08/04/2024

Evening

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Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2024 (Online) Phase-2

(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.

(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and Part-C is.
Chemistry Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

(4) Section - A : Attempt all questions.

(5) Section - B : Attempt any 05 questions out of 10 Questions.

(6) Section – A : (01-20) / (31-50) / (61-80) contains 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) which have
only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

(7) Section – B: (21-30) / (51-60) / (81-90) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A  Quadratic equation whose roots are e & e– is

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 x2 – (e + e–)x + e × e– = 0

multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices  1
x2 −  2 +  x + 1 = 0
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.  2

Choose the correct answer: 2x 2 − 5 x + 2 = 0

loge 4
dx  2. Let a = iˆ + 2 jˆ + 3kˆ , b = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj – 5kˆ and
1. Let  =
6
. Then e and e– are the roots
ˆ ˆ ˆ
c = 3i – j + k be three vectors. Let r be a unit
ex – 1

of the equation: vector along b + c . If r  a = 3 , then 3 is equal to:
(1) x2 + 2x – 8 = 0 (2) 2x2 – 5x + 2 = 0 (1) 21 (2) 30
(3) 2x2 – 5x –2 = 0 (4) x2 – 2x – 8 = 0 (3) 27 (4) 25
Answer (2) Answer (4)
Sol. Let e −1 = t
x
Sol. a = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ
ex – 1 = t2 b = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ − 5kˆ
ex = 1 + t2
c = 3iˆ − jˆ + kˆ
dt
e x = 0 + 2t −
dx b + c = 5iˆ + 2 jˆ + ( − 5)kˆ
dt e x t 2 + 1 r is a unit vector along b + c
= =
dx 2t 2t
5iˆ + 2 jˆ + ( − 5)kˆ
2t  r =
I= dt = 2 tan−1 t 25 + 4 + ( − 5)2
t (1 + t 2 )
log4 Now, r  a = 3
dx
 I= 
 ex − 1
1
[5 + 4 + 3( − 5)] = 3
29 + ( − 5)2
log4
I = 2 tan−1 e x − 1 Squaring both sides

1
(
= 2 tan−1 3 − tan−1 e  − 1 = ) 
6

29 + ( − 5)2
[9 + 3( − 5)2 ] = 9

   [3 + ( – 5)]2 = 29 + ( – 5)2
 − tan−1( e  − 1) =
3 12  9 + ( – 5)2 + 6( – 5) = 29 + ( – 5)2
  9 + 6( – 5) = 29
tan−1( e  − 1) =
4 20 25
 = +5 =
 e – 1 = 1 6 3
25
e = 2  e − =
1  3 = 3  = 25
2 3

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)- Evening

3. In an increasing geometric progression of positive 2 a

Sol. m1 = , m2 =
70 5 2
terms, the sum of the second and sixth terms is
3 angle between two line
and the product of the third and fifth terms is 49.
m1 − m2
Then the sum of the 4th, 6th and 8th terms is equal tan  =
1 + m1m2
to:
(1) 84 (2) 78 2 a
−
5 2 = tan  = 1
(3) 91 (4) 96 2 a 4
1+ 
Answer (3) 5 2

a a a 2 a
Sol. Let the G.P. be , , , a , ar, ar2, ar3, ar4 −
r3 r2 r 5 2 =1
a
a 70 1+
Now, + ar 2 = 5
r2 3
4 − 5a
a =1
 ar = 49  a 2 = 49  a = 7 (G.P. is increasing) 10 + 2a
r
4 − 5a
7 70 = 1
Now, 2 + 7r 2 = 10 + 2a
r 3
4 − 5a 4 − 5a
3r4 – 10r2 + 3 = 0 =1 or = −1
10 + 2a 10 + 2a
(3r2 – 1)(r2 – 3) = 0
4 – 5a = 10 + 2a or 4 – 5a = –10 – 2a
1
 r 2 = or r2 = 3 6 14
3 a=− or a=
7 3
As it is increasing,  r2 = 3  r = 3 We have to take absolute value of a
Now, a + ar2 + ar4 = 7 + 7(3) + 7(9) 6 14
a1  a2 =  =4
= 7 + 21 + 63 = 91 7 3

4. If the line segment joining the points (5, 2) and 5. The area of the region in the first quadrant inside
the circle x2 + y2 = 8 and outside the parabola

(2, a) subtends an angle at the origin, then the y2 = 2x is equal to:
4
absolute value of the product of all possible values  1  2
(1) – (2) –
of a is: 2 3 2 3

(1) 8 (2) 6 1 2
(3)  – (4)  –
(3) 2 (4) 4 3 3

Answer (4) Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. We have, x2 + y2 = 8 and y2 = 2x Now check for transitive

(a, b) R (c, d) and (c, d) R (e, f) then (a, b) R (e, f)
3ad – 7bc = 2m  (2, 5) R (6, 8) and
3cf – 7ed = 2n (6, 8) R (9, 4)
then 3af – 7eb  even  (2, 5) R (9, 4)
 Not transitive option (3)
7. For a, b > 0, let
 tan ( a + 1) x + b tan x
 ( ) ,
Area of shaded region  x x0

2 2 2
f (x) =  3 x =0
y2  x0
= dy +  8 − y 2 dy 2 2
 ax + b x – ax
2 ,
0 2 
 b ax x
2 2
1 3 2 y  y 
= [ y ]0 +  8 − y 2 + 4 sin−1   be a continuous function at x = 0. Then
b
is equal
6  2  2 2 2 a
4 2 to
= +−2= −
3 3 (1) 4 (2) 8
6. Let A = {2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 11} and B = {1, 4, 5, 10, 15}. (3) 6 (4) 5
Let be a relation on A × B defined by (a, b)R(c, d) if Answer (3)
and only if 3ad – 7bc is an even integer. Then the
 tan ( a + 1) x + b tan x
relation R is  ( ) ,
(1) Reflexive but not symmetric  x x0

Sol. f ( x ) =  3 x =0
(2) Transitive but not symmetric
 2 2 x0
(3) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive  ax + b x – ax
 ,
(4) An equivalence relation  b ax x

Answer (3) f(x) is continuous at x = 0

Sol. (a, b) R (c, d)  3ad – 7bc  even  lim f ( x ) = f (0) = lim f ( x )
x →0 − x →0 +
For reflexive
lim f ( x ) = 3
(a, b) R (a, b)  3ab – 7ba = –4ab  even x →0 −

For symmetric tan((a + 1)x ) + b + ax

 lim =3
(a, b) R (c, d) x →0 − x
= 3ad − 7bc = (7ad − 3bc ) + ( −4ad − 4bc )  a + 1+ b = 3
even
a+b =2 … (1)
then
ax + b2 x 2 − ax
(c, d) R (a, b) = 3bc – 7ad also, lim =3
x →0+ b ax x
 even

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)- Evening

ah + b2 h2 − ah |A| = 18 –  – 4 (14 – 5) – 1 (7 – 45) = 0

= lim =3  18 –  – 56 + 20 + 38 = 0
x →0+ b a h h
 19 = 0
a + b2 h2 − a a + b2h + a =0
= lim  =3
h →0 b ah a + b2 h + a  18 −9 9 
 −7 
Also adjA =  −14 7
a + b2h − a
= lim =3
( )
h →0
 −38 19 −19 
b ah a + b2h + a
(adjA)  B = 0
b2  18 −9 9     0 
 =3  −14 7 −7   −3  = 0 
(
b a 2 a ) 
 −38 19 −19   −1 0 
b
 =3 18 + 27 – 9 = 0
2a
 18 = –18
b
 =6 …(2)   = −1
a
 2 + 3 = 3(–1) = –3
8. If the system of equations x + 4y – z = ,
9. The sum of all possible values of   [–, 2], for
7x + 9y + z = –3, 5x + y + 2z = –1 has infinitely 1 + i cos 
many solutions, then (2 + 3) is equal to: which is purely imaginary is equal to:
1– 2i cos 
(1) 3 (2) –2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) –3 (4) 2 (3) 5 (4) 4
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. x + 4y – z =  1 + i cos 
Sol. is purely imaginary
1 − 2i cos 
7x + 9y + z = –3
5x + y + 2z = –1 1 + i cos  1 + 2i cos  1 + 3i cos  − 2cos2 
n=  =
1 − 2i cos  1 + 2i cos  1 + 4cos2 
 1 4 −1  x    
 7 9    y  =  −3  1 − 2cos2   3cos  
     n= +i 
5 1 2   z   −1 1 + 4cos2   1 + 4cos2  
n is purely imaginary
 1 4 −1 
1 − 2cos2 
A = 7 9   , B =  −3   =0
1 + 4cos2 
5 1 2   −1
1
 cos2  =
AX = B 2
X = A–1B 1
 cos  = 
adjA 2
= B
| A|  − 3 −3 5 7
 can be , , , , ,
If |A| = 0 and (adjA)  B = 0, system has infinitely 4 4 4 4 4 4
many solutions. Sum of all possible values of  = 3

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

 –a if –a  x  0 Answer (3)
10. Let f ( x ) =  where a > 0 and
 x + a if 0  x  a dy
Sol. sec y + 2 x sin y = x 3 cos y
(f ( x ) – f ( x ) ) dx
g( x ) = . Then the function
2 dy
 sec 2 y + 2 x tan y = x 3
g : [–a, a] → [–a, a] is dx
(1) Onto Let z = tany
(2) Both one-one and onto dz dy
= sec 2 y
(3) Neither one-one nor onto dx dx
(4) One-one
dz
Answer (3)  + 2 xz = x 3
dx
−a if − a  x  0
Sol. f ( x ) =  I.F. = e x
2

 x + a if 0  x  a
2
= x2
 −a
f(x)=
−a | x | 0  z.e x e  x 3dx + c
| x | + a if 0  | x |  a
|x| < 0 is not possible, so
 tan y  e x =
2

2 (
1 2 x2 2
x e − ex + c )
x + a −a  x  0
f(x)=  tan(0)  e =
1
(1 e − e ) + c
 −x + a 0  x  a 2
a −a  x  0 c=0
f (x) = 
 x + a 0xa
x2 − 1
 tan y =
 x 2
− −a  x  0
h( x ) =  2
 x 2 − 1
 0 0xa f ( x ) = tan−1 
 2 
f ( 3 ) = 4
 
12. There are three bags X, Y and Z. Bag X contains 5
one-rupee coins and 4 five-rupee coins; Bag Y
contains 4 one-rupee coins and 5 five-rupee coins
and Bag Z contains 3 one-rupee coins and 6 five-
rupee coins. A bag is selected at random and a coin
Neither one-one nor onto
drawn from it at random is found to be a one-rupee
11. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the differential
coin. Then the probability, that it came from bag Y,
dy
equation sec y + 2 x sin y = x 3 cos y , y(1) = 0. is:
dx
1 1
Then y ( 3 ) is equal to: (1) (2)
3 4
 
(1) (2) 1 5
12 3 (3) (4)
2 12
 
(3) (4) Answer (1)
4 6

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)- Evening

Sol. By Baye’s theorem,  252 – 36 + 11 = 0

Probability (coin drawn from bag y)  252 – 25 – 11 + 11 = 0
1 4  (25 – 11)(  – 1) = 0

3 9 1
= = 11
1 5 1 4 1 3 3   = 1,
 +  + . 25
3 9 3 9 3 9
13. If the shortest distance between the lines 14. The number of ways five alphabets can be chosen
from the alphabets of the word MATHEMATICS,
x– y –4 z–3 x–2 y –4 z–7
= = and = = is where the chosen alphabets are not necessarily
2 3 4 4 6 8
distinct, is equal to:
13
, then a value of  is: (1) 179 (2) 181
29
(3) 175 (4) 177
13
(1) – (2) 1 Answer (1)
25
Sol. 2M
13
(3) (4) –1 2A
25
2T
Answer (2)
H, E, I, C, S
Sol. l1 = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 4kˆ
Case-I
l 2 = 4iˆ + 6 ˆj + 8kˆ 2 Alike 2 Alike 1 Diff
3
C2  C1 = 18
6

Case-II
2 Alike + 3 Diff
3
C1  C3 = 105
7

( 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ )  ( (  − 2) iˆ − 4kˆ )

Case-III
S.D. = All different
2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ 8
C5 = 56
iˆ ˆj kˆ Total ways = 179
2 3 4 = −12iˆ − jˆ ( −8 − 4 + 8 ) + kˆ ( 6 − 3 )
15. Let a = 4iˆ – jˆ + kˆ , b = 11iˆ – ˆj + kˆ and c be a
 − 2 0 −4
vector such that (a + b )  c = c  ( –2a + 3b ) . If
= −12iˆ + 4jˆ + ( 6 − 3 ) kˆ
( 2a + 3b )  c = 1670, then c
2
is equal to:
144 + 16 + ( 6 − 3 )
2 2
13
= (1) 1627 (2) 1618
29 29
(3) 1600 (4) 1609
144 + 162 + (6 – 3)2 = 169
Answer (2)
 162 + 92 + 36 – 36 + 144 – 169 = 0

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

a  b = 44 + 1 + 1 = 46 a = , 2a = 2   = 0, 2
a = 4iˆ − ˆj + kˆ 
Sol.  2 2 a>0  =2
b = 11iˆ − ˆj + kˆ  a = 18, b = 123
2 = 4
(a + b )  c = c  ( −2a + 3b )  x2 – 6x + 8 = 0 is the required quadratic
equation.
( 2a + 3b )  c = 1670 17. If the image of the point (–4, 5) in the line x + 2y =2
lie on the circle (x + 4)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2, then r is equal
(a + b )  c = ( 2a − 3b )  c to:

( −a + 4b )  c = 0 (1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
c =  ( 4b − a ) Answer (4)

( 2a + 3b )   ( 4b − a ) = 1670 x + 4 y − 5 −2 ( 4 )
Sol. = =
1 2 5
  5a  b − 2 a + 12 b  = 1670
2 2
8 28 16 9
   x = −4− = − ,y =5− =
5 5 5 5
1670
=  −28 9 
5  46 − 2  18 + 12  123  Image is  , 
 5 5
=1
Image lies on circle (x + 4)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2
c = 4b − a 2 2
 −28  9 
+ 4 +  − 3 = r 2
( ) (
= 4 11iˆ − ˆj + kˆ − 4iˆ − ˆj + kˆ ) 
 5  5 

= 40iˆ − 3 ˆj + 3kˆ 
64 36
+ = r2
25 25
2
c = 1600 + 9 + 9  r=2

= 1618  b c
18. If   a ,   b ,   c and a  c = 0, then
16. If the function f(x) = 2x3 – 9ax2 + 12a2x + 1, a > 0
has a local maximum at x =  and a local minimum a b 
at x = 2, then  and 2 are the roots of the a b 
+ + is equal to:
equation: –a –b –c
(1) x2 – 6x + 8 = 0 (2) 8x2 + 6x – 1 = 0 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) x2 + 6x + 8 = 0 (4) 8x2 – 6x + 1 = 0
(3) 1 (4) 0
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. f(x) = 6x2 – 18ax + 12a2
 b c
= 6(x2 – 3a + 2a2)
Sol. a  c = 0
= 6(x – a)(x –2a) = 0
a b 
x = a, 2a

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)- Evening

R1 → R1 – R2, R2 → R2 – R3 gcd (a, c) = 1, then a + b + c is equal to :

−a b− 0 (1) 40 (2) 52
 0 −b c− =0 (3) 50 (4) 54
a b  Answer (2)

Take -a, -b, -c common from column-1, 2 and 3 3cos36 + 5 sin18
Sol. =
respectively 5cos36 − 3 sin18

5 −1
sin18 =
1 −1 0 4
(  − a )( − b )(  − c ) 0 1 −1 = 0 1+ 5
cos36 =
a b  4
−a −b  −c
1 + 5   5 − 1
3  + 5 
 b a  4   4 
 + + =0  =
 −c  − b −a 1 + 5   5 − 1
5  −3 
19. If the term independent of x in the expansion of  4   4 
10
 2 1  3+3 5 +5 5 −5 8 5 −2 (4 5 − 1)(4 − 5)
 ax + 3 is 105, then a2 is equal to : = = =
 2x  3+5 5 −3 5 +3 2 5 +8 ( 5 + 4)(4 − 5)
(1) 2 (2) 4
16 5 − 20 − 4 + 5 17 5 − 24
(3) 6 (4) 9  =
16 − 5 11
Answer (2)
 a = 17, b = 24, c = 11
10
 1   a + b + c = 17 + 24 + 11
Sol.  ax 2 + 3 
 2x  = 52
r SECTION - B
( )  1 
10 − r
Tr +1 = 10
Cr ax 2  3
 2x  Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
Independent of x  20 – 2r – 3r = 0 each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
r=4 integer.
4
21. Let |x| = |y|exy – , ,    be the solution of the
( a)  1
6
  = 105
10
Independent of x is C4 differential equation xdy – ydx + xy(xdy + ydx) = 0,
2
y(1) = 2. Then  +  is equal to _________
210 3
a = 105 Answer (4)
28
Sol.  x = y e xy −
 a=2
a2 = 4 xdy − ydx xy ( xdy + ydx )
2
+ =0
y y2
3cos36 + 5 sin18 a 5–b
20. If the value of is ,
5cos36 – 3 sin18 c x x
−d   + d ( xy ) = 0
where a, b, c are natural numbers and y y

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

x
d 
y
 d ( xy ) =  x
y

x
xy = ln + ln c
y
A is mid-point of BS
 x 
xy = ln   c  (
 B 2 6 − 2 2, 2 5 )
 y 
0 0 1
y (1) = 2 1
(OSB ) = 2 2 0 1 = 2 10
2
1 2 6 −2 2 2 5 1
2 = ln c  c = 2e2
2
( (OSB ))2 = 40
 x 
 solution xy = ln   2e2  23. Let P(, , ) be the image of the point Q(1, 6, 4) in
 y  x y –1 z – 2
the line = = . Then 2 +  +  is equal
1 2 3
x
e xy =  2e2 to___________
y
Answer (11)
xy − 2
2x = ye

  = 2,  = 2,  +  = 4

x2 y 2
22. Let S be the focus of the hyperbola – = 1 , on
3 5
the positive x-axis. Let C be the circle with its centre
at A( 6, 5) and passing through the point S. If O
is the origin and SAB is a diameter of C, then the Sol.
square of the area of the triangle OSB is equal to
________
( )
QR  iˆ + 2 jˆ + 3kˆ = 0

17
Answer (40) (t − 1) + (2t − 5)  2 + (3t − 2)  3 = 0  t =
14
x2 y 2  17 48 79 
Sol. − =1  R  , ,
3 5 
 14 14 14 

8  + 1 17  + 6 48  + 4 79
5 = 3(e2 − 1)  e =  = , = , =
3 2 14 2 14 2 14
68 96 158
(
S  2 2, 0 ) 2 +  +  =
14
−2+
14
−6+
14
− 4 = 11

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)- Evening

24. The number of distinct real roots of the equation  Tn = an2 + bn + c

x + 1 x + 3 – 4 x + 2 + 5 = 0 , is _______  T1 = a + b + c = 2
Answer (2)  T2 = 4a + 2b + c = 5
Sol. x + 1 x + 3 − 4 x + 2 + 5 = 0  T3 = 9a + 3b + c = 11
 3a + b = 3
5a + b = 6
(I) If x < –3 3 −3
 2a =3  a = , b= c =2
x2 + 4x + 3 + 4x + 8 + 5 =0 2 2
x2 + 8x + 16 = 0  x = –4  one solution 3 2 3 (n) 3n 2 − 3n + 4
 Tn = n − +2 
(II) If –3  x < –2 2 2 2
–x2 – 4x – 3 + 4x + 8 + 5 = 0 3  100 − 3  10 + 4 274
T10 = = = 137
– 10 = 0  x =  10  do not satisfy – 3 
x2 2 2
x<–2 Terms in 10th row is 10 with 3 differences
(III) If –2  x < –1  137, 140, 143…
–x2 – 4x – 3 – 4x – 8 + 5 = 0 10
 S10 = ( 2  137 + (10 − 1)  3 )
x2 – 8x + 6 = 0 2
= 5(274 + 27) = 5 × 301 = 1505
(x + 4)2 = 10  x = –4  10  do not satisfy
B
–2x<–1 1  x – 1 
26. If  dx = A   + C , where
(IV) If x  –1 (
5 x –1
) ( x + 3)
4 6  x + 3 
x2 + 4x + 3 – 4x – 8 + 5 = 0
C is the constant of integration, then the value of
x2 = 0
 +  + 20AB is __________.
x = 0 (One solution)
Answer (7)
 The number of distinct real roots are two
1
25. An arithmetic progression is written in the following Sol. I =  dx
way
5
( x – 1)4 ( x + 3 )6
2 x +3 −4 3+t 
5 8 = t  dx = dt  x =  
x −1 (t − 1)2  t −1 
11 14 17
 x +3
20 23 26 29  ( x − 1)4 ( x + 3)6 = ( x − 1)5 ( x + 3)5  
 x −1 
−4
The sum of all the terms of the 10th row is_____. dt
( t − 1)2
Answer (1505) I=  3+t  3 + t 
Sol. First term is each row form pattern t 1/5  − 1 + 3
 t − 1  t − 3 
1/5
−4 dt 5  x −1 
I= = +c
t 1/5 (16t ) 4  x + 3 

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

Comparing, 28. Let a, b, c   and a < b < c. Let the mean, the
mean deviation about the mean and the variance of
5 1
 A= , B = ,  = 1,  = 1 136
4 5 the 5 observations 9, 25, a, b, c be 18, 4 and ,
5
5 1 respectively. Then 2a + b – c is equal to________
  +  + 20 AB = 1 + 1 + 20   =7
4 5 Answer (33)

 e tan x – e x  Sol. a, b, c N
27. If  = lim   and a<b<c
x →0+  tan x – x 
  Mean = 18
1
cot x 9 + 25 + a + b + c
= 18
 = lim (1 + sin x )
2
are the roots of the 5
x →0
34 + a + b + c = 90
quadratic equation ax 2 + bx – e = 0 , then
a + b + c = 56
12 loge(a + b) is equal to ___________.
| 9 − 18 | + | 25 − 18 | + | a − 18 | + | b − 18 | + | c − 18 |
Answer (6) =4
5
tan x x
e –e 9 + 7+ | a − 18 | + | b − 18 | + | c − 18 | = 20
Sol.  = lim
x →0+ ( tan x – x ) | a − 18 | + | b − 18 | + | c − 18 | = 4
x tan x − x
e (e − 1) 136 706 + a2 + b2 + c 2
= lim =1 = − (18)2
x →0 ( tan x − x ) 5 5

 136 = 706 + a2 + b2 + c 2 − 1620

1 1 
e(
sin x ) 2 cot x 
 = lim (1 + sin x )
cot x
2 = lim  
x →0 x →0  a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = 1050

1 Consider a  19  b  c
cos x
2
= lim e = e1/2 Solving a = 17, b = 19, c = 20
x →0
2a + b – c
− e 34 + 19 – 20
Product of roots = e =  a = −1
a
= 33
−b 29. Let a ray of light passing through the point (3, 10)
Sum of roots = = 1+ e
a reflects on the line 2x + y = 6 and the reflected ray
passes through the point (7, 2). If the equation of
= b = e +1 the incident ray is ax + by + 1 = 0, then

 12ln(a + b ) = 12ln
( )
a2 + b2 + 3ab is equal to________.
( )
e + 1 − 1 = 12ln e1/2 = 6
Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)- Evening

Sol. Equation of incident ray : ax + by + 1 = 0 30. Let A be the region enclosed by the parabola
Using mirror image, y2 = 2x and the line x = 24. Then the maximum area
of the rectangle inscribed in the region A is
m − 7 n − 2 −2(14 + 2 − 6)
= = _______.
2 1 5
Answer (128)
m−7 n – 2 = –4
= −4 Sol. y2 = 2x
2 n = –2
 1
m=–8+7 a= 
2
m=–1

 t2 
A(t ) = 2t   24 − 
 2 

A = 48t – t3
*Note: It can be observed from diagram A, P, B are
collinear.
dA
Equation of Incident Ray, = 48 − 3t 2
dt
Using two-point form,
48 − 3t 2 = 0
10 + 2
( y − 10) = ( x − 3) 3t 2 = 48
3 +1

12 t 2 = 16
( y − 10) = ( x − 3)
4 t = 4
y – 10 = +3(x – 3)
y – 10 = +3x – 9
3x – y + 1 = 0
A(4) = 48  4 − 43
On comparing,
= 192 – 64
a=3
A(4) = 128
b = –1

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 32. A thin circular disc of mass M and radius R is

rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. with angular velocity . If another disc of same
M
Choose the correct answer: dimensions but of mass is placed gently on the
2
1
31. Least count of a vernier calliper is cm. The first disc co-axially, then the new angular velocity of
20N
the system is
value of one division on the main scale is 1 mm.
2 3
Then the number of divisions of main scale that (1)  (2) 
3 2
coincide with N divisions of vernier scale is
4 5
(3)  (4) 
 2N – 1  5 4
(1)  
 2 
Answer (1)
 2N – 1  Sol. COAM
(2)  
 20N 
MR 2  MR 2 M R 2 
= +  
(3) (2N – 1) 2  2 2 2 

 2N – 1   3
(4)   = 
 2N  2 4

2
Answer (1) = 
3
Sol. Let m scale division of main scale coincides with Nth
33. There are 100 divisions on the circular scale of a
VSD.
screw gauge of pitch 1 mm. With no measuring
 m MSD = N V.S.D quantity in between the jaws, the zero of the circular
scale lies 5 divisions below the reference line. The
m
M.SD = I V.SD diameter of a wire is then measured using this
N
screw gauge. It is found that 4 linear scale divisions
m 1 are clearly visible while 60 divisions on circular
L-C = 1 − =  10
N 20 N scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter
of the wire is
1 m
1− = (1) 4.65 mm (2) 4.55 mm
2N N
(3) 3.35 mm (4) 4.60 mm
2N − 1
=N
2 Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. 1 mm = 100 C.SD 36. The position of the image formed by the
combination of lenses is
1
 1 C.SD = mm
100

1
Zero error = +5  mm
100

1 5
Reading = 4 × 1 mm + 60 × −
100 100
(1) 30 cm (right of third lens)
= 4.55 mm
(2) 15 cm (left of second lens)
34. If 0 is the permittivity of free space and E is the
electric field, then  0E2 has the dimensions (3) 15 cm (right of second lens)
(4) 30 cm (left of third lens)
(1) [M0L–2TA] (2) [ML2T–2]
Answer (1)
(3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [M–1L–3T4A2]
1 1 1
Answer (3) Sol. − =
v u f
ML2 T −2
Sol. 0E2  Energy / Volume  1 1 1
L3 − =
v −30 10
= ML–1T–2
1 1 1 3 −1 1
35. A coil of negligible resistance is connected in series = − = =
v 10 30 30 15
with 90  resistor across 120 V, 60 Hz supply. A
voltmeter reads 36 V across resistance. Inductance v = 15
of the coil is
(1) 0.286 H
(2) 0.91 H
(3) 2.86 H
 30 cm right of third
(4) 0.76 H
37. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
Answer (4) current I. The current is uniformly distributed across
VR 36 2 its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic field at
Sol. i = = = A
R 90 5 a
and 2a from axis of the wire is
2
VL = 1202 − 362
(1) 3 : 4
V 12 91
L = L = (2) 1 : 4
i 2/5
(3) 4 : 1
30 91 (4) 1 : 1
L= = 0.76
120 Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

a a2 40. A given object takes n times the time to slide down

Sol. (i) B12 = 0 jˆ 45° rough inclined plane as it takes the time to slide
2 4
down an identical perfectly smooth 45° inclined
(ii) B2 22a = 0 jˆa 2 plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the
object and the surface of inclined plane is
 B1 = B2
1
38. The angle of projection for a projectile to have same (1) 1– 2 (2) 1– n 2
horizonal range and maximum height is n
1
–1  1  (3) 1 – n2 (4) 1– 2
(1) tan–1(4) (2) tan   n
4
Answer (4)
–1  1 
(3) tan   (4) tan–1(2)
2 2l
t g (sin  −  cos ) n
Answer (1) Sol. r = =
ts 2l 1
2 2
u sin  u sin  2 2 g sin 
Sol. =
g 2g
sin 
= n2
sin  sin  −  cos 
2cos  =
2 sin 
= sin  −  cos 
tan = 4 n2
39. Two satellite A and B go round a planet in circular  1
orbits having radii 4R and R respectively. If the  cos  = sin  1 − 
 n2 
speed of A is 3v, the speed of B will be
1
4  = 1−
(1) 12v (2) v n2
3
(3) 6v (4) 3v
Answer (3) 41.
3
Sol. T  a 2
3
a
 a2
v A block is simply released from the top of an
inclined plane as shown in the figure above. The
1
 v maximum compression in the spring when the block
a hits the spring is
3v R (1) 6m (2) 5m
=
v' 4R (3) 1 m (4) 2 m
v = 6v Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

1 2 Sol.  = PV2 – PV1 = 100

Sol. mg 5 = mg (2 + x ) + kx
2
7 7
250 = 25(2 + x) + 50x2 Q= R T =  100 = 350
2 2
10 = 2 + x + 2x2
44. A proton and an electron have the same de Broglie
2x2 + x – 8 = 0
wavelength. If Kp and Ke be the kinetic energies of
–1  1 + 64
x= proton and electron respectively, then choose the
4
x = 1.76  2 correct relation

42. Water boils in an electric kettle in 20 minutes after (1) Kp = Ke

being switched on. Using the same main supply,
the length of the heating element should be _____ (2) Kp > Ke
to _____ times of its initial length if the water is to (3) Kp < Ke
be boiled in 15 minutes.
(4) Kp = Ke2
4
(1) increased,
3 Answer (3)

3 h h h
(2) decreased, Sol.  = = =
4 mv 2me ke 2mp k p
3
(3) increased,
4 Kp me
=  1
4 Ke mp
(4) decreased,
3
 3
Answer (2)
12
45. If Mo is the mass of isotope 5B , Mp and Mn are the
V2 V2
Sol.  20 =  15
R1 R2 masses of proton and neutron, then nuclear binding
energy of isotope is
l
 1
4 l (1) (Mo – 5Mp)C2
= A = 1
3 l2 l2
 (2) (5Mp + 7Mn – Mo)C2
A

3 (3) (Mo – 12Mn)C2

l 2 = l1
4 (4) (Mo – 5Mp – 7Mn)C2
43. A diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 100 J of work in an
Answer (2)
isobaric expansion. The heat given to the gas is
(1) 250 J (2) 490 J Sol. B.E. = | M | C2 = (Mr − Mp )C2

(3) 150 J (4) 350 J

= ( 5Mp + 7Mn – Mo ) C2
Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

46. A capacitor has air as dielectric medium and two 48. A cube of ice floats partly in water and partly in
conducting plates of area 12 cm2 and they are
kerosene oil. The ratio of volume of ice immersed
0.6 cm apart. When a slab of dielectric having area
12 cm2 and 0.6 cm thickness is inserted between in water to that in kerosene oil (specific gravity of
the plates, one of the conducting plates has to be Kerosene oil = 0.8, specific gravity of ice = 0.9)
moved by 0.2 cm to keep the capacitance same as
in previous case. The dielectric constant of the slab
is
(Given 0 = 8.834 × 10–12 F/m)

(1) 1 (2) 1.33

(3) 1.50 (4) 0.66
Answer (3)
(1) 5 : 4
Sol.
(2) 9 : 10

(3) 8 : 9

(4) 1 : 1
0 A 0 A
= Answer (4)
d d 0.2
+
k 1
Sol. v  (1) + v k ( 0.8 ) = (v  + v k ) ( 0.9 )
0.6
 0.6 − 0.2 =
k v
 =1
0.6
vk
k= = 1.5
0.4
49. A plane progressive wave is given by
47. In a hypothetical fission reaction
y = 2cos2(330t – x) m. The frequency of the wave
92X
236 → 56Y141 + 36Z92 + 3R
is
The identity of emitted particles (R) is
(1) 165 Hz
(1) Proton
(2) Neutron (2) 660 Hz
(3) Electron (3) 340 Hz
(4) -radiations
(4) 330 Hz
Answer (2)
Sol. Zreactant = Zproduct  neutral Answer (4)

3MR = 236 – 141 – 92 = 3 (

Sol. Comparing with A cos 2t − 2x )
MR = 1  neutron   = 330

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

50. Given below are two statements : 1

Sol. M = m 422 A2
Statement (I) : The mean free path of gas 2
molecules is inversely proportional to square of
molecular diameter. 1 25 25 2
0.9 =  .2  42   A
Statement (II) : Average kinetic energy of gas 2  
molecules is directly proportional to absolute
9
temperature of gas. = A2
4  25  25
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
944
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true In CGS = A2 = 36  A = 6
4
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(However, with kinetic energy, data is inconsistent)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 53. Small water droplets of radius 0.01 mm are formed
Answer (1) in the upper atmosphere and falling with a terminal
1 velocity of 10 cm/s. Due to condensation, if 8 such
Sol. As  =
2
2d n droplets are coalesced and formed a larger drop,
f the new terminal velocity will be ______ cm/s.
 = kT
2 Answer (40)
 1
Sol. (1) VT  r
2
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section (2) 8 drops of r  1 drop of R
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest  R = 2r.
integer.
(3) VT = 40 cm/s

51. An alternating emf E = 110 2 sin100t volt is 54. The coercivity of a magnet is 5 × 103 A/m. The
applied to a capacitor of 2 F, the rms value of
amount of current required to be passed in a
current in the circuit is _____ mA
solenoid of length 30 cm and the number of turns
Answer (22)
150, so that the magnet gets demagnetised when
V 110
Sol. =i = 110  2  10 −4 = 22 mA.
( Xc ) 1 inside the solenoid is _____ A.
−6
100  2  10 Answer (10)
52. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic
Sol. At demagnetization B = 0H
 25 
motion along x axis with frequency of   Hz . At
   H = ni
the position x = 0.04 m the object has kinetic energy
0.5 J and potential energy 0.4 J. The amplitude of 5  103
oscillation is ______ cm. = i = 10 A
150
 100
Answer (6) 30

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

55. A potential divider circuit is connected with a dc

source of 20 V, a light emitting diode of glow in
Sol.
voltage 1.8 V and a Zener diode of breakdown
voltage of 3.2 V. The length (PR) of the resistive
wire is 20 cm. The minimum length of PQ to just
glow the LED is ______ cm.
2H
R= v
g

2(4H ) v
R =
g 2

 R = R
(Assume horizontal projectile in second case)
57. If the net electric field at point P along Y axis is zero,
q2 8
then the ratio of is , where x = _____.
q3 5 x
Answer (5)

Sol.

Answer (5)

For minimum length of PQ,

Vdiodes = 1.8 + 3.2 = 5V Sol.
20
 lPQ = 5
20
= 5 cm
56. A body of mass M thrown horizontally with velocity  E2 cos = E3 cos
v from the top of the tower of height H touches the
ground at a distance of 100 m from the foot of the q2 4 q3 4
=
v (2 + 42 )
2
2 +4
2 2 4 + 32
2
4 + 32
2
tower. A body of mass 2M thrown at a velocity
2
q2 20 20 4 2 5
from the top of the tower of height 4H will touch the = = 
ground at a distance of _____m. q3 25 5 5 5
Answer (100)  n=5

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

58. A circular table is rotating with an angular velocity Width central maxima = 10 fringe width = 2 = 10 
of  rad/s about its axis (see figure). There is a a

smooth groove along a radial direction on the table. 2 D

A steel ball is gently placed at a distance of 1 m on = 10 
a d
the groove. All the surfaces are smooth. If the
d 10 – 3
radius of the table is 3 m, the radial velocity of the a= = = 2  10 – 4
ball w.r.t. the table at the time ball leaves the table 5 5

is x 2 m/s , where the value of x is ______.
60. A heater is designed to operate with a power of
1000 W in a 100 V line. It is connected in
combination with a resistance of 10  and a
resistance R, to a 100 V mains as shown in figure.
For the heater to operate at 62.5 W, the value of R
should be ________ .

Answer (2)

dv r
Sol. mv r = m2 r
dr Answer (5)

v v2 2 (r 2 − 1)
=
2 2

v r =  8 = 2 2 Sol.

59. Two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is located

1 m away from the slits. A light of wavelength
100  100
500 nm is used. The width of each slit to obtain RH = = 10 
10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the 1000
central maximum of the single slit pattern is
62.5
________ × 10–4 m. iH = = 2.5 A
10
Answer (2)
VH = 25 V

75
 ib = = 7.5 A
10
Sol.
 iR = 5 A

25
R= =5
5

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1) (A), (B), (D) only (2) (D) and (E) only
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (3) (B), (D), (E) only (4) (A), (C), (E) only
Choose the correct answer : Answer (2)
61. Given below are two statements: Sol. The stability of +5 oxidation states decreases down
Statement (I): A Buffer solution is the mixture of a the group due to inert pair effect.
salt and an acid or a base mixed in any particular Nitrogen can show a maximum covalency of 4.
quantities. 63. When A and B are the wave functions of atomic
Statement (II): Blood is naturally occurring buffer orbital, then * is represent by:
solution whose pH is maintained by H₂CO₃/HCO3– (1) A + 2B (2) A – B
concentrations. (3) A – 2B (4) A + B
In the light of the above statements, choose the Answer (2)
correct answer from the options given below:
Sol. * = A – B
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
64. Identify the correct statements about p-block
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false elements and their compounds.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (A) Non metals have higher electronegativity than
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false metals.
(B) Non metals have lower ionisation enthalpy than
Answer (3)
metals.
Sol. Buffer solution is the mixture of weak acid or weak
(C) Compounds formed between highly reactive
base with their conjugate ions. nonmetals and highly reactive metals are
62. Identify the incorrect statements about group 15 generally ionic.
elements: (D) The non-metal oxides are generally basic in
nature.
(A) Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas which acts like an
inert gas at room temperature. (E) The metal oxides are generally acidic or neutral
in nature.
(B) The common oxidation states of these
(1) (B) and (E) only (2) (B) and (D) only
elements are –3, +3 and +5.
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (D) and (E) only
(C) Nitrogen has unique ability to form p – p
multiple bonds. Answer (3)
Sol. Non metals have higher ionisation enthalpy than
(D) The stability of +5 oxidation states increases
metals due to less electropositive nature.
down the group
The non metal oxides are acidic in general.
(E) Nitrogen shows a maximum covalency of 6 The metal oxides are generally basic.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

65. Match List I with List - II.

67. The emf of cell Tl Tl+ Cu+ Cu is 0.83 V at
( 0.001M) ( 0.01M)
List - I List-II
(Complex ion) (Spin only magnetic 298K. It could be increased by
moment in B.M.) (1) increasing concentration of Tl+ ions
(A) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (I) 4.90 (2) decreasing concentration of both Tl+ and Cu2+
(B) [NiCl4]2– (II) 3.87 ions
(3) increasing concentration of Cu2+ ions
(C) [CoF6]3– (III) 0.0
(4) increasing concentration of both Tl+ and Cu2+
(D) [Ni(CN)4]2– (IV) 2.83 ions
Choose the correct answer from the options given Answer (3)
below:
Sol.
(1) (A)–(I), (B)–(IV), (C)–(II), (D)–(III)
(2) (A)–(II), (B)–(III), (C)–(I), (D)–(IV)
(3) (A)–(II), (B)–(IV), (C)–(I), (D)–(III)
2
(4) (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), (C)–(I), (D)–(II) Tl+ 
log  
 0.0591
Ecell = Ecell −
Answer (3) 2 Cu 2+ 
 
Sol. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ : Cr3+ :
Ecell will increase by decrease in [Tl+] or increase in
 = 3  5 = 3.87
[Cu2+].
[NiCl4]2– : Ni2+ : 68. Match List-I with List-II
 = 2  4 = 2.83 List-I List-II
(Reactions) (Products)
[CoF6]3– : Co3+ :

 = 4  6 = 4.9

(A) (I)
[NiCl4]2– : Ni2+ :
=0

66. The equilibrium Cr2O72– 2CrO2–

4
is shifted to (B) (II)
the right in
(1) A neutral medium
(2) A weakly acidic medium
(3) An acidic medium (C) (III)
(4) A basic medium
Answer (4)
Sol. Cr2O72− + H2O 2CrO24− + 2H+ (D) (IV)
Reaction will shift in forward direction in basic
medium.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

Choose the correct answer from the options given 70. Which one the following compounds will readily
below: react with dilute NaOH?
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (1) C2H5OH
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (2) C6H5OH
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (CH3)3COH
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(4) C6H5CH2OH
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol.
Sol. C6H5OH (Phenol) is more acidic than water hence
reacts with NaOH.
71. Given below are two statements
Statement (I): Kjeldahl method is applicable to
estimate nitrogen in pyridine
Statement (II): The nitrogen present in pyridine can
easily be converted into ammonium sulphate in
Kjeldahl method
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
69. For a reaction A ⎯⎯→ B ⎯⎯→K K
1 2
C
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
If the rate of formation of B is set to be zero then
Answer (3)
the concentration of B is given by:
Sol. Kjeldahl method is not applicable to compounds
(1) (K1 + K2)[A]
containing nitrogen in the ring as nitrogen of these
(2) (K1 – K2)[A]
compounds does not change to ammonium
(3) K1K2 [A] sulphate under these conditions.
(4) (K1 / K2)[A]
72. Match List-I with List-II.
Answer (4)
List-I List-II
K1 K2
Sol. A ⎯⎯→B ⎯⎯⎯
→C (Test) (Identification)
Net rate of formation of B (A) Bayer’s test (I) Phenol
d[B]
= = K1[A] − K 2 [B] = 0 (B) Ceric ammonium (II) Aldehyde
dt
nitrate test
K [A]
So, [B] = 1 (C) Phthalein dye test (III) Alcoholic-OH group
K2
(D) Schiff’s test (IV) Unsaturation

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), (C)–(I), (D)–(II)
(2) (A)–(IV), (B)–(I), (C)–(II), (D)–(III)
(3) (A)–(III), (B)–(I), (C)–(IV), (D)–(II)
(4) (A)–(II), (B)–(III), (C)–(IV), (D)–(I)
Answer (1)
Sol. Bayer’s test – Used to test unsaturation
Ceric ammonium nitrate test – gives red ppt with
alcohols
Answer (4)
Sol. For test of phosphorus:
H3PO4 + 12 (NH4 )2 MoO4 + 21HNO3 → (NH4 )3  12MoO3
( Yellow ppt )
+ 21NH4NO3 + 12H2O
75. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): All the following compounds react
with p-toluenesulfonyl chloride.
C6H5NH2 (C6H5)2NH (C6H5)3N
Statement (II) : Their products in the above
reaction are soluble is aqueous NaOH.

Phthalein dye test – used to test for phenol In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Schiff’s test – gives pink colour with aldehydes
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
73. The shape of carbocation is
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) Diagonal
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Trigonal planar (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Diagonal pyramidal Answer (3)
(4) Tetrahedral Sol. 1° and 2° amines only reacts with p-toluenesulfonyl
Answer (2) chloride and product of 1° amine only is soluble in
aqueous NaOH.
Sol. Carbocation is sp2 hybridised hence it’s shape is
76. The correct sequence of acidic strength of the
trigonal planar
following aliphatic acids in their decreasing order is:
CH3CH2COOH, CH3COOH, CH3CH2CH2COOH,
HCOOH
(1) HCOOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH >
CH3CH2CH2COOH

74. In qualitative test for identification of presence of (2) CH3CH2CH2COOH > CH3CH2COOH >
phosphorous, the compound is heated with an CH3COOH > HCOOH
oxidising agent. Which is further treated with nitric (3) HCOOH > CH3CH2CH2COOH >
acid and ammonium molybdate respectively. The CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH
yellow coloured precipitate obtained is:
(4) CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH >
(1) (NH4)3PO4.12(NH4)2MoO4
CH3CH2CH2COOH > HCOOH
(2) MoPO4.21NH4NO3
Answer (1)
(3) Na3PO4.12MoO3 Sol. HCOOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH >
(4) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3 CH3CH2CH2COOH

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

77. Given below are two statements: 79. IUPAC name of following hydrocarbon(X) is:
Statement (I): SN2 reactions are 'stereospecific', CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH – CH2 – CH3
| | |
indicating that they result in the formation of only CH3 (X) CH3 CH3
one stereo-isomer as the product.
(1) 2,5,6 – Trimethyloctane
Statement (II): SN1 reactions generally result in
(2) 2-Ethyl-3,6-dimethylheptane
formation of product as racemic mixtures. In the
light of the above statements, choose the correct (3) 2-Ethyl-2,6-diethylheptane
answer from the options given below: (4) 3,4,7-Trimethyloctane
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Answer (1)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Sol.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2, 5, 6-trimethyloctane
Answer (4)
80. The reaction;
Sol. SN2 reactions are stereospecific and inversion of
configuration is observed while via SN1 generally 1
H + AgCl( S ) → H(+aq) + Cl(–aq) + Ag(S )
racemisation is observed. 2 2( g)

78. Given below are two statements: Occurs in which of the following galvanic cell:

Statement (I): Fusion of MnO2 with KOH and an (1) Ag AgCl(S) KCl ( soln.) AgNO3(aq.) Ag
oxidising agent gives dark green K2MnO4.
(2) Pt H2( g) KCl ( soln.) AgCl(S) Ag
Statement (II): Manganate ion on electrolytic
oxidation in alkaline medium gives permanganate
(3) Pt H2( g) HCl ( soln.) AgCl(S) Ag
ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Pt H2( g) HCl ( soln.) AgNO3(aq) Ag
correct answer from the options given below:
Answer (3)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II is false
Sol. The given reaction has the following half cell
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
reaction:
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
1
at anode : H2 → H+ + e −
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2
Answer (4) at cathode : AgCl + e− → Ag + Cl−
Sol. Dark green K2MnO4 is observed when an oxidising
The cell representation is :
agent is added to alkaline MnO2 and manganate ion
Pt | H2(g) | HCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s)
oxidises to permanganate in alkaline medium.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

SECTION - B 84. Two moles of benzaldehyde and one mole of

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section acetone under alkaline conditions using aqueous
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to NaOH after heating gives x as the major product.
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest The number of  bonds in the product x is
integer. Answer (9)

81. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea is 4.44m.

Mole fraction of urea in solution is x × 10–3. Value Sol.
of x is _______. (Integer answer)
Answer (74)

XB m  MA
Sol. =
XA 1000
Total number of  bonds in X = 9
where m = molality; MA = molar mass of solvent 85. Number of molecules having bond order 2 from the
XB 4.44  18 following molecules is ___________
= = 0.08
1 − XB 1000 C2, O2, Be2, Li2, Ne2, He2

XB = 0.074 = 74 × 10–3 Answer (2)

Sol. The molecules having bond order 2 are: C2 and O2.
So, x = 74
86. Total number of optically active compounds from
82. The total number of carbon atoms present in
the following is _________.
tyrosine, an amino acid, is ____________
Answer (9)
Sol. The structure of tyrosine is :

CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH,

Number of C-atoms = 9
CH3 – CH2 – C H – CH3 ,
|
83. vapH° for water is +40.79 kJ mol-1
at 1 bar and
Cl
100°C. Change in internal energy for this
vapourisation under same condition is CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl,
–1 –1
___________ kJ mol . (Given R=8.3 JK mol )–1 (CH3)2CH – CH2 – CH2 – Cl

Answer (38) Answer (2)

Sol. The optically active compounds are:
Sol. H° = U° + ngRT

8.3  373
Or U°= 40.79 −
1000
= 37.67 = 38

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (08-04-2024)-Evening

87. A solution is prepared by adding 1 mole ethyl 89. Total number of aromatic compounds among the
alcohol in 9 mole water. The mass percent of solute following compounds is _______
in the solution is _______. (Integer answer)

(Given: Molar mass in g mol-1, Ethyl alcohol: 46,

water: 18)

Answer (22)
Answer (1)
1 46
Sol. %m / m =  100 = 22.11
(46 + 18  9) Sol. The aromatic compounds is only in the
22
given compounds.
88. Total number of unpaired electrons in the complex
90. Wavenumber for a radiation having 5800 Å
ions [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [NiCl4]2– is
wavelength is x × 10 cm–1. The value of x is
Answer (2) _______.

Sol. [Co(NH3)6]3+ : Co3+ : t 62g e0g : n = 0 Answer (1724)

1 1
Sol.  = = = 1724.1  10 cm−1
[NiCl4 ]2− : Ni2+ : t 62ge2g : n = 2  5800  10−8 cm

x = 1724

❑ ❑ ❑

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