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Morning
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.
(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and Part-C is
Chemistry. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 1
x = 1 and x = (3)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 2− 2
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices When x = 1, y = 1 z2 = 1 + i
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1 1
When x = ,y = 2−
Choose the correct answer: 2− 2 2
1. Let S = {z C : |z – 1| = 1 and 1 i
z1 = 1+ +
( 2 − 1)(z + z) − i (z − z) = 2 2 }. Let z1, z2 S be 2 2
such that | z1 | = max | z | and | z2 | = min | z | . Then Now,
zS zS
| 2z1 − z2 |2 equals : | 2 z1 − z2 |2
2
(1) 2 (2) 4 1
= + 1 2 + i − (1 + i )
(3) 3 (4) 1 2
Answer (1)
( 2)
2
=
Sol. Let z = x + iy
=2
|z – 1| = 1 |x + iy – 1| = 1
(x – 1)2 + y2 = 1 (1) 2. Let S = { x R : ( 3 + 2)x + ( 3 − 2)x = 10} .
( )
Then the number of elements in S is :
2 − 1 (z + z ) − i (z − z ) = 2 2 (Given)
(1) 2 (2) 1
( ) ( )
x2 4 − 2 2 + x 2 2 − 6 + 2 = 0 ( 3+ 2 )
x
=52 6
x2 ( 2 − 2 ) + x ( 2 − 3) + 1 = 0 x = 2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
x2y2 e12 = 1 +
7
3. Let + = 1 , a > b be an ellipse, whose 14
a2 b2
1 3
eccentricity is and the length of the latusrectum e12 =
2 2
is 14 . Then the square of the eccentricity of 4. For 0 < < /2, if the eccentricity of the hyperbola
2 2
x y x2 – y2cosec2 = 5 is 7 times eccentricity of the
− 2 = 1 is :
2
a b ellipse x2cosec2 + y2 = 5, then the value of is :
3 5 5
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 4 12
7
(3) 3 (4) (3) (4)
2 3 6
Answer (1) Answer (3)
x2 y 2 Sol. x2 − y 2cosec2 = 5
Sol. + =1 a > b
a2 b2
x2 y2
− =1
e=
1 5 5sin2
2
eH = 1+ sin2
b2 1
1− 2 = and x2cosec2 + y2 = 5
a 2
x2 y2
b2 1
= + =1
5sin2 5
a2 2
2b2 eE = 1− sin2 = cos
Also, = 14
a
eH = 7 eE
2
2b
a = 14 1+ sin2 = 7 cos
a2
1 1 + sin2 = 7cos2
2 a = 14
2 1 + sin2 = 7 – 7sin2
a = 14 8sin2 = 6
b2 = 7 3
sin =
x2 y 2 2
Now, − =1
14 7
= 0
b2 3 2
e12 = 1 +
a2 So, option (3) is correct
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
loge x, x 0
x, x 0
Sol. Mean deviation about median
f (x) = −x and g ( x ) = x . Then,
e , x0
e , x 0
0 + 45 + 60 + 20 + 40 + 170 − a + 170 − b 205
= =
gof : R → R is : 7 7
1 x
Sol. tan A = , tan B =
x( x 2 + x + 1) x2 + x + 1
f(x) is neither one-one nor onto 1
6. Let the median and the mean deviation about the
median of 7 observation 170, 125, 230, 190, 210,
and tan C = x ( −3
+x −2
+x )
–1 2
a, b be 170 and
205
respectively. Then the mean 1
7 A = tan–1 and
x( x 2 + x + 1)
deviation about the mean of these 7 observations
is :
x
(1) 31 (2) 32 B = tan−1
2
(3) 28 (4) 30 x + x +1
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
1+ x 5!
= 15 0 1 2 2
2 1!2!2!2!
−1 x( x + x + 1)
A + B = tan
1 5! 1
1 − 2 = 10
x + x + 1
1 1 1 2
1!1! !2! 3!
Total ways = 1 + 5 + 10 + 10 + 15 + 10 = 51
1+ x
x( x 2 + x + 1) 9. If the system of equations
= tan−1
x2 + x 2x + 3y – z = 5
(
2
x + x +1 )
x + y + 3z = –4
3x – y + z = 7
1 x 2 + x + 1
−1 has infinitely many solutions, then 13 is equal to
= tan
x( x 2 + x + 1) x ________ .
(1) 1220 (2) 1110
x2 + x + 1 (3) 1120 (4) 1210
−1
= tan
x 3/2 Answer (3)
Sol. Given 2x + 3y – z = 5
= tan–1C
x + y + 3z = – 4
A+B=C
8. If n is the number of ways five different employees 3x – y + z = 7
can sit into four indistinguishable offices where any 2 −1 5
office may have any number of persons including 2 = 1 3 −4
zero, then n is equal to: 3 7
(1) 43 (2) 53
2 = 2(21 + 4) + 1(7 + 12) + 5 ( – 9)
(3) 47 (4) 51
2 = 42 + 8 + 19 + 5 – 45
Answer (4)
2 = 13 + 16
Sol. Since rooms are identical so we can distribute in
following way 2 = 0
(1) (2) (3) (4) 16
=−
1 way = 1 0 0 0 5 13
5! 2 3 5
ways = 5 0 0 1 4
4!1! 3 = 1 −4
5! 3 −1 7
ways = 10 0 0 2 3
2!3!
3 = 2(7 – 4) – 3 (7 + 12) + 5 (–1 – 3)
5! 1 3 = 14 – 8 – 57 – 5 – 15
= 10 0 0 1 3
3!1!1! 2!
3 = – – 70
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
3 = 0 36
=
= −70 126
6
16 =
13 = (13)(−70) − 21
13
2
= +1120
7
10. A bag contains 8 balls, whose colours are either /4
x dx
white or black. 4 balls are drawn at random without 11. The value of the intergral 4
sin (2x ) + cos4 (2x )
0
replacement and it was found that 2 balls are white
equals :
and other 2 balls are black. The probability that the
2 2 2 2
bag contains equal number of white and black balls (1) (2)
64 8
is :
2 2 2 2
2 1 (3) (4)
(1) (2) 32 16
5 7
Answer (3)
1 2 /4
(3) (4) xdx
5 7 Sol. 4
sin (2x ) + cos4 (2x )
Answer (4) 0
Sol. P(2W and 2B) = P(2B, 6W) × P(2W and 2B) /4
xdx
+ P(3B, 5W) × P(2W and 2B) + P(4B, 4W) ×
Take I = 4
sin (2x ) + cos4 (2x )
0
P(2W and 2B) + P(5B, 3W) × P(2W and 2B) +
Let 2x = t
P(6B, 2W) × P(2W and 2B)
2dx = dt
1 2
C2 6C2 3C2 5C2 4C2 4C2 dt
0 + 0 + + + + dx =
9 8
C4 8
C4 8
C2 2
/2
5
C2 3C2 8
C2 2C2 t /2 1/2 dt
8
+
8
+ 0 + 0
I= sin4 t + cos4 t
C4 C4 0
/2
1 1 1 tdt
=
9 8
C4
(15 + 30 + 36 + 30 + 15) I=
4 sin t + cos4 t
4
0
1 1
= 126 /2 − t dt
9 8 1 2
C4 =
4 sin4 (/2 − t ) + cos4 (/2 − t )
4 4 0
1 C C2
28
4B and 4W 9 C4 /2 −t
P = 1 1 2
3W and 2B
1
126
=
4 4
sin t + cos4 t
9 8 C4 0
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
a–3=b–a=c–b
/2
1
2I = 2 dt 3, a – 1, b + 1, c + 9 in G.P.
4 0 sin4 t + cos4 t
a −1 b +1 c + 9
= = (a 1, b = − 1)
/2
dt 3 a −1 b +1
2I =
8 4
sin t + cos4 t (a – 1)2 = 3(b + 1)
0
a2 + 1 – 2a = 3b + 3
/2
sec 4 t
2I =
8 1 + tan4 t
dt a2 – 8a + 7 = 0
0 (a – 1)(a – 7) = 0
Put tant = y a = 7 as a 1
sec2tdt = dy b = 2a – 3
(1 + y 2 )dy = 14 – 3
2I =
8 0 1+ y4 = 11
1 c = 2b – a = 22 – 7 = 15
1+ 2
y Mean of a, b, c
= dy
8 0 y2 + 1
− + a + b + c 7 + 11+ 15 33
2 2 = = = 11
y2 3 3 3
1 1
1+ 2 dy 13. If 5f ( x ) + 4f = x 2 − 2, x 0 and y = 9x2f(x),
x
y
8 0 1
2 then y is strictly increasing in :
2+ y −
y 1 1
(1) −, 0,
1 5 5
Put, y − =4
y 1 1
(2) − , 0 0,
5 5
du
2I = 2 + u2
8 − 1 1
(3) 0,
,
5 5
−1 y
= tan
8 2 2 − 1 1
(4) − , 0 ,
5 5
22
= Answer (4)
32
12. Let 3, a, b, c be in A.P. and 3, a – 1, b + 1, c + 9 be Sol. 5f(x) + 4f(1/x) = x2 – 2 …(1)
in G.P. Then, the arithmetic mean of a, b and c is : Replace x by 1/x
(1) –4 (2) –1 1
5f(1/x) + 4f(x) = − 2 …(2)
(3) 11 (4) 13 x2
Answer (3) Multiply equation (1) by 5 and multiply equation (2)
Sol. 3, a, b, c be in A.P. by 4 and then subtract equation (2) from (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
x = 4, x = – 2 | – 3 |= 3
– 3 = 3 or – 3 = – 3
= 2 3 or 0
Sum of = 2 3
18. Let f : R → R be define as :
a –b cos2 x ; x 0
x2
2
f ( x ) = x + cx + 2 ; 0 x 1
2x + 1 ; x 1
16
4
Area = (6 – x) – x + 4 dx
–2
= 30 – 32 ln2 If f is continuous every where in R and m is the
number of points where f is NOT differential then m
17. If the shortest distance between the lines
+ a + b + c equal :
x – y – 2 z –1 x – 3 y –1 z – 2
= = and = = is (1) 4 (2) 2
–2 1 1 1 –2 1 (3) 1 (4) 3
1, then the sum of all possible values of is : Answer (2)
(1) 0 (2) 2 3 Sol. f(x) is continuous x R
f(0) = f(0–)
(3) 3 3 (4) –2 3
a – b cos2x
Answer (2) 2 = lim–
x →0 x2
Sol. Shortest distance a–b=0a=b
V1 V2 2b sin2x
= AB = 1 lim = 2b = 2 b = 1 = a
| V1 V2 | x →0 – 2x
Also f(1) = f(1+)
where V1 = –2iˆ + jˆ + kˆ , AB = ( – 3,2 – 1,1– 2) 1+c+2=3
V2 = iˆ – 2 jˆ + kˆ c=0
1– cos2x
i j k , x0
x2
V1 V2 = –2 1 1 = 3iˆ + 3 jˆ + 3kˆ
f ( x ) = x 2 + 2, x [0,1]
1 –2 1 2x + 1, x 1
(
V1 V2 = 3 iˆ + jˆ + kˆ )
d sin x 2
| V1 V2 |= 3 3 2 , x 0
dx x
(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ).(( – 3)iˆ + ˆj – kˆ
=1 f ( x ) = 2x, x [0,1]
3 2, x 1
( – 3) + 1– 1 = 3
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
Differentiability at x = 1 holds 1
( x + y )2 –
m=0 ln 2 = x2 + c
( x + y )2
m+a+b+c=0+1+1+0=2
19. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
1
equation
dy
= 2x( x + y )3 – x( x + y ) – 1, y(0) = 1. y (0) =1 c = ln
dx 2
2 1
1 1 ( x + y )2 –
Then +y equals: 2 = e x2 1
2 2 (x + y )2
2
2 3 1
(1) (2) ( x + y )2 –
1+ e 3– e 2 = e1
( x + y )2 2
1 4
(3) (4)
2– e 4+ e 1
( x + y )2 =
Answer (3) 2– e
20. Let C : x2 + y2 = 4 and C’ : x2 + y2 – 4x + 9 = 0 be
dy
Sol. = 2x( x + y )3 – x( x + y ) – 1 two circles. If the set of all values of so that the
dx
circles C and C’ intersect at two distinct points, is R
Put x + y = t
– [a, b], then the point (8a + 12, 16b – 20) lies on
dy dt the curve :
= –1
dx dx (1) 5x2 – y = –11 (2) x2 + 2y2 – 5x + 6y =3
dt (3) x2 – 4y2 = 7 (4) 6x2 + y2 = 42
– 1 = 2x(t )3 – xt
dx Answer (4)
dt Sol. C : x2 + y2 = 4 C(0, 0), r1 = 2
= xdx
2t 3 – t
C : x2 + y2 – 4x + 9 = 0 C(2, 0), r2 = 42 – 9
1
2t 3
–t
dt = xdx |r1 – r2| < CC < |r1 + r2|
| 2 – 42 – 9 | | 2 | 2 + 42 – 9
t
4 2 dt = xdx
2t – t | 2 | | 2 – 42 – 9 |
t2 = z
42 4 + 42 – 9 – 4 42 – 9
2tdt = dz
1 dz 4 42 – 9 + 5 0 R
2 2z2 – z
= xdx
| 2 | 2 + 42 – 9
1
z– 42 4 + 42 – 9 + 4 (42 ) – 9
ln 2 = x2 + c
z 9
5 4 42 – 9 2 → Domain
4
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
25 Now x(0) = 2
42 – 9
16
C=2
169
2
64 t2
x = + t + 2 ( t + 1)
2
–13 13 2
–, ,
8 8
1
x (1) = + 1 + 2 (1 + 1)
2
–13 13 2
R – ,
8 8
7
–13 13 = 4 = 14
a= ,b= 2
8 8
(8a + 12, 16b – 20) = (–1, 6) 22. Let P = {z : z + 2 – 3i 1} and Q = {z :
6(–1)2 + (6)2 = 42 z(1 + i) + z (1 – i) – 8}. Let in P Q, z – 3 + 2i
SECTION - B
be maximum and minimum at z1 and z2
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 2 2
respectively. If z1 + 2 z2 = + 2 , where ,
contains 10 Numerical based questions. Attempt any 5
questions out of 10. The answer to each question should are integers, then + equals ________.
be rounded-off to the nearest integer.
Answer (36)
21. If x = x(t) is the solution of the differential equation
Sol. P : (x + 2)2 + (y – 3)2 1
(t + 1)dx = (2x + (t + 1)4)dt, x(0) = 2, then, x(1)
equals_____.
(x + iy) (1 + i) + (x – iy) (1 – i) – 8
Answer (14)
Sol. (t + 1)dx = (2x + (t + 1)4)dt. 2(x – y) – 8
dx 2x
= ( t + 1) Q : (x – y) – 4
3
−
dt (t + 1)
2
IF = e t +1 =
− dt 1
(t + 1)2
x
= ( t + 1) dt
( t + 1)2
x t2
= + t +C
(t + 1)2 2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
3 5 3 5 z = 14 x + 2y = 0 1 case
B − , z2 = − + i
2 2 2 2
169 cases.
2 2
| z1 | + 2 | z2 | = 31 + 5 2 + = 36
24. Let 3, 7, 11, 15, …, 403 and 2, 5, 8, 11, …, 404 be
23. The number of elements in the set S = {(x, y, z) : x, two arithmetic progressions. Then the sum of the
common terms in them, is equal to _________.
y, z , x + 2y + 3z = 42, x, y, z 0} equal ______.
Answer (6699)
Answer (169)
Sol. 3, 7, 11, 15….403
Sol. x + 2y + 3z = 42
2, 5, 8, 11….404.
x, y, z 0
So common term AP
as
11, 23, 35…., 395
z=0 x + 2y = 42 22 cases
395 = 11 + (n – 1)12
z=1 x + 2y = 39 20 cases
n = 33
z=2 x + 2y = 36 19 cases
33
Sum = 2 11 + ( 32)12
z=3 x + 2y = 33 17 cases 2
z=4 x + 2y = 30 16 cases =
33
22 + 384
2
z=5 x + 2y = 27 14 cases
= 6699
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
–1
lim (–2x ) r1 + 2r2 + 3r3 = 36
2 x →o+ (1– (1– x 2 )2
= 882 – 8 × 272 + 28 × 22
32 2
Required value = (L + R 2 ) = –678
2
|| = 678
32 2 2
= 2 + = 18
2 16 29. Let the line L : 2x + y = pass through the point
of the intersection P (in the first quadrant) of the
6 circle x2 + y2 = 3 and the parabola x2 = 2y. Let the
1
28. If the coefficient of x30 in the expansion of 1 + line L touch two circles C1 and C2 of equal radius
x
(1 + x2)7 (1 – x3)8 ; x 0 is , then 2 3 . If the centres Q1 and Q2 of the circles C1 and
C2 lie on the y-axis, then the square of the area of
equals_______.
the triangle PQ1Q2 is equal to_________.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
Sol Solving x2+ y2 = 3 and x2 = 2y 30. Let the line of the shortest distance between the
lines
y = 1 or y = –3 (Rejected)
L1 : r = (iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ ) + (iˆ – jˆ + kˆ ) and
Then P : ( )
2, 1 = 3
L2 : r = (4iˆ + 5 ˆj + 6kˆ ) + (iˆ + jˆ – kˆ )
Answer (21)
Q ( + 4, + 5, − + 6)
PQ = ( − + 3, + + 3, − , − + 3)
1 5 1 9 5 7 15
Area of PQ1Q2 = 2 1 − 2 P , , &Q , ,
2
2 2 2 2 2 2
=6 2 5 4
= , = , =
12
2 2 2
( )
2
Required = 6 2 = 72 2( + + ) = 21
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
PHYSICS
SECTION - A 1 1
2gT 2 2 2gT 2 2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 (1) cos−1 2 (2) sin−1 2
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices R R
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1 1
Choose the correct answer : 2R 2 R 2
(3) sin−1 (4) cos−1
31. In the given circuit if the power rating of Zener diode 2
2gT 2gT 2
is 10 mW, the value of series resistance RS to
Answer (2)
regulate the input unregulated supply is :
2R
Sol. v =
V
v 2 sin2 v 2 sin2
Hmax = 4R =
2g 2g
8gR 2gT 2
sin2 = = 2
v2 R
(1) 5 k 1/ 2
2gT 2
(2) 10 = sin–1 2
R
(3) 10 k
33. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C.
(4) 1 k One of them is charged to the potential V and other
Answer (4) to the potential 2V. The negative ends of both are
connected together. When the positive ends are
3 10 mW 5
Sol. + = also joined together, the decrease in energy of the
RS 5V 1k
combined system is :
3
= 3 mA (1)
1
CV 2
RS 4
RS = 1 k
3
(2) CV 2
32. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with uniform 4
speed takes time T to complete one revolution. If (3) 2CV2
this particle is projected with the same speed at an
angle to the horizontal, the maximum height 1
(4) CV 2
attained by it is equal to 4R. The angle of projection 2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
39. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are 42. A simple pendulum of length 1 m has a wooden bob
3 of mass 1 kg. It is struck by a bullet of mass 10–2 kg
related as PV 2
= K (Constant). The work done moving with a speed of 2 × 102 ms–1. The bullet gets
when the gas is taken from state A(P1, V1, T1) to embedded into the bob. The height to which the bob
state B(P2, V2, T2) is : rises before swinging back is (use g = 10 m/s2)
(
(1) 2 P2 V2 – P1 V1 ) (2) 2(P1V1 – P2V2 ) (1) 0.20 m
(2) 0.35 m
(3) 2(P2V2 – P1V1 ) (4) 2 ( P1V1 – P2V2 ) (3) 0.30 m
Answer (2) (4) 0.40 m
PFVf − PV P V − PV Answer (1)
Sol. W = i i
= 2 2 1 1 = –2(P V – P V )
1− Y 3 2 2 1 1
1− Sol. Linear momentum conservation:
2
W = 2(P1V1 – P2V2) 10–2 × 2 × 102 = (1 + 0.01)v
v = 2 m/s
40. With rise in temperature, the Young’s modulus of
elasticity: Energy conservation:
(1) Decreases (2) Remains unchanged 1
1 22 = 1 10 h
(3) Increases (4) Changes erratically 2
Sol. With rise in temperature, Young’s modulus of 43. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance
elasticity decreases due to the increase in atomic C = 200 pF. It is connected to 230 V ac supply with
vibrations which leads to decrease in atomic forces. an angular frequency 300 rad/s. The rms value of
41. Two moles a monoatomic gas is mixed with six conduction current in the circuit and displacement
moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat of current in the capacitor respectively are:
the mixture at constant volume is:
(1) 14.3 A and 143 A (2) 13.8 A and 138 A
3 9
(1) R (2) R (3) 13.8 A and 13.8 A (4) 1.38 A and 1.38 A
2 4
Answer (3)
7 5
(3) R (4) R
4 2 C dv
Sol. i displacement = :(i displacement )rms = C Erms
dt
Answer (2)
2 3R 6 5R = 230 × 200 × 10–12 × 300
n1Cv1 + n2Cv 2 +
Sol. Cvmix = = 2 2 = 13.8 × 10–6A = 13.8 A
n1 + n2 2+6
(iconduction)rms = Erms · C = 230 × 200 × 10–12 × 300
9R
CVmix =
4 = 13.8 × 10–6A = 13.8 A
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
44. The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an 46. If R is the radius of the earth and the acceleration
due to gravity on the surface of earth is g = 2 m/s2,
particle are and 2 respectively. The ratio of the
then the length of the second’s pendulum at a
velocities of proton and particle will be: height h = 2R from the surface of earth will be:
(1) 4 : 1 4
(1) m
9
(2) 1 : 8
8
(3) 8 : 1 (2) m
9
(4) 1 : 2 1
(3) m
9
Answer (3)
2
(4) m
h h 1 9
Sol. = v = :v
mv m m
Answer (3)
VP m 4mP 2 8 GM GM g
= = = Sol. gH = = =
V mP P mP 1 (R + 2R ) 2
9R 2 9
unchanged, the new inductance should be: 47. A monochromatic light of wavelength 6000Å is
incident on the single slit of width 0.01 mm. If the
(1) Increased to 4L
diffraction pattern is formed at the focus of the
(2) Increased by 2L convex lens of focal length 20 cm, the linear width
of the central maximum is:
1
(3) Reduced by L (1) 12 mm (2) 120 mm
4
(3) 60 mm (4) 24 mm
3
(4) Reduced by L Answer (4)
4
20
Answer (4) Sol. Linear width =
d
Sol. w i =
1
; wf =
1 2(6000 10−10 )(20 10−2 )
=
LC 4C L 0.01 10−3
L 3L = 24 × 10–3 m
For wi = wf, L = reduced by
4 4 = 24 mm
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
48. 10 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper 50. Consider a block and trolley system as shown in
coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. If figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between
each division on the main scale is of 5 units, the the trolley and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration
least count of the instrument is: of the system in ms–2 is:
50 5 6 kg
Least count = M − v = 5 − =
11 11 60 N
49. The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a (1) 4 (2) 3
metal wire was measured in the laboratory as
(3) 2 (4) 1.2
r = (0.35 ± 0.05) cm
Answer (3)
R = (100 ± 10) ohm
Sol. 60 – fk = (20 + 6)a
l = (15 ± 0.2) cm
60 – 200 × 0.04 = 26a a = 2 m/s2
The percentage error in resistivity of the material of
SECTION - B
the wire is:
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(1) 35.6% contains 10 Numerical based questions. Attempt any
(2) 39.9% 5 questions out of 10. The answer to each question
should be rounded-off to the nearest integer.
(3) 25.6%
51. A rectangular loop of sides 12 cm and 5 cm, with its
(4) 37.3%
sides parallel to the x-axis and y-axis respectively,
Answer (2) moves with a velocity of 5 cm/s in the positive x-axis
direction, in a space containing a variable magnetic
RA R.r 2
Sol. l = = field in the positive z direction. The field has a
l l
gradient of 10–3 T/cm along the negative x direction
dl 2dr dR dl and it is decreasing with time at the rate of 10–3 T/s.
100 = 100 + 100 + 100
l r R l If the resistance of the loop is 6 m, the power
0.05 10 0.2 dissipated by the loop as heat is _______ × 10–9 W.
= 2 100 + 100 + 100 = 39.9%
0.35 100 15 Answer (216)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
−dB dx qE qE E E /K
Sol. l1 = A Sol. tan = = =
dx dt mg mg − FB g mg − 1.vg
= 30 × 10–6 V E E /K 3
= 1= K =3
mg mg / 3 K
−dB
l2 = A
dt
54. A particle is moving in one dimension (along x-axis)
=6× 10–6 V under the action of a variable force. It’s initial
position was 16 m right of origin. The variation of its
2
(l + l ) position (x) with time (t) is given as x = –3t3 + 18t2 +
P = 1 2 = 216 10−9 W
R 16t, where x is in m and t is in s. The velocity of the
particle when its acceleration becomes zero is
52. A plane is in level fight at constant speed and each
of its two wings has an area of 40 m2. If the speed _______ m/s.
of the air is 180 km/h over the lower wing surface Answer (52)
and 252 km/h over the upper wing surface, the
mass of the plane is _______ kg. (Take air density Sol. x = –3t3 + 18t2 + 16t v = –9t2 +36t + 16
to be 1 kg m–3 and g = 10 ms–2)
a = –18t + 36 = 0 t = 2 sec
Answer (9600)
v(t = 2) = –9(2)2 + 36(2) + 16 = 52 m/s
1
Sol. P1 – P2 = e(V22 − V12 ) 55. The current in a conductor is expressed as
2
I = 3t2 + 4t3, where I is in Ampere and t is in second.
1 The amount of electric charge that flows through a
P1 – P2 = × 1 × (702 – 502)
2 section of the conductor during t = 1 s to t = 2 s is
P1 – P2 = 1200 N/m2 _______ C.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
v l 6
Sol. m = v = 3 u; v – u = 20 cm =6
u 2l
u = – 10 cm, v = 30 cm
f0 = 6
1 1 1 1 −1 1
= – = + f = 15 cm
f v u f 30 10 59. The radius of a nucleus of mass number 64 is 4.8
fermi. Then the mass number of another nucleus
57. The identical spheres each of mass 2M are placed
at the corners of a right angled triangle with 1000
having radius of 4 fermi is , where x is
x
mutually perpendicular sides equal to 4 m each.
_______.
Taking point of intersection of these two sides as
origin, the magnitude of position vector of the centre
Answer (27)
4 2
of mass of the system is , where the value of
x 1 1
1 R A 3 4.8 64 3
x is _______ Sol. R = R0 ( A ) 3 1 = 1 =
R2 A2 4 A2
Answer (2)
−2M 4 + 2M 0 1
Sol. xcom = = −2iˆ 4 10 1000
4M 1.2 = A2 =3 A2 =
1 3 27
( )
A2 3
2M 4 + 2M 0
y com = = 2 jˆ
4M
x = 27
4 2
rcom = 4 + 4 = 2 2 = x=2 60. A regular polygon of 6 sides is formed by bending
x
a wire of length 4 meter. If an electric current of
58. A tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire of
4 3 A is flowing through the sides of the polygon,
length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6 N. When
the tension in the wire is changed to 54 N, the same the magnetic field at the centre of the polygon
tuning fork produces 12 beats per second with it. would be x × 10–7 T. The value of x is _______.
The frequency of the tuning fork is _______ Hz.
Answer (72)
Answer (6)
Sol. Let f0 = tuning fork frequency. 4 3
Sol. B = 6
0 ( (
)
sin30 + sin30 )
1 6
f0 = 4
2l 3
l 54 1 6 0 3 6 4 10−7 3
And − = 12 B = 6 = = 72 10−7 T
2l 2l
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
CHEMISTRY
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
64. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled Sol. Disproportionation reaction is a reaction in which,
the same element is simultaneously oxidised and
as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentration 0.1 M, 0.01 M reduced.
and 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van’t Hoff
factor (i) for these solutions will be in the order : (A)
(1) iA > iB > iC (2) iA < iB < iC
[A] = 0.1 M +7 +4
(D) 2MnO−4 + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O ⎯⎯→ 5MnO2 + 4H+
[B] = 0.01 M
66. Which of the following compound will most easily
be attacked by an electrophile?
[C] = 0.001 M
(C) 3KMnO 4 ⎯⎯→ K 2MnO 4 + MnO 2 + O 2 Phenol is most easily attacked by an electrophile
because of presence of –OH group which increases
(D) 2MnO −4 + 3Mn 2+ + 2H 2O ⎯⎯→ 5MnO 2 + 4H + electron density at ortho and para position mainly.
(1) (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (D) Here, chlorine atom shows +R effect o-, p-directive.
But deactivate benzene ring.
(3) (A), (B) (4) (A), (B), (C) –OH and –CH3 are activating and ortho para
directing groups.
Answer (3)
–OH activates more than –CH3.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
67. Given below are two statements : Sol. [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green in colour.
Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho Ni2+ has 3d8 configuration.
and para directing and a powerful activating group.
Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-
Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation). H2O is weak ligand; no-pairing of unpaired
In the light of the above statements, choose the electrons, d-d transition absorbs light and emits
most appropriate answer from the options given green light.
below. [Ni(CN)4]2– is colourless.
As CN– is strong ligand, causes pairing of electrons.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Therefore, d-d transition is not possible.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 69. In case of isoelectronic species the size of F–, Ne
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is and Na+ is affected by
correct (1) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is orbitals
incorrect (2) Principal quantum number (n)
Answer (1) (3) Nuclear charge (z)
(4) None of the factors because their size is the
Sol. • NH2 group in aniline is ortho and para directing
same
and a powerful activating group due to its
Answer (3)
strong electron donating nature.
Sol. For isoelectronic species, size depends on nuclear
• Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft’s
charge. More nuclear charge, lesser will be the size
reaction (alkylation and acylation) due to salt of species, this is because the valence electron will
formation with aluminium chloride which is experience greater attractive force due to increase
used as a Lewis acid catalyst. in nuclear charge.
68. Given below are two statements : 70. According to the wave-particle duality of matter by
Statement (I) : A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green in de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot
colour. presents most appropriate relationship between
wavelength of electron () and momentum of
Statement (II) : A solution of [Ni(CN)4]2– is
electron (p)?
colourless.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from options given below.
(1) (2)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(3) (4)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
On this basis, the order of increasing ionic (2) 14, 6, 7 and Cr3+
character in the given molecule is – (3) 14, 7, 6 and Cr3+
N2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2O < LiF
(4) 8, 6, 4 and Cr2O3
72. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason Answer (2)
(R). Sol. In acidic medium
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to form
alkyl cyanides as a main product while with AgCN K 2Cr2O7 + 14H+ + 6e− ⎯⎯→ 2Cr +3 + 7H2O
form isocyanide as the main product. X = 14
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly ionic
Y=6
compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Z=7
most appropriate answer from the options given A = Cr+3
below.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
74. Given below are two statements : 76. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I): Aminobenzene and aniline are Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a
same organic compounds. primary standard for standardisation of sodium
hydroxide solution.
Statement (II): Aminobenzene and aniline are
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein can
different organic compounds.
be used as indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given most appropriate answer from the options given
below. below.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
incorrect
correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
correct incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Answer (2)
Answer (1) Sol. Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary
standard, generally used to standardize a solution
Sol. Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic
of NaOH.
compound.
Indicator used for titration of weak acids is
Aniline is also known as aminobenzene or phenolphthalein as it goes from colourless at acidic
phenylamine. pH to pink at basic pH.
77. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an
ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the
because aniline has amino group in its following.
(1) q = 0, T < 0, w 0
structure.
(2) q 0, T = 0, w = 0
75. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen, (3) q = 0, T 0, w = 0
CuSO4 acts as :
(4) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0
(1) Oxidising agent (2) Catalytic agent Answer (4)
(3) Reducing agent (4) Hydrolysis agent Sol. In adiabatic free expansion, there is no external
Answer (2) pressure for gas to expand.
So, work done is zero.
Sol. In Kjeldahl’s Method CuSO4 acts as a catalytic
agent. w = 0, T = 0.
CuSO For adiabatic process, no heat is exchanged.
Organic compound + H2SO4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
4
→(NH4 )2 SO4
q=0
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
78. Identify A and B in the following sequence of 80. Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed
reaction. through
(A) Homolytic bond cleavage
(B) Heterolytic bond cleavage
(C) Free radical formation
(1) (D) Primary free radical
(E) Secondary free radical
(2) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) (C) only (2) (D) and (E) only
(3)
(3) (A) only (4) (B) only
Answer (4)
(4)
Sol. Ionic reactions occur when covalent bond between
Answer (2) two atoms undergoes heterolytic cleavage by
transferring electrons and in process forms
Sol.
positively and negatively charged ions.
Heterolytic cleavage
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 Numerical based questions. Attempt any 5
questions out of 10. The answer to each question should
be rounded-off to the nearest integer.
81. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10–5 and Kb for NH4OH is
1.8 × 10–5. The pH of ammonium acetate solution
79. If one strand of a DNA has the sequence
will be ______.
ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in
complementary strand is Answer (7)
(1) TACGAAGT (2) CATTAGCT Sol. Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 ×10–5
(3) GTACTTAC (4) ATGCGACT Kb for NH4OH = 1.8 × 10–5
Answer (1) pKa = 4.74; pKb = 4.74
Sol. Adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine 1
pH of CH3COONH4 = (pK w + pK a − pK b )
whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with 2
guanine.
1
pH = (14 + 4.74 − 4.74)
2
=7
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
Answer (17190) 1
72 mmol of Pb3(PO4)2
3
Sol. N = N0e–t
= 24 mmol
1
= 1e−t
8 87. The number of white coloured salts, among the
following is _______.
et = 8
(a) SrSO4 (b) Mg(NH4)PO4
t = ln8
(c) BaCrO4 (d) Mn(OH)2
0.693
t = ln8 (e) PbSO4 (f) PbCrO4
t1/2
(g) AgBr (h) PbI2
ln8
t= t (i) CaC2O4 (j) [Fe(OH)2(CH3COO)]
ln2 1/2
t = 3 × 5730 years Answer (5)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (01-02-2024)-Morning
90. The potential for the given half cell at 298 K is (–)
________ × 10–2 V.
+
2H(aq) + 2e− → H2 (g)
Answer (2)
[H+ ] = 1M, PH2 = 2 atm
Sol. are deactivating groups in
(Given : 2.303RT/F = 0.06 V, log2 = 0.3)
aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction,
because they are –R group which pulls electron Answer (1)
density towards themselves.
Sol. Eº + = 0V
H /H2
0.06 2
EHalf Cell = 0 – log 2
2 1
[PtCl4]–2 EHalf Cell = –0.03 0.30
= –0.009
= 0.9 × 10–2
0.9 1
❑ ❑ ❑
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