respectively.
if an electrolyte on dissociation gives .

Now,
Q. 17 At 25°C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is

and at infinite dilution, its molar conductance is
. The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same
concentration and temperature is:
Option 1:
40.800%
Option 2:
2.080%
Option 3:
20.800%
Option 4:
4.008%
Correct Answer:
4.008%
Solution:
Application of Kohlrausch's law -
Determination of Degree of dissociation of weak electrolytes.
Q. 18 Consider the complex ions -
trans- (A) and cis - (B)
The correct statement regarding them is :-
Option 1:
Both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active.
Option 2:
Both (A) and (B) can be optically active.
Option 3:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Option 4:
(A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active.
Correct Answer:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Solution:
Trans - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ has plane of symmetry. So it is not optically active.
Cis - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ does not have any plane of symmetry, so it can be optically active.
Q. 19 The d-electron configuration of and , respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ru belongs to the 4d series of elements and ethylene diamine(en) is a chelating ligand which causes a
larger splitting in the 4d orbitals. This leads to a pairing of electrons in the orbital due to which the
electronic configuration is
is a weak field ligand which is unable to cause pairing in and hence the configuration is
accomodated as
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.
Q. 20 The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) of is:
Option 1:
-0.8 + 2P
Option 2:
-0.4
Option 3:
- 0.8
Option 4:
-0.4 +P
Correct Answer:
-0.4
Solution:
Means all ligands behaves as weak field ligands
So,
Q. 21 The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg-1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y
in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case ?
Option 1:
Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y.
Option 2:
Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X undergoes no change.
Option 3:
X is undergoing dissociation in water.
Option 4:
Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y.
Correct Answer:
X is undergoing dissociation in water.
Solution:
As we learned in
Vant Hoff factor for dissociation -
Where
is the no. of dissociated particles
degree of dissociation
Now,
The only factor among all the options that could make a difference is that "X" undergo dissociation
thereby making (i > 1) and therefore, having a higher boiling temperature. If Y is undergoing dissociation
in the water while X undergoes unchanged then Y will have more boiling than X.
It is equimolal, so there is no point to discuss or compare the molecular mass of X and the molecular
mass of Y.
So, Option 3 is correct.
Q. 22 The values of of and are and respectively

at C. If the mixture of these two is washed with water what is the concentration of
ions in the water?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
x x
y y
Now
Putting this we get
and
The Correct answer is option 1,
Q. 23 The dissociation constant of weak acid is . In order to prepare a buffer solution

with pH=5 [Salt]/[Acid] ratio should be
Option 1:
1:10
Option 2:
4:5
Option 3:
10:1
Option 4:
5:4
Correct Answer:
10:1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Value of Ka -
At a given temperature T, Ka is a measure of the strength of the acid HX. Ka is a dimensionless quantity.
Q. 24 Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
NaCl and KCl are salts of strong acids and strong bases and hence are neutral.
CuSO4 is salt of a weak base and strong acid hence, acidic in nature.
Among all the species given, is a salt of a weak acid and strong base which upon hydrolysis will
give a solution with the highest pH.

Q. 25 Using the Gibbs energy change, , for the following reaction,
The of in water at
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Relation between Gibbs energy and reaction Quotient -
is standard Gibbs energy.
At equilibrium,
hence,
the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 26 Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly the
same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers).
Option 1:
Zr (40) and Hf (72)
Option 2:
Zr (40) and Ta (73)
Option 3:
Ti (22) and Zr (40)
Option 4:
Zr (40) and Nb (41)
Correct Answer:
Zr (40) and Hf (72)
Solution:
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the atomic radii of Zr and Hf are nearly the same.
Hf has atomic number 72 and has an electronic configuration of , due to the presence
of electrons in poorly shielded f-orbitals. Effective nuclear charge experienced by outermost electrons
increases and size of period 5 and 6 elements is nearly the same.
Q. 27 Assuming complete ionization, the same moles of which of the following compounds will
require the least amount of acidified for complete oxidation?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In only required for oxidation of because in sulphur is in its maximum
oxidation state so requires the least number of moles of for oxidation.
While in the case of , sulfur has an oxidation state of +4 and will oxidize to ion having an
oxidation state of +6.
For, , C will oxidize to from oxalate ion changing oxidation state from +3 to +4.
Similarly, , Nitrite ions will oxidize to nitrate ions changing oxidation state of N from +3 to +5.
the correct answer is option 1.
Q. 28 Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give:
Option 1:
alkenes
Option 2:
alkyl copper halides
Option 3:
alkanes
Option 4:
alkenyl halides
Correct Answer:
alkanes
Solution:
As we learnt in
The reaction of an alkyl halide with R2CuLi -
Corey House alkane synthesis, the alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
(alkane)
Q. 29 fG
0 at 500 K for substance ‘S’ in liquid state and gaseous state are +100.7 kcal mol −1 and
+103 kcal mol−1 , respectively. Vapour pressure (in atm) of liquid ‘S’ at 500 K is approximately
equal to : (R=2 cal K−1 mol−1 )
Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:
Δ G of equilibrium
At Equilibrium
and
Q. 30 Given:
Free energy change, (in kJ mol −1) for the reaction

will be :
Correct Answer:
-56.2
Solution:
The given reaction can be obtained by multiplying the second reaction with 3 and adding with the first
equation
Thus, we can say that

Q. 31 Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium
constant, K, for an exothermic reaction ?
Option 1:
A and D
Option 2:
A and B
Option 3:
B and C
Option 4:
C and D
Correct Answer:
A and B
Solution:
As we learnt,
and,
using equations (1) and (2)

For exothermic reaction slope will be positive & intercept may be positive or negative for a graph of
so correct graphs are A and B.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2)
Q. 32 The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in and respectively are
Option 1:
sp, sp3 and sp2
Option 2:
sp2, sp3 and sp
Option 3:
sp, sp2 and sp3
Option 4:
sp2, sp and sp3
Correct Answer:
sp, sp2 and sp3
Solution:
Dettermination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
For
For
Q. 33 Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both have 42 electrons and trigonal planar geometry.
So, this pair of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural.
Q. 34 During change of O2 to ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
Option 1:
orbital
Option 2:
orbital
Option 3:
orbital
Option 4:
orbital
Correct Answer:
orbital
Solution:
The incoming electron during change of to will enter in .
Q. 35 Gadolinium belongs to the 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the
correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electronic configuration -
The lanthanoid follows the configuration (the common configuration)with some

exceptions due to the full-filled and half filled electronic configuration.
The electronic configuration of Gadolinium is
Q. 36 Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
Option 1:
a mixture of anisole and
Option 2:
a mixture of benzene and
Option 3:
a mixture of toluene and
Option 4:
a mixture of phenol and
Correct Answer:
a mixture of benzene and
Solution:
As learnt in
Zerewitinoff Method -
Reaction of alcohol with grignard reagent.
- wherein
Reaction of Grignard reagent with Alcohol -
Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Q. 37 For which of the following reactions, is equal to ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Molar heat capacity for isobaric process C(p) -
- wherein
or
Therefore ;
Q. 38 Fluorobenzene can be synthesised in the laboratory
Option 1:
by heating phenol with and
Option 2:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Option 3:
by direct fluorination of benzene with gas
Option 4:
by reacting bromobenzene with solution.
Correct Answer:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Solution:
As we learnt in
By Sandmeyer's reaction -
In the reaction benzene diazonium chloride is treated with cuprous chloride cuprous bromide.
Q. 39 Out of , , and (Z of Ti=22, Co=27, Cu=29, Ni=28), the

colourless species are:
Option 1:
and
Option 2:
and
Option 3:
and
Option 4:
and
Correct Answer:
and
Solution:
Diamagnetism -
When substance unaffected by a magnetic field or the central metal atom doesn't have unpaired e- called
Diamagnetic substance or character.
- wherein
No unpaired e-
Any species where central atom has no unpaired e- s is diamagnetic and thus colourless , e-
config. of
Cu2 Cl2 , e- config of Cu+ = [Ar] 3d10 4so
therefore, no unpaired e- s in
configuration of Cu+ =[Ar] 3d10 4s0
Therefore, no unpaired e- s in Cu+
therefore, [TiF62- ] and Cu2 Cl2 are colourless.
Q. 40 When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces
Option 1:
2-iodopropane
Option 2:
Allyl iodide
Option 3:
Propene
Option 4:
Glycerol triiodide
Correct Answer:
2-iodopropane
Solution:
When glycerol is treated with an excess of HI, it produces 2-iodopropane.
In the first step, a molecule of glycerol reacts with 3 HI molecules to form an unstable 1,2,3-
triiodopropane. This loses a molecule of iodine to form allyl iodide.
Allyl iodide adds a molecule of HI to obtain an unstable molecule which loses a molecule of iodine to
form propene.
A molecule of HI is added to propene to form 2-iodopropane.

Q. 41 Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among lanthanoids?
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
The common stable oxidation state of all the lanthanides is +3. It is attained by removing the outermost 2
electrons of 6s electrons and 1 electron from 4f electrons. It is due to the high energy difference in 4f and
6s, it is difficult to remove more electrons from the 4f sub-shell.
The oxidation state of + 2 and + 4 are also exhibited by some of the elements. These oxidation states are
only stable when stable 4f0, 4f7, or 4f14 configurations 4f0, 4f7, or 4f14 configurations are achieved.

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Knoevenagel reaction -
Modified aldol condensation with nucleophilic addition between an aldehyde or ketone and an active
hydrogen compound, resulting in C-C bond formation.
- wherein

Q. 43 Temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2,by what factor the rate of reaction increases when
the temperature is increased from ?
Option 1:
16
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
64
Option 4:
86
Correct Answer:
32
Solution:
Temperature Coefficient -
In homogenous thermal reaction, the rate constant of the reaction becomes double / thrice by changing
the temperature by .
- wherein
Formula:
= Rate constant of the reaction which is temperature dependent
So rate of reaction doubles by rise in which means that temp is increased by so rate of
reaction becomes times.
Q. 44 for a reaction
what is the order of reactions?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Can not be more than 2
Option 4:
Can not be determined
Correct Answer:
Can not be determined
Solution:
Order of a Reaction -
The order of a reaction is determined as the sum of the powers of the concentration terms that appear in
the experimental rate equation. It is an experimental quantity.
Formula:
The order has a relation with stoichiometry & is determined experimentally. It can be
zero/fraction/negative/positive
So, for the given reaction order can not be determined because experimentally determined stoichiometry
of powers of the concentration is not given.
Q. 45 In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in presence of large excess of water,
Option 1:
Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2
Option 2:
Molecularity is 1 but order of reaction is 2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Molecularity and order of reaction both are 1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As water used is in large excess thus, the order depends only upon the concentration of RCl.
However molecularity is the number of reactants taking part in a reaction, thus, here is equal to 2.
Q. 46 The rate law for a reaction between the substance A & B is given by
On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new
rate to the earlier rate of reaction will be as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given, expression for rate
Q. 47 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
Option 1:
d z 2, d x
Option 2:
dxz, dy
Option 3:
dz 2 , dx2 - y 2
Option 4:
dxy , dx2- y2
Correct Answer:
dz 2 , dx2 - y 2
Solution:
The shape of d orbitals :
orbitals have electron density along the axis,
while orbitals have electron density in between the axis.

Q. 48 How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and I = 1?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
14
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Each orbital contains 2 e.
shell (n) subshell( l) orbital( m)
n = 1 , l = 0 . m = 0 = 1s2
n=2 , l = 0,1 m = 0 and - 1,0,1.= 2s2 and 2p6
n=3 , l = 1 then m= - 1,0,1
m has 3 value means 3 orbitals and each orbitals can have 2 electrons.
So total 6 electrons.
Q. 49 The formation of the oxide ion O2-(g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and
then an endothermic step as shown below:
Thus process of formation of in gas phase is unfavourable even though is

isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that
Option 1:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Option 2:
ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
Option 3:
Oxygen is more electronegative.
Option 4:
Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
Correct Answer:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Solution:
The first electron gain enthalpy of the Oxygen atom is negative, as when the electron is added, the
attractive forces between the incoming electron and nucleus outweigh the repulsions in between
electrons.
But on adding the second electron, the repulsions take over attractive forces, hence it's an endothermic
process.
Q. 50 The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alphacarbon is :
Option 1:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol.
Option 2:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidily equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde - ketone equilibration.
Option 3:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrium with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
Option 4:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto - enol tautomerism.
Correct Answer:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto - enol tautomerism.
Solution:
This is called keto - enol tautomerism.
Q. 51 The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is:
Option 1:
Ser-Lys
Option 2:
Gln-Asp
Option 3:
Lys-Asp
Option 4:
Asp-Gln
Correct Answer:
Ser-Lys
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Red coloration with Ceric ammonium nitrate confirms the presence of alcohols
Alcohol + Ceric Ammonium Nitrate Red Solution
Foul smelling isocyanide obtained in the Carbylamine Reaction indicates the presence of Primary amines
Thus,
Positive ceric ammonium nitrate group
Positive carbylamine tests group
(1) Ser-Lys ( Serine + Lysine )

Both amine as well as alcohol groups are present so it will give positive tests for both tests.
Q. 52 Hinsberg's reagent is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is Hinsberg's reagent,
Hinsberg's reagent is used for the detection of primary, secondary and tertiary amine
Q. 53 At which carbon number in the chain does fructose contain a ketone group ?
Option 1:
1st
Option 2:
2nd
Option 3:
3rd
Option 4:
4th
Correct Answer:
2nd
Solution:
As we have learned
Fructose / fruit sugar -
Contain a ketonic functional group at carbon number 2
Structure of fructose (open chain form )
Q. 54 What quantity (in mL) of a 45% acid solution of a monoprotic strong acid must be mixed with
a 20% solution of the same acid to produce 800 mL of a 29.875% acid solution?
Option 1:
320
Option 2:
325
Option 3:
316
Option 4:
330
Correct Answer:
316
Solution:
45% acid solution means 45ml of acid dissolved in 100ml of solution.
Suppose if 45% ACID solution is present in V volume in the final solution after mixing. then if the total
volume of the final solution is 800 then another acid solution of 20% acid must be (800 -V) volume.
Now,
It is a monoprotic strong acid. So, the n-factor will be 1.
As we have learnt,
Q. 55 1 gram of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of
CO2. The molar mass of M2CO3 in g mol−1 is :
Correct Answer:
84.3
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Number of Moles -
No of moles = given mass of substance/ molar mass of a substance
Given the Chemical reaction,
From the balanced equation
Q. 56 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1
mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are:
Option 1:
40, 30
Option 2:
60, 40
Option 3:
20, 30
Option 4:
30, 20
Correct Answer:
40, 30
Solution:
Let the atomic weight of X = x
and the atomic weight of Y = y
then,
and
On solving, we get
Q. 57 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1
mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
Option 1:
40, 30
Option 2:
60, 40
Option 3:
20, 30
Option 4:
30, 20
Correct Answer:
40, 30
Solution:
Let the atomic weight of X = x
and atomic weight of Y = y
then,
and
On solving, we get
Q. 58 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have
the highest ionization energy?
Option 1:
Ne [3s23p2]
Option 2:
Ar [3d104s24p3 ]
Option 3:
Ne [3s23p1]
Option 4:
Ne [3s23p3]
Correct Answer:
Ne [3s23p3]
Solution:
Option (d) has the highest ionisation energy because of extra stability associated with half-filled 3p-
orbital. In option (b), the presence of 3d10 electrons offers shielding effect, as a result the 4p3 electrons
do not experience much nuclear charge and hence the electrons can be removed easily.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction is Benzoin Condensation
Q. 60 In the following reaction :
Q and R respectively are,
Option 1:
HCOOH + C2H5OH
Option 2:
CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Option 3:
HCOOH + CH3OH
Option 4:
CH3COOH + CH3OH
Correct Answer:
CH3COOH + CH3OH
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Acidic and basic hydrolysis of Esters -

Acidic hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid directly. Basic hydrolysis gives carboxylates which acidify to give the
carboxylic acid.
- wherein
Maths
Q. 1
The value of is equal to:
Option 1:
560
Option 2:
680
Option 3:
1240
Option 4:
1085
Correct Answer:
680
Solution:
As we learnt,
Now, given expression equals
Q. 2 If the Rolle’s theorem holds for the function in the interval [-1,1] for
the point , then the value of is :
Correct Answer:
-1
Solution:
As we have learned
Rolle's Theorems -
Let f(x) be a function of x subject to the following conditions.
1. f(x) is continuous function of

2. f'(x) is exists for every point :
3.
Geometrical interpretation of Rolle's theorem -
Let f(x) be a function defined on [a, b] such that the curve y = f(x) is continuous between points {a, f(a)}
and {b, f(b)} at every points on the curve encept at the end point it is possible to draw a unique tangent
and ordinates at x = a and x = b are equal f(a) = f(b).
- wherein
We have
Q. 3
if for is equal to :
Option 1:
-9
Option 2:
10e
Option 3:
-9e
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
-9e
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
So,
Q. 4 The largest value of r for which the region represented by the set
is contained in the region represented by the set is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Perpendicular bisector -
Locus of point equidistant from two given points.
z will lie on perpendicular bisector of line joining and .
- wherein
and are any two fixed points . z is a moving point in the plain which is equidistant from and .so
z will lie on perpendicular bisector
Equation of circle -
= centre of circle
r= radius of circle
z lies on circle.
- wherein
Locus of z will be a circle as z is always at a fixed distance r from a fixed point
1)
2)
3)
distance =
Q. 5 Let L be the line passing through the point P(1, 2) such that its intercepted segment
between the co-ordinate axes is bisected at P. If L1 is the line perpendicular to L and passing
through the point (-2, 1), then the point of intersection of L and L1 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Intercept form of a straight line -
- wherein
and are the -intercept and -intercept respectively.
Equation of a line perpendicular to a given line -
is the line perpendicular to .
- wherein
is some other constant than .
Here
hence equation of straight line is (intercept form)
Line is
Passing through (-2, 1)

Q. 6
If then the equation has :
Option 1:
no solution
Option 2:
one solution
Option 3:
two solutions
Option 4:
more than two solutions
Correct Answer:
one solution
Solution:
Hence it has only one root or none

From here x=2
Hence B option is true
Q. 7 The system of linear equations
x +λy −z = 0
λx − y − z = 0
x + y − λz = 0
has a non-trivial solution for :
Option 1:
infinitely many values of λ.
Option 2:
exactly one value of λ.
Option 3:
exactly two values of λ.
Option 4:
exactly three values of λ.
Correct Answer:
exactly three values of λ.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
Q. 8 If the differential equation representing the family of all circles touching -axis at the origin
is equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Formation of Differential Equations -
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination
-
Let the equation of circle is
or
Put a in (i)
Q. 9
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Put y=
Q. 10
if then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Evalution of Trigonometric limit -

-
Q. 11 Let P be the relation defined on the set of all real numbers such that
.Then P is
Option 1:
reflexive and symmetric but not Transitive.
Option 2:
reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
Option 3:
symmetric and Transitive but not reflexive.
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence P is Reflexive
Using Equation 1
Hence P is symmetric
Adding Eq 1 and 2
Hence, P is Transitive
So P is an equivalence relation
Q. 12 The sum of the 3rd and the 4th terms of a G.P. is 60 and the product of its first three terms is
1000. If the first term of this G.P. is positive, then its 7th term is :
Correct Answer:
320
Solution:
As we learnt in
General term of a GP -
where
first term
common ratio
Now, let first term is a and common ratio is r then
Also
put in
Q. 13
The value of
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
As, ..............( i )
Then, the expression becomes

- {Dividing numerator and denominator by |cos t|}
- {From ( i )}
Q. 14 If the vectors and are the sides of a triangle ABC ,then

the length of the median through A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mid point formula -
- wherein
If and , position vector of mid-point of AB

Q. 15
if then n satisfies the equation :
Option 1:
n2 + 3n − 108 = 0
Option 2:
n2 + 5n − 84 = 0
Option 3:
n2 + 2n − 80 = 0
Option 4:
n2 + n − 110 = 0
Correct Answer:
n2 + 3n − 108 = 0
Solution:
which satisfies the equation
Q. 16 Let
Option 1:
is not differentiable at x = 0
Option 2:
is differentiable at x = 0,but is not continuous at x = 0
Option 3:
is continuous at x = 0 but it is not differentiable at x = 0.
Option 4:
is differentiable at x = 0.
Correct Answer:
is continuous at x = 0 but it is not differentiable at x = 0.
Q. 17
If denotes the greatest integer function, then the integral is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Introduction of area under the curve -
The area between the curve axis and two ordinates at the point
is given by
- wherein
Hence, the integration can be calculate by area under the curve,
Hence, the value of integral will be given by area under the curve along with its sign.
Hence,
Hence, correct option is option (4)
Q. 18 If is one of the roots of the equation, then the

real root of this equation :
Option 1:
does not exist.
Option 2:
exists and is equal to
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Sum of roots of cubic Equation -
- wherein
is the cubic equation

Product of roots of cubic equation -
- wherein
is the cubic equation
and
Q. 19 If y + 3x = 0 is the equation of a chord of the circle, x2 + y2 - 30x = 0, then the equation of the
circle with this chord as diameter is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
First let us find out the end points of this chord of the given circle
Given that chord is
Its end points are its points of intersection with the given circle
Using y = -3x, when x = 0, y = 0, and when x = 3, y = -9
So end points of chord are (0,0) and (3,-9)
Now these points are the end points of our required circle
So using diametric form, the required circle is
Q. 20 For the curve y = 3 sin cos , x= sin , , the tangent is parallel to x-axis when
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Slope of a line -
If is the angle at which a straight line is inclined to a positive direction of x-axis, then the slope is defined by
- wherein
For tangent to be parellel to x-axis, slope = 0

Q. 21 The least value of the product xyz for
which the determinant
is
non-negative, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Value of determinants of order 3 -
-
So that minimum value of x, y, z are: x = -2, y = -2 and z = -2 which satisfy this inequality.
Q. 22
If the general solution of the differential equation for some function is
given by where c is an arbitrary constant, then (2) is equal to :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
Option 3:
-4
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
Q. 23
If for a continuous function
for all , then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Differentiating it w.r.t x using Leibnitz rule,

Q. 24
equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Limits of composite functions -
- wherein
f(x) is continuous at x=b
Evaluation of limits : (algebraic limits) : (Method of direct substitution) -

- wherein
Means at x = a, f(x) defined.
Q. 25 Let be an odd function defined on the set of real numbers such that for
Then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 26
If then k is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So,
.......
Adding these
Given, this equals k/3
Q. 27 A value of x satisfying the equation is

Correct Answer:
-0.5
Solution:
As we learnt in
equations.
- wherein
e.g.
Let, and
and
..............( 1 )
.............. ( 2 )
From ( 1 ) and ( 2 ),
Q. 28 Let be a vector coplanar with the vectors and . If is

perpendicular to and • = 24, then is equal to :
Option 1:
84
Option 2:
336
Option 3:
315
Option 4:
256
Correct Answer:
336
Solution:
As we have learned.
- wherein
- wherein

Q. 29 If all the words (with or without meaning) having five letters, formed using the letters of the
word SMALL are arranged as in a dictionary; then the position of the word SMALL is :
Option 1:
46th
Option 2:
59th
Option 3:
52nd
Option 4:
58th
Correct Answer:
58th
Solution:
Alphabetical order A, L, L, M, S
Starting with A : 4! / 2! = 12 words
Starting with L : 4! = 24 words
Starting with M : 4! / 2! = 12 words
Starting with SA : 3! / 2! = 3 words
Starting with SL : 3! = 6 words
Next word is SMALL itself: 1 word
Position = 12+24+12+3+6+1 = 58th

Q. 30 Let Be two functions defined by
and
Statement I : is a continuous function at x = 0.
Statement II : g is a differentiable function at x = 0.
Option 1:
Both statements I and II are false.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Statement I is true, statement II is false.
Option 4:
Statement I is false, statement II is true.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for differentiable -
A function f(x) is said to be differentiable at if both exist

and are equal otherwise non differentiable
and
So f(x) is continuous at x = 0
So, g(x) is differentiable at
Q. 31
If is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

- wherein
Replace t by x3
Q. 32
If a>0 and , has magnitude ,
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Multiplication of Complex Numbers -
(a+ib)(c+id)=(ac-bd)+i(bc+ad)
Definition of Modulus of z(Complex Number) -
is the distance of z from origin in Argand plane
- wherein
Real part of z = Re (z) = a & Imaginary part of z = Im (z) = b
given that
Option (1) is correct.

Q. 33 If the tangent to the conic at (2, 10) touches the circle,
(for some fixed k) at a point ;then is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of tangent -
- wherein
Tangent to circle
at
tongent at (2, 10)

Tangent to at
Comparing these two equations, since they represent same tangent.
clearly satisfies this relation.
Q. 34 If and is its inverse function,then equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that, g(x) is inverse of f(x)
we need to find g'(7), so f(x) =7
now,
Q. 35
If then which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
For option 3,
Q. 36
The general solution of the differential equation, ,is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

- wherein
P, and Q are functions of x alone.
=>P=-cosec2x
I.F. =
Q. 37 The area (in square units) bounded by the curves and

lying in the first quadrant is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
9
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
18
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Q. 38
If ,for all x in R, then a2 is :
Option 1:
-4
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
-8
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
-4
Solution:
Using
If
on expansion,
Now differentiate
Differentiating again
Now put x=-1
Q. 39 A relation on the set where Z is the set of integers is defined by

Then the number of elements in the power set of R is :
Option 1:
32
Option 2:
16
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
64
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Consider set .
All elements of the set A, defined by x, are also contained in Z, the set of integers. It's also given that the
absolute value of these elements is strictly less than 3.
Hence possibly this set in roster form will be,
A relation R on the set A where is defined in set builder notation as

.
Thus is possible if y is the absolute value of x and x is not equal to -1.
And also,
Hence possibly R in roster form will be,
Here we get that .
Thus,
Q. 40 If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers l and n (l, n > 1) and G1, G2 and G3 are three
geometric means between l and n, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Arithmetic mean of two numbers (AM)
and
Geometric mean of two numbers (GM) -
Now,
Given l + n = 2m .........(i)
G1, G2 and G3 are three geometric means between l and n
So, n is 5th term of GP: l, G1, G2, G3 , n

Q. 41 If
then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
equations.
- wherein
e.g.
...............( 1 )
Now, and,
Let
Then, ( 1 ) becomes:
Q. 42 The length of the projection of the line segment joining the points (5, −1, 4) and (4, −1, 3) on
the plane, x+y+z=7 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Projection of a line segment on a line -
Projection of line segment joining the points P(x1,y1,z1) and Q(x2,y2,z2) on a line having direction cosines (l,m,n) is
- wherein
Here PQ is the projection
Also PQ = BC
Also
Q. 43 ABC is a triangle in a plane with vertices A(2, 3, 5), B(−1, 3, 2) and C(λ, 5, µ). If the median
through A is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then the value of (λ3+µ3+5) is :
Option 1:
1130
Option 2:
1348
Option 3:
676
Option 4:
1077
Correct Answer:
1348
Solution:
DRs of median
So,
So,
Q. 44 If is expanded in the ascending powers of x and the coefficients of powers of x in

two consecutive terms of the expansion are equal, then these terms are
Option 1:
7th and 8th
Option 2:
8th and 9th
Option 3:
28th and 29th
Option 4:
27th and 28th
Correct Answer:
8th and 9th
Solution:
As we have learned
General Term in the expansion of (x+a)^n -
Now, let the terms be rth and (r+1)th

Terms are 8 th and 9 th
Q. 45 Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the level ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and
P be a point on the ground such that AP=2AB. If , then tan β is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Let, AC=CB=h, AB=2h and AP=4h

Q. 46 Let E and F be two independent events. The probability that both E and F happen
is and the probability that neither E nor F happens is , then a value of P(E) + P(F) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let P(E) = x and P(F) = y
and P (neither E nor F happens)
= P( E' ∩ F')
= P(E').P(F')
= (1 - P(E)).(1 - P(F))
= (1 - x)(1 - y)
Given that P (neither E nor F happens) = 1/2
So (1 - x)(1 - y) = 1/2
Q. 47 The number of distinct real values of λ for which the lines
and
are coplanar is:
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
For two lines to be coplanar
Two values of are possible
Q. 48 If the coefficients of the three successive terms in the binomial expansion of (1+x)n are in
the ratio 1 : 7 : 42, then coefficient of first of these three terms is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Properties of Binomial Theorem -
and
Now,
Let the three consecutive terms be
Thus (i)
Also, (ii)
n - 7r = 6 (from (i))
n - 8r = - 1 (from (ii))
Thus r = 7, n = 55
The first term among these three is
Q. 49
The value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 50 Consider the following linear programming problem
Maximize
Subject to
For which values of P is there no solution to this problem?
Option 1:
P=0
Option 2:
P<0
Option 3:
P=2
Option 4:
P>0
Correct Answer:
P<0
Solution:
As we learnt in
Decision Variables -
In Z = ax+by, x and y are decision variables.
-
for
= 0+7 at (0,7)
Z = 16 P + 0 = 16 P at (16, 0)
so that for
So far P <O it has no solution.
Q. 51 If the two roots of the equation,
are real and distinct, then the set of all values of ‘a’ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for Real and distinct roots of Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
is the quadratic equation
So
So for real value of x
But
So
Q. 52 An ellipse passes through the foci of the hyperbola, and its major and
minor axes lie along the transverse and conjugate axes of the hyperbola respectively. If the
product of eccentricities of the two conics is then which of the following points does not
lie on the ellipse ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Eccentricity -
- wherein
For the ellipse
Coordinates of foci -
- wherein
For the ellipse
Also
Hence ellipse passes through
doesn't lie on this ellipse

Q. 53
Statement - I : The value of the integral is equal to
Statement - II :
Option 1:
Statement - I is false; Statement - II is true
Option 2:
Statement - I is true ; Statement - II is true; Statement - II is a correct explanation for Statement-I
Option 3:
Statement - I is true ; Statement - II is true; Statement - II is not a correct explanation for Statement-I
Option 4:
Statement - I is true; Statement - II is false
Correct Answer:
Statement - I is false; Statement - II is true
Solution:
I=
Hence statement I is false and statement II is true
Q. 54 PQR is a triangular park with PQ=PR=200 m. A T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR. If
the angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 45º, 30º and 30º, then the height of the tower (in m) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
100
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
As we learnt in
Angle of Depression -
If an object is below the horizontal line from the eye, we have to lower our head to view the object.
- wherein
In
Q. 55 A complex number z is said to be unimodular if . Suppose z1 and z2 are

complex numbers such that
is unimodular and z2 is not unimodular.Then the point z1 lies on a :
Option 1:
straight line parallel to x-axis.
Option 2:
straight line parallel to y-axis.
Option 3:
circle of radius 2.
Option 4:
circle of radius
Correct Answer:
circle of radius 2.
Solution:
As we have learned
Property of conjugate of complex number -
- wherein
Given ,
Q. 56 A straight line L through the point (3, -2) is inclined at an angle of 60o to the line
. If L also intersects the -axis, then the equation of L is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the slope of line L be m
Slope of given line (m1)
Angle between them
On solving
And these lines pass through (3, -2)
Using point-slope form, we get y+2 = 0 or
But y + 2 = 0 does not intersect x-axis as it is parallel to it, so th either line is the answer
Q. 57
The intercepts on x-axis made by tangents to the curve , ,which are
parallel to the line y = 2x ,are equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
NEWTON LEIBNITZ THEOREM -
We have , dy/dx = 2
So, x =
For x = 2
So , (y-2) = 2 (x-2)
x- intercept = 1
Similarly for x = -2
x intercept = -1
Q. 58 The number of solutions of , in the interval is :
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we learned,
Graph of Trigonometric Ratios -
- wherein
This is the graph of
and
Graph of Trigonometric Ratios -
- wherein
This is the graph of
Let's look at the graphs.

There is only one solution.
Q. 59 If the incentre of an equilateral triangle is (1, 1) and the equation of its one side is
then the equation of the circumcircle of this triangle is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein

- wherein
Distance of O from BC
is
= 2 units
Hence circumcircle has r = 4 and centre (1,1)

Q. 60 If a circle passing through the point (-1, 0) touches y-axis at (0, 2), then the length of the
chord of the circle along the x-axis is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Circle touching y-axis and having radius r -
- wherein
Where g is a variable parameter.
- wherein
If the centre is (h, 2) then
radius = |h|
equartion of circle is
and it passes through point (-1, 0)
putting values , we get
So centre is
AB is chord along x-axis
AB = 2(AM) =

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COMEDK 2024

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● Preparation Study Material: Access curated study materials designed to cater

The COMDEK 2024 exam date is 12 May 2024.

COMEDK Exam Pattern 2024

Units and Measurements

Chapter Name - Physics and Measurement

Chapter Name - Kinematics

Chapter Name - Laws Of Motion

Chapter Name - Rotational Motion

Chapter Name - Properties of Solids and Liquids

Chapter Name - Kinetic Theory of Gases

Chapter Name - Thermodynamics

Chapter Name - Electrostatics

7 Electric Field Due To A Uniformly Charged Ring STUDY HERE

10 Motion of charged particle in uniform electric field STUDY HERE

18 Relation Between Electric Field And Potential STUDY HERE

Potential Due To Hollow Conductiong, Solid

24 Potential Energy Of A Dipole In An Electric Field STUDY HERE

28 Combination Of Capacitors - Parallel And Series STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Oscillations and Waves

Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Induction And Alternating Currents

Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Waves

Chapter Name - Optics

40 Polarization By Reflection And Brewster's Law STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Chapter Name - Electronic Devices

Chapter Name - Some Basic Concepts In Chemistry

Chapter Name - Atomic Structure

Chapter Name - Classification Of Elements And Periodic Table

Chapter Name - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Chapter Name - Chemical Thermodynamics

Chapter Name - Equilibrium

Chapter Name - Solutions

Chapter Name - Chemical Kinetics

Chapter Name - The d- and f-Block Elements

Chapter Name - Coordination Compounds

Chapter Name - Some Basic Principles Of Organic Chemistry

Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Halogens

Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Oxygen

Chapter Name - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

Chapter Name - Biomolecules

Chapter Name - Sets, Relations and Functions

23 Modulus Function, Properties of Modulus STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations

3 Algebraic operation on Complex Numbers STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Trigonometry

Chapter Name - Matrices and Determinants

Chapter Name - Sequence and Series

Chapter Name - Co-ordinate geometry

Chapter Name - Limit , Continuity and Differentiability

Chapter Name - Integral Calculus

Chapter Name - Differential Equations

Chapter Name - Vector Algebra

Chapter Name - Three Dimensional Geometry

Chapter Name - Permutations and Combinations

Chapter Name - Statistics and Probability

Chapter Name - Binomial Theorem and its Simple Applications

angle made by E vector with transmission axis.

Intensity of transmitted light after polarisation .

Intensity of incident light.

Therefore, from equation (i) and (ii)

If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :