01/02/2024

Evening

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Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2024 (Online) Phase-1

(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.

(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and Part-C is
Chemistry. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

(4) Section - A : Attempt all questions.

(5) Section - B : Attempt any 05 questions out of 10 Questions.

(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A x 2 − 25
Sol. =
f (x) + log10 ( x 2 + 2 x − 15)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 (4 − x 2 )
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices x2 – 25 ≥ 0
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
⇒ x ∈ ( −∞, − 5] ∪ [5, ∞ ) ...(I)
Choose the correct answer:
4 – x2 ≠ 0
1. Let Ajay will not appear in JEE exam with
2 ⇒ x≠±2 ...(II)
probability p = , while both Ajay and Vijay will
7 x2 + 2x – 15 > 0
1 (x – 3) (x + 5) > 0
appear in the exam with probability q = . Then
5
x ∈ ( −∞, − 5) ∪ (3, ∞ ) ...(III)
the probability, that Ajay will appear in the exam
and Vijay will not appear is From (I), (II) and (III)
9 24 x ∈ ( −∞, − 5) ∪ [5, ∞ )
(1) (2)
35 35
∴ α = –5, β = 5
3 18
(3) (4) α2 + β3 = (–5)2 + (5)3 = 150
35 35
3. Consider a ∆ABC where A(1, 3, 2), B(–2, 8, 0) and
Answer (4)
C(3, 6, 7). If the angle bisector ∠BAC meets the line
1 BC at D, then the length of the projection of the
Sol. P ( A ∩ B ) =  
5
vector AD on the vector AC is
2
P ( A ′) = 37 39
7 (1) (2)
2 38 2 38
2 5
∴ P ( A) =1 − = 38
7 7 (3) 19 (4)
2
P ( A ∩ B ′)= P ( A) − P ( A ∩ B )
Answer (1)
5 1 18
= − = Sol.
7 5 35
2. If the domain of the function
x 2 − 25
f (x)
= + log10 ( x 2 + 2 x − 15) is (–∞, α) ∪
2
(4 − x )
[β, ∞), then α2 + β3 is equal to
(1) 175 (2) 150 D divides BC in ratio 1 : 1
(3) 125 (4) 140 1 7
D :  , 7, 
Answer (2) 2 2

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

  1  7  5. Let α and β be the roots the equation

AD =  − 1 iˆ + (7 − 3) jˆ +  − 2  kˆ 2
2  2  px + qx − r = 0 , where p ≠ 0. If p, q and r be the
1 3 consecutive terms of a non-constant G.P. and
= − iˆ + 4 jˆ + kˆ 1 1 3
2 2 + =, then the value of (α – β)2 is
 α β 4
AC = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ
80
  (1) (2) 9
Projection of AD on AC 9
15 20
−1 + 12 + (3) 8 (4)
2 37 3
= =
4 + 9 + 25 2 38 Answer (1)
4. Let Sn denote the sum of the first n terms of an Sol. Given: px2 + qx – r = 0
arithmetic progression. If S10 = 390 and the ratio of
a
the tenth the fifth terms is 15 : 7, then S15 – S5 is Let=
p , q a=
= , r ar1
r1
equal to
(1) 890 (2) 690 1 1 3
and + =
(3) 790 (4) 800 α β 4
Answer (3) α+β 3
⇒ =
Sol. S10 = 390 αβ 4

a10 15 q
= −
a5 7 p 3
⇒ =
r 4
−
a + 9d 15 p
=
a + 4d 7
q 3
7a + 63d = 15a + 60d ⇒ =
r 4
8a – 3d = 0 ...(1) 1 3
⇒ =
also, S10 = 390 r1 4
5[2a + 9d] = 390 4
2a + 9d = 78 ...(2) ⇒ r1 =
3
From equation (1) & (2)
(α − β)2 = (α + β)2 − 4αβ
d=8 2
 −q   −r 
⇒ a=3 = 
p  − 4 p 
   
15 5
So, S15 − S=
5
[2a + 14d ] − [2a + 4d ] q 2 4r
2 2 = +
p2 p
= 5[2a + 19d]
Putting values of a and d in above equation = r12 + 4r12 = 5r12
S15 – S5 = 5[2(3) + 19(8)] 4 80
2

= 5=
 
S15 – S5 = 790 3 9

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

6. Let the locus of the midpoints of the chords of the Sol. P (3, 4, 9)
circle x2 + (y –1)2 = 1 drawn from the origin intersect
x −1 y +1 z − 2
the line x + y = 1 at P and Q. Then, the length of PQ = = = λ
3 2 1
is
Any point on line
(1) 2 (2) 1
Q (3λ + 1, 2λ − 1, λ + 2)
1 1
(3) (4) PQ < 3, 2, 1 > = 0
2 2
< 3λ − 2, 2λ − 5, λ − 7 > < 3, 2, 1 > =0
Answer (3)
Sol. Let mid-point is (x, y) 9λ − 6 + 4λ − 10 + λ − 7 =0
x2 + y2 – 2y = 0 14λ − 23 =0

xx1 + yy 1 − ( y + y 1 ) = x12 + y 12 − 2y 1 23
λ=
14
It is passing through origin
 83 32 51 
So, 0 + 0 – (0 + y1) = x12 + y 12 − 2y 1 ∴Q  , , 
 14 14 14 
⇒ − y 1 = x12 + y 12 − 2y 1

⇒ 0
x12 + y 12 − y 1 =
x2 + y2 – y = 0 ...(1)
3 + α1 83 62
 It intersects the line x + y = 1 = ⇒ x1 =
2 14 7
So put x = 1 – y in equation (1)
4 + β1 32 4
(1 – y)2 + y2 – y = 0 = ⇒ y1 =
2 14 7
2y2 – 3y + 1 = 0
9 + γ1 51 12
⇒ (y – 1) (2y – 1) = 0 = ⇒ z1 =
−
2 14 7
1  62 + 4 − 12 
⇒ y = 1, 14 ( α + β + γ ) 14
2 Now,= =  7  108
 
 1 1 8. Let m and n be the coefficients of seventh and
∴ P(0, 1) and Q  , 
2 2 thirteenth terms respectively in the expansion of
18
1
2
 1 
2
1  1  1
So, PQ =  − 0  +  − 1 = 1 3
x +
1   n 3
. Then   is
2  2  2 3 2 
  m
7. If the mirror image of the point P(3, 4, 9) in the line  2x 3 
x −1 y +1 z − 2 4 1
= = is (α, β, γ), then 14(α + β + γ) is (1) (2)
3 2 1 9 4
(1) 138 (2) 102
9 1
(3) 132 (4) 108 (3) (4)
4 9
Answer (4) Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

12 6 10. Let the system of equations x + 2y + 3z = 5,

18  1  1
Sol. T=
7 =
m C6     2x + 3y + z = 9, 4x + 3y + λz = µ have infinite
3 2 number of solutions. Then λ + 2µ is equal to
6 12 (1) 15 (2) 28
18  1  1
T13= n= C12    
3 2 (3) 22 (4) 17
Answer (4)
1
 18  1 12  1 6  3 Sol. Given x + 2y + 3z = 5
1  C6      2x + 3y + z = 9
 m 3  3 2 
n  = 6 12  4x + 3y + λz = µ
 
 18 C12  1   1  
  1 2 3
 3 2 
∆ =2 3 1
1
  1 6  3 4 3 λ
1
   6 3
3   2  4 = 1( 3λ − 3 ) − 2 ( 2λ − 4 ) + 3 ( 6 − 12 )
∆
= = = 
 6    3   9
  1     ∆ = 3λ − 3 − 4λ + 8 + 18 − 36
 2 
   ∆ = −λ − 13
1 ∆ =0 ⇒ ∆ = −13
 n 3 9
∴  = 1 2 5
m 4
∆3 =2 3 9
9. If z is a complex number such that |z| ≥ 1, then the
4 3 µ
1
minimum value of z + (3 + 4i ) is
2 = 1( 3µ − 27 ) − 2 ( 2µ − 36 ) + 5 ( 6 − 12 )

(1) 3 (2) 2 = 3µ − 27 − 4µ + 72 + 30 − 60
3 5 = −µ + 15 ⇒ µ =15
(3) (4)
2 2 ∴ λ + 2µ = −13 + 30 = 17
Answer (3) Option (4) is correct.
Sol. | z | ≥ 1
x2 y 2
11. Let P be a point on the ellipse + =1 . Let the
1 3 9 4
z+ (3 + 4i ) ≥ | z | − + 2i line passing through P and parallel to y-axis meet
2 2
the circle x2 + y2 = 9 at point Q such that P and Q
9 9 + 16 are on the same side of the x-axis. Then, the
≥ 1− + 4 ≥ 1− eccentricity of the locus of the point R on PQ such
4 4
that PR : RQ = 4 : 3 as P moves on the ellipse, is
5 2−5 139 13
≥ 1− ≥ (1) (2)
2 2 23 7
3 11 13
≥ (3) (4)
2 19 21
∴ Option (3) is correct Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

1
⇒a ⇒±
2
So, R1 is not reflexive as (a, a) ∉ R ∀a ∈ IR
Sol. (a, b) R2 (c, d) ⇒ a + d = b + c
For reflexive
(a, b) R2 (a, b) ∀ (a, b) ∈ IN × IN
a+b=b+a
[(a, b), (a, b)] ∈ IR2∀(a, b ) ∈ IN × IN
2 2
12cos θ + 9 cos θ  7h   7k  So R2 is reflexive relation
=h =  +  1
7  21   18  For symmetric.
12 sin θ + 6 sin θ If (a, b) R2 (c, d)
k=
7 Then (c, d) R2 (a, b)
2
18 So (a, b) R2 (c, d) ⇒ a + d = b + c
e2 = 1 −
212 For (c, d) R2 (a, b) ⇒ c + b = a + d
2 2
21 − 18 So R2 is symmetric
e2 =
212 For transitive:
117 If (a, b) R2 (c, d) and (c, d) R2 (e, f)
e2 =
212
Then (a, b) R2 (e, f)
117 13 (a, b) R2 (c, d) ⇒ a + d = b + c … (i)
e2
= =
21 7
(c, d) R2 (e, f) ⇒ c + f = e + d … (ii)
12. Consider the relations R1 and R2 defined as
Add equation (i) and (ii)
aR1b ⇔ a2 + b2 = 1 for all a, b ∈ R and (a, b) R2
(c, d) ⇔ a + d = b + c for all (a, b), (c, d) ∈ N × N. a+d+c+f=b+c+e+d
Then ⇒a+f=b+e
(1) Neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation ⇒ (a, b) R2 (e, f)
(2) Only R2 is an equivalence relation
So R2 is transitive
(3) R1 and R2 both are equivalence relations
Only R2 is equivalence relation.
(4) Only R1 is an equivalence relation π
3 cos 4
Answer (2) 13. If ∫
0
xdx = aπ + b 3 , where a and b are

Sol. a R b ⇔ a 2 + b 2 =
1 rational numbers, then 9a + 8b is equal to
(1) 3 (2) 1
For reflexive (a R a) ∀a ∈ IR
3
If a R a (3) 2 (4)
2
⇒ a2 + a2 = 1
Answer (3)
⇒ 2a2 = 1

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

π  x − 1 x is even
Sol. f ( x ) 
= x ∈N
Sol.
∫0
3 cos4 xdx
 2x x is odd

π Let a is odd
1
∫
2 ⇒ f(a) = 2a
= 3
(1 + cos 2x ) dx
4 0
⇒ f(f(a)) = 2a – 1
π
⇒ f(f(f(a))) = 2(2a –1)
∫ (1 + cos 2x + 2cos 2x ) dx
1 3 2
=
4 0 2(2a –1) = 21 Not possible for any a ∈ N
Let a is even
 π
 π 3 ⇒ f(a) = a – 1
1  π  3  1 + cos 4 x  dx + 2 sin 2 x
=
4  3 
+
∫
0 
 2 
 2

 ⇒ f(f(a)) = 2(a – 1)
 0  ⇒ f(f(f(a))) = 2(a –1) – 1 = 2a – 3
 
2a – 3 = 21 ⇒ a =12
 π 
1  π  1  sin 4 x  3  2π    x 3  x 
= + x + + sin Now, lim  −   = 144
4  3  2  4  0  3   x →12−  12 12  
  
 
15. Let P and Q be the points on the line
1 π 1  π 1 4π   3 x + 3 y − 4 z +1
=  +  +  sin   +  = = which are at a distance of
4  3 2  3 4  3  2  8 2 2
6 units from the point R(1, 2, 3). If the centroid of
1 π π 1 − 3  3 the triangle PQR is (α, β, γ), then α2 + β2 + γ2 is
=  + +   + 
4  3 6 8  2  2  (1) 26 (2) 18
(3) 24 (4) 36
π 7 3
= + = aπ + b 3 Answer (2)
8 64
x +3 y − 4 z +1
1 7 Sol. Any point on line = =
⇒=a = ,b 8 2 2
8 64
can be taken as (8λ – 3, 2λ + 4, 2λ – 1)
9a + 8b = 2
If at a distance of 6 units from R(1, 2, 3)
 x − 1 , x is even ⇒ (8λ – 3 – 1)2 + (2λ + 4 –2)2 + (2λ – 1 – 3)2 = 36
14. Let f ( x ) =  x ∈ N. If for some
 2 x , x is odd ⇒ λ2 – λ = 0 {on simplification}
 x3  ⇒ λ = 0, λ = 1
  x 
a ∈ N, f(f(f(a))) = 21, then lim  −    , where Here P & Q are (–3, 4, –1) and (5, 6, 1)
x →a −  a  a 
 
Centroid of ∆PQR
[t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to
5 − 3 + 1 6 + 4 + 2 1− 1+ 3 
t, is equal to ( α, β, γ ) ≡  , , 
 3 3 3 
(1) 225 (2) 144
⇒ α = 1, β = 4, γ = 1
(3) 169 (4) 121
⇒ α2 + β2 + γ2 = 18
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

16. Let f(x) = |2x2 + 5|x| – 3|, x ∈ R. If m and n denote 6

Sol. We have given x (mean) =
the number of points where f is not continuous and 5
not differentiable respectively, then m + n is equal
84
to Variance =
25
(1) 3 (2) 5 10

(3) 0 (4) 2 ∑ ( xi − α ) =2
i =1
Answer (1)
⇒ x1 + x2 + … + x10 – 10α = 2
Sol. f ( x ) = 2 x + 5 x − 3
2
x1 + x2 +  + x10 2
⇒ −α=
10 10
6 2
⇒ −α =
5 10
⇒ α=1
10
2
and ∑ ( xi − β ) = 40
i =1

( x1 − β )2 + ( x2 2 2
−β ) +  + ( x10 − β ) =
40
Now f(x) is continuous ∀ x ∈ R
x12 + x22 +  + x10
2
+ 10β2 − 2β ( x1 + x2 +  + x10 ) =
40
−1 1
but non- differentiable at x = , , 0
2 2 x12 + x22 +  + x10
2
2β ( x1 + x2 +  + x10 )
⇒ + β2 − =4
∴ m=0 10 10

n=3 x12 + x22 +  + x10

2
36 36 6
⇒ − + + β2 − 2β × = 4
10 25 25 5
m+n=3
 n 
17. Consider 10 observations x1, x2, …, x10 such that  ∑ xi2 
10 10  Variance
= i =1
− (x ) 
2
2
∑ ( x=
i − α) 2 ∑ ( x=
i − β) 40, where α, β are  n 
=i 1 =i 1
84 36 12β
positive integers. Let the mean and the variance of ⇒ + + β2 − − 4 =0
25 25 5
6 84
the observations be and respectively. Then 120 12β
5 25 ⇒ + β2 − − 4 =0
25 5
β
is equal to : ⇒ 25β2 − 60β + 20 =0
α
⇒ 5β2 − 12β + 4 =0
3
(1) 1 (2)
2 2
⇒ β =2,
5
5
(3) 2 (4) Take β = 2
2
β 2
Answer (3) = = 2
α 1

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

18. The number of solutions of the equation 4 sin2x – 4 20. Let α be non-zero real number. Suppose f : R → R
cos3x + 9 – 4 cosx = 0; x ∈ [–2π, 2π] is : is a differentiable function such that f(0) = 2
(1) 2 (2) 0 and lim f ( x ) = 1. If f ′(x) = αf(x) + 3, for all x ∈ R,
x →−∞
(3) 3 (4) 1 then f(–loge2) is equal to ______.
Answer (2) (1) 5 (2) 3
Sol. 4 – 4 cos2 x − 4 cos3 x − 4 cos x + 9 =0 (3) 7 (4) 9
Answer (4 OR Bonus)
4 cos3 x + 4 cos2 x + 4 cos x − 13 =
0
Sol. f ′(x) = αf(x) + 3
2
 1  3 13 f ′(x) + (– α) f(x) = 3
 cos x +  + = sec x
2

 2 4 4 −αdx
I.F. = e ∫ = e −αx
L.H.S ∈ [1, 3]
⇒ f ( x ) ⋅ e −α
= x
∫ 3e
−αx
dx + c
 −13  13 
R.H.S ∈  −∞,  ∪  , ∞
 4  4  3
⇒ f ( x ) e −αx =
− e −αx + c
α
∴ Number of solutions = 0
3 3
1 f (x) =− + ceαx ,  f (0) =2 ⇒ c=2+
1 3 2 3 α α
19. The value of ∫0 (2x − 3 x − x + 1) dx is equal to :
3  3
⇒ f (x) =− + 2 +  e αx
(1) 1 (2) 0 α  α
(3) 2 (4) –1
 3 
Answer (2) lim f (x) = lim  − + ceαx  =
1
x →−∞ x →−∞  α 
1
3 3
Sol.=I ∫ (2x − 3 x 2 − x + 1)1/3 dx − + c lim eαx =
1
0
α x →−∞

⇒ α = 3 (not possible as α > 0)

1
2 1/3
=I ∫ ((2x − 1)( x − x − 1)) dx If α < 0,
0
3  3
 f (x) =− + 2 +  e αx
1
2
α  α
=
I ∫ [(2(1 − x ) − 1)((1 − x ) − (1 − x ) − 1)]1/3 dx
 3  3 
0 lim e −αx f (=
x) lim  − e −αx +  2 +  
x →−∞ x →−∞  α  α 
1
2 1/3
I= ∫ ((1 − 2x )( x − x − 1)) dx
2+
3 3
= 0 ⇒ α = − ⇒ f (x) = 2 ∀ x ∈ R
0 α 2
1 ⇒ 2 (but it given that lim f ( x ) = 1 )
lim f ( x ) =
I =− ∫ ((2 x − 1)( x 2 − x − 1))1/3 dx x →−∞ x →−∞
0 not possible
I=–I Note: If in the question, it was given lim f ( x ) = 1 in
x →∞
2I = 0
place of lim f ( x ) = 1
I=0 x →−∞

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

Then X (λ 2 − 1) =0
3  3
f (x) =− +  2 +  e αx λ2 =1
α  α
 lim f ( x ) = 1 λ 2 =±1
x →∞
Sum of square of all values = 2.
 3  3  22. Let ABC be an isosceles triangle in which A is at
⇒ lim  − +  2 +  eαx  =
1
x →∞  α  α  2π
(–1, 0), ∠A = , AB = AC and B is on the positive
3 3
If α < 0, then − = 1 ⇒ α = −3
α x-axis. If BC = 4 3 and the line BC intersects the
and f ( x )= 1 + e −3 x β4
line y = x + 3 at (α, β), then is ______.
⇒ f ( − ln 2) =
9 α2
Answer (36)
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 Numerical based questions. Attempt any 5
questions out of 10. The answer to each question should
be rounded-off to the nearest integer.

21. Let A = I2 – 2 MMT, where M is a real matrix of order Sol.

2 × 1 such that the relation MTM = I1 holds. If λ is a c 4 3
=
real number such that the relation AX = λX holds for sin30 sin120
some non-zero real matrix X of order 2 × 1, then the
4
⇒ c=
sum of squares of all possible values of λ is equal
to ________. AB =| (b + 1) | = 4
Answer (2) =b 3=
mAB 0
Sol. A = I2 – 2 MMT −1
mBC =
2 T T 3
(I2 − 2MM )(I2 − 2MM )
A =
1
I2 − 2MMT − 2MMT + 4MMT MMT
= BC : y =
− ( x − 3)
3
I2 − 4MMT + 4MMT
=
: 3y + x =4
= I2
Point of intersection of y = x + 3, 3y + x = 3
AX = λX
6 −6
y= and x =
A2 X = λAX
(1 + 3 )
3 +1 2

X = λ(λX )
β4
X = λ2 X = 36
α2

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

23. If three successive terms of a G.P. with common 25. The sum of squares of all possible values of k, for
ratio r(r > 1) are the lengths of the sides of a triangle which area of the region bounded by the parabolas
and [r] denotes the greatest integer less than or 2y2 = kx and ky2 = 2(y – x) is maximum, is equal to
equal to r, then 3[r] + [–r] is equal to ________. _______.
Answer (1) Answer (08)
Sol. Given ky2 = 2(y – x) …(i)
a
Sol. Let three terms of G.P. are , a, ar(r > 1) 2y2 = kx …(ii)
r
Point of intersection of (i) and (ii)
Sum of two sides > third side
a 2  2y 2 
+ a > ar ⇒ 1+r> r2 =
ky 2 y − 
 k 
r 
⇒ r2 – r – 1 < 0  2y 
y 0, =
⇒ = ky 2  1 −
1− 5 1+ 5  k 
⇒ <r <
2 2 4y
ky + 2
=
but r > 1 k

 1+ 5  2 2k
=y = 2
⇒ r ∈  1,  4 k +4
 2  k+
k
⇒ [r] = 1 and [–r] = –2 2k
3[r] + [–r] = 3 – 2 = 1 k2 +4
 ky 2  2y 2 
24. The lines L1, L2, …, L20 are distinct. For n = 1, 2, 3,
6
A= ∫   y −

 2 
−
k
 dy


…, 10 all the lines L2n – 1 are parallel to each other
2k
and all the lines L2n pass through a given P. the
 y 2  k 2  y 3  k2 +4
maximum number of points of intersection of pairs A=  − +  
of lines from the set [L1, L2,…,L20] is equal to  2  2 k  3  0
______. 2 2
 2k   1 k + 4  1   2k  
Answer (101) =  2   2 − 2k  3   2 
 k + 4      k + 4  
Sol. 10 lines are concurrent, 10 lines are parallel.
2
 
Odd lines ∈ {l1, l3 , ......, l19 }  1 
1
= ×4× 
Even lines ∈ {l 2 , l 4 , ......, l 20 } 6  k + 4 
 k
For maximum intersection
A.M. ≥ G.M.
Even linesC × (Zero point of intersection) + (One line
2
 4
from odd) × (One line from even lines) + 1 point of k + k 
intersection of concurrent lines  ≥2
2
=10C2 (0) + 10C1 10C1 + 1
4
k+ ≥4
= 101 k

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening
   
4 Sol. b × a = c × a -
∴ Area is maximum when k =
k   
⇒ (c − b ) × a = 0
∴ k2 = 4   
⇒ c = b + λa
k = ±2

k1 = 2, k2 = –2 ⇒ c = ( −1 + λ )iˆ + ( −8 + λ ) jˆ + (2 + λ )kˆ

k12 + k22 = ( +2)2 + ( −2)2


∴ But given c =4iˆ + c2 jˆ + c3 k
=4+4 ⇒ λ = 5, c2 = – 3 and c3 = 7
= 08 
Hence c = 4iˆ − 3 jˆ + 7kˆ
( x + 1)( x 2 − x ) 1 
26. If =y + (3 cos2 x − 5)cos3 x, Let x = −3iˆ + 4 jˆ + kˆ
x x +x+ x 15
 
π If angle between c and x is θ then
then 96 y ′   is equal to ______.
6 cos θ =
12 − 12 + 7
Answer (105) 16 + 9 + 49 9 + 16 + 1

( x + 1)( x 2 − x ) 1 2 1 74 × 26
Sol.
= y + (3 cos2 x − 5)cos3 x tan
= θ = −1 − 1 ≈ 38.26
x x +x+ x 15 cos2 θ 49
Required value = 38
( x + 1) x ( x − 1)( x + x + 1)
⇒ y=
x ( x + x + 1) dx 1 + x − y 2
28. If
= = , x (1) 1 , then 5x(2) is equal to
dy y
1 1 ______.
+ cos5 x − cos3 x
5 3
Answer (5)
1 1
⇒ y = x − 1+ cos5 x − cos3 x dx 1 + x − y 2
5 3 Sol. =
dy y
dy
⇒ 1 + cos4 x ( − sin x ) + cos2 x ⋅ sin x
= dx  1  1− y 2
dx ⇒ + − x =
dy  y  y
4 2
dy  3   1   3   1  35  1
⇒ =1+  − + = 1
dx π  2   2   2   2  32 − ∫ y dy ln 
y 1
x=     Integrating factor (I.F.)
= e= e=
6 y
35
Required value = 96 × =105 1  1− y 2 


32

⇒ x⋅
y ∫
= 2 dy
 y 
 
27. Let a =iˆ + jˆ + kˆ, b =−iˆ − 8 jˆ + 2kˆ and
 ˆ ˆ ˆ ⇒ x = – 1 – y2 + cy
c =4i + c2 j + c3 k , be three vectors such that
     x(1) = 1 ⇒ c = 3
b × a = c × a. If the angle between the vector c and
⇒ x(y) = 3y – 1 – y2
the vector 3iˆ + 4 jˆ + kˆ is θ, then the greatest integer
5⋅x(2) = 5 (6 – 1 – 4)
less than or equal to tan2θ is _______.
=5
Answer (38)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

x
29. Let f : (0, ∞) → R and F(x) = ∫ t f (t )dt. If F(x2) = x4+
0
Sol.
12
x5, then ∑ f (r 2
) is equal to ______.
r =1

Answer (219)
x Equation of PQ
∫
Sol.  F ( x ) = tf (t )dt
a2 − b2
0 =
y +b ( x − b2 )
a+b
⇒ F′(x) = x⋅f(x) …(i)
⇒ y = (a – b)x + ab
Also F(x2) = x4 + x5 a

∫ ((a − b)x + ab − x
2
5 S1= )dx
⇒ F(x) = x2 + x2 −b

3 a
5  (a − b ) 2 x3 
F ′( x ) = 2 x + ⋅ x 2 …(ii) =  x + abx − 
2  2 3 
 −b

From (i) and (ii) 1

= (a + b )3
5 6
f ( x )= 2 + x
2
−b b 2 1
1 1
12 12
5 =
S2 0 =0 1 ab(a + b )

=r 1=
∑
r 1
(r 2 )
f= ∑  2 + 2 r  2
a a 12
2

5  12 × 13  1
=2 × 12 + (a + b )3
S1
2  2  = 6
S2 1
⋅ ab(a + b )
= 219 2

30. Three points O(0, 0), P(a, a2), Q(–b, b2), a > 0, 1 (a + b )2 1  a b 
= = + + 2
b > 0, are on the parabola y = x2. Let S1 be the area 3 ab 3  b a 
of the region bounded by the line PQ and the b a
 + ≥2
parabola, and S2 be the area of the triangle OPQ. If a b
S1 m
the minimum value of is , gcd(m, n) = 1, then S  4 m
S2 n ⇒  1 = =
S
 2 min 3 n
m + n is equal to _____
⇒ m+n=7
Answer (7)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

PHYSICS

SECTION - A mv 2 K mv 2 K
Sol. F =  = v =
3/2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 R R R R1/4
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
2R 2R 2 5/4
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. T = = = R
V K K
Choose the correct answer : R1/4
31. A disc of radius R and mass M is rolling horizontally
T  R5/4  T2  R5/2
without slipping with speed v. It then moves up an
inclined smooth surface as shown in figure. The 33. Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is
maximum height that the disc can go up the incline produced by a laser. The power emitted is
is 2 × 10–3 W. How many photons per second on an
average, are emitted by the source?
(Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 6 × 1015 (2) 5 × 1015
(3) 7 × 1016 (4) 9 × 1018
2 v2 v2
(1) (2) Answer (2)
3 g g
Power P
3 v2 1 v2 Sol. n = =
(3) (4) Energy of one photon h
4 g 2 g
Answer (4) 2  10−3
n= = 5  1015
−34 14
1 6.63  10  6  10
Sol. Mv 2 = Mgh (No change in KErotational)
2 34. Conductivity of a photodiode starts changing only if
the wavelength of incident light is less than 660 nm.
1 v2
h= The band gap of photodiode is found to be
2 g
X
32. A light planet is revolving around a massive star in  8  eV. The value of X is
 
a circular orbit of radius R with a period of revolution
T. If the force of attraction between planet and star (Given, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
is proportional to R–3/2 then choose the correct (1) 13 (2) 11
option (3) 21 (4) 15
(1) T2  R5/2 Answer (4)
(2) T2  R3 hc X  1240 
Sol. E =    eV =   eV
(3) T2  R3/2  8  660 
(4) T2  R7/2 124  8
X = 15
Answer (1) 66

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

35. A diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 200 J of work when it P 0.12  25 − 0

Sol. Force exerted = =
is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas t 0.10
in the process is
12  25
(1) 800 J (2) 600 J = N
10
(3) 700 J (4) 850 J
= 30 N
Answer (3)
38. In an ammeter, 5% of the main current passes
200
Sol. W = nRT  ΔT = through the galvanometer. If resistance of the
nR galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will
F F  be
and Q = U + W = nRΔT + nRΔT =  + 1 nRΔT
2 2  G
(1) 200 G (2)
5  200 199
 Q =  + 1  nR  = 700 J
2  nR G
(3) 199 G (4)
36. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small 200
droplets of water. The surface energy will become Answer (None of these)
(1) 100 times Sol.
1 0.05I
(2) th
100 G
1
(3) th
10
(4) 10 times
Answer (3) I 0.95I

4 3 4 0.05I G = 0.95 Ir
Sol.  r  1000 = R 3  R = 10r
3 3 G
r =
Initial surface energy = k.r2 × 1000 19
Final surface energy = k.(10r)2 G
RA = G11
1 19
Ef = Ei
10 G
=
37. A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120 g 20
moving with 25 m/s speed. If the catching process 39. A microwave of wavelength 2.0 cm falls normally on
is completed in 0.1 s, then the magnitude of force a slit of width 4.0 cm. The angular spread of the
exerted by the ball on the hand of player will be (in central maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained
SI unit) on a screen 1.5 m away from the slit, will be
(1) 24 (2) 25 (1) 45° (2) 15°
(3) 30 (4) 12 (3) 60° (4) 30°
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

Sol. Half angular spread :  ; dsin =  Answer (4)

 2 1 6 1
sin  = = =   = 30 Sol. isteady = = A
d 4 2 12 2
Angular spread = 2 = 60° q1 = C1 × V1 = 6 × 4 × 3 = 12 C
40. From the statements given below : q2 = C2 × V2 = 6 × 4 = 24 C
(A) The angular momentum of an electron in nth
q1 1
orbit is an integral multiple of . =
q2 2
(B) Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law.
(C) Nuclear forces are spin dependent. 42. To measure the temperature coefficient of
(D) Nuclear forces are central and charge resistivity  of a semiconductor, an electrical
independent. arrangement shown in the figure is prepared. The
(E) Stability of nucleus is inversely proportional to arm BC is made up of the semiconductor. The
the value of packing fraction. experiment is being conducted at 25°C and
Choose the correct answer from the options given resistance of the semiconductor arm is 3 m. Arm
below :
BC is cooled at a constant rate of 2°C/s. If the
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only galvanometer G shows no deflection after 10 s,
(2) (B), (C), (D), (E) only then  is
(3) (A), (C), (D), (E) only
(4) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
Answer (4)
Sol. (D) is incorrect. Rest all are correct.
Nuclear forces are non-central forces.
41. A galvanometer (G) of 2  resistance is connected
in the given circuit. The ratio of charge stored in C1
and C2 is
(1) –1 × 10–2 °C–1
(2) –2.5 × 10–2 °C–1
(3) –1.5 × 10–2 °C–1
(4) –2 × 10–2 °C–1
Answer (1)
Sol.  Wheatstone bridge : 0.8 × 3 = 1 × R
R = 2.4 mr 
3
(1) 1 (2)
2 R = R0 (1 +  T)  2.4 = 3 (1 + 20 )

2 1 2.4 0.6
(3) (4) – 1 = 20  − =  = −1 10−2C–1
3 2 3 3  20

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

43. Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks 46. Match List-I with List-II.
towards north with speed 72 km/h and train B is List-I List-II
moving towards south with speed 108 km/h.
(Number) (Significant figure)
Velocity of train B with respect to A and velocity of
(A) 1001 (I) 3
ground with respect to B are (in ms–1)
(1) –50 and –30 (2) 50 and –30 (B) 010.1 (II) 4

(3) –50 and 30 (4) –30 and 50 (C) 100.100 (III) 5

Answer (3) (D) 0.0010010 (IV) 6

Sol. VBA = VB − VA = −30 − 20 = −50 m/s
VGB = VG – VB = 0 – ( −30) = 30 m/s
44. If frequency of electromagnetic wave is 60 MHz and
it travels in air along z direction then the
corresponding electric and magnetic field vectors
will be mutually perpendicular to each other and the
wavelength of the wave (in m) is
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Answer (1)

(1) 2 (2) 2.5 Sol. Significant figures are as

(3) 10 (4) 5  1001 : 4 ; 010.1 : 3; 100.100 : 6;

Answer (4) 0.0010010 : 5

(Significant figures)
c 3  108 30  107
Sol.  = = = 47. If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen
f 60  106 6  107
molecule at a given temperature and pressure is 2
=5m
km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen at
45. A body of mass 4 kg experiences two forces the same condition in km/s is :
F1 = 5iˆ + 8 jˆ + 7kˆ and F2 = 3iˆ − 4 jˆ − 3kˆ . (1) 1.5
The acceleration acting on the body is (2) 1.0

(1) –2iˆ − ˆj − kˆ (2) 2iˆ + jˆ + kˆ (3) 0.5

(4) 2.0
(3) 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 2kˆ (4) 2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 3kˆ
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
1 VO2 MH2 VO2 2
F
Sol. a = net =
( ) (
5iˆ + 8 ˆj + 7kˆ + 3iˆ − 4 ˆj − 3kˆ ) Sol. VRMS 
M

VH2
=
MO2

2
=
32
m 4
2
= 2iˆ + jˆ + kˆ  VO2 = = 0.5 km/s
4

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

48. In a metre-bridge when a resistance in the left gap 50. C1 and C2 are two hollow concentric cubes
is 2  and unknown resistance in the right gap, the enclosing charges 2Q and 3Q respectively as
shown in figure. The ratio of electric flux passing
balance length is found to be 40 cm. On shunting
through C1 and C2 is:
the unknown resistance with 2 , the balance
length changes by

(1) 22.5 cm

(2) 20 cm

(3) 65 cm

(4) 62.5 cm

Answer (1) (1) 2 : 3

(2) 5 : 2
2 40
Sol.  Value of R : =  R = 3
R 60 (3) 2 : 5

2 l (4) 3 : 2
After shunting : =  l = 62.5 cm
6 100 – l Answer (3)
5
2Q 2Q + 3Q
Shifting of length = 62.5 – 40 = 22.5 cm Sol. C1 = , C2 =
0 0
49. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and works
C1 2
at 10 V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage is 240 = ; C1 : C2 = 2 : 5
C2 5
V, then the current in the secondary coil is
SECTION - B
(1) 1.59 A
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(2) 15.1 A contains 10 Numerical based questions. Attempt any 5
questions out of 10. The answer to each question should
(3) 13.33 A be rounded-off to the nearest integer.

(4) 1.33 A 51. A uniform rod AB of mass 2 kg and length 30 cm at

rest on a smooth horizontal surface. An impulse of
Answer (3)
force 0.2 Ns is applied to end B. The time taken by
Poutput Es .Is 80 240  is 
Sol.  = =  = the rod to turn through at right angles will be s,
Pinput Pinput 100 4000 x

40 where x = _______.
is = A = 13.33 A
3 Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

l ml 2 Sol. Strain=
Stress
=
F
Sol. Angular impulse = I  = w Y AY
2 12
6I  Stress  F
 w=
ml
w = 2 rad/s;  = wt
( Stress )U F 30
= U = =3
( Stress)L FL 10

 = 2t
2 54. A particle initially at rest starts moving from
 reference point x = 0 along x-axis, with velocity v
 t=
4
that varies as v = 4 x m/s. The acceleration of the
 x=4
particle is _______ ms–2.
52. Suppose a uniformly charged wall provides a
uniform electric field of 2 × 104 N/C normally. A Answer (8)
charged particle of mass 2 g being suspended
dv
through a silk thread of length 20 cm and remain Sol. a = v 
dx
stayed at a distance of 10 cm from the wall. Then
1 4
the charge on the particle will be C where x =  a=4 x
x 2 x
_______. [Use g = 10 m/s2]
Answer (3)  a = 8 m/s2

1 55. A mass m is suspended from a spring of negligible

Sol. sin  =
2 mass and the system oscillates with a frequency f1.
1
 tan  = The frequency of oscillations if a mass 9m is
3
suspended from the same spring is f2. The value of
4 −6
qE 1 1 2  10  10
tan  = = = f1
mg 3 x  20  10−3 is _______.
f2
 x=3
53. One end of a metal wire is fixed to a ceiling and a Answer (3)
load of 2 kg hangs from the other end. A similar wire
1 K
is attached to the bottom of the load and another Sol. F =
2 m
load of 1 kg hangs from this lower wire. Then the
ratio of longitudinal stain of upper wire to that of the 1
lower wire will be _______.  F
m
[Area of cross section of wire = 0.005 cm2,
Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2 and g = 10 ms–2] F1 m2 9m
= = =3
Answer (3) F2 m1 m

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

56. In Young’s double slit experiment, monochromatic Answer (60)

light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. The slits are
10
1.0 mm apart and screen is placed at 1.0 m away Sol. i steady = =1A
from slits. The distance from the centre of the 10
screen where intensity becomes half of the
q = C.Vsteady = (10  6) C = 60 C
maximum intensity for the first time is __________
× 10–6 m. 59. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns and each
Answer (125)
turn has an area of 2.0 cm2. The magnetic field
    1 
Sol. 2I0 = 4I0 cos2    cos = = produced by the magnet is 0.01 T and deflection in
 2  2 2 2
the coil is 0.05 radian when a current of 10 mA is
x ·D · D D 5  10 –7  1
y= = = = passed through it. The torsional constant of the
d 2 d 4d 4  10–3
suspension wire is x × 10–5 N-m/rad. The value of x
y = 125  10 –6
is _______.
57. A particular hydrogen-like ion emits the radiation of
Answer (4)
frequency 3 × 1015 Hz when it makes transition from
n = 2 to n = 1. The frequency of radiation emitted in C NBA i 100  0.01 2  10 –4  10 –2
x Sol. i = C = =
transition from n = 3 to n = 1 is  1015 Hz, when NBA  0.05
9
x = _______. 2  10– 6
C= = 4  10– 5 N-m/rad
Answer (32) 50  10– 3

1 F1 1 1  3  x=4
Sol. = = RZ2  −  = RZ2  F1 = 3  1015 Hz
1 C 1 4  4
60. A coil of 200 turns and area 0.20 m2 is rotated at
3
RZ2 ·C = 3  1015 half a revolution per second and is placed in
4
uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T perpendicular to
1 F2 1 1 8 8
= = RZ 2  −  = RZ2  F2 = RZ2 ·C
2 C 1 9  9 9 axis of rotation of the coil. The maximum voltage
2
F2 =
8 4
  3  1015 =
32
 1015 Hz generated in the coil is volt. The value of  is
9 3 9 

58. In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of _______.

charge stored in the capacitor is _______ C.
Answer (5)

Sol. T = 2 sec   =  rad/s

 = NBA cos t   = NBA  sin t

2
0 = NBA  = 200 × 0.01 × 0.2 ×  = 0.4  =


=5

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer :
61. Lassaigne’s test is used for detection of
(1) Nitrogen, Sulphur and Phosphorous only
(2) Nitrogen, Sulphur, Phosphorous and halogens
(3) Phosphorous and halogens only
(4) Nitrogen and Sulphur only
Answer (2)
Sol. Nitrogen, sulphur, halogens and phosphorus
present in an organic compound are detected by
Lassaigne’s test.
62. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while SnO
and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
Statement (II): Allotropic forms of carbon are due
to property of catenation and pπ-dπ bond formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
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Answer (4)
Sol. SnO, PbO, SnO2, PbO2 : Amphoteric
CO2, SiO2, GeO2, GeO : Acidic
CO : Neutral
pπ-dπ bonding is not possible between two carbon
atoms hence Statement I is true but Statement II is
false.
63. The set of meta directing functional groups from the
following sets is:
(1) –NO2, –NH2, –COOH, –COOR
(2) –NO2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COR
(3) –CN, –NH2, –NHR, –OCH3
(4) –CN, –CHO, –NHCOCH3, –COOR
Answer (2)
Sol. –NO2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COR, –CN, –COOR are
having –R effect hence meta directing for incoming
electrophilic –NH2, –NHCOCH3 are having +R
effect.
64. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In aqueous solutions Cr2+ is
reducing while Mn3+ is oxidising in nature.
Reason (R): Extra stability to half filled electronic
configuration is observed than incompletely filled
electronic configuration.
 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

In the light of the above statements, choose the Sol.

most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 67. Given below are two statements:

correct explanation of (A) Statement (I): A π bonding MO has lower electron

density above and below the inter-nuclear axis.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Statement (II): The π* antibonding MO has a node
Answer (1)
between the nuclei.
Sol. Cr2+ and Mn3+ both has 3d44s0 configuration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Cr3+ is reducing as its configuration changes from appropriate answer from the options given below:
d4 to d3 having a half filled t2g level and change from
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Mn3+ to Mn2+ results in the half filled d5 configuration
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
which has extra stability.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
Hence A and R both are true and R is correct
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
explanation of A.
Answer (4)
65. The strongest reducing agent among the following
is: Sol. is π2p (bonding M.O.)

(1) NH3 (2) BiH3

(3) PH3 (4) SbH3
is π* (Antibonding M.O.)
Answer (2)
Sol. Reducing character of the hydrides increases on Hence statement I is false and statement II is true
moving down in the 15th group hence Ammonia is 68. In the given reactions identify A and B
only a mild reducing agent while BiH3 is strongest
reducing agent.

66. Na/Liquid NH
3 → “B”
CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 + H2 
Acid D formed in above reaction is: (1) A : n-Pentane B : trans-2-butene
(1) Malonic acid (2) Oxalic acid (2) A : n-Pentane B : Cis-2-butene
(3) Gluconic acid (4) Succinic acid (3) A : 2-Pentyne B : trans-2-butene
Answer (4) (4) A : 2-Pentyne B : Cis-2-butene

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening
Answer (3)
Sol.
69. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Both metals and non-metals exist in
p and d-block elements
Statement (II): Non-metals have higher ionisation
enthalpy and higher electronegativity than the
metals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true
Answer (1)
Sol. d block does not contain any non-metal.
Non-metallic character, ionisation enthalpy,
electronegativity increases on moving left to right in
a period and decreases on moving down the group.
70. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-
membered covalent chelate when treated with
NiCl2 solution in presence of NH4OH.
Statement II: Prussian blue precipitate contains
iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states.
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In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (1)
Sol. Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-membered chelate
via hydrogen bonding/noncovalent force when
treated with NiCl2 solution in presence of NH4OH.
Prussian blue precipitate is
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 has Fe at +3
as well as +2 oxidation state. Where ionisation
sphere is Fe3+ and coordination sphere has Fe2+.
71. Which of the following compounds show colour due
to d-d transition?
(1) CuSO4.5H2O (2) K2CrO4
(3) KMnO4 (4) K2Cr2O7
Answer (1)
Sol. Cu2+: 3d94s°
CuSO4.5H2O shows blue colour due to d–d
transition.
Compounds given in option (2), (3) and (4) show
colour due to LMCT (ligend to metal charge
transfer).
72. [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– are respectively known
as:
(1) Spin free Complex, Spin paired Complex
(2) Inner orbital Complex, Spin paired Complex
(3) Spin paired Complex, Spin free Complex
(4) Outer orbital Complex, inner orbital Complex
 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

Answer (3)

Sol. Co3+: 3d64s° (B)

With NH3, pairing will take place

⇒ Spin paired complex

With F–, no paring will take place (C)

⇒ Spin free complex.

73. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II (D)

Reactants Product

(A) Phenol, Zn/∆ (I) Salicylaldehyde

74. Which among the following has highest boiling
(B) Phenol, CHCl3, (II) Salicylic acid
point?
NaOH, HCl
(1) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(C) Phenol, CO2, (III) Benzene (2) CH3CH2CH2CH2 – OH
NaOH, HCl (3) H5C2 – O – C2H5
(D) Phenol, (IV) Picric acid (4) CH3CH2CH2CH3

Conc, HNO3 Answer (2)

Choose the correct answer from the option given Sol. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH will have highest
boiling point due to intermolecular H-bonding.
below:
75. The transition metal having highest 3rd ionisation
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
enthalpy is:
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(1) Fe (2) Mn
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) Cr (4) V
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. Mn: 3d54s2
Mn2+: 3d54s°
Sol. (A) Electron removal will be most difficult from Mn2+ due
to half-filled configuration of Mn2+ ions.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

76. The functional group that shows negative Choose the correct answer from the options given
resonance effect is : below :
(1) —COOH (2) —NH2 (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) —OR (4) —OH (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Answer (1) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
O (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
||
Sol. —C — OH group shows –M effect. Answer (4)

77. Select the compound from the following that will Sol. A: Carbon tetrachloride is used in fire extinguisher.
show intramolecular hydrogen bonding. B : Methylene chloride is used in paint remover.
(1) NH3 C: DDT is example of Non-biodegradable
(2) H2O insecticide.
(3) C2H5OH D : Freons are used in refrigerators and air
conditioners.
(4)
79. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass,

Answer (4) M) in water is Wg per 100 mL at 25°C. Its solubility

product at 25°C will approximately.
Sol.
3 5
W W
(1) 107   (2) 103  
M M
78. Match List-I with List-II.
5 5
W W
List-I List-II (3) 107   (4) 105  
M M
Compound Use
Answer (3)
(A) Carbon (I) Paint remover
tetrachloride
 10W  mol
Sol. Solubility =  
 M  lit
(B) Methylene (II) Refrigerators and air
Ksp = 108 (s)5
chloride conditioners
5
5 W
(C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher =k sp 108 (10 ) ×  
M
(D) Freons (IV) Non Biodegradable
5
insecticide W
7
≈ 10  
M

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

80. The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is 82. Following Kjeldahl’s method, 1g of organic
(1) 4 (2) 3 compound released ammonia, that neutralised 10
(3) 1 (4) 2 mL of 2M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the
Answer (3) compound is ______ %.

Sol. No. of radial nodes = n – l – 1 Answer (56)

=3–1–1 10 × 2
Sol. Moles of H2SO4 = = 0.02
=1 1000

SECTION - B Moles of NH3 = 0.04

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Moles of N = 0.04
contains 10 Numerical based questions. Attempt any 5 Mass of N = 0.56 gm
questions out of 10. The answer to each question should
% by mass of N = 56%
be rounded-off to the nearest integer.
83. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon of combustion gives
81. Consider the following redox reaction :
40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of water vapour. Total
MnO4– +
+ H + H2C2O4  Mn 2+
+ H2O + CO2 number of carbon and hydrogen atoms in the
The standard reduction potentials are given below hydrocarbon is ______.

(Ered ) :
o Answer (14)

40
Eo = +1.51 V Sol. Number of carbon atoms = =4
MnO4– /Mn2 + 10

o 50 × 2
ECO = –0.49 V Number of H-atoms = = 10
2 /H2C2O4 10
If the equilibrium constant of the above reaction is Total atoms = (4 + 10) = 14
given as Keq = 10x, then the value of x = ______.
84. For a certain reaction at 300 K, K = 10, then ∆G° for
(nearest integer)
the same reaction is –_____ × 10–1 kJ mol–1. (Given
Answer (338)
R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
Sol. Eocell = (1.51) + 0.49
Answer (57)
= 2.0 V
Sol. ∆G° = –(2.303)(8.314)(300) logK
.0591
0=2– logK = –(2.303)(8.314)(300)
10
logK = 338.409 = –5744 J

K = 10338.409 = –5.744 kJ

Nearest integer = 338 = –57.44 × 10–1 kJ

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

85. Number of compounds which give reaction with 87. Total number of isomeric compounds (including
Hinsberg’s reagent is _______. stereoisomers) formed by monochlorination of
2-methylbutane is _____.

Answer (6)

Sol. 4 structural isomers are obtained out of which 2 are

optically active.

⇒ Total 6 isomers are obtained.

88. The number of tripeptides formed by three different

Answer (5) amino acids using each amino acid once is _____.

Sol. 1° and 2° amines will give reaction with Hinsberg Answer (6)
reagent Sol.
Compound which gives reaction with Hinsberg
reagent are

(1) Ph – NH2
Answer = 3 × 2 × 1
(2) Ph – CH2 – NH – CH3
=6
(3) NH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
89. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to
(4) 18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at
–24°C is ______ kg (Molar mass in g mol–1 for
ethylene glycol 62, Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(5) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 Answer (15)
86. The amount of electricity in Coulomb required for
Sol. ∆Tf = Kf(m)
the oxidation of 1 mol of H2O to O2 is _____ × 105C.
moles
Answer (2) 24 1.86 ×
=
18.6

Sol. 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e− Moles = 240

Mole of electron = 2 Mass = 240 × 62

Charge = 2 × 96500 C = 14880 gm

= 1.93 × 105 C = 14.88 kg

Nearest integer = 2 Nearest integer = 15

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Evening

90. The following data were obtained during the first 2.303  0.3 − 0.1 
Sol. K = log  
order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant 115  0.3 − 0.28 
volume : 2.303  0.2 
K= log  
A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) 115  0.02 

S.No. Time/s Total pressure/(atm) 2.303

= log10
115
1. 0 0.1
2.303
=
2. 115 0.28 115

The rate constant of the reaction is ____ × 10–2 s–1 = 0.02002

(nearest integer) = 2 × 10–2 sec–1
Answer (2) Answer = 2

  

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