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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.
(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and Part-C is.
Chemistry Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
(6) Section – A : (01-20) / (31-50) / (61-80) contains 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) which have
only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
(7) Section – B: (21-30) / (51-60) / (81-90) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A dy 3
Sol. ( 2x log x ) + 2y = log x
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 dx x
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices dy y 3
+ =
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. dx x log x 2x 2
Choose the correct answer:
x log x
1. A company has two plants A and B to manufacture IF = e = elog(log x ) = log x
motorcycles. 60% motorcycles are manufactured at
3
plant A and the remaining are manufactured at y log x = log x dx + C
plant B. 80% of the motorcycles manufactured at 2x 2
plant A are rated of the standard quality, while 90% 3 − log x 1
of the motorcycles manufactured at plant B are y log x = − +C
2 x x
rated of the standard quality. A motorcycle picked
up randomly from the total production is found to be y ( e−1 ) = 0
of the standard quality. If p is the probability that it
3
was manufactured at plant B, then 126p is 0 = e − e + C
(1) 64 (2) 56 2
(3) 54 (4) 66 C=0
Answer (3) −3 log x + 1
y log x =
Sol. P (standard automobile from A) =
6 8 12
= 2 x
10 10 25 −3 1+ 1 3
4 9 9 y (e ) → y (e ) 1 = =−
P (standard automobile from B) = = 2 e e
10 10 25 3. Let the area of the region enclosed by the curves
9 y = 3x, 2y = 27 – 3x and y = 3x – x x be A. Then
Required Probability 25 10A is equal to
12 9
+ (1) 162 (2) 184
25 25
(3) 172 (4) 154
9 3
P= = Answer (1)
21 7
Sol.
3
So, 126P = 126 = 54
7
2. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
dy 3
equation (2x loge x ) + 2y = loge x , x > 0 and
dx x
y(e–1) = 0. Then, y(e) is equal to
3 2
(1) − (2) −
e 3e
3 2
(3) − (4) −
2e e y = 3x − x 3/2
Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
3 f ( x ) f ( x )
y = 3 − x lim = lim =k
2 x →0 2x x →0 2
f (0) = 2k
x
y = 3 1 − Given information is not complete.
2
5. Let the relations R1 and R2 on the set X = {1, 2, 3,
…, 20} be given by R1 = {(x, y): 2x – 3y = 2} and
R2 = {(x, y): –5x + 4y = 0}. If M and N be the
3 9 minimum number of elements required to be added
Area = ( 3x − (3x − x 3/2 ) )dx + 27 − 3x − (3x − x 3/2 ) dx in R1 and R2, respectively, in order to make the
0 3
2
relations symmetric, then M + N equals
3 9
( (1) 12 (2) 8
= x 3/2dx + 27 − 9x + 2x 3/2 ) dx
0
2 3 (3) 10 (4) 16
9 Answer (3)
1
3
2 9x 2 2
= x5/2 + 27x − + 2 x5/2 Sol. R1 = {(x, y) : 2x – 3y = 2}
5 0 2 2 5 3
R2 = {(x, y) : –5x + 4y = 0}
2 1 729 4 81 4
= 9 3 + 243 − + 81 3 − 81+ − 9 3 2x – 3y = 2
5 2 2 5 2 5
So 2x and 3y both has to be even or odd
1 486 − 729 − 81 972 81 simultaneously and 2x can’t be odd so 2x and 3y
= + =
2 2 5 5 both will be even
81 R1 = {(4, 2), (7, 4), (10, 6), (13, 8), (16, 10), (19, 12)}
A=
5 For symmetric we need to add 6 elements as
81 (2, 4), (4, 7), (6, 10), (8, 13), (10, 16), (12, 19)
10A = 10 = 162
5 M=6
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
5 7 1 x 2 + 2x − 15 ( x − 3)( x + 5)
9. If A(3, 1, –1), B , , , C(2, 2, 1) and Sol. f ( x ) = =
3 3 3 2
x − 4x + 9 x 2 − 4x + 9
10 2 –1
D , , are the vertices of a quadrilateral For x = 3 and x = –5, f(x) = 0
3 3 3
ABCD, then its area is So f(x) is not one-one
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
12. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential 13. The number of triangles whose vertices are at the
( )
dy −1 vertices of a regular octagon but none of whose
equation 1 + x 2 + y = etan x , y(1) = 0. Then
dx sides is a side of the octagon is
y(0) is (1) 24
(1)
1 /2
4
(
e −1 (2) )1
4
1− e /2 ( ) (2) 16
(3) 48
(3)
1
2
(
1− e / 2 (4))1 / 2
2
e −1 ( ) (4) 56
Answer (3) Answer (3)
dy −1
Sol. (1+ x2 ) + y = etan x
dx Sol.
tan−1 x
dy y e
+ =
dx 1+ x 2 1+ x 2 Total ways to select one point out of 8 points
1
2 dx −1 = 8C1 ways
I.F. = e 1+ x = etan x
Now total ways of selecting 2 non-consecutive
tan−1 x
tan−1 x tan−1 x e points out of remaining 5 points = 4C2 ways
So, y e = e dx
1+ x2 Total required triangles = 8C1 × 4C2
−1 2tan−1 x = 48
e
y etan x = dx
1+ x2 3 1
Put tan–1 x = t x sin , x 0
14. If f ( x ) = x , then
1 =
dx = dt 0 , x 0
1+ x2
2 12 − 2 2 24 − 2
e2t c (1) f '' = (2) f '' =
So I = e2t dt = + 2 2
2 2
−1 (3) f ''(0) = 0 (4) f ''(0) = 1
−1 e2tan x c
y etan x = +
2 2 Answer (2)
y(1) = 0
3 1
2tan−11 x sin , x 0
So, 0 = e +c Sol. f ( x ) = x
2/4 0 , x =0
0=e +c
c = −e/2 1 1
f ( x ) = 3x 2 sin – x cos
2tan−1 x x x
−1 e − e/2
y etan x = 1 1 1 1 1
2 f ( x ) = 6x sin – 3x cos – cos – sin
x
x x x x
1 − e/2
y (0) = y 1 =
2 2 12 24 – 2
f = – = and f(0) is not
1
y = (1 − e/2 ) 2 2
2 defined
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
1 1 1 1 1
(1) 2 , 1 (2) , = – – 1 =
e e 32 6
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
corrected 2 =
2160
– (10.2)2 20. Let A = {n [100, 700] : n is neither a multiple
20 of 3 nor a multiple of 4}. Then the number of
= 108 – 104.04 elements in A is
= 3.96 (1) 290
= 3.96 (2) 300
19. Let a variable line of slope m > 0 passing through
(3) 280
the point (4, –9) intersect the coordinate axes at the
points (4) 310
(1) 15
Answer (2)
(2) 30
Sol. n [100, 700]
(3) 25
(4) 10 n(A) = Total – (multiple of 3 + multiple of 4) +
(multiple of 12)
Answer (3)
Sol. Total = 601
n = 200
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
SECTION - B Tr = a.3r
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Solving for particular part
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to Tr = b.6r
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
b.6r = 3b6r–1 + 6r
integer.
6b = 3b + 6
21. Let = 45; , , . If x(, 1, 2) + y(1, , 2) + 3b = 6
z(2, 3, ) = (0, 0, 0) for some x, y, z R, xyz 0, b=2
then 6 + 4 + is equal to _____
Tr = an + ap
Answer (55)
Tr = a3br + 2.6r ... (i)
Sol. x + y + 2z = 0 Tr = 3Tr–1 + 6r
x + y + 3z = 0 Putting r = 2
2x + 2y + z = 0 T2 = 18 + 36 = 54 … (ii)
– 6 – 4 – + 10 = 0 = 2·6
( 6n − 1)
− 2·3
( 3n − 1)
5 2
45 + 10 = 6 + 4 +
6 + 4 + = 55 =
3
5
(
4·6n − 5·3n + 1 )
22. Let the first term of a series be T1 = 6 and its rth term n2 – 12n + 39 = 3
Tr = 3Tr–1 + 6r, r = 2, 3, …, n. If the sum of the first
n terms of this series is n2 – 12n + 36 = 0
( )( )
1 2 (n – 6)2 = 0
n − 12n + 39 4 6n – 5 3n + 1 , then n is equal
5 n=6
to _____
23. Let L1, L2 be the lines passing through the point
Answer (06) P(0, 1) and touching the parabola 9x2 + 12x + 18y
– 14 = 0. Let Q and R be the points on the lines L1
Sol. Tr = 3Tr–1 + 6r
and L2 such that the PQR is an isosceles triangle
solving homogenous part with base QR. If the slopes of the liens QR are m1
Tr = 3Tr–1 ( )
and m2, then 16 m12 + m22 is equal to _____ .
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
( )
Sol. 9x2 + 12x + 18y – 14 = 0 I 1 k
Sol. rk = a , where Ia = 1− x7 dx
Ib 0
2
2
x + 3 = −2 ( y − 1) ... (1)
0 (
1− x7 )
1 k +1
and Ib = . I dx
Equation of tangent to (1) (II)
(I)
2 1
t x + = − ( y − 1) + t 2 passes through (0, 1)
( ) ( k + 1) (1− x7 ) (−7x6 ). x dx
k +1 k
. x 0 −
1
3 2 = 1− x7
1
0
2 1 4 4
0 (
1 − x7 ) ( −1 + 1 − x7 )
t = t 2 t = 0, m = 0, m = − k
= −7 ( k + 1)
1
3 2 3 3
Ib = −7 ( k + 1) −Ia + Ib
I 7k + 8 1
rk = a = = 1+
Ib 7k + 7 7 ( k + 1)
1
= ( k + 1)
7 ( rk − 1)
4
m+ 10
1 10
11.12
3 = m 3m + 4 = m 7 (r = ( K + 1) = − 1 = 65
4 3 − 4m r =−1 K − 1) r =1 2
1− m
3
25. If the second, third and fourth terms in the
3m + 4 = m(3 – 4m) or 3m + 4 = – m(3 – 4m) 10
expansion of (x + y)n are 135, 30 and ,
3
3m + 4 = 3m – 4m2 or 3m+ 4 = –3m + 4m2
respectively, then 6(n3 + x2 + y) is equal to _____
4m2 + 4 = 0 (not possible) or 4m2 – 6m – 4 = 0
Answer (806)
3
m1 + m2 = , m1m2 = −1 Sol. T2 = nC1 y1. xn–1 = 135
2
T3 = nC2 y2. xn–2 = 30
17
m12 + m22 =
4 10
T4 = nC3 y 3 x n –3 =
3
(
16 m12 + m22 = 68 ) 135 x n .2 2 x
= = …(i)
1 30 y n(n – 1) n – 1 y
0 (1− x ) dx , k . Then the value of
7 k
24. Let rk = 1 30 n(n – 1) 3! x
0 (1− x ) dx
7 k +1
=
10 2 n(n – 1) (n – 2) y
10 3
1
7(r is equal to _____
k =1 k − 1)
3 x
9=
Answer (65) n – 2 y
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
3(n – 2) =
135
(n – 1) n = 5 Sol. Let iˆ + 8 jˆ + 13kˆ = u
60
x = 9y …(i) Given a (b + c ) + b c = u
x 4 ab + ac + b c = u
y. x4 = 27 . x = 33
9
1 (a + b) c = u – a b
x5 = 35 x = 3 y =
3
Taking cross product with a on both sides
1 1
6 53 + 32 + = 6 125 + 9 +
3 3 ( )
a (a + b ) c = a (u – a b )
= 6(134) + 2 = 806
c. (a2 + a. b) = 13(a + b) – a u
26. For n N, if cot–13 + cot–14 + cot–15 + cot–1n = ,
4 +(a. b).a – a2 b
then n is equal to _____ .
Answer (47) a. c = 13
Sol. cot–13 + cot–14 + cot–15 + cot–1(n) = Putting the values, c = (–1, – 1, 3)
4
3 4 – 1 5 n – 1 b. c = –22
cot –1 + cot –1 =
3+4 5+n 4
24 – b. c = 46
–1 11 – 1
–1 5n
cot + cot =
7 5+n 4 28. Let x1, x2, x3, x4 be the solution of the equation
4x4 + 8x3 – 17x2 – 12x + 9 = 0 and
11 5n – 1
5 + n – 1 125
–1 7 (4 + x12 )(4 + x22 )(4 + x32 )(4 + x42 ) = m . Then the
cot = 16
11 5n – 1 4
+ value of m is _____ .
7 5+n
11 5n – 1 11 5n – 1 Answer (221)
–1= +
7 5 + n 7 5+n Sol. 4x4 + 8x3 – 17x2 – 12x + 9 = 0
55n – 11 – 35 – 7n = 55 + 11n + 35n – 7 (x + 1) (4x3 + 4x2 –21x + 9) = 0
2n = 94
(x + 1) (x + 3) (4x2 – 8x + 3) = 0
n = 47
(x + 1) (x + 3) (4x2 – 6x – 2x + 3) = 0
27. Let a 2i 3j 4k , b 3i 4 j – 5k and a vector
(x + 1) (x + 3) (2x(2x – 3) –1 (2x – 3)) = 0
c be such that a (b c) b c i 8j 13k . If
( x + 1) ( x + 3) (2x – 1) (2x – 3) = 0
a c = 13 , then (24 – b c ) is equal to _____.
x = –1 1 3
x = –3 x= x=
2 2
Answer (46)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
17 25 125 –232 –1
5 13 = m k= =
4 4 16 464 2
125 125 Q(–4 + 2, 6 – 5, –8+11)
[13 17] = m
16 16
Q(–2, 1, 3)
m = 13 × 17
PQ = (10 + 2)2 + (–3)2 + (4)2
m = 221
29. Let P be the point (10, –2, –1) and Q be the foot of PQ = 122 + 32 + 42
the perpendicular drawn from the point R(1, 7, 6) on
the line passing through the points (2, –5, 11) and PQ = 169 = 13
(–6, 7, –5). Then the length of the line segment PQ
is equal to _____ . 30. Let a conic C pass through the point (4, –2) and
P(x, y), x 3, be any point on C. Let the slope of
Answer (13) the line touching the conic C only at the single point
P be half the slope of the line joining the points P
and (3, –5). If the focal distance of the point (7, 1)
on C is d, then 12d equals _____.
Sol.
Answer (75)
dy y +5
P(10, –2, –1) =
dx 2( x – 3)
x – 2 y + 5 z – 11
MN : = = 1
8 –12 16 ln( y + 5) = ln( x – 3) + c
2
General point
1
(8k+2, –12k – 5, 16k + 11) Passes through (4, –2) ln3 = ln1 + c
2
RQ = (8k + 2 – 1)iˆ + (–12k – 5 – 7) jˆ + (16k + 11– 6)kˆ c = ln3
9 25
RQ. MN = 0 (as both are perpendicular) Focal distance of (7, 1) = +4= =d
4 4
8(8k + 1) + 12 (12k + 12) + 16(16k + 5) = 0 12d = 75
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
PHYSICS
Answer (2) d = dv + dw
CP dT = CVdT + PdV …(ii)
1
80 t + 80 3 t
Total distance 2 from (i) and (ii)
Sol. Vavg = =
Total time 4t
R
CP = CV +
Vavg = 70 km/h 2V
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
35. Match List I with List II 37. An element l = xiˆ is placed at the origin and
List I List II carries a large current l = 10 A. The magnetic field
on the y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m from the
A. Torque I. [M1L1T–2A–2]
elements x of 1 cm length is:
B. Magnetic field II. [L2A1]
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
39. Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with 42. To project a body of mass m from earth’s surface to
speed of 1.5 × 108 m s–1. The relative permeability infinity, the required kinetic energy is (assume, the
of the medium is 2.0. The relative permittivity will radius of earth is RE, g = acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of earth):
be:
(1) mgRE (2) 2mgRE
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 1/2mgRE (4) 4mgRE
(3) 2 (4) 4 Answer (1)
Answer (3) 1 2GM GM
Sol. KE = m = 2 m ·RE = mg RE
1 2 RE RE
Sol. v =
0 r 0 · r m
43. Four particles A, B, C, D of mass
, m, 2m, 4m,
2
3 108 have same momentum respectively. The particle
1.5 108 = r = 2
2·r with maximum kinetic energy is
(1) C (2) D
40. A sample contains mixture of helium and oxygen
(3) B (4) A
gas. The ratio of root mean square speed of helium
Answer (4)
and oxygen in the sample, is:
P2 1
Sol. KE = KE
2 2 1 2m m
(1) (2)
1 32 44. The value of unknown resistance (x) for which the
potential difference between B and D will be zero in
1 1
(3) (4) the arrangement shown, is
2 2 4
Answer (1)
3RT
Sol. v =
M
vHe Mo2 2 2
= =
v o2 MHe 1
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
45. The correct truth table for the following logic circuit (m2 – m1)g g
Sol. a = =
is m1 + m2 2
2(m2 – m1 ) = m1 + m2
m1 2 –1
=
m2 2 +1
46. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley Answer (2)
connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (where
1 4R 2
g Sol. E = =
m2 > m1). If the acceleration of the system is , 4 0 R 2 0
2
m1 49. To find the spring constant (k) of a spring
then the ratio of the masses is experimentally, a student commits 2% positive
m2
error in the measurement of time and 1% negative
3 +1 1+ 5 error in measurement of mass. The percentage
(1) (2)
2 –1 5 –1 error ion determining value of k is:
1+ 5 2 –1 (1) 5% (2) 4%
(3) (4)
2 –1 2 +1 (3) 3% (4) 1%
Answer (4) Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
( )
50. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of Balmer
Sol. B C = 15iˆ − 21jˆ + 33kˆ
series to the shortest wavelength of Lyman series
for hydrogen atom is
( )
A · B C = 0 –15x + 126 – 66 = 0
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
x=4
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
Answer (4) 53. The refractive index if prism is = 3 and the ratio
of the angle of minimum deviation to the angle of
1 1 1
Sol. = Rz 2 2 – 2 prism is one. The value of angle of prism is
B 2 _______°.
1 1 1 Answer (60)
= Rz 2 2 – 2
L 1 A+ A
sin
3= 2 cos A = 3 A = 60
B 4 Sol. 2
= A 2
L 1 sin
2
SECTION - B 54. Radius of a certain orbit of hydrogen atom is 8.48
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Å. If energy of electron in this orbit is E/x, then x =
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to _______.
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest (Given a0 = 0.529 Å, E = energy of electron in
integer. ground state).
Answer (16)
51. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small
n2
droplets of water. The ratio of surface energy of Sol. 8.48 = 0.53 n=4
1
10
1000 droplets to that of energy of big drop is .
x 12
E = −13.6 x = 16
The value of x is _______. 42
Answer (1) 55. When a dc voltage of 100 V is applied to an
inductor, a dc current of 5 A flows through it. When
Sol. Rbig = 10 Rsmall an ac voltage of 200 V peak value is connected to
2 inductor, its inductive reactance is found to be
Rbig
1000 T 4 20 3 . The power dissipated in the circuit is
E1000 10 10
= = _______W.
2
Ebig T 4Rbig 1
Answer (250)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
magnetic field of 1 T. Initially the magnetic dipole amplitude 0.06 m and time period 3.14 s. The
(M )
maximum velocity of the particle is _______ cm/s.
moment was directed along B . Amount of
Answer (12)
work, required to rotate the coil through 90° from its
A 2 2
initial orientation such that M becomes Sol. v max = A = = 0.06 = 0.12 m/s
T 3.14
perpendicular to B , is _______J.
v max = 12 cm/s
Answer (5)
60. Three infinitely long charged thin sheets are placed
Sol. W = Uf – Ui = ( −MB cos90 ) – (– MB cos0)
as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric field
W = MB = NiAB = 5 J x
at the point P is . The value of x is _______ (all
0
57. A wire of resistance R and radius r is stretched till
quantities are measured in SI units).
its radius became r/2. If new resistance of the
stretched wire is x R, then value of x is _______.
Answer (16)
.l .4l
Sol. R1 = , R2 = = 16R1
r 2
r
2
2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
CHEMISTRY
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
66. Match List I with List II. 68. At –20 °C and 1 atm pressure, a cylinder is filled
with equal number of H2, I2 and HI molecules for the
List I List II
reaction
(Compound/species) (Shape/Geometry)
A. SF4 I. Tetrahedral
H2(g) + I2(g)
2HI(g), the Kp for the process is
x × 10–1.
B. BrF3 II. Pyramidal
x = ________.
C. BrO3 III. See saw [Given : R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]
(1) 0.01 (2) 2
D. NH4 IV. Bent T-shape
(3) 1 (4) 10
Choose the correct answer from the options given Answer (4)
below :
[HI]2
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I Sol. KP KC 1 10 101
[H2 ][I2 ]
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
69. Match List I with List II.
Answer (4)
List I List II
Sol. A Sea-saw (III) (Precipitating (Cation)
B Bent T-shape (IV) reagent and
conditions)
C Pyramidal (II)
A. NH4Cl + NH4OH I. Mn2+
D Tetrahedral (I)
B. NH4OH + II. Pb2+
67. Consider the following complexes
Na2CO3
[CoCl(NH3)5]2+ [Co(CN)6]3–
C. NH4OH + NH4Cl III. Al3+
(A) (B) + H2S gas
(C) (D) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
The correct order of A, B, C and D in terms of
wavenumber of light absorbed is (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) B < C < A < D (2) D < A < C < B (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A < C < B < D (4) C < D < A < B Answer (3)
1 B Sr2+ (IV)
Sol. Wavenumber Frequency 0
C Mn2+ (I)
Wavenumber order : D < A < C < B D Pb2+ (II)
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70. Match List I with List II. (1) remain same or cannot be measured
accurately
List I List II
(2) decrease sharply
(Hybridization) (Orientation in
Space) (3) depend upon type of electrolyte
(4) increase sharply
A. sp3 I. Trigonal
bipyramidal Answer (1)
K 1000
B. dsp2 II. Octahedral Sol. m
M
C. sp3d III. Tetrahedral K will become half and M will also become half.
D. sp3d2 IV. Square planar m will remain same or can not be measure sharply.
0
For infinitely dilute solute m m = constant.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : 72. The density of ‘x’ M solution (‘x’ molar) of NaOH is
1.12 g mL–1, while in molality, the concentration of
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
the solution is 3 m (3 molal). Then x is
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(Given : Molar mass of NaOH is 40 g/mol)
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) 3.0
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) 3.8
Answer (2) (3) 2.8
Sol. A Tetrahedral (III) (4) 3.5
(1)
(2)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
(3)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
Sol. Compound given is option (2) is metamer of
compound “X”.
74. Given below are two statements :
(4)
Statement I : Picric acid is 2, 4, 6-trinitrotoluene
Statement II : Phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid is
treated with Conc. HNO3 to get picric acid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Answer (1)
most appropriate answer from the options given
Sol. Compound given in option (1) is not present in
below :
DNA.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 76. Given below are two statements :
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Statement I : Gallium is used in the manufacturing
incorrect
of thermometers.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct Statement II : A thermometer containing gallium is
Answer (4) useful for measuring the freezing
Sol. S-I is incorrect as picric acid is 2,4,6-trinitrophenol point (256 K) of brine solution
S-II is correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the
75. DNA molecule contains 4 bases whose structure
are shown below. One of the structures is not correct answer from the options given below :
correct, identify the incorrect base structure.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (2)
S-2 is incorrect
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
77. In Reimer-Tiemann reaction, phenol is converted Sol. –SO3H is functional group in sulphonic acids.
into salicylaldehyde through an intermediate. The 80. Match List I with List II.
structure of intermediate is _______.
List I List II
(Compound) (Uses)
(1) (2)
A. Iodoform I. Fire extinguisher
Intermediate given in option (1) is produced. Choose the correct answer from the options given
78. Which among the following aldehydes is most below :
reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
O
|| (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) CH3 – C – H
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
O
|| (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) H – C – H
Answer (2)
O Sol. A Antiseptic (III)
||
(3) C3H7 – C – H
B Fire extinguisher (I)
O C Refrigerants (IV)
||
(4) C2H5 – C – H
D Insecticide (II)
Answer (2)
SECTION - B
Sol. Formaldehyde is more reactive due to least
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
hindrance.
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
79. Functional group present in sulphonic acids is
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
(1) –SO3H
integer.
(2) –SO2
81. The difference in the ‘spin-only’ magnetic moment
(3) –SO4H
values of KMnO4 and the manganese product
(4) – S – OH formed during titration of KMnO4 against oxalic acid
||
O in acidic medium is _______ BM. (nearest integer)
Answer (1) Answer (6)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
Sol. Mn7+ ( = 0) 83. Time required for 99.9% completion of a first order
reaction is _______ times the time required for
Mn2+ (= 5.91)
completion of 90% reaction. (nearest integer)
Difference = 5.91 Given 3
6 (Nearest integer) Answer (3)
82. Frequency of the de-Broglie wave of electron in t 99.9
Sol. 3
Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen atom is __________ × t 90
1013 Hz (nearest integer). For first order reaction
[Given : RH (Rydberg constant) = 2.18 × 10–18 J, h 2.303
t99.9 log1000
(Plank’s constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 J.s.] k
Answer (661) 2.303
t90 log10
k
h
Sol. 84. Number of molecules from the following which can
mv
exhibit hydrogen bonding is _______, (nearest
h integer)
·v
m
·v 2 h
v m
Answer (5)
2
v h Sol. compounds
Frequency m CH3OH
mv 2 2RH H 2O
Frequency =
h h
2 2.18 10 –18
=
6.6 10 –34 HF
NH3
= 660.6 × 1013 Hz
Can show H-Bonding.
Nearest integer = 661
85. Consider the dissociation of the weak acid HX as
If we take h = 6.626 × 10–34 given below
Then
HX(aq)
H (aq) X (aq), Ka 1.2 10
5
2RH
Frequency = [Ka : dissociation constant]
h
The osmotic pressure of 0.03 M aqueous solution
= 658.01 × 1013 Hz of HX at 300 K is _______ × 10–2 bar (nearest
But if value of h is given as 6.6 × 10–34 correct integer).
answer will be 661. [Given : R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1]
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Number of electron in B = 6
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning
5 5
90. An ideal gas, Cv R , is expanded adiabatically –V1 = nRT2 – 5 V1
2 2
against a constant pressure of 1 atm until it doubles
–V1 = 2.5 nRT2 – 12.5V1
in volume. If the initial temperature and pressure is
298 K and 5 atm, respectively then the final 11.5 V1 = 2.5 nRT2
temperature is _______ K (nearest integer).
nRT1
[ C v is the molar heat capacity at constant volume] 11.5 × 2.5 nRT2
P1
Answer (274) T2 = 274.16 k
5R
Sol. –1 2V1 – V1 = n × T2 –T1 274 (Nearest integer)
2
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