Professional Documents
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AmeerAboMokh
1. The adrenal is a frequent site for chronic granulomatous diseases, predominantly tuberculosis but also
histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and cryptococcosis → Addison’s disease → ACTH stimulation test.
Now the most frequent cause is ideopathic atrophy, related to an autoimmune mechanism.
Asthenia: abnormal physical weakness or lack of energy.
The diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency is made with the ACTH stimulation testing to assess adrenal
reserve capacity for steroid production. The best screening test is the cortisol response 60 minutes after
cosyntropin ”man-made ACTH” is given intramuscularly or intravenously. Cortisol levels should increase
appropriately. If the response is abnormal, then primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency can be
distinguished by measuring aldosterone levels from the same blood samples. In secondary, but not
primary, adrenal insufficiency, the aldosterone level is normal.
In primary adrenal insufficiency, plasma ACTH and associated peptides are elevated because of loss
of the usual cortisol–hypothalamic–pituitary feedback loop, whereas in secondary adrenal insufficiency,
plasma ACTH values are low or “inappropriately” normal.
2. Primary adrenal insuf.: adrenal cortex destruction #secondary adrenal insuf.: ACTH deficiency
The most useful test to distinguish is measurement of the circulating plasma ACTH level. ACTH levels
greater than normal define primary disease; values in the normal range or below define secondary disease.
Primary: Rx= Fludrocortisone + Hydrocortisone
Secondary: Rx= Hydrocortisone only
3. Cushing $: violaceous striae and incidental bruising, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity, unprovoked
hypokalemia, proximal muscle weakness, signs of hyperandrogenism (acne, hirsutism), and psychological
disturbances (depression, mania, and psychoses).
Dx: 24-hour urinary free cortisol level.
# The high-dose (8 mg) dexamethasone suppression test is used to determine the possible cause of
Cushing syndrome.
4. Propylthiouracil often causes a mild leukopenia that does not require discontinuation of the drug. Drug-
induced agranulocytosis, however, is a life-threatening complication occurring in 0.1% to 0.2% of patients on
antithyroid medications and requires immediate discontinuation of the drug→CBC.
5. Gynecomastia in older men can result from medication use (e.g., omeprazole and cimetidine, INH, digitalis,
phenothiazine, testosterone), substance abuse (e.g., alcohol; illegal drugs, including marijuana and heroin),
endocrine disorders (e.g., hypogonadism, hyperthyroidism), Klinefelter’s syndrome, liver disease, and
neoplasm.
6. Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn Syndrome). This is most commonly due to a unilateral adenoma.
→ HTN+hypokalemia
7. The most common causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism are congestive heart failure and cirrhosis with
ascites.
In secondary hyperaldosteronism, the renin-aldosterone axis responds normally to chronic intravascular
volume deficiency. Secondary hyperaldosteronism is a collective term for a diverse group of disorders
characterized by physiologic activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (R-A-A) axis as a homeostatic
mechanism designed to maintain serum electrolyte concentrations or fluid volume.
8. Paracentesis is required to evaluate new-onset ascites.
9. JAK2 → Polycythemia vera\ Essential thrombocythemia → Budd–Chiari syndrome.
# erythromelalgia: Paroxysmal throbbing and burning pain in the skin often precipitated by exertion or heat,
affecting the hands and feet, accompanied by a dusky mottled redness of the parts with increased skin
temperature; may be associated with myeloproliferative disorders.
10. When is reflux alarming,and when is Endoscopy used in GERD? - : when the following symptoms are present: 1-
Weight loss 2-Anemia 3-Blood in the stool 4-Dysphagia
11. Patients with small amounts of ascites can usually be managed with dietary sodium restriction alone.
<2g OF SODIUM PER DAY
12. A serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) greater than 1.1 suggests portal hypertension as the cause of
the ascites. SAAG less than 1.1 suggests alternative causes for ascites, including malignancy, pancreatitis,
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, and tuberculosis.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
A SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL reflects the presence of portal hypertension and indicates that the ascites is due to
increased pressure in the hepatic sinusoids.
13. Asymptomatic cholelithiasis does not require cholecystectomy unless: porcelain gallbladder, sickle cell anemia, stone
> 2 to 3 cm, pediatric patient.
14. Patients with hematochezia and hemodynamic instability should have upper endoscopy to rule out an
upper GI source before evaluation of the lower GI tract.
15. Testing for autoimmune hepatitis usually includes an antinuclear antibody [ANA assay(!) and measurement
of specific immunoglobulins.
Many patients with autoimmune hepatitis: Serum AST and ALT levels are increased and fluctuate in the
range of 100−1000 units.
AMA is related to the duct not to the hepatocyte, so LFT will stay normal ,while alkaline phosphatese
will increase.
Anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies(AMA) are a signature autoantibody of primary biliary cholangitis
(PBC), formally known as primary biliary cirrhosis, and detected in 95% of patients.
16. Safety concerns about selected ANTIEMETICS have been emphasized. Centrally acting
antidopaminergics, especially METOCLOPRAMIDE, can CAUSE IRREVERSIBLE MOVEMENT DISORDERS
SUCH AS TARDIVE DYSKINESIA, PARTICULARLY IN OLDER PATIENTS. This complication should be
carefully explained and documented in the medical record.
17. Autoimmune hepatitis: *antinuclear antibody (ANA) *anti-smooth muscle antibody (SMA) *anti-liver kidney
microsomal antibodies (LKM-1, LKM-2, LKM-3) *anti soluble liver antigen (SLA) *liver–pancreas antigen (LP),
and
***anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA)). The presence of anti-mitochondrial antibody is more suggestive of
primary biliary cholangitis.
18. Patients with small amounts of ascites can usually be managed with dietary sodium restriction alone...
When a moderate amount of ascites is present, DIURETIC THERAPY is usually NECESSARY. Traditionally,
SPIRONOLACTONE at 100–200 mg/d as a single dose is started, and furosemide may be added at 40–80
mg/d, particularly in patients who have peripheral edema.
19. For suspected pancreatic carcinoma → Endoscopic ultrasonography is the best screening tool.
20. Following the detection of an ADENOMATOUS POLYP, the entire large bowel should be visualized
endoscopically because synchronous lesions are noted in about one-third of cases. COLONOSCOPY should
then be repeated periodically, even in the absence of a previously documented malignancy, because such
patients have a 30–50% probability of developing another adenoma and are at a higher-than-average risk for
DEVELOPING A COLORECTAL CARCINOMA. ADENOMATOUS POLYPS are thought to require >5 years
of growth before becoming clinically significant; COLONOSCOPY (!!!) NEED NOT BE CARRIED OUT MORE
FREQUENTLY THAN EVERY 3 YEARS FOR THE VAST MAJORITY OF PATIENTS.
21. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC), or Lynch syndrome: 3-2-1 rule to perform screening.
(3 affected members, 2 generations, 1 under age 50).
22. Daily intake of aspirin has been demonstrated to decrease the risk of colorectal cancer in multiple cohort
and case-control studies.
23. UP TO 25%(!!!) OF PATIENTS WITH COLORECTAL CANCER HAVE A FAMILY HISTORY(!!!) OF THE DISEASE,
suggesting a hereditary predisposition.
24. Although esophageal masses and cancer can lead to several types of dysphagia, the most common
complaint is solid food dysphagia that worsens to the point that liquids are also hard to swallow.
Liquid phase dysphagia often implies a functional disorder of the esophagus rather than a mass-like
obstruction.
Early satiety is often due to gastric obstruction or extrinsic compression of the stomach (splenomegaly
is a common reason for this), or to a functional gastric disorder such as gastroparesis.
25. Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma risk factors are all of: Smoking, Alcohol and Achalasia.
26. rituximab “R-CHOP” activates hepatitis B in hep B carrier pts.
27. Hepatitis A: There is neither an associated chronic state nor a carrier state. The diagnosis is made by the
detection of elevated levels of IgM antibodies, which indicate active disease, and IgG antibodies, which
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
indicate previous disease. Immunization, especially for travelers, is recommended to specifically prevent
hepatitis A
28. Patients who have Crohn disease with ileal disease or ileal resection are also likely to form calcium oxalate
kidney stones → Hematuria
29. Hepatic encephalopathy presents as a change of consciousness, behavior, and neuromuscular function
associated with liver disease. Hyperreflexia and asterixis (flapping tremor) are clinical manifestations of the
disease process that result from toxins in the systemic circulation as a result of impaired hepatic clearance.
Fever, gastrointestinal bleeding, and sedation are all potential precipitating factors in a patient with liver
disease.
30. ONCE THE PRESENCE OF ASCITES HAS BEEN CONFIRMED, THE ETIOLOGY OF THE ASCITES IS
BEST(!!!) DETERMINED BY PARACENTESIS(!!!).
31. Schistosomiasis [Schistosoma mansoni] liver disease: hepatosplenomegaly, hypersplenism, and
esophageal varices develop quite commonly, and is usually associated with eosinophilia.
It causes cirrhosis from vascular obstruction resulting from periportal fibrosis but relatively little
hepatocellular injury.
32. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis → Diagnostic peritoneocentesis
33. Hepatic transplantation is contraindicated in a patient who is actively drinking.
34. Propanolol effect on varices → Decrease hematemesis
35. Pancreatitis - Which of the following laboratory values suggests a poor prognosis? Ranson criteria!
36. acute pancreatitis etiology: Gallstone, Acute and chronic alcoholism, Hypertriglyceridemia, Acute trauma or
following ERCP
37. Localized epigastric burning pain relieved by eating requires evaluation for peptic ulcer disease. Upper
gastrointestinal endoscopy provides the best sensitivity and specificity.
38. The TREATMENT of H. PYLORI–positive peptic duodenal ulcer disease is TRIPLE THERAPY aimed at
the ERADICATION OF H. PYLORI, along with acid suppression. This TRIPLE THERAPY includes a PPI and
two antibiotics, usually amoxicillin (1 g BID) with clarithromycin (500 mg twice daily). In patients with
PENICILLIN ALLERGIES, metronidazole (500 mg twice daily) is SUSBSTITUTED for amoxicillin.
39. Diagnosis is made by the detection of C. difficile toxin in the stool and sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy
findings consisting of yellowish-white plaques of exudate with alternating areas of normal bowel mucosa. If
the exudate is removed, bleeding often occurs from the affected mucosa.
Metronidazole is an alternative agent for use if oral vancomycin and oral fidaxomicin are not available.
40. Trauma → A peripheral smear showing Howell-Jolly bodies implies loss of splenic function. This is
important as asplenic patients are at considerably higher risk of overwhelming sepsis and warrant vaccination
against encapsulated pathogens.
41. Overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI) treatment: vancomycin with ceftriaxone
42. spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP). It is recommended to start antibiotic treatment for SBP if the
neutrophil count is greater than 250 cells/mm3: 3rd generation= cefotaxime or ceftriaxone.
43. subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE): - Fewer than 5% of patients are afebrile - blood cultures will be
positive in the absence of previous antibiotic use.
44. Which of the following makes the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) unlikely? PMN count
in the ascitic fluid < 250 cells/mm3.
45. MALIGNANCY-RELATED HYPERCALCEMIA: LEVELS OF PTH measured by the double-antibody technique are
UNDERDETECTABLE OR EXTREMELY LOW IN TUMOR HYPERCALCEMIA.
In a patient with minimal symptoms referred for hypercalcemia, LOW OR UNDETECTABLE PTH
LEVELS would focus attention on a possible occult MALIGNANCY!
46. Hyperparathyroidism: Medical treatment, used if surgery is contraindicated or if serum calcium ≤11.5 mg/dL
and patient is asymptomatic, includes bisphosphonates (pamidronate).
47. In a patient with T-score less than -2.5, and age post-menopause, having hypercalcemia, you must fist rule
out primary hyperparathyroidism before starting treatment. So further measure two-site immunoradiometric
assay (IRMA,or so-called intact PTH) and assess 24-hour urinary calcium output.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
48. Most common cause of hypercalcemia: Parathyroid adenoma.
49. Thyroid storm Rx: Treat with the 4 P’s: β-blockers (eg, Propranolol), Propylthiouracil, corticosteroids (eg,
Prednisolone”stop peri. Conversion”), Potassium iodide (Lugol iodine) ”aka Supersaturated potassium iodine”.
Other measures involve fluid replacement and control of fever with acetaminophen and cooling
blankets. Avoid aspirin because it may increase T3and T4by reducing protein binding.
50. Men, like women, are at risk of developing osteoporosis that may lead to increased risk of fractures.
Hypogonadism is an independent risk factor for osteoporosis.
51. In order to distinguish myxedema ”severe hypothyroidism” from other causes of coma: hypothermia,
periorbital edema, delayed deep tendon reflexes.
52. Cushing disease and hypothyroidism are more common in females.
53. Patients with hypothyroidism frequently have elevations of cholesterol and triglycerides.
54. If you take a thiazide diuretic, your potassium level can drop too low (hypokalemia).
55. Unexplained, persistent hyponatremia should be considered a marker for an underlying malignancy.
SIADH is a mechanism for developing hyponatremia, not a diagnosis. In all patients with SIADH, a specific
etiology for inappropriate vasopressin secretion should be sought.
The workup should include a careful search for malignancy and central nervous system pathology and an
endocrine evaluation to exclude hypothyroidism and hypocortisolism. In patients with asymptomatic
hyponatremia secondary to SIADH, the treatment of choice is fluid restriction.
Tumors with neuroendocrine features, such as SCLC and carcinoids, are the MOST COMMON
SOURCES OF ECTOPIC VASOPRESSIN PRODUCTION” SIADH”, but it also occurs in other forms of
LUNG CANCER and with CNS lesions, head and neck cancer, and genitourinary, gastrointestinal, and
ovarian cancers.
56. Tumors that elaborate PTHrP are most commonly squamous cell carcinomas, such as those of the lung,
esophagus, and head and neck.
57. Indications for surgical intervention for asymptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism include: age less than
50 years, markedly elevated urine calcium excretion, kidney stones on radiography, decreased creatinine
clearance, markedly elevated calcium or 1 episode of life-threatening hypercalcemia, and substantially
decreased bone mass.
58. Pheochromocytoma: Patients should be treated with α-blockade (typically phenoxybenzamine) for 10 to 14
days prior to surgery as well as β-blockade (i.e., propranolol) for 2 to 3 days prior to surgery. The α-blockade
is used to control BP, and the β-blockade is used to decrease tachycardia.
The incidence of pheochromocytoma is markedly increased in several genetic syndromes: multiple
endocrine neoplasia type 2a and type 2b; and the phakomatoses, including neurofibromatosis,
cerebelloretinal hemangioblastosis, tuberous sclerosis, and Sturge-Weber syndrome.
59. HEADACHES are COMMON FEATURES of small intrasellar tumors. Because of the confined nature of the
pituitary, small changes in intrasellar pressure stretch the dural plate; however, headache severity correlates
poorly with adenoma size or extension... Sellar masses are encountered commonly as incidental findings on
MRI, and most of them are PITUITARY ADENOMAS (INCIDENTALOMAS). In the ABSENCE OF HORMONE
HYPERSECRETION, these small intrasellar lesions CAN BE MONITORED(!!!) SAFELY WITH MRI, which is
PERFORMED ANNUALLY and then less often if there is no evidence of further growth.
60. The RLN has mixed motor, sensory, and autonomic functions and innervates the intrinsic laryngeal
muscles. DAMAGE TO A RLN(!!!) results in mixed pathology, the most important of which is PARALYSIS OF
THE VOCAL CORD on the affected side. SUCH DAMAGE MIGHT RESULT IN A MIDLINE POSITION OR
PARAMEDIAN POSITION (Sabiston,20e,883).
61. FNAB has become the single most important test in the evaluation of thyroid masses and can be
performed with or without ultrasound guidance – i.e start with it !!!
62. SUBACUTE THYROIDITIS... The peak incidence occurs at 30–50 years, and WOMEN are AFFECTED
three times ,MORE frequently than men... During the initial phase of follicular destruction, there is release of
Tg and thyroid hormones, leading to increased circulating T4 and T3 and SUPPRESSION OF TSH. During
this destructive phase, RADIOACTIVE IODINE UPTAKE IS LOW OR UNDETECTABLE.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
Examination reveals a small goiter that is exquisitely TENDER. PAIN is often referred to the jaw or
ear... thyroid function tests characteristically evolve through three distinct phases over about 6 months: (1)
thyrotoxic phase, (2) hypothyroid phase, and (3) recovery phase. In the thyrotoxic phase, T4 and T3 levels
are increased, reflecting their discharge from the damaged thyroid cells, and TSH IS SUPPRESSED... The
diagnosis is confirmed by a HIGH ESR and LOW UPTAKE OF RADIOIODINE (<5%).
63. Empty Sella: A partial or apparently totally empty sella is often an incidental MRI finding, and may be
associated with intracranial hypertension. These patients usually have normal pituitary function, implying that
the surrounding rim of pituitary tissue is fully functional.
64. enteral nutrition is less likely to cause infection than parenteral nutrition.
65. There are inactivated and live, attenuated forms of influenza vaccine. The intranasal spray, marketed as
“Flu-mist,” is a live, attenuated virus and is not recommended for the elderly or immunocompromised patients.
This vaccine has similar efficacy to the intramuscular vaccine, which is an inactivated, or “killed,” preparation
of the previous year’s strains of influenza A and B. The intramuscular vaccine is manufactured using egg
products; patients with true egg hypersensitivity should not receive it. It is safe for elderly and
immunocompromised patients. In the past, influenza vaccines have been associated with Guillain-Barré
syndrome. This association has not been demonstrated in the past decade, despite close surveillance.
Patients do not need to be warned of this side effect.
66. Niacin (nicotinic acid) is used to treat hyperlipidemia. It lowers LDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels and
increases HDL cholesterol levels.
67. Delirium old age (start attacking people verbally in hospital) → classic anti-psychotic drug (e.g. Halidol).
68. IV drug abuse having sepsis → suspect MRSA → Rx: Vancomycin
The only cephalosporins that cover MRSA: CEFTAROLINE, CEFTAZIDIME.
69. Migrane: Unilateral, throbbing headache.
70. The 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for all patients over age 65 and for high risk
individuals of other ages (e.g., those with asplenia, diabetes, asthma, or COPD).
71. Haldol side effect: - Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: the symptoms include high fever (102°F to 104°F),
tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, autonomic dysfunction, mental status changes, hypertension and
hypotension, tremors, seizures, muscle rigidity, and leukocytosis.
Rx: IV dantrolene (also used for malignant hyperthermia).
72. For beta blocker toxicity → antidote is Glucagon, which does not require beta-adrenergic receptors to
exert its positive inotropic effect( but by increasing cAMP & cardiac contractility)..
& use Epinephrine, that works through alpha-adrenergic receptors.
The two drugs will reverse the bradycardia & the hypotensive effect of beta blocker, respectively.
73. This patient presents with rhabdomyolysis related to alcohol intoxication and prolonged immobilization.
Myoglobin released from the breakdown of skeletal muscle is an endogenous nephrotoxin that can induce
acute renal failure (ARF) by direct injury to tubular epithelial cells.
Both myoglobin and hemoglobin (released from the breakdown of red cells in hemolytic processes) will
react with the urine dipstick test for blood. The presence of pigments in the urine should be suspected
when the results of dipstick testing are strongly positive for blood in the absence of red cells on microscopic
examination.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
1. Treatment consists of stopping the transfusion as soon as possible, vigorous diuresis with furosemide or
mannitol, and possible dialysis if renal failure occurs. With multiple transfusions, the patient may develop
antibodies to WBC antigens, which cause febrile reactions that are manifested by chills and temperatures
higher than 38°C. Using washed RBCs helps prevent these reactions.
2. Haemochromatosis: hepatomegaly, weakness, hyperpigmentation, atypical arthritis, diabetes, impotence,
unexplained chronic abdominal pain, or cardiomyopathy.
3. Asplenic adult patients succumb to sepsis at 58 times the rate of the general population.
Adults are at lower risk than children because they are more likely to have antibody to these organisms.
STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE is the MOST COMMON isolate, causing 50–70% of cases, but the
risk of infection with Haemophilus influenzae or Neisseria meningitidis is also high.
4. Neutropenic fever: Rx is to give broad spectrum antibiotics until neutrophil count is above 500!
Empiric antimicrobial therapy is a standard part of the management of neutropenic fever. Patients may
present after chemotherapy treatment for cancer.
5. Neutropenia is usually defined as an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) <1500 or 1000 cells/microL, severe
neutropenia as an ANC <500 cells/microL, and profound neutropenia as an ANC <100 cells/microL.
(WBC) x total neutrophils (segmented neutrophils% + segmented bands%) x 10 = ANC
6. In patients receiving ace inhibitor treatment there may be problems while using a white cell filter when
transfusing blood.
In the patients who have had an unusual reaction to blood transfusion blood should be irradiated.
7. TTP Rx: Plasma exchange for 6 session.
8. MGUS <10% mononucleal plasma cells, IgG spike <3.0g
Smoldring myloma>10% mononucleal plasma cells but asymptomatic ptx ( no back pain ) .
Multiple myloma >10% with symptoms (back pain and hypercalcemia).
9. Use of whole blood has now been almost completely supplanted by therapy employing specific blood
components.
Red cells are further processed by leukocyte reduction or washing to remove plasma proteins. Current
filter technology reduces white cell counts to less than 5 × 106 cells per unit, a concentration that is sufficient
to reduce febrile transfusion reactions and delay alloimmunization and platelet refractoriness → Leukocyte
transfusion reduces febrile transfusion reactions.
With single-donor platelet therapy, there is a reduction in the risk of blood-borne infection and antigen
exposure, because the product is from one donor rather than four to six; disadvantages are a longer
collection time, greater cost, and often limited supply.
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) have to be frozen within 8 hours of collection→100% perfect
Cryoprecipitate consists of the cryoproteins recovered from FFP when it is rapidly frozen and then
allowed to thaw at 2° to 6° C. These cryoproteins include fibrinogen(F1), factor VIII, von Willebrand factor,
factor XIII, and fibronectin.
10. Hemolytic transfusion reactions are classified as immediate or delayed:
-1. Immediate hemolytic reactions are the result of a preexisting antibody in the recipient that was not
detected during pretransfusion testing.
-2. Delayed hemolytic reactions are the result of an anamnestic response to an antigen to which the recipient
is already sensitized.
- Until the antibody causing the immune hemolysis is identified, only type O red cells and AB plasma should
be used.
- Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) is a type of transfusion reaction that is associated with
fever but not directly with hemolysis. It is most commonly caused by antibodies directed against donor
leukocytes and HLA antigens. Alternatively, FNHTR can be mediated by pre-formed cytokines in the donor
plasma as a consequence of white blood cell breakdown. These inflammatory mediators accumulate during
the storage of the donated blood “Length of stay” → stop the infusion immediately, Leukoreduction may help
next time, drawing blood for culturing to rule out sepsis, Acetaminophen.
11. About 50% of patients with acute lukemia have a mild to moderate ELEVATION OF SERUM URIC
ACID at presentation. Only 10% have marked elevations, but renal precipitation of URIC ACID and the
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nephropathy that may result is a serious but uncommon complication. The initiation of chemotherapy may
aggravate HYPERURICEMIA, and patients are usually STARTED IMMEDIATELY ON ALLOPURINOL AND
HYDRATION AT DIAGNOSIS.
12. Apheresis platelets are collected from a single donor by using an apheresis machine with an
integrated leucoreduction system (removing ≥ 99% white cells). The machine draws blood from the donor,
isolates the platelets and some plasma by centrifugation and returns the remaining blood back to the donor.
One apheresis product is equivalent to 6 to 8 random donor platelet concentrates and therefore should
increase the platelet count by 30,000/uL to 40,000/uL in a 70 kg patient.
One random donor platelet concentrate(1 unti pooled platelets) is expected to increase the platelet
count by 5000 to 10, 000/uL in a 70 kg patient who is not refractory.
13. t(15;17) acute promyelocytic leukemia: All-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA, or triretinoin).
14. Increased homocystein can be seen in both (b12) and folate deficiency.
Increased methyl malonic acid is only seen in b12 deficiency.
15. The STIMULATED ERYTHROPOIESIS is reflected in the blood smear by the appearance of increased
numbers of POLYCHROMATOPHILIC MACROCYTES→marrow stress\defect
If the reticulocyte production index is <2 in the face of established anemia, A DEFECT IN ERYTHROID
MARROW PROLIFERATION(!!!) or maturation MUST BE PRESENT
16. Clues for extravascular hemolysis include an elevated lactate dehydrogenase, spherocytes on the
peripheral blood smear, and hepatosplenomegaly. Intravascular hemolysis (disseminated intravascular
coagulation, mechanical heart valve, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura) will show schistocytes on
peripheral smear.
17. In an anaemic patient cyanosis will appear later , and thus the patient may be hypoxic even in the
absence of central cyanosis.
18. Normocytic normochromic anemias can be: 1. Hemolytic 2. Hemorrhage 3. CKD 4. Cancer.
44. Bleeding of the oral mucosa and urine, thrombocytopenia, fragmented red blood cells →TTP
45. A normal urine sediment is possible in TTP.
1. escitalopram (cipralex) is a SSRI for depression → a cause of SIADH → Rx: fluid restriction.
2. Cardiogenic shock: low venous o2 sat, SVR may be low/normal/elevated, high CVP.
3. Hypomagnesemia (due to sepsis for e.g.): if mild → oral Mg Severe→ parenteral MgCl2
4. Regarding hypovolemic shock: Oliguria is a crucial prognostic sign of impending vascular collapse.
5. Metabolic acidosis in patients with chronic renal failure can be associated with normal or wide anion gap and
requires the use of bicarbonate when its level is lower than 20-22 mmol/l.
6. Hypomagnesemia affects (makes worse) hypokalemia. So if patient doesn’t respond to oral K+ check his
Mg+ levels.
7. For septic shock in an I.V user: Vancomycin.
8. For severe hyponatremia: give hypertonic saline (ex: 3%).
9. The relation between hypertonic saline volume and serum sodium increase rate is complex and
individualized. Therefore you need to monitor serum sodium levels closely.
1. KAPOSI'S SARCOMA is a soft tissue sarcoma of vascular origin that is INDUCED BY HUMAN
HERPESVIRUS 8.
2. The most common scenario for the development of extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL)-gram negatives
in the hospital is prevalent use of third-generation cephalosporins.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
3. INJECTION DRUG USE–ASSOCIATED ENDOCARDITIS, especially that involving the tricuspid valve, is
commonly caused by S. AUREUS(!!!), which in many cases is RESISTANT TO METHICILLIN(!!!) (2012).
4. TTP suspected, THE PERIPHERAL SMEAR(!!!) SHOULD BE EXAMINED(!!!) FOR EVIDENCE OF
SCHISTOCYTES.
5. In the majority of sinusitis cases the patient will recover without antibiotic therapy.
6. Disinfectant only removes transient hand flora (not permanent flora).
7. Contact with blood fluids and an obvious contamination of the hands require washing with an antiseptic
solution.
8. Necrotizing fasciitis: Severe pain, leukocytosis and fever. But there is no local swelling or erythema of the
skin (for those presenting with the type of presentation called “with no portal of entry” and they are in early
stages of the disease..
Early diagnosis may be difficult when PAIN or unexplained FEVER is the only presenting manifestation.
Swelling then develops and is followed by brawny edema and tenderness. With progression, dark-red induration of the epidermis appears, along
with bullae filled with blue or purple fluid.
Rapid spread occurs along fascial planes,through venous channels and lymphatics. Patients in the later stagesare toxic and frequently manifest
shock and multiorgan failure. In 20–40% of cases, myositis occurs concomitantly, and, as in gas gangrene, serum creatine phosphokinase levels
may be markedly elevated. Necrotizing fasciitis due to mixed aerobic-anaerobic bacteria may be associated with gas in deep tissue, but gas usually
is not present when the cause is S. pyogenes or MRSA. Prompt surgical exploration down to the deep fascia and muscle is essential. Necrotic
tissue must be surgically removed, and Gram’s staining and culture of excised tissue are useful in establishing whether group A streptococci, mixed
aerobic-anaerobic bacteria, MRSA, or Clostridium species are present
9. Healthy patient with sudden urinary irritation with urgency and increased frequency: dx and rx as usual UTI.
Uncomplicated UTI refers to acute cystitis or pyelonephritis in NONPREGNANT outpatient women
WITHOUT anatomic abnormalities or instrumentation of the urinary tract... Uncomplicated cystitis in women
can be treated on the basis of history alone.
10. High fever, headaches, and a rash on his trunk and limbs. He has recently been in contact with dogs:
Rickettsia conorii. Aka: Mediterranean spotted fever, Israeli tick typhus. Comes from the brown dog tick,
Rhipicephalus sanguineus.
If recognized in a timely fashion, rickettsial disease is very responsive to treatment. DOXYCYCLINE
“tetracycline-based treatment” is the treatment of choice for both adults and children.
11. Treatment of Mucocutaneous Candidal Infections” skin candidiasis”: Cutaneous Topical azole.
12. Prerenal Azotemia: Urine sodium “Una” <20 meq/L.
13. Brucellosis: classic triad of fever, arthralgia/arthritis, and hepatosplenomegaly can be demonstrated in most
patients. A common constellation of symptoms in children is refusal to eat, lassitude سل َ ك
َ , refusal to bear
weight, and failure to thrive.
14. The diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis is made by demonstration at sigmoidoscopy of yellowish
plaques (pseudomembranes) that cover the colonic mucosa or by detection of C difficile toxin in the
stool.
15. Chronic diarrhea can be categorized as watery (secretory vs. osmotic vs. functional), fatty, or inflammatory. Watery diarrhea may be
subdivided into osmotic (water retention due to poorly absorbed substances), secretory (reduced water absorption), and functional
(hypermotility) types. Osmotic laxatives, such as sorbitol, induce osmotic diarrhea.
16. DIARRHEA, the leading cause of illness in TRAVELERS, is usually a SHORT-LIVED(!!!), SELF-
LIMITED(!!!) condition... The MOST(!) frequently identified pathogens causing TRAVELERS' DIARRHEA
are enterotoxigenic and enteroaggregative ESCHERICHIA COLI(!)
If neither high fever nor blood in the stool accompanies the diarrhea, LOPERAMIDE(!) should(!) be taken(!)
in combination with the antibiotic...The standard regimen is a 3-day course of a quinolone(!) taken twice
daily
17. Traveler’s diarrhea Rx (Harrison 20th):
-Watery diarrhea no distressing symptoms: oral fluids
-Watery diarrhea with distressing enteric symptoms: Bismuth subsalicylate or loperamide
-Dysentery (passage of bloody stools) or fever (>37.8°C): fluoroquinolone(such as ciprofloxacin) or
Azithromycin
18. Several species of bacteria, such as S. aureus, C. perfringens, and Bacillus cereus, can produce toxins
that produce so-called food poisoning (i.e., vomiting and diarrhea) within 4 hours of ingestion. In such
cases, the bacteria do not need to establish an intraluminal infection; ingestion of the toxin alone can
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
produce the disease. Symptoms subside after the toxin is cleared, usually by the next day; evidence of
toxicity (e.g., fever) is minimal.
19. More than 90% of cases of ACUTE DIARRHEA are CAUSED BY INFECTIOUS AGENTS; these cases are
often accompanied by vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. The remaining 10% or so are caused by
medications, toxic ingestions, ischemia, food indiscretions, and other conditions (Harrison,19e,265).
20. Erysipelas: needs hospital admission and antibiotics (oral or IV if severe.
The classic presentation is a well-demarcated, fieryملتهب ُ red, painful lesion, most commonly on the lower
extremities and the face. High fever and chills may be present.
21. Erysipelas is caused by Streptococcus group A(GROUP A β-hemolytic STREPTOCOCCI).
22. The initial blood test of FUO workup panel include tuberculin skin test and protein electrophoresis.
One of the first steps as well is to rule out FACTITIOUS(!!!) or fraudulent FEVER.
23. Giardia lamblia is one of the most common parasitic diseases, with worldwide distribution.
Infection follows ingestion of environmental cysts, which excyst in the small intestine releasing flagellated
trophozoites. As few as 10 cysts can cause human disease.
24. herpes zoster is pain associated with acute neuritis and POSTHERPETIC NEURALGIA treatment:
ANTICONVULSANTS (GABAPENTIN [GABANTIN(!!!)] or pregabalin) or antidepressants (nortriptyline,
desipramine, duloxetine, or venlafaxine) can be used as FIRST-LINE DRUGS for patients with
NEUROPATHIC PAIN.
25. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is best confirmed by isolation of the virus in tissue culture “ Viral
culture” gold standard for definitive diagnosis; results available in 48 hours
26. EBV infectious mononucleosis is associated with ATYPICAL LYMPHOCYTOSIS “Over 10% atypical
lymphocytes are demonstrated in peripheral blood smear”, not eosinophils!
27. Listeria gastroenteritis: Antibiotic treatment is not necessary for uncomplicated cases (2010)ש.
28. All patients who have had recent head trauma, are immunocompromised, have known malignant lesions or
central nervous system (CNS) neoplasms, or have focal neurologic findings, papilledema, or a depressed
level of consciousness should undergo computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
of the brain prior to lumbar puncture (LP). In these cases EMPIRICAL ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY(!!!) SHOULD
NOT(!!!) BE DELAYED(!!!) PENDING TEST RESULTS BUT SHOULD BE ADMINISTERED PRIOR(!!!) TO
NEUROIMAGING(!!!) AND LP (Harrison,19e,883).
29. COMPLEMENT DEFICIENCIES, especially of the components involved in the assembly of the membrane
attack complex (C5 THROUGH C9) “deficiency of late components of the complement system”, predispose
to NEISSERIAL(!!!) BACTEREMIA, and persons with more than one episode of DGI [DISSEMINATED
GONOCOCCAL INFECTION](!!!) should be screened with an assay for total hemolytic complement activity
(Harrison,19e,1006).
30. #Typically, in acute bacterial meningitis (e.g., meningitis caused by S. pneumoniae), the CSF glucose level
is decreased, the total protein level is elevated, and the WBC count is elevated and has a neutrophilic
predominance.
# (normal glucose level, increased total protein level, increased number of lymphocytes) is typical of viral
meningitis.
# (decreased glucose level, elevated protein level, increased number of lymphocytes) can be seen in
meningitis caused by syphilis, Lyme disease, or Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
# (normal glucose level, elevated protein level, increased number of RBCs) may be seen after trauma or
subarachnoid hemorrhage.
31. Meningitis: Initiate antibiotics treatment with Rocephin, fundus examination and lumbar puncture.
32. Typical CSF Profiles for Meningitis and Encephalitis: BACTERIAL MENINGITIS:
GLUCOSE (mg/dL)<40, Protein (mg/dL)>100, Gram’s stain Positive (in >60% of cases).
33. High fever after > 48 hours hospital stay: hospital acquired infection “nosocomial”.
34. The demonstration of organisms in BRONCHOALVEOLAR LAVAGE(!!!) FLUID is almost 100% sensitive
and specific for PCP in patients with either HIV infection or IMMUNOSUPPRESSION “e.g. a patient on long
term corticosteroid” (!!!) of other etiologies (Harrison,19e,1360).
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
35. Schistosoma mansoni infection causes cirrhosis from vascular obstruction resulting from periportal fibrosis
but relatively little hepatocellular injury. Hepatosplenomegaly, hypersplenism, and esophageal varices
develop quite commonly, and eosinophilia. (2010)ש.
36. The presence of WBCs and blood in the stool is consistent with an inflammatory process: Shigellosis.
37. Trichomoniasis can only be spread sexually. Trichomoniasis resistant to metronidazole has been reported.
Partner has to be treated as well.
38. Back from Thailand (southeast Asia) with fever, rash (rose spots), abdominal pain, headache: enteric
typhoid fever (Salmonella).
# Dengue fever(!)---Headache, musculoskeletal pain (“breakbone fever”); leukopenia; occasionally biphasic
(“saddleback”) fever.
# Leptospirosis(!)---Myalgias; aseptic meningitis(!); fulminant form: icterohemorrhagic fever (Weil’s
disease)
39. Back from India with abdominal pain and general maculopapular rash on the chest & abdomen:
Salmonella typhi(same as previous question).
ROSE SPOTS make up a faint, salmon-colored, blanching, MACULOPAPULAR RASH located primarily on
the TRUNK AND CHEST.
40. For ENTEROCOCCUS FAECALIS UTI: Ampicillin, AMOXICILLIN.
41. Pseudomembranous colitis: it is important to initiate treatment with ORAL VANCOMYCIN for patients who
appear seriously ill, particularly if they have A HIGH WBC COUNT(>15,000/μL) OR A CREATININE LEVEL
THAT IS ≥1.5 TIMES HIGHER than the premorbid value (Harrison,19e,860).
42. VZV rash appeared on the face of a man due to being immunocopromised as he was treated for 3 weeks
with prednisolone. Rx: Initiating drug therapy for varicella zoster virus (VZV).
VARICELLA-ZOSTER VIRUS(!!!) Virus... Localized zoster can SPREAD RAPIDLY in an
IMMUNOSUPPRESSED(!!!) patient (Harrison,19e,921)
43. Man screen urine culture for insurance policy grows more then 10⁵ colony forming ut/mL E coli → No Rx!
This is asymptomatic bacteriuria: is defined as a positive urine cultures and negative signs and
symptoms, mainly no treatment is required , except for pregnancy.
44. Urinary catheter that grew pseudomonas aeruginosa→ Rx: IV tazocin (piperacillin tazobactam).
45. Urinary Tract Obstruction complicated by infection requires immediate relief of obstruction to prevent
development of generalized sepsis and progressive renal damage. Sepsis necessitates prompt urologic
intervention. DRAINAGE may be achieved by NEPHROSTOMY, ureterostomy, or ureteral, urethral, or
suprapubic CATHETERIZATION.
46. Young woman with UTI, Rx: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) aka co-trimoxazole.
+ If Gram’s stain does not reveal gonococci, urethritis is treated with a regimen effective for NGU “non-
gonococcal urethritis”, such as azithromycin or doxycycline.
47. Penicillin (or other drugs) may cause acute interstitial renal disease. Eosinophils attack the cells lining
the tubules as a reaction to drugs (70%) → urinalysis with blood cells and eosinophils (Eosinophils=
Interstitial).
48. The FINDING OF EOSINOPHILS IN THE URINE is suggestive of allergic interstitial nephritis or
ATHEROEMBOLIC RENAL DISEASE(!!!) and is optimally observed with Hansel staining. The absence of
EOSINOPHILURIA, however, does not exclude these etiologies (Harrison,19e,292).
ATHEROEMBOLIC DISEASE(!!!)---Hypocomplementemia, EOSINOPHILURIA(variable), variable amounts
of proteinuria (Harrison,19e,1806)
49. Target hemoglobin value in a patient with chronic renal insufficiency treated with recombinant
erythropoietin and iron: 10-11,5 gr/dl at the most.
50. AKI secondary to ACUTE INTERSTITIAL NEPHRITIS can occur as a consequence of exposure to MANY
ANTIBIOTICS, including penicillins, cephalosporins, quinolones, sulfonamides, and rifampin... EXTREMELY
HEAVY PROTEINURIA (“NEPHROTIC RANGE,” >3.5 g/d) can occasionally be seen in glomerulonephritis,
vasculitis, or INTERSTITIAL NEPHRITIS (PARTICULARLY FROM NSAIDs) (Harrison,19e,1804).
To confirm the diagnosis of renal failure due to antibiotic treatment: biopsy!
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
51. To rule out renal injury from contrast media: Renal function 3-5 days post exposure.
52. PRERENAL AZOTEMIA: BUN/creatinine ratio above 20, urine specific gravity>1.018, FeNa <1%,
hyaline casts in urine sediment, Urine osmolality>500 mOsm/kg.
53. Proteinuria is often the first sign of amyloidosis.
54. acute bacterial epididymitis: Concurrent urethral discharge (2010)ש
55. Glucocorticoids “prednisone” represent the key initial medical therapy for patients diagnosed with FSGS.
However, it doesn't respond well to steroids. (Medexams).
56. Fournier gangrene is a form of necrotizing fasciitis occurring in the male genitals. It is a life-threatening
infection with mortality ranging from 13% to 22%. Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, local
trauma, paraphimosis, periurethral extravasation of urine, perirectal or perianal infections, and surgery in
the area. surgery should be performed urgently to define the nature and extent of the infectious process,
with resection of the involved tissue. Antibiotics are an important adjunct to surgery. “Immediate surgical
exploration and resection without regard to reconstruction”. (2013)ש.
57. Goodpasture's syndrome is associated with: Pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis(2010)ש.
58. Patient on dialysis catheter had febrile illness:PROMPT REMOVAL AND CULTURE OF THE CATHETER+
AB Rx.
59. NEPHRITIS is usually the most serious manifestation of SLE... Because NEPHRITIS is asymptomatic in
most LUPUS patients, urinalysis should be ordered in any person suspected of having SLE... Patients with
dangerous PROLIFERATIVE forms of GLOMERULAR DAMAGE (ISN III and IV) usually have
MICROSCOPIC HEMATURIA AND PROTEINURIA (>500 mg per 24 h). (Blood&Protein!!!).
60. Type 1 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by immune complex deposition in the
subendothelium, most commonly immune deposits from hepatitis C virus (HCV) antigens or cryoglobulins.
It may present as nephrotic or nephritic or both. Hypertension is a very common as well.
The question may give you HTN, raised ALT & AST, with protein & blood in urinalysis→ Test for hepC AB.
61. urinary sediment is the most typical of glomerulonephritis: Red blood cell casts.
Hematuria with dysmorphic RBCs, RBC CASTS, and protein excretion >500 mg/d is virtually DIAGNOSTIC
OF GLOMERULONEPHRITIS (Harrison,19e,294).
62. A patient with Hx of nephrotic $ who presents with acute onset of flank pain and hematuria → suspect
thrombosis of the renal vein → Renal ultrasound and duplex scan (Doppler ultrasonography) !!!
63. Nonseminimatous testicular cancer: α-fetoprotein (AFP).
64. Constipation could accompany patient having overflow ”not overactive!!” urinary incontinence, because
both indicate neural problems. Moreover, when this type of incontinence may find so many urine when
catheterizing the patient. Also, it is not the same as urge incontinence. Patient has no urge. But high urinary
frequency. (2013)ש
65. 50 y man with diffuse bone pain for 6 weeks now. dialysis for 15 year: Renal osteodystrophy.
66. Possible long-term side effects of chemotherapy: Leukemia.
67. The MAINSTAYS OF DRUG THERAPY FOR OAB [OVERACTIVE BLADDER] include OXYBUTYNIN
CHLORIDE(!!!) and tolterodine. OXYBUTYNIN CHLORIDE(!!!) has been shown in randomized placebo-controlled trials to be
EFFECTIVE in increasing bladder capacity, decreasing the frequency of detrusor contractions, and IMPROVING SYMPTOMS OF URINARY
URGENCY in approximately 70% of patients. It is effective for both idiopathic and neuropathic etiologies of detrusor instability (Lange,11e,1763).
1. Homeless man intoxicated + Right lower lobe infiltrates + fever: Broad spectrum with anaerobic coverage.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
2. Old age + Difficulty breathing after a morning jog+ occasionally uses an inhaler → next? Peak Exspiratory
flow (PEF).
3. Evaluation of hemoptysis
Hemoptysis with no risk factors:
1. CXR 2. If CXR is not revealing - obtain a CT 3. If both are unrevealing - Bronchoscopy
Hemoptysis with risk factors (= age > 40/ smoking/ recurrent bleedings): CT is indicated directly!!!
4. Smoking: annual screening with low-dose CT in adults aged 55-80 who have a 30-pack-year smoking
history. (2011)ש
5. Heavy smoker + Rt sided exudate pleural effusion + no fever→ Suspected malignancy (not pneumonia).
6. Clubbing may be associated with the patients liver disease “cirrhosis” but not with COPD.
7. The pleural effusion in lupus is EXUDATIVE, with an ↑ lactate dehydrogenase level.
8. Residual volume is elevated in conditions that result in premature airway closure with expiration or due to
inability to fully exhale due to muscle weakness or chest wall stiffness. Other disorders that lead to increased
residual volume include Emphysema, asthma, diaphragmatic weakness, and kyphoscoliosis. Idiopathic
pulmonary fibrosis usually causes a decrease in residual volume due to airway stiffness. Obesity should not
affect residual volume. (2010)ש
9. Severe kyphoscoliosis causes pulmonary symptoms in up to 3% of patients with this condition. The physical
abnormalities caused by the forward and lateral curvature of the spine result in abnormal pulmonary
mechanics. This is manifested primarily as restrictive lung disease” not obstructive” with chronic alveolar
hypoventilation. This in turn leads to ventilation-perfusion imbalances that result in hypoxic vasoconstriction
and may cause the eventual development of pulmonary hypertension. (2010)ש
10. right sided infective endocarditis on the tricuspid valve --> septic pulmonary emboli (especially in drug
abuser).
11. Patient had GI bleeding after clexane treatment of DVT → Stop clexane and use IVC filter.
IVC indications: high risk of bleeding or real bleeding from GI, GU, GYN, CNS…
12. A diminished-forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1)/forced vital capacity (FVC) (often defined as <70%
of the predicted value) is diagnostic of OBSTRUCTION... A TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY <80% of the predicted
value for a patient’s age, race, sex, and height defines RESTRICTIVE pathophysiology. (Harrison,19e,1662).
13. The DECISION TO WEAN: It is important to consider discontinuation of mechanical ventilation once the
underlying respiratory disease begins to reverse (ex: fever returns to normal temp) … the following
conditions indicate amenability to weaning: (1) Lung injury is STABLE or RESOLVING. (2) Gas exchange is
adequate, with LOW PEEP/Fio2 (<8 cmH2O) and Fio2(<0.5). (3) HEMODYNAMIC variables are STABLE,
and the patient is no longer receiving vasopressors). (4) The patient is CAPABLE OF INITIATING
SPONTANEOUS BREATHS (Harrison,19e,1743).
14. Diagnostic Criteria for ARDS: ABSENCE of Left Atrial Hypertension: PCWP ≤18(!!!) mmHg or NO clinical
evidence of increased left atrial pressure (Harrison,19e,1736)
15. Moderate persistent asthma: Daily symptoms, Nighttime symptoms 5or more/month
60< FEV1 <80% Tx_start with low dose ICS and LABA
16. Mild persistent asthma: SABA + low dose ICS
17. Antibiotics are not component of the treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation unless there is evidence of
pneumonia.
18. Decrease FEV1 evaluates disease severity of asthma.
19. asthma attack: PCO2 not elevated until severe, and there is lack of infiltration on chest X-rays.
20. Clinical picture of asthma, bronchiectasis (proximal) and eosinophilia --> Allergic bronchopulmonary
aspergillosis.
The mainstay of the treatment ABPA is a systemic glucocorticoid (oral) such as prednisolone.
21. COPD patient with raised PCO2 → Intubate and begin mechanical ventilation.
22. COPD can cause prolonged expiratory phase and diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
23. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) per se does not cause clubbing. So, if clubbing is present
in COPD, underlying lung cancer and bronchiectasis must be ruled out.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
24. Ventilation-perfusion mismatching accounts for essentially all of the reduction in Pao2 that occurs in COPD; shunting is minimal. This finding
explains the effectiveness of modest elevations of inspired oxygen in treating hypoxemia due to COPD and therefore the need to consider problems
other than COPD when hypoxemia is difficult to correct with modest levels of supplemental oxygen (Harrison,19e,1702).
Only three interventions—smoking cessation, OXYGEN THERAPY IN CHRONICALLY HYPOXEMIC
PATIENT, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients with emphysema—have been
demonstrated to INFLUENCE the natural history-aka change course- of patients with COPD.
All other current therapies are directed at improving symptoms and decreasing the frequency and severity
of exacerbations.
25. Reduce the number of acute COPD exacerbation: Inhaled corticosteroids.
26. low-grade fever and weight loss with decreased fremitus, flatness to percussion, and decreased breath
sounds all on the right → Malignancy that caused massive pleural effusion.
27. Massive pleural effusion--> tracheal deviation away from the lesion.
28. Given this patient’s longstanding history of tobacco use and having not seen a doctor for annual
examinations, it is likely that the pleural effusion ”on one side” is exudative as a result of an underlying
malignancy.
Other causes of exudative effusions include the following: infection, connective tissue diseases, neoplasm, pulmonary emboli,
uremia, pancreatitis, esophageal rupture—postsurgical, trauma, and drug induced.
Causes of transudative effusions include CHF, hypoalbuminemia, cirrhosis, myxedema, nephrotic syndrome, superior vena cava
syndrome, and peritoneal dialysis.
29. THE SECOND GENERATION (cefamandole, CEFUROXIME, cefaclor, cefprozil, cefuroxime axetil,
cefoxitin, cefotetan) has additional activity against H. INFLUENZAE and Moraxella catarrhalis. Cefoxitin and
cefotetan have potent activity against anaerobes as well. SECOND-GENERATION CEPHALOSPORINS
ARE USED TO TREAT COMMUNITY-ACQUIRED PNEUMONIA because of their activity against S.
PNEUMONIAE, H. INFLUENZAE, and M. catarrhalis. They are also used for other mild or moderate
infections, such as acute otitis media and sinusitis (Harrison,19e,941).
They don’t cover the atypical pneumonia organisms (ex: chlamydia pneumoniae).
#Typical pneumonia: S.pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza, aerobic (Klebsiella/Enterobacteriaceae),
S.aureus, Moraxella catarrhalis
#Atypical pneumonia: M.pneumonia, Chlamydia, Coxiella burnetiid (Q-fever), Legionella, Viruses(influenza..)
30. AN UPPER-LOBE CAVITATING LESION SUGGESTS TUBERCULOSIS(!!!).
#To be adequate for culture, a sputum sample must have >25(!) neutrophils and <10(!) squamous epithelial
cells per low-power field. The sensitivity and specificity of the sputum Gram’s stain and culture are highly
variable. Even in cases of proven bacteremic pneumococcal pneumonia, the yield of positive cultures from
sputum samples is ≤50%(!)... The yield from blood cultures(!), even when samples are collected before
antibiotic therapy, is disappointingly low(!)
# The two currently in use are C-reactive protein (CRP) and procalcitonin (PCT(!)). Levels of these acute-
phase reactants increase in the presence of an inflammatory response, particularly to bacterial(!) pathogens.
CRP may be of use in the identification of worsening disease or treatment failure, and PCT(!) may play a role
in determining the need for antibacterial(!) therapy(Harrison,19e,805).
31. Factors that increase the likelihood that tube thoracostomy will have to be performed for parapneumonic
effusion include loculated pleural fluid, pH below 7.20, pleural fluid glucose below 60 mg/ dL, positive Gram
stain or culture of pleural fluid, and presence of gross pus on aspiration.
32. Patients with structural lung disease, such as cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis, are at risk for a unique
group of organisms including P. aeruginosa and S. aureus. (2010)ש
Alcohol use predisposes patients to anaerobic infection, likely due to aspiration, as well as S. pneumoniae
(Klebsiella rarely seen).
Poor dental hygiene is associated with anaerobic infections.
33. In real sputum there will be at least 25 neutrophils and no more than 10 squamous cells, but even in such
cases the rate of positive sputum culture does not exceed 50%.
34. Risk Factors for Early Deterioration in CAP (poor prognosis): HYPONATREMIA, Hypoglycemia,
Thrombocytopenia, Severe acidosis (pH <7.30), Severe hypoxemia (arterial saturation<90%),
Hypoalbuminemia, And patients who are old or requiring hospitalization. Multilobar infiltrates, Mental
confusion or comorbidities as well.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
35. If Pseudomonas is a consideration: An antipseudomonal β-lactam (e.g., piperacillin/tazobactam
(Harriosn,19e,808).
36. community acceured pneumonia: Empiric treatment should be initiated without need to identify the
organism.
Since the etiology of CAP is rarely known at the outset of treatment, INITIAL THERAPY IS USUALLY EMPIRICAL|(!!!), designed to cover the most
likely pathogens. In all cases, ANTIBIOTIC TREATMENT SHOULD BE INITIATED AS EXPEDITIOUSLY AS POSSIBLE(!!!)... Once the etiologic
agent(s) and susceptibilities are known, therapy may be altered to target the specific pathogen(s) (Harrison,19e,807).
37. Pseudomembranous colitis after pneumonia treatment: Switch antibiotic to Vancomycin.
38. Alcoholic has pulmonary abscess in the right lower lobe with an air-fluid level. This is characteristic of an
anaerobic infection. These are usually associated with a period of loss of consciousness and with poor oral
hygiene. The location of the infiltrate(superior segment Rt lower lobe) suggests aspiration, also making
anaerobic infection most likely. The superior segment of the right lower lobe is the segment most likely
to develop aspiration pneumonia. Lung abscess indicates a necrotizing process, which is uncommon with
the “typical” bacterial pathogens pneumococci and H influenzae, and very rare in the usually patchy
“atypical” pneumonias caused by Legionella and Mycoplasma.
39. Clinical manifestations may initially be similar to those of pneumonia, with FEVERS, cough, SPUTUM
PRODUCTION, and chest pain; a more chronic and indolent presentation that includes night sweats, fatigue,
and anemia is often observed with anaerobic lung abscesses. A subset of patients with PUTRID lung
abscesses may report discolored phlegm and FOUL-TASTING OR FOUL-SMELLING SPUTUM. Patients
with lung abscesses due to non-anaerobic organisms, such as S. aureus, may present with a more fulminant
course characterized by high fevers and rapid progression. Findings on physical examination may include
FEVERS, poor dentition, and/or gingival disease as well as amphoric and/or cavernous breath sounds on
lung auscultation. Additional findings may include digital clubbing and the absence of a gag reflex
(Harrison,19e,814).
40. Furosemide is given IV and action begins even before it affects the kidneys. Dose: 40mg
41. However, the d-dimer assay is not specific. Levels increase in patients with myocardial infarction,
pneumonia, sepsis, cancer, and the postoperative state and those in the second or third trimester of
pregnancy. Therefore, d-dimer rarely has a useful role among hospitalized patients, because levels are
frequently elevated due to systemic illness.
42. Because acute bacterial sinusitis is uncommon in patients whose symptoms have lasted <10 days, expert
panels now recommend reserving this diagnosis for patients with “persistent” symptoms (i.e., symptoms
lasting >10 days in adults or >10–14 days in children) accompanied by the three cardinal signs of purulent
nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and facial pain “ (Harrison 20th) → less than 10 days: Symptomatic
treatment.
43. Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly P. carinii) is an opportunistic pulmonary infection that often affects
patients with AIDS. As many as 30% of patients with AIDS present with this initial infection. Symptoms
include a fever; dry, nonproductive cough; tachypnea; and hypoxia. Chest radiograph usually shows bilateral
perihilar infiltrates.
Treatment involves TMP-SMX. بجيك مريض هوموسيكشوال بقحقح بدك تشك في جيروفيسي مباشرة
44. . Chest x-ray revealed pronounced hilum and laboratory results were significant for mildly elevated liver
function test (sarcoidosis) → Many sarcoidosis patients do not require any treatment. Systemic steroid
therapy is unnecessary in this case. The patient with ASYMPTOMATIC(!!!) elevated(!) liver(!) function(!) tests or AN ABNORMAL
CHEST ROENTGENOGRAM(!!!) PROBABLY DOES NOT(!!!) BENEFIT FROM TREATMENT(!!!). However, these patients should be monitored for
evidence of progressive, symptomatic disease (Harrison,19e,2205).
45. Breast cancer patient with backpain spinal cord compression until proven otherwise high dose
injection dexamethasone + urgent full vertebral column MRI (steroid before imaging!!!)
46. POSTSTREPTOCOCCAL GLOMERULONEPHRITIS is prototypical for acute endocapillary proliferative
glomerulonephritis... It is more common in MALES... Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis due to impetigo
develops 2–6 weeks after skin infection and 1–3 WEEKS AFTER STREPTOCOCCAL PHARYNGITIS... The
CLASSIC PRESENTATION is an acute nephritic picture with HEMATURIA, pyuria, red blood cell casts,
EDEMA, HYPERTENSION, and oliguric renal failure, which may be severe enough to appear as RPGN.
Systemic symptoms of HEADACHE, malaise, anorexia, and flank pain (due to swelling of the renal capsule)
are reported in as many as 50% of cases... TREATMENT IS SUPPORTIVE(!!!), with control of hypertension,
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
edema, and dialysis as needed. ANTIBIOTIC TREATMENT FOR STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTION SHOULD
BE GIVEN(!!!) to all patients and their cohabitants (Harrison,19e,1837).
47. TB is usually localized to the apical and posterior segments of the UPPER LOBES, where the substantially
higher mean oxygen tension (compared with that in the lower zones) favors mycobacterial growth. The
superior segments of the lower lobes are also more frequently involved (Harrison,19e,1108).
48. Legionella urine antigen is detectable within 3 days of symptoms and will remain positive for 2 months. It
is not affected by antibiotic use. (2010)ש
49. Legionella pneumonia Rx: Azithromycin or Levofluxacin.
50. If the causative agent is strep pneumonia (pneumococcus)→ Blood cultures are positive in less than 30%
of the cases
51. PE and VTE: Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is safe and effective for the treatment of pulmonary
thromboembolism
52. For suspected thrombophilia in a person with family Hx who had DVT and is currently on 6 months of
warfarin → Thrombophilia-screening at least two weeks after therapy cesassion.
53. 3 weeks after recovery from pneumonia, the mycobacterial cultures groves 2 colonies of mycobacterium
avium complex. Which is the most appropriate next step in management? No further treatment (Because
there is no previous medical condition in the lungs to promote MAC disease).
54. normal PaO2 75-105, normal PCO2 33-45.
55. SCLC is a highly aggressive disease characterized by... DRAMATIC RESPONSE(!!!) TO FIRST-LINE
CHEMOTHERAPY(!!!) and radiation... If the histologic diagnosis of SCLC is made in patients on review of a
resected surgical specimen, such patients should receive standard SCLC CHEMOTHERAPY as well...
CHEMOTHERAPY SIGNIFICANTLY PROLONGS SURVIVAL IN PATIENTS WITH SCLC... DESPITE
response rates to first-line therapy as high as 80%, the MEDIAN SURVIVAL is about 1-1.5 years.
56. Small cell lung carcinoma: the most recent American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based
Clinical Practice Guidelines recommend surgical resection over nonsurgical treatment in SCLC patients with
clinical stage I disease after a thorough evaluation for distant metastases. After resection, these patients
should receive platinum-based adjuvant chemotherapy. Prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) should be
considered in all patients.
57. Everyone with a reactive PPD or Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) test should have a chest x-
ray to exclude active disease (master the boards).
58. What is the induration diameter that will justify prophylactic treatment for latent tuberculosis? At least 5 mm.
59. MASSIVE PE accounts for 5–10% of cases, and is characterized by extensive thrombosis affecting at least
half of the pulmonary vasculature. DYSPNEA, SYNCOPE, HYPOTENSION(systolic), and CYANOSIS are
HALLMARKS of MASSIVE PE. Patients with MASSIVE PE may present in CARDIOENIC SHOCK and can
die from multisystem organ failure.
The ONLY(!!!) Food and Drug Administration–approved indication for PE fibrinolysis is MASSIVE(!!!) PE. For
patients with submassive(!) PE, who have preserved systolic blood pressure but moderate or severe
RV dysfunction, use of fibrinolysis remains controversial(!)(Harrison,19e,1636).
PULMONARY EMBOLI (PE) SHOULD BE TREATED with FIBRINOLYTIC AGENTS if MASSIVE and in
some cases if SUBMASSIVE (Harrison,19e,296e-5).
1. HEADACHE: Raised CSF pressure is well recognized as a cause of HEADACHE. Brain imaging can often
reveal the cause, such as a space-occupying lesion. New daily persistent headache (NDPH) due to raised
CSF pressure can be the presenting symptom for patients with IDIOPHATIC INTRACRANIAL
HYPERTENSION (PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI) without visual problems, particularly when the fundi are
normal. Persistently raised intracranial pressure can trigger CHRONIC MIGRAINE. These patients typically
present with a history of generalized HEADACHE that is present on waking and improves as the day goes
on. It is generally worse with recumbency. Visual obscurations are frequent. The diagnosis is relatively
straightforward when papilledema is present, but the possibility must be considered even in patients
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
without funduscopic changes. Formal visual field testing should be performed even in the absence of overt
ophthalmic involvement (Harrison,19e,110).
An elevated pressure, with normal cerebrospinal fluid, points by exclusion to the diagnosis of
PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI (IDIOPHATIC INTRACRANIAL HYPERTENSION). The MAJORITY OF
PATIENTS are YOUNG, FEMALE, AND OBESE. Treatment with a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor such as
acetazolamide lowers
Intracranial pressure by reducing the production of cerebrospinal fluid. Weight reduction is vital: bariatric
surgery should be considered in patients who cannot lose weight by diet control (Harrison,19e,203).
Excessive vitamin ingestion can lead to disease; examples include VITAMIN A and PSEUDOTUMOR
CEREBRI (Harrison,19e,2536).
2. After stroke you start a preventive management with ASA and CLOPIDOGREL. BUT(!!) if the patient suffers
from ATRIAL FIBRILLATION, in this case you give ANTICOAGULATION. (First Aid, step 2ck 2018, p. 261)
3. DEMENTIAS associated with PARKINSON'S DISEASE (PD) are common and may develop years after
onset of a parkinsonian disorder, as seen with PD-related dementia (PDD), or can occur concurrently with
or preceding the motor syndrome, as in DEMENTIA WITH LEWY BODIES (DLB) (Harrison,19e,171).
The diagnosis of DLB is suggested by early visual hallucinations; PARKINSONISM (Harrison,19e,172).
In DLB, the initial symptoms may include the new onset of a PARKINSONIAN SYNDROME (resting tremor,
COGWHEEL RIGIDITY, bradykinesia, festinating gait), but DLB often starts with visual hallucinations or
dementia(Harrison,19e).
COGWHEEL RIGIDITY, in which passive motion elicits jerky interruptions in resistance, is seen in
PARKINSONISM (Harrison,19e,2538).
Pathologically, the hallmark features of PD are degeneration of DOPAMINERGIC neurons in the
SUBSTANTIA NIGRA pars compacta (SNc), reduced striatal dopamine, and intracytoplasmic
proteinaceous inclusions known as LEWY BODIES that primarily contain the protein alpha synuclein
(Harrison,19e,2609).
4. The ROMBERG SIGN is positive, which means that the patient sways markedly or topples when asked to
stand with feet close together and eyes closed. In severe states of deafferentation involving deep sensation,
the patient cannot walk or stand unaided or even sit unsupported. Continuous involuntary movements
(pseudoathetosis) of the outstretched hands and fingers occur, particularly with eyes closed
(Harrison,19e,158).
5. Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome: foot drop. autosomal dominant, affecting the peripheral nervous system.
Manifestations include weakness and atrophy of the peroneal and distal leg muscles. The condition affects
motor and sensory nerves. Other features include impaired sensation and absent or hypoactive deep
tendon reflexes.
6. Gullian Barre syndrome: #Campylobacter enteritis is the most common disease associated with GBS
#Cytomegalovirus is the most common virus associated with GBS
Ascending paralysis: Bilateral flaccid paralysis spreads from the lower to the upper limbs in a
“stocking‑glove” distribution. Reduced or absent muscle reflexes. The presenting complaint is usually
weakness associated with the proximal muscles in a symmetric distribution.
Laboratory findings include elevated protein levels in CSF samples, altered EMG findings, and evidence of demyelination on nerve biopsies.
Mortality is approximately 10%. Up to 20% of patients may be left with persisting deficits. Approximately 3% may develop relapses, sometimes years
later.
7. MS: Charcot’s neurological triad → Dysarthria (+eating/swallowing/speech articulation) + nystagmus(+optic
neuritis/loss of vision/double vision) + Intention tremor(+muscle weakness\paralysis\ataxia).
Also sensory: paresthesia, numbness, burning sensation
Lhermitte’s sign: electrical shock
Autonomic nerves: bladder (incontinence), intestine (constipation), sexual dysfunction
Depression\anxiety\poor concentration
#Suspected when time(over several flare ups) and space (spread over CNS): It is characterized by remissions and
exacerbations that are separated in time and involve different areas of the CNS. A second form identified is progressive.
Dx: MRI (white matter plaques), cerebral spinal fluid shows oligoclonal bands of immunoglobulin G
(IgG) “autoimmune process”, visual evoked potential
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
8. Acute Ischemic STROKE :After the clinical diagnosis of STROKE is made, an orderly process of evaluation
and treatment should follow... Perform an emergency noncontrast HEAD CT scan TO DIFFERENTIATE
BETWEEN ISCHEMIC STROKE AND HEMORRHAGIC STROKE; there are no reliable clinical findings that
conclusively separate ischemia from hemorrhage, although a more depressed level of consciousness,
higher initial blood pressure, or worsening of symptoms after onset favor hemorrhage, and a deficit that is
maximal at onset, or remits, suggests ischemia (Harrison,19e,2561).
9. Symptoms such as DOUBLE VISION, numbness, and limb ATAXIA suggest a brainstem or CEREBELLAR
LESION (Harrison,19e,149).
10. The patient presents with a clinical history that is consistent with a SAH(headache that started 2 days ago. He states the
headache began suddenly with peak intensity while he was defecating. The pain is continuous particularly in the occipital region and is associated
with mild nuchal rigidity and mild photophobia. He denies having a recent fever. A noncontrast head CT is obtained and is normal.).
Brain CT
without contrast is the procedure of choice for diagnosing SAH and should be done in any individual with a
new onset of a severe or persistent headache. It has a sensitivity of 95% for detecting SAH. If the CT is
negative, an LP should be performed because some patients with SAH have a normal CT scan. A yellow
supernatant liquid (xanthochromia), obtained by centrifuging a bloody CSF sample, can help distinguish
SAH from a traumatic tap. If the diagnosis is still in question, an angiography may be required. Treatment of
meningitis with IV antibiotics should not be delayed if the diagnosis is suspected. However, the patient’s
clinical history is inconsistent with this diagnosis (he is afebrile and without constitutional symptoms).
11. SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)... In ~45% of cases, SEVERE HEADACHE associated with
exertion is the presenting complaint. THE PATIENT OFTEN CALLS THE HEADACHE “THE WORST
HEADACHE OF MY LIFE”; however, the most important characteristic is sudden onset. Thunderclap
headache is a variant of migraine that simulates an SAH. Before concluding that a patient with sudden,
SEVERE HEADACHE has thunderclap migraine, a DEFINITIVE WORKUP(!!!) for aneurysm or other
intracranial pathology IS REQUIRED(!!!) (Harrison,19e,1784).
12. Sudden onset of a severe headache, especially the “worst headache of my life,” should elicit concern about
subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Diagnostic steps include an emergent CT scan of the head. Because the
CT scan will identify only 90% of all SAH, a negative scan should be followed up by a lumbar puncture to
avoid missing 1 out of every 10 subarachnoid hemorrhages.
13. TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or
chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the ophthalmic division of the fifth nerve... DRUG THERAPY
WITH CARBAMAZEPINE(!!!) IS EFFECTIVE IN ~50–75% OF PATIENTS (Harrison,19e,2646).
14. Spinal abscesses are most commonly found in immunocompromised patients, IV drug users, and the
elderly. Signs and symptoms of epidural abscess usually develop over a week or two and include fever,
localized pain, and progressive weakness. An elevated WBC count is also commonly seen. MRI is the most
useful diagnostic test. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism.
15. MYASTHENIA GRAVIS (MG):
About 30% of patients with THYMOMA have MYASTHENIA GRAVIS... Among patients with MYASTHENIA
GRAVIS, ~10–15% have a THYMOMA (Harrison,19e,123e-1).
History:
Diplopia, ptosis, dysarthria, dysphagia, dyspnea
Weakness in characteristic distribution: proximal limbs, neck extensors, generalized
Fluctuation and fatigue: worse with repeated activity, improved by rest
Physical examination:
Ptosis, diplopia, Motor power survey, FORWARD ARM ABDUCTION TIME (5 min), Vital capacity
measurement, Absence of other neurologic signs (Harrison,19e,2702)
1. Non-ST-segment elevation acute coronary syndrome (NSTE-ACS): include patients with non-ST-segment
elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), who, by definition, have evidence of myocyte necrosis, and those
with UNSTABLE ANGINA (UA), WHO DO NOT... Medical therapy involves simultaneous anti-ischemic and
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
antithrombotic treatments and consideration of coronary revascularization... intravenous NITROGLYCERIN
(5–10 μg/min using nonabsorbing tubing) is recommended... BETA BLOCKERS are the other mainstay of
anti-ischemic treatmen... INITIAL TREATMENT should begin with the platelet cyclooxygenase inhibitor
ASPIRIN... benefit of intravenous GLYCOPROTEIN IIb/ IIIa INHIBITORS... unfractionated HEPARIN (UFH),
long the mainstay of therapy (Harrison,19e,1593).
Unstable angina is defined as angina or ischemic discomfort with at least one of three factors: pain at rest lasting >10 min, severe recent pain (within
4–6 weeks), or crescendo angina. NSTEMI is diagnosed when a patient with unstable angina has positive cardiac biomarkers.
2. Patient with bilateral edema and pain at exercise → Cath directly and not exercise stress test.
3. Exercise-induced falls in blood pressure or the development of an exercise-induced S3 heart sound are
strongly suggestive of ischemic left ventricular dysfunction. Specific exercise-induced ECG changes include
changes ≥ 1 mm horizontal or downward-sloping ST segment depression or elevation during or after exercise.
Exercise-induced changes in lead V5 are most reliable for the diagnosis of IHD.
The ISCHEMIC ST-SEGMENT RESPONSE generally is defined as flat or downsloping DEPRESSION OF THE ST SEGMENT >0.1 mV BELOW
BASELINE. The development of angina and/or SEVERE (>0.2 mV) ST-SEGMENT DEPRESSION AT A LOW WORKLOAD, i.e., before completion of
stage II of the Bruce protocol, and/or ST-segment depression that persists >5 min after the termination of exercise INCREASES the SPECIFITY of the
test and SUGGESTS SEVERE IHD and a HIGH RISK of future adverse events (Harrison,19e,1582).
4. Best treatment for AS → Aortic valve replacement surgery (not Aortic balloon valvuplasty).
OPERATION IS INDICATED(!!!) in patients with SEVERE AS (VALVE AREA <1 cm2 or 0.6 cm2/m2 body
surface area) WHO ARE SYMPTOMATIC, those who exhibit LV systolic dysfunction (EF <50%), and those
with Bicuspid aortic valve(BAV disease) and an aneurysmal root or ascending aorta (maximal dimension >5.5
cm (Harrison,19e,1532).
In asymptomatic children or adolescents or young adults with critical aortic stenosis without valvular calcification or these features, aortic
balloon valvuloplasty is often useful. If SURGERY is contraindicated in older patients because of a complicating medical problem such as malignancy
or renal or hepatic failure, balloon valvuloplasty may provide short-term improvement...
5. NEW-ONSET AFib(!!!) that produces severe hypotension, PULMONARY EDEMA [CRACKLES(NCBI)], or
ANGINA should be ELECTRICALLY CARDIOVERTED starting with a QRS SYNCHRONOUS(!!!) SHOCK of
200 J, ideally after sedation or anesthesia is achieved (Harrison,19e,1487).
6. pain and numbness of the right foot. She has chronic atrial fibrillation → Doppler of the arteries in order to
rule out an arterial clot originating in the heart.
7. For patients with CHF, progressive heart failure accounts for the majority of deaths. !!! على مدة زمنية وليس فجأة
Sudden cardiac death caused by ventricular tachycardia, fibrillation, bradycardia, or electromechanical
dissociation occurs in 20% to 40% of patients with CHF.
Syncope, a persistent third heart sound, signs of chronic right-sided heart failure, extensive conduction
system disease, and ventricular tachyarrhythmias portend a poor prognosis.
Annual mortality is 10% to 20% for patients with mild to moderate symptoms (NYHA class II or III symptoms);
it often exceeds 40% for patients with advanced class IV symptoms.
Overall, female sex is associated with a better prognosis than male sex in CHF.
8. Case of Old age+CHF+Afib → b-blocker.
9. Although any valvular vegetation can embolize, vegetations located on the mitral valve and vegetations
larger than 10 mm are greatest risk of embolizing.
10. Harrison: prophylaxis for endocarditis for high risk lesions: Amoxicillin (2 g PO 1 h before procedure). If
allergic to penicillin, then Clarithromycin or Azithromycin (500 mg PO 1 h before procedure).
Prophylaxis recommended when there is gingival manipulation or perforation of the oral mucosa (including
surgery on the respiratory tract). Prophylaxis is not advised for patients undergoing gastrointestinal or
genitourinary tract procedures.
High risk lesions: 1. Prosthetic heart valves 2. Prior endocarditis 3. Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart
disease, including palliative shunts or conduits 4. Completely repaired congenital heart defects during the 6
months after repair
5. Incompletely repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects adjacent to prosthetic material
11. Remember that MVP is not a high risk lesion for endocarditis, but still it is a moderate risk. However, no
antibiotic prophylaxis is needed.
12. CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR NONINVASIVE VENTILATION: (2016)ש
Cardiac or respiratory arrest(!) Severe encephalopathy
Severe gastrointestinal bleed HEMODYNAMIC INSTABILITY (Ex: low BP) (!!!)
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
Unstable angina and MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION(!!!) Facial surgery or trauma
Upper airway obstruction High-risk aspiration and/or inability to protect airways
Inability to clear secretions (Harrison,19e,1741)
13. Percutaneous aortic valve replacement (TAVR) “cardiac catheterization” has been shown to be an effective
treatment for HIGH-RISK and inoperable patients with aortic stenosis. This is in comparison to survival after
surgical valve replacement. (2016)ש
14. The NCEP:ATPIII(!!!) HAS FOCUSED ON NON-HDL(!!!) CHOLESTEROL rather than on triglycerides
(Harrison,19e,2453). This is for directing the management. (2011)ש
15. Ninety-five percent of patients with a diagnosis of hypertension have primary or essential hypertension.
Evaluation for secondary causes is generally reserved for those refractory to medical therapy or those
presenting with hypertensive crisis.
Testing is recommended to detect the secondary effects of hypertension, evaluate other cardiovascular risk
factors, and help in choosing medical therapy. Recommended testing includes an ECG, chest x-ray, CBC,
glucose, cholesterol, electrolytes, creatinine, calcium, uric acid, and urinalysis. (2011)ש
16. Case of patient with very high BP of 220/125 mm Hg, but NO end organ damage → Administer atenolol, 50
mg, and follow up in 24 hours (No need for ICU admission!!!)
Malignant HTN “(e.g. >200/130 mmHg)” management: Atenolol
17. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP): The condition is common and associated with myxomatous transformation
of the valve leaflet.
18. STEMI old man: Thrombolytic therapy and aspirin.
Many elderly patients, of course, will have contraindications to thrombolytics, particularly gastrointestinal bleeding, recent stroke, head injury, or
surgery.
19. ATRIAL FIBRILLATION(!!!)... DIGOXIN may be added, particularly in HEART FAILURE patients, because
it does not have negative inotropic effects (Harrison,19e,1487).
Digoxin treatment does not improve survival of patients with acute heart failure, however it is a therapeutic
option in patient with atrial fibrillation(2016)ש
20. The natural progression of ECG changes seen with MI include peaked hyperacute T-waves to ST-segment
elevation, to Q-wave development, and to T-wave inversion.
21. Case of ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with occasional premature ventricular contractions and ST
segment elevations of 0.2 mV in leads II, III, and aVF → We give classic treatment for MI, including
streptokinase if needed, but without anti-arrhythmic drug like Lidocaine!!!
22. Pericarditis: there is a relative contraindication for anticoagulation as it increase the risk for cardiac
tamponade.
23. We give NSAIDs. If unresponsive, give colchicine. Colchicine (0.5 mg bid, given for 4–8 weeks) has been
found to be effective, not only in acute pericarditis, but also in reducing the risk of recurrent pericarditis.
24. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia + Hypotension → synchronized defibrillation !!!
Sustained Monomorphic VT... If HYPOTENSION, impaired consciousness, or pulmonary edema is present,
QRS SYNCHRONOUS(!!!) ELECTRICAL CARDIOVERSION should be performed, ideally after sedation if the
patient is conscious. For stable(!) tachycardia, a trial of adenosine(!) is reasonable (Harrison,19e,1494).
An unsynchronized(!) discharge of 200–300 J (monophasic waveform; approximately 50% of these energies
with biphasic waveforms) is used immediately in patients with ventricular fibrillation(!) or when ventricular
tachycardia(!) causes hemodynamic deterioration(!) (Harrison,19e,1608).
Pulseless(!) electrical activity and asystole(!) are not(!) amenable to cardioversion, but [unsynchronized]
cardioversion(!) is indicated(!) in ventricular fibrillation(!) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia(!)... If the QRS
complex is narrow, and the PATIENT IS HEMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE from tachycardia,
SYNCHRONIZED(!!!) CARDIOVERSION is warranted (Sabiston,20e,553).
#Ventricular tachycardia & SVT when patient is not stable: Synchronous cardioversion!!!!
25. Hypertriglyceridemia, which is enhanced by poorly controlled diabetes, estrogen, and alcohol,
predisposes to pancreatitis.
26. Unstable angina\NSTEMI: admit patient and start heparin (LMWH is superior to UFH).
27. Compared with fibrinolysis, PRIMARY PCI(!!!) is generally PREFERRED when the diagnosis is in doubt,
cardiogenic shock is present, bleeding risk is increased, or SYMPTOMS HAVE BEEN PRESENT FOR AT
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
LEAST 2–3 h(!!!) when the clot is more mature and less easily lysed by fibrinolytic drugs... If no
contraindications are present, FIBRINOLYTIC(!) therapy should ideally be initiated WITHIN 30 MIN(!) of
presentation (i.e.,door to needle time ≤30 min) (Harrison,19e,1599).
28. Based on Harrison 20 picture:
–You have 30 min to give fibrinolytic agent
-90 min to do cath
-120 min to move to PCI capable facility, else you do fibrinolysis.
-DIDO (door-in-door-out) time is 30 min.
The diagnosis of NSTE-ACS is based largely on the clinical presentation. Typically, chest discomfort is severe
and has at least one of three features: (1) it occurs at REST (or with minimal exertion), lasting >10 minutes...
DIAGNOSTIC EVALUATION... In addition to the clinical examination, three major noninvasive tools are used in
the evaluation of NSTEMI-ACS: the electrocardiogram (ECG), cardiac biomarkers, and STRESS TESTING.
CCTA IS ADDITIONAL EMERGING OPTION. The goals are to: (1) recognize or exclude myocardial infarction
(MI) using cardiac biomarkers, preferably cTn; (2) detect rest ischemia (using serial or continuous ECGs); and
(3) detect significant coronary obstruction at rest with CCTA and myocardial ischemia using STRESS
TESTING “i.e. Nuclear perfusion imaging stress test “(Harrison,19e,1594).
29. NITRATES(!!!): These should first be given sublingually or by buccal spray (0.3–0.6 mg) if the patient is
experiencing ischemic pain... The ONLY ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS(!!!) TO THE USE OF
NITRATES(!!!) ARE HYPOTENSION(!!!) or the use of sildenafil or other phosphodiesterase- 5 inhibitors within
the previous 24–48 h (Harrison,19e,1595).
30. Unstable ischemic heart disease is classified as UNSTABLE ANGINA when there is NO DETECTABLE
myocardial injury and as non–ST elevation MI (NSTEMI) when there is evidence of myocardial necrosis
(Harrison,19e,96).
ISCHEMIA also causes characteristic changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) such as repolarization
abnormalities, as evidenced by INVERSION OF T WAVES (Harrison,19e,1580).
Serum cardiac biomarkers are obtained to distinguish UNSTABLE ANGINA (UA) from non-ST-segment
elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) (Harrison,19e,1599).
T-WAVE CHANGES that accompany episodes of ANGINA PECTORIS and disappear thereafter
(Harrison,19e,1582).
31. The Valsalva maneuver results in an increase in intrathoracic pressure, followed by a decrease in venous
return, ventricular filling, and cardiac output. The majority of murmurs decrease in intensity during the strain
phase of the maneuver. Two notable exceptions are the murmurs associated with MVP and obstructive
HOCM, both of which become louder during the Valsalva maneuver (Harrison,19e,51e-7).
32. SYNCOPE AND SUDDEN DEATH in patients with LONG QT SYNDROME(!!!) result from a unique
POLYMORPHIC VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA called torsades des pointes that degenerates into
ventricular fibrillation (Harrison,19e,147).
33. CHOLESTEROL EMBOLI(!!!): AGING patients with clinical complications from atherosclerosis sometimes
shower CHOLESTEROL crystals into the circulation... Depending on the location of the atherosclerotic
plaques releasing these cholesterol fragments, one may see cerebral transient ischemic attacks; livedo
reticularis in the lower extremities; Hollenhorst plaques in the retina with visual field cuts; NECROSIS OF THE
TOES; and ACUTE GLOMERULAR CAPILLARY INJURY LEADING TO FOCAL SEGMENTAL
GLOMERULOSCLEROSIS sometimes associated with hematuria, mild proteinuria, and loss of renal function,
which typically progresses over a few years. Occasional patients have fever, eosinophilia, or eosinophiluria. A
skin biopsy of an involved area may be diagnostic... THERE IS NO THERAPY TO REVERSE EMBOLIC
OCCLUSIONS, AND STEROIDS SO NOT HELP. Controlling blood pressure and lipids and cessation of
smoking are usually recommended for prevention (Harrison,19e,1848).
34. Afib+thyrotoxicosis → Propranolol
35. AF is occasionally ASSOCIATED WITH AN ACUTE PRECIPITATING FACTOR AS hyperthyroidism,
ACUTE ALCOHOL INTOXICATION, or an acute illness (Harrison,19e,1485).
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
36. New-onset AF that produces SEVERE HYPOTENSION, pulmonary edema, or angina should be
ELECTRICALLY CARDIOVERTED starting with a QRS SYNCHRONOUS(!!!) SHOCK of 200 J, ideally after
sedation or anesthesia is achieved (Harrison,19e,1487).
37. The most common current reason for THYROID ABNORMALITIES in the cardiac population is the
treatment of tachyarrhythmias with AMIODARONE(!!!), a drug with substantial iodine content
(Harrison,19e,1563).
38. AMIODARONE S.E(!!!)---Tremor, peripheral neuropathy, pulmonary fibrosis or inflammation, HYPO- AND
HYPERTHYROIDISM, hepatitis, photosensitivity.
39. ANTICOAGULATION IS WARRANTED prior to conversion for episodes more than 48 h in duration and
chronically for patients at increased risk of thromboembolic stroke based on the CHA2DS2-VASc SCORING
SYSTEM (Harrison,19e,1485).
Anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist (warfarin) or the newer oral anticoagulants is warranted for
patients who have had more than 48 h of AF and are undergoing cardioversion, for patients who have a prior
history of stroke, or FOR PATIENTS WITH A CHA2DS2-VASc SCORE OF ≥2(!!!)... THE ANTIPLATELET
GENTS ASPIRIN AND CLOPIDOGREL ARE INFERIOR TO WARFARIN(!!!) FOR STROKE PREVENTION IN
AF and do not reduce the risk of bleeding (Harrison,19e,1488).
40. In randomized trials, administration of antiarrhythmic medications TO MAINTAIN SINUS RHYTHM DID
NOT IMPROVE SURVIVAL(!!!) or symptoms compared to a rate control strategy, and the drug therapy group
had more hospitalizations (Harrison,19e,1488).
41. Initial management of atrial flutter is similar to that for ATRIAL FIBRILLATION... ELECTRICAL
CARDIOVERSION(!!!) is warranted for HEMODYNAMIC INSTABILITY [HYPOTENSION(!!!)] OR SEVERE
SYMPTOMS (Harrison,19e,1485).
42. Carotid sinus massage can distinguish atrial flutter from sinus tachycardia.
43. If asymptomatic need no treatment
Mobitz 1 if symptomatic —> pacemaker
Mobitz 2 symptomatic—-> pacemaker
Mibitz 2 asymptomatic BUT QRS wide —-> pacemaker
44. When syncope occurs in an older patient as a result of head turning, wearing a tight shirt collar, or shaving
over the neck area, carotid sinus hypersensitivity should be considered. It usually occurs in men above the
age of 50 → Dx by Carotid massage with ECG monitoring.
45. B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted by the heart's ventricles and is sensitive to changes in left
ventricular function. Elevated levels are associated with elevated levels of enddiastolic pressure. BNP can be
helpful in determining whether shortness of breath is due to cardiac versus a pulmonary etiology. A value 400
pg/dL represents a >95% chance of congestive heart failure. ب عالي معناها فشل قلب-ن-ب
46. B blocker is indicated in CHF with low EF, but CI in NYHA class 4.
47. If possible, surgery should be delayed 7 days after stopping the patients clopidogrel.
48. Dressler $ occurs up to 6 weeks after cardiac procedure → Rx: NSAIDs
49. best treatment for hypotension and bradycardia caused by acute beta-blocker toxicity: Glucagon.
50. Clopidogrel: Irreversibly blocks P2Y12 to prevent adenosine diphosphate (ADP)–induced platelet
aggregation.
51. LMWH does not require laboratory monitoring.
52. Case 45 year-old male with an idiopatic DVT → a comprehensive evaluation necessary.
53. The most common cause of inherited thrombophilia associated with DVT is activated protein C resistance
(factor V Leiden).
54. Case of DVT 68yrs old → Careful history, physical examination, routine blood counts and chemistries,
chest x-ray (CXR), fecal occult blood testing (FOBT), and prostate-specific antigen (PSA); if these are not
revealing, no further evaluation is necessary.
55. Each small square is 0.04 seconds and each large square has 5 small square (0.2 seconds).
56. Indication for Surgical Intervention in Patients with ENDOCARDITIS: EMERGENT (SAME DAY):
-Acute aortic regurgitation plus preclosure of mitral valve
-SINUS OF VALSALVA ABSCESS RUPTURED INTO RIGHT HEART(!!!)
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
-Rupture into pericardial sac (Harrison,19e,825)
57. TRANSESOPHAGEAL ECHOCARDIOFGRAPHY(!!!) has become the test of choice for assessment of
small lesions in the heart such as VALVULAR VEGETATIONS, especially in the setting of a PROSTHETIC
VALVE DISEASE (Harrison,19e,270e-2).
58. 4-6 weeks antibiotics for IV drug abuser endocarditis.
59. Clinical settings in which ACUTE,SEVERE MR occur include (1) papillary muscle rupture complicating
acute myocardial infarction (MI), (2) rupture of chordae tendineae in the setting of myxomatous mitral valve
disease (MVP), (3) INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS, and (4) blunt chest wall trauma... ACUTE,SEVERE MR as
a consequence of INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS results from destruction of leaflet tissue, chordal rupture, or
both. (Harrison,19e,51e-2).
60. Infective Endocarditis: Elevated C-reactive protein level >90% of patients (Harrison,19e,817).
61. Macroalbuminuria is considered a cardiovascular risk factor in diabetes mellitus patient.
62. The symptoms of septic cavernous sinus thrombosis are fever, headache, frontal and retroorbital pain,
and DIPLOPIA. The classic signs are ptosis, proptosis, chemosis, and EXTRAOCULAR DYSMOTILITY due
to deficits of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI; hyperesthesia of the ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the fifth
cranial nerve and a decreased corneal reflex may be detected. There may be evidence of dilated, tortuous
retinal veins and papilledema (Harrison,19e,906).
63. Migraine +uncomplicated HTN → GIVE Beta blocker. (ש2010).
64. Very high HTN + ischemic stroke → IV labetalol to lower the bp to below 185\110 MMHQ and then
thrombolytic therapy.
65. Cyclosporine A: used for prevention of transplant of kidney, causes paradoxically renal function injury and
exacerbation of arterial hypertension.
Calcineurin inhibitors (CYCLOSPORINE and tacrolimus) have an afferent arteriolar constrictor effect on the
kidney and MAY PRODUCE PERMANENT VASCULAR AND INTERSTITIAL INJURY(!!!) AFTER
SUSTAINED HIGH-DOSE THERAPY.This action will lead to a DETERIORATION IN RENAL FUNCTION(!!!)
difficult to distinguish from rejection without a renal biopsy (Harrison,19e,1829).
66. Renovascular hypertension: stenosing lesions of the renal circulation cause hypertension through
ischemia-mediated activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
67. Hypotension after meal: Diagnosis is confirmed by monitoring blood pressure after eating.
68. Dizziness rise about half an hour after breakfast and is accompanied by palpitations+Falls→Orthostatic
hypotension.
69. Implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD):
ALGORITHM FOR CARDIOVERTER/DEFIBRILLATOR IMPLANTATION:
ICD Implantation After STEMI At Least 40 Days After STEMI;
Assess LVEF and NYHA Functional Status
LVEF < 30-40%, NHYA Class II-III
LVEF < 30-35%, NHYA Class I (Harrison,19e,1609)
70. Patient’s presentation is consistent with acute mitral valve regurgitation because of a ruptured papillary
muscle in the setting of an AMI. Patients usually present with pulmonary edema in the setting of an AMI.
Chest x-ray characteristically reveals pulmonary edema with a normal heart size. The characteristic murmur
of mitral regurgitation is a holosystolic murmur that is loudest at the apex.
71. Order of ECG changes seen in an MI: Hyperacute T wave, ST-segment elevation, Q wave.
72. Pure or predominant MS occurs in approximately 40% of all patients with rheumatic heart disease and a
history of rheumatic fever (Chap. 381). In other patients with rheumatic heart disease, lesser degrees of MS
may accompany mitral regurgitation (MR) and aortic valve disease (Harrison,19e,1539).الثنتين معا
Many acquired and congenital cardiac lesions may result in stenosis and/or regurgitation of one or more heart valves. For example, rheumatic heart
disease can involve the mitral (mitral stenosis [MS], mitral regurgitation [MR], or MS and MR), aortic (aortic stenosis [AS], aortic regurgitation [AR], or
AS and AR), and/or tricuspid (tricuspid stenosis [TS], tricuspid regurgitation [TR], or TS and TR) valve, alone or in combination (Harrison,19e,1550).
73. MITRAL STENOSIS... The FIRST HEART SOUND (S1) IS USUALLY ACCENTUATED in the early stages
of the disease and slightly delayed... The OS is followed by a low-pitched, rumbling, DIASTOLIC MURMUR,
HEARD BEST AT THE APEX... Unless there is a contraindication, MITRAL VALVOTOMY [PRECAUTIOUS
VALVE DILATATION(!!!) is indicated in SYMPTOMATIC (New York Heart Association [NYHA] Functional
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
Class II–IV) patients with isolated SEVERE MS, whose effective orifice (valve area) is < ~1 cm2/m2 body
surface area, or <1.5 cm2 in normal-sized adults. MITRAL VALVOTOMY can be carried out by two
techniques: PMBV and surgical VALVOTOMY... Successful VALVOTOMY is defined by a 50% reduction in
the mean mitral valve gradient and a doubling of the mitral valve area. Successful VALVOTOMY, whether
balloon or surgical, usually results in striking symptomatic and hemodynamic IMPROVEMENT and
PROLONGS SURVIVAL...
MITRAL VALVE REPLACEMENT(!!!) (MVR) is necessary in patients with MS and significant associated MR,
those in whom the valve has been severely distorted by previous transcatheter or operative manipulation, or
those in whom the surgeon does not find it possible to improve valve function significantly with VALVOTOMY
(Harrison,19e,1542).
74. ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY is indicated for the evaluation of patients with EARLY, LATE, OR
HOLOSYSTOLIC MURMURS and patients with GRADE 3 OR LOUDER MID-SYSTOLIC MURMURS.
Patients with grade 1 or 2 MID-SYSTOLIC MURMURS BUT OTHER SYMPTOMS OR SIGNS OF
CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE, including those from ECG or chest x-ray, SHOULD ALSO undergo
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY. ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY(!!!) is also indicated for the evaluation of ANY(!!!)
PATIENT WITH A DIASTOLIC(!!!) MURMUR and for patients with CONTINUOUS MURMURS NOT DUE TO
VENOUS HUM OR MAMMARY SOUFFLE (Harrison,19e,51e-8).
75. PCI is performed with adrug eluting stent. How long should this patient be treated with clopidogrel? At least
one year.
76. Troponin I: begins to rise within 3 to 6 hours of chest pain onset, peaks at 12 to 24 hours, and returns to
baseline in 7 to 10 days.
77. LVEF < 30-40%, NHYA Class II-III : (Harrison,19e,1609)
78. Orthostatic hypotension, defined as a reduction in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmhg or diastolic
blood pressure of at least 10 mmhg within 3 min of standing orhead-up tilt on a tilt table, is a manifestation of
sympathetic vasoconstrictor (autonomic) failure. (Harrison,19e,145).
79. Scleroderma renal crisis is the most severe manifestation of renal involvement, and is characterized by
accelerated hypertension, a rapid decline in renal function, nephrotic proteinuria, and hematuria. Retinopathy
and encephalopathy may accompany the hypertension. Salt and water retention with microvascular injury can
lead to pulmonary edema. Cardiac manifestations, including myocarditis, pericarditis, and arrhythmias, denote
an especially poor prognosis. Although MAHA is present in more half of patients, coagulopathy is rare
(Harrison,19e,1864).
80. Prevention of sudden cardiac death in patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy? Implantable cardioverter
defibrillator (ICD).
81. Shingles: Rash can be contagious on contact.
82. Case nurse latex allergy: The patient should evaluate for latex allergy with skin test or specific IgE
antibody.
83. Dermatomyositis is associated with Underlying malignancy.
84. Treatment of choice for pyoderma gangrenosum: Steroid therapy.
85. Early and aggressive SURGICAL EXPLORATION is essential in cases of suspected NECROTIZING
FASCIITIS, myositis, or gangrene in order to (1) visualize the deep structures, (2) remove necrotic tissue, (3)
reduce compartment pressure, and (4) obtain suitable material for Gram’s staining and for aerobic and
anaerobic cultures (Harrison,19e,831).
86. In any patient in whom WHIPPLE'S TRIAD is documented, further evaluation is necessary to determine the
underlying cause and guide appropriate management... The GOLD STANDARD for diagnosis of
INSULINOMA is the 72-HOUR(!!!) MONITORED FAST (Sabiston,20e,952).
87. Urine analysis for microalbumineuria should be performed yearly in DM.
88. Most reasonable approach for evaluating DM renal status is Screening for microalbuminuria can be done
with a 24-hour urine collection, an overnight collection, a 4-hour timed collection, or a spot collection with
determination of albumin-creatinine ratio. (Not measure of total protein clearance).
89. Best diagnostic test in order to differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? Serum
vasopressin levels.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
90. Metabolic syndrome: THREE OR MORE of the following:
• Central obesity: WAIST CIRCUMFERENCE >102 cm (M)(!!!), >88 cm (F)
• Hypertriglyceridemia: triglyceride level ≥150 mg/dL or specific medication
• Low HDL cholesterol: <40 mg/dL and <50 mg/dL for men and women, respectively, or specific medication
• HYPERTENSION: BLOOD PRESSURE ≥130 mmHg SYSTOLIC(!!!)or ≥85 mmHg diastolic or specific
medication
• Fasting plasma glucose level ≥100 mg/dL or specific medication or PREVIOUSLY DIAGNOSED DM2(!!!)
(Harrison,19e,2450)
91. Mucormycosis (phycomycosis) is a fungal infection that can be fulminant and lethal. It affects the nose,
sinus, and orbit and is seen in patients with poorly controlled diabetes, diabetic ketoacidosis, or
immunodeficiency. Symptoms include dull sinus pain, fever, cellulitis, proptosis, nasal congestion and purulent or bloody nasal discharge, and
gangrenous destruction of the nasal septum, orbits, or palate. In many cases, a black eschar is formed in the nasal area. If the fungus invades the
cerebral vessels, then convulsions, blindness, and death can result. Diagnosis almost always involves biopsy. CT or MRI can help evaluate the extent
of the disease. Treatment is accomplished with diabetic control, amphotericin B, and surgical debridement. The prognosis is poor, with up to a 50%
mortality rate in disseminated cases.
92. It is currently recommended to test patients with type 1 disease for microalbuminuria 5 years after
diagnosis of diabetes and yearly thereafter and, because the time of onset of type 2 diabetes is often
unknown, to test type 2 patients at the time of diagnosis of diabetes and yearly thereafter (Harrison, 20e)
93. TREATMENT GOALS for Adults with Diabetes:
HbA1c--- <7.0(!!!)%, Preprandial capillary plasma glucose--- (80–130 mg/dL)
Peak postprandial capillary plasma glucose--- (<180 mg/dL)
Low-density lipoprotein--- <100mg/dL Triglycerides--- <150 mg/dL
1. Lorazepam, Oxazepam and Midazolam are considered short acting, whereas Diazepam, clonazepam is an
example of a long acting agent. The side effects of long-acting benzodiazepines include increased risk of
daytime psychomotor impairment and higher risk of daytime sedation. But they tend to have less-severe
withdrawal phenomena.
2. Streptococcus gallolyticus group (formerly Streptococcus bovis).
3. Don’t wait for troponin when there is ST elevation → PCI if accessible.
4. Diagnosis of multiple myeloma requires demonstration of bone marrow plasmacytosis >10% or M
component on protein electrophoresis, together with evidence of end-organ damage (CRAB or malignancy
biomarkers).
5. Thalassemia minor – The anemia is very mild (not below 8). Low MCV. Ferritin levels should be normal.
Sideroblastic anemia – Ferritin levels are high not low. IDA: high RDW.
6. Presence of visible pus in the pleural space is the strongest indication for chest tube insertion (more than
pH<7.2).
7. Sarcoma is a neoplasm that originates from mesenchyme. Tissue types include skeletal muscle, adipose
cells, blood and lymphatic vessels, and connective tissue or those cells with a common mesoderm origin.
Epithelium-derived neoplasms are known as carcinomas.
8. If you have poor response to appropriate antibiotics, think about either the resistance of the pathogen, or a
sequestered focus (lung abscess or empyema). → a chest x-ray is needed or even chest CT
9. It is estimated that 80-95% of duodenal ulcers and approximately 75% of gastric ulcers are associated with
Helicobacter Pylori infection. (More common than NSAIDs).
10. Lorazepam is a short acting benzodiazepine, therefore it will most probably has withdrawal symtoms.
11. The main treatment of lymphangitis is cephalexin plus warm compressors. The most common aetiology of
lymphangitis is strepcoccus pyogens (Group A strep).
12. The Lethal Triad is a term that refer to the presence of hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy in patients
who are bleeding or in shock from various factors. The hypothermia should be managed in order to restore
proper function of the coagulation system.
13. Hyperkalemia Rx: IV 10% calcium gluconate 10 mL over 2-3 minutes, repeat dose if ECG still
pathologic.
14. The preoperative testing of a healthy patient above 70 years of age include ECG, CBC + platelets,
electrolytes, BUN/creatinine and glucose levels. (echo is not needed).
15. IgA nephropathy in adults: The most common presentations are asymptomatic micro-hematuria and
episodic macro-hematuria.
16. Ankylosing spondylitis: pain improves with movement and worsened with rest. The disease usually
develops in the second or third decade of life.
17. Systolic murmur 2/6 at the upper middle-right sternum and a wide, permanent split of the second heart
(S2) → ASD.
Pulmonic stenosis- Wide split of second sound. Systolic murmur is located upper-left sternum.
18. Topiramate is an anticonvulsant drug, used in the treatment of PTSD, Epilepsy, migraines, smoking
cessation, Obesity and Bulimia. Topiramate was found to provide little or no benefit in the treatment of
psychotic disorders.
19. Nosocomial pneumonia occurs after the first 72 hours of hospitalization until 4 weeks post discharge. The
most common bacterial pathogens causing nosocomial pneumonia are gram-negative rods (Escherichia
coli, Pseudomonas) and Staphylococcus aureus. IV clavulanate/Ticarcillin should be started immediately.
20. The main etiology of tamponade is pericarditis which can be triggered by different etiologies including:
rheumatologic inflammatory conditions such as SLE, idiopathic, neoplastic, infectious etc.. other common
etiologies for tamponade include post cardiac surgery and trauma.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
ECG: usually shows tachycardia and a low voltage. Sometimes might also see “electrical alternans”-
changes in P, QRS or T wave amplitude from beat to beat. Becks triad and pulsus paradoxus.
21. The leading cause for chronic kidney disease in north America and Europe is diabetic nephropathy.
22. Pneumonia: microorganisms reaches the lower respiratory tract in several ways. The most common is by
aspiration from the oropharynx.
Common cold, influenza, pertussis and rubella are examples of infections, which are transmitted through
droplets.
23. In elderly patients, especially those with known coronary artery disease, the starting dose of levothyroxine
is 12.5–25 μg/day (We lower the dose!!!).
24. Unilateral aldosterone-producing adenomas were considered to be accountable for about 60% of cases,
but this number has decreased substantially as nonselective screening has been applied, with aldosterone-
to-renin ratio method. Nowadays, the most common cause is considered to be bilateral adrenal
hyperplasia.
Hyperplasia is characterized by milder hypokalemia compared with adenoma.
25. Beta blockers decrease pain (by improving oxygen demand and supply in the myocardium), infarct size
and incidence of ventricular arrhythmia in patients with myocardial infarction.
26. 5-ASA agents are the first line treatments for mild-moderate UC.
27. A 19 years old male presents with hypertension 190/120 mmHg, headache, myalgia, arthralgia and
abdominal pain. He is also noted to have livedo reticularis as well as pain and swelling in left testis. He
reports losing 6 kg in weight over the last 6 months. His blood tests reveals: WBC 15,000 HB 10 gr/dL,
ESR 100 mm/hr. Urinalysis: negative protein, positive RBC, negative WBC → Polyarteritis nodosa.
Specific organ systems can cause more specific symptoms. In 60% of patients there is renal involvement,
with renal failure and hypertension. Another common system involved is musculoskeletal, in 64% of cases,
causing arthritis, arthralgia, and myalgia. In 50% there is involvement of the peripheral nervous system,
presenting as peripheral neuropathy and mononeuritis multiplex. Other common system are the GI
tract(abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, bowel infarction and more..), the skin (rash, purpura, nodules,
livedo reticularis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, cutaneous infarcts), cardiac, genitourinary (namely testicular
involvement), and CNS. The disease is associated with hepatitis B and hairy cell leukemia.
28. APS patients should be placed on warfarin for life, aiming to achieve an international normalized ratio (INR)
ranging from 2.5 to 3.5, alone or in combination with 80 mg of aspirin daily. In pregnancy, warfrain is
contraindicated (mainly in 1st trimester) and therfore low-molecular-weight heparin with aspirin 80 mg daily
are given instead.
29. Lab tests that are considered routine in diagnosis of acute abdomen include complete blood count, blood
chemistry, liver and pancreatic function tests.
30. Scarlet fever: 10-day Amoxicillin (Moxypen) PO.
31. Bone marrow transplantation is the only curable therapy for b-thalassemia.
Hydroxyurea is an antineoplastic agent that increases the fetal haemoglobin. It is used for sickle cell disease and beta thalassemia patients.
Hydroxyurea will decrease the incidence of haemolysis.
32. Anemia of chronic disease “normocytic normochromic anemia” is a common manifestation in
active Rheumatoid arthritis. Other acute phase reactants might be present and therefore might also find
leukocytosis and thrombocytosis. Kidneys are usually not affected in RA and hemolytic anemia is not a
feature.
33. Of all the types of rejection, acute rejection is considered to be the only one which may be successfully
reversed with the proper treatment.
34. Bacterial meningitis: WBC count is 100-10000, usually> 1000. The empirical antibiotic treatment for
suspected bacterial meningitis Rocephin + Vancomycin. If Listeria is suspected, ampicillin should be added.
35. Spironolactone (aldosterone antagonist) is proven effective only for more advanced stages of CHF - EF <35% and NYHA 3-4. The automatic
implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is indicated for patients with EF <35%, and class II or III symptoms despite optimal medical treatment.
Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) is indicated when having prolonged QRS duration >149 msec and LBBB.
36. Abdominal pain, respiratory symptoms with neutrophilia with no detected organism in sputum analysis
makes Legionella the most likely cause. The macrolides (especially azithromycin) and the quinolones
(especially levofloxacin or ciprofloxacin) are the antibiotics of choice and are effective as monotherapy.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
37. Most asthma exacerbations are mild and do not require blood gases. At the beginning you would expect
hyperventilation leading to low PCO2 levels and high PaO2 levels and oxygen saturation.
In severe asthma, patients may become tired, and they are unable to hyperventilate and starts
decompensating, so a normal or rising PaCO2 signals impending respiratory failure and warrants
immediate therapy, and possibly prophylactic intubation and ventilation.
So, a normal PaCO2 indicates a more severe disease. Another indicator for severity is pulsus paradoxus.
38. APL is highly curable subtype of AML now treated mainly with ATRA +/- ATO for low-risk patients. APL
often presents with DIC-like manifestations.
1. Afib stable patient more than 48h: Decrease heart rate with beta blockers.
2. HOCM + Systolic B.P is 90 mmHg: I.V fluids with monitoring B.P.
3. Atorvastatin: The aim of the treatment is to elevate the life expectancy following MI.
4. Doxazocin (alpha Blocker): orthostatic hypotension [not b-blocker].
5. COPD exacerbation with bad patient vitals: Bronchodilatation inhalations.
6. Acute Ischemic STROKE :After the clinical diagnosis of STROKE is made, an orderly process of evaluation
and treatment should follow... Perform an emergency noncontrast HEAD CT scan TO DIFFERENTIATE
BETWEEN ISCHEMIC STROKE AND HEMORRHAGIC STROKE; there are no reliable clinical findings
that conclusively separate ischemia from hemorrhage, although a more depressed level of consciousness,
higher initial blood pressure, or worsening of symptoms after onset favor hemorrhage, and a deficit that is
maximal at onset, or remits, suggests ischemia (Harrison,19e,2561).
7. E. coli ESBLs (Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases): Treat with Carbapenems “meropenem”.
8. Paronychia can cause septic arthritis so need anti-staphylococcal antibiotics: First generation
cephalosporine (e.g cefazolin).
9. When there is solid lesion on x-ray with dyspnea and cough for a week: order Chest CT.
10. Homless, AST/ALT>2, Liver biopsy reveals hepatocyte ballooning, neutrophil infiltration, Mallory-Denk
bodies, steatosis, and intrasinusoidal fibrosis → Acute alcoholic hepatitis.
11. pyoderma gangernosum is a complication of uncontrolled ulcerative colitis, once the flare (cause) is treated
with steroids, pyoderma will also be treated.
12. HCV treatment: Direct acting antiviral agent.
13. Drug induced lupus: Procainamide
14. Pseudogout presents with chondrocalcinosis (cartilage calcification) on x-ray. WBC within ranging from
2000-100,000micro/L in the synovial fluid.
15. SlE diffuse proliferative glomeronephritis (WHOclass IV) Rx: Prednisolone and IV cyclosporine.
16. Nodular sclerosing classical HL (NSHL): most common subtype with good prognosis.
17. AA- amyloid composed of serum amyloid A and is associated with chronic inflammatory or infectious
diseases (RA, FMF, IBD).
18. antiphospholipid antibodies (APLA) syndrome after flight with hemoptysis → Angio CT to rule out PE.
19. Blurred consciousness\altered mental status are contraindication for the use of BiPaP for NIV.
20. Rickettsia conorii: high fever , sever headache and a rash on the trunk and the palms of the hands. If
recognized in a timely fashion, rickettsial disease is very responsive to treatment. DOXYCYCLINE
“tetracycline-based treatment” is the treatment of choice for both adults and children.
21. SCLC positive for epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR): treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs).
Better prognosis.
22. CA19-9 is used for disease recurrence follow up for cholangiocarcinoma.
23. Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT), defined as the use of a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor (clopidogrel, ticagrelor or
prasugrel) and aspirin, is required after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with drug-eluting stents
(DES).
24. pleural effusion: Dullness to percussion+ decreased fremitus+ decreased breath sounds.
25. Preferred treatment approach to correct hypernatremia with normal blood pressure: Drinking water via
nasogastric tube (Better than normal saline and 0.45%).
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
1. COPD exacerpation, during admition (MAT) is noted→ Rx:Improve breathing and control COPD
exacerbation.
2. The most common cause of pleural effusion is left ventricular failure. (Harrison,20e,2007). Although
pleural effusions are often bilateral in HF, when they are unilateral, they occur more frequently in the right
pleural space. (p.1776).
3. In elderly patients with iron deficiency anemia, you must rule out colon cancer → Do colonoscopy and not
endoscopy.
4. New visual field deficit may compose the neurological part of the TTP pentad. For dx: check Peripheral
blood smear.
5. Staging of CLL: Rai Staging System: High risk (stage III/IV) Lymphocytosis with anemia or
thrombocytopenia due to bone marrow involvement. Binet Staging System: C Hemoglobin ≤10 g/dL and/or
platelets.
6. Enterococcus fecalis is a gram-positive cocci that may cause UTI.
7. Catheter related infections should be treated with vancomycin due to its ability to treat MRSA.
8. Immigrant, bilateral consolidation, necrotic lymph nodes are identified on CT, dyspnea weight loss night
sweats productive cough → Suspected TB → Sputum microscopy with acid-fast stain (Ziehl-Neelsen
stain).
9. Decrased level of conciousness indicates increased ICP, LP may cause herniation in this case → LP after
CT. Never do Lumbar Puncture before obtaining CT if neuroimaging is indicated.
10. Membranous nephropathy maybe caused by: Autoimmune diseases (SLE, RA..), Cancer, Infection
(Hepatitis B and C, syphilis..).
11. Alport's syndrome: defect of type IV collagen.
12. Retroperitoneal fibrosis: lower back pain, hydronephrosis (compression of ureters), history of radiation.
13. Painless hematuria+smoking+older then 50= think bladder cancer.
14. GGT is elevated in alcohol consumption and fatty liver, beside biliary disease.
15. Whipple Disease (Tropheryma whipplei): damages villi in the small intestine, Weight loss, diarrhea, joint
pain, fever and arthritis, diagnosis by periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS)–positive macrophages in the
lamina propria containing non–acid-fast gram-positive bacilli.
16. If an acute mesenteric ischemia is suspected, quickly initiating imaging studies (CT angiography, color
Doppler sonography) is essential. In cases with peritonitis or risk of shock, however, emergency surgery
without prior imaging is indicated!
17. Acute Mesenteric Ischemia: Mesenteric angiography (CT angio) is the definitive diagnostic test. [Step-up].
18. Enterotoxigenic/ aggressive E. coli (ETEC) is the most common pathogen causing traveler's diarrhea
(watery).
19. Osteonecrosis (Avascular Necrosis) is a side effect of steroids. More common in the hip. Pain aggravated
by motion. Diagnosed by hip MRI.
20. hypomagnesemia lead to 1)hypocalcemia 2)hypokalemia.
21. Sotalol Antiarrhythmic potassium channel blockers (class Ill) and b-blocker (class II): one side effect is QT
segment prolongation, so needs follow up on ECG.
22. Erythema nodosum maybe caused by OCPs.
23. After taking an antibiotic and sudden increase in liver transaminases→ Drug Induced Liver Injury / toxicity
“DILT”.
24. Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Note that in the presence of hypercalcemia, a normal PTH level is
“abnormal” (i.e., high) because high calcium levels suppress PTH secretion. [Step-up,4e]
In a nutshell, in primary hyperparathyroidism PTH maybe high or normal!
25. Esophageal cancers: Endoscopy is the primary diagnostic test, enabling direct visualization and biopsy of
the lesion for histopathological confirmation.
Dr.AmeerAboMokh
1. CA-125 --- OVARIAN CANCER, some lymphomas --- Menstruation, PERITONITIS, pregnancy
(Harrison,19e,473)
2.