CONSTITUTIONAL LAW MCQS

1. Which amongst the following is not a feature of Government of India Act, 1935?
(a) Introduction of Provincial Autonomy in Provinces
(b) Introduced the system of Communal representation for Muslims
(c) Established Reserve Bank of India
(d) Provided for Establishment of Federal Court

Ans: b

2. Which one of the following statements regarding Speaker is correct?

a) He holds the office during pleasure of the President
b) He need not be a member of the House but has to become member of the house
within six months of his date of election
c) He loses his office if the house is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure.
d) If he resigns the letter of resignation should be addressed to Deputy Speaker.

Ans: d

3. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and
Supreme Court?
a) Advisory Jurisdiction when President seeks opinion
b) Dispute between States
c) Protection of Fundamental Rights
d) Dispute between Centre and States

Ans: c

4. Freedom of Press in India ________________.

a) Is specifically provided in Article 19 of the Constitution.
b) Is implied in freedom of expression guaranteed under Article 19 (1)(a).
c) Is guaranteed under provisions of Article 361 A.
d) Is emanating from the concept of Rule of Law as guaranteed by the Constitution

Ans: b

5. Which schedule of Constitution deals with Anti-Defection Law?

a) Second Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule

Ans: d

6. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is incorrect?

a) A Money Bill can be introduced in Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha
b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is Money
Bill or not.
c) Rajya Sabha must return the Money Bill to Lok Sabha within 14 days
d) President cannot return the Money Bill for reconsideration of the Houses

Ans: a
7. The Basic Structure Theory of Constitution implies that_________.
a) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to its that they cannot be abrogated.
b) Fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
c) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in
Article 368
d) The preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not part of the Constitution
and at the same time represents its real spirit

Ans: a

8. Which of the following Rights was described by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar as the heart and soul of
the Constitution?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Life
c) Right to freedom of speech and expression
d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans: d

9. Which amongst the following statement is false regarding Directive Principles of State
Policy?
a) Directive Principles are non-justiciable.
b) Directive Principle embody the concept of Police State
c) Directive Principles denotes the ideals that state should keep in mind while
formulating policies and enacting laws.
d) Directive Principles are incorporated in Part IV of the Constitution

Ans: b

10. In which case Supreme Court held that constitution is federal and characterised federalism
as its basic feature?
a) Kesavanada Bharati v. State of Kerala
b) Anwar Ali Sarkar v. State of West Bengal
c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
d) Minerva Mills v. Union oof India

Ans: c

11. A proclamation imposing President’s Rule in a state must be approved by both houses of
Parliament within ___________________from the date of issue.
a) One Month
b) Two Months
c) Six Months
d) One Year

Ans: b
12. Which amongst the following is not a circumstance which empowers Parliament to make
laws on matter enumerated in State List?
a) When Lok Sabha passes a Resolution
b) To Implement international agreements
c) During National Emergency
d) When States makes a request

Ans: a

13. The term of office of Attorney General is____________.

a) 5 years
b) 6 years
c) Till he attains 65 years
d) Term is not fixed by the Constitution

Ans: d

14. Untouchability is abolished under______.

a) Article 15
b) Article 16
c) Article 17
d) Article 18

Ans: c

15. The Court will apply ______________ to see whether the state or the centre
encroached upon the sphere demarcated for the other while making any law.
a) Doctrine of Eclipse
b) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
c) Doctrine of Repugnancy
d) Doctrine of Ancillary Powers

Ans: b

16. President of India can be impeached on the ground of ______________________.

a) Proven Misbehaviour or Incapacity
b) Violation of Constitution
c) Gross Negligence
d) Crime

Ans: b

17. In which amongst the following cases the Supreme Court interpreted Art. 21 does
not include the phrase “due process of law” in it?
a) A.K.Gopalan v. State of Madras
b) Gobind v. State of U.P
c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d) A.D.M Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
 Ans: a
18. Which constitutional amendment added three new words-Socialist, Secular, and
Integrity to the Preamble?
a) 40th Constitutional Amendment
b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
c) 44th Constitutional Amendment
d) 46th Constitutional Amendment

Ans: b

19. The Executive Power of the State is vested with ----------------------.

a) People of the State

b) Chief Minister of the State
c) Governor of the State
d) State Legislature

Ans: c

20. Locus Standi means ______________

a) Right to bring an action in the Court of Law
b) Right to participate in the proceedings of the house of parliament
c) Right to file a petition in the international court
d) Right to be free from the custody

Ans: a
 SUB: Constitution

1. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha i.e. House of the people?
a) 500
b) 552
c) 545
d) 520

Ans b)

2. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Emergency provisions
a) Part XVIII
b) Part XV
c) Part XVI
d) Part XXI

Ans a)

3. Fundamental duties are given in which part of the Constitution of India?

a) Part IV
b) Part III
c) Part IV A
d) Part V

Ans c)

4. Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent assembly on:

a) 26th January, 1950
b) 26th November, 1948
c) 26th November, 1949
d) 26th January, 1949

Ans c)

5. The State legislatures in India are

a) Unicameral
b) Bicameral
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Ans c)

6. The list that contains the subjects that is common to Union and State Government are
a) Mutual List
b) Concurrent List
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans b)

7. Which case laid down the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India?
a) A K Kraipak case
b) Keshavanand Bharti case
c) Minerva Mill case
d) Maneka Gandhi Case

Ans b)

8. In India Right to Property is a

a) legal Right
b) Fundamental Right
c) Moral Right
d) Personal Right

Ans a)

9. Which article is referred to as ‘the jewel of the Constitution’?

a) Article 31
b) Article 352
c) Article 123
d) Article 32

Ans d)

10. Which writ give the meaning ‘we command’ in letters

a) Mandamus
b) Habeas Corpus
c) Prohibition
d) Quo Warranto

Ans a)

11. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by

a) The Constitution First Amendment Act.
b) The Constitution Second Amendment Act
c) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act.
d) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.

Ans a)

12. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the
territory of India as per
a) Article 40
b) Article 43
c) Article 44
 d) Article 48

Ans c)

13. In India sovereignty lies with

a) The Constitution
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Parliament
d) The People

Ans d)

14. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the
country is
a) Directive Principle of State Policy
b) Fundamental National Policy
c) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
d) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen

Ans d)

15. The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid
down in
a) Article 368
b) Article 358
c) Article 356
d) Article 352

Ans a)

16. Social, economic and political Justice is

a) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
b) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
c) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
d) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court

Ans a)

17. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
a) Citizens of India
b) Public Servants
c) All those who run public and private sectors
d) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

Ans a)

18. For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India
must be passed by
a) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.
b) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less
than 2/3rd majority of the States
c) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States.
d) A simple majority by the Parliament.
 Ans d)

19. The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by
a) First Amendment Act
b) Seventh Amendment Act
c) Forty-Second Amendment Act
d) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act

Ans c)

20. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of
a) Religion, race and caste only.
b) Religion, caste and sex only.
c) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.
d) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Ans d)

DESCRIPTIVE

1. What Is Meant by Equality in The Eye Of Law?

2. Who is the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha?
3. What is the difference between a Bill and an Act?
4. Is The fundamental rights of The Constitution Justiciable in Character?
5. When Was The Indian Citizenship Act Passed?
6. How Many States and Union Territories Are There in The Indian Union?
7. What Are the Freedoms Granted to Citizens by Art 19 Of the Constitution?
8. How The Indian Constitution Seeks To Protect Children Against Exploitation?
9. “India Is A Secular State”. What Does It Mean?
10. What Articles Of The Constitutions Confer Right To Freedom Of Religion?
 CONSTITUTIONAL LAW MCQ’s FOR QUESTION BANK

Q1. A public servant who wilfully neglects the investigation of any offence
punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 _____________
A. Commits a separate offence punishable under the Act
B. Is deemed to have abetted an offence punishable under the Act
C. Is not punishable at all.
D. It is up to the State government to decide whether an offence was
committed or not.
Answer: B

Q2.The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, was originally called:

A. Eradication of Untouchability Act, 1955

B. Untouchability (offences)Act, 1955
C. Removal of Untouchability Act, 1955
D. Prevention of Untouchability Act, 1955

Answer: B

Q3. Which of the following is a correct feature of the Government of India Act,
1935

A. The Act proposed a federation for the first time.

B. The Act abolished diarchy at the central level.
C. The Act provided for division of power into two lists – Federal and
Provincial.
D. The Act destroyed provincial autonomy.

Answer: A

Q4. Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution of India?

A. Right to adequate means of livelihood

B. Right to Freedom
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Equality

Answer: A
Q4. Who elects the Vice President of India?

A. House of the People

B. Both Houses of Parliament
C. Council of States
D. Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures

Answer: B

Q5. The Union Legislature in India is empowered

A. To amend the basic structure of the Constitution

B. To abrogate the basic structure
C. To amend the constitution and the basic structure of the Constitution
D. To amend the constitution but not the basic structure of the Constitution

Answer: D

Q6. The Money Bill is introduced first in __________of the Parliament.

A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Legislative Council
D. Legislative Assembly
Answer: A

Q7. The jurisdiction of the supreme court of India may be enlarged by whom?

A. Ruling government policy decision

B. Parliament by Law
C. The President
D. The Chief Justice of India in concurrence with other Supreme Court
Judges

Answer: B

Q8. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Directive Principles

of State Policy?

A. Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the Courts.

 B. Directive Principles of State Policy are provided from Articles 52-72 of
the Constitution.
C. Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from USSR.
D. Directive Principles of State Policy contains the ideals which the
government should keep in mind while formulating laws.
Answer: D

Q9. Which of the following Statements is incorrect with respect to Election

Commission of India?
A. It is a constitutional body
B. The term of the Election Commissioners is up to 6 years or 65 years of
age.
C. Election Commission of India conducts the Lok Sabha elections and
election to the offices of President and Vice President.
D. Election Commission of India conducts the Panchayath and Municipal
Corporations elections.
Answer: D

Q10. 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India provides for:

A. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and district levels
B. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and block levels
C. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the block and district levels
D. Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district
levels.
Answer: D)

Q11. Which act created the first Supreme Court’?

A. The regulating Act,1773
B. The charter Act of 1853
C. The government of IndiaAct’1858
D. The charter Act of 1833
Answer: A
Q12. The concept of single citizenship is borrowed from the constitution of
A. USA
B. Britain
 C. USSR
D. Japan
Answer: B
Q13. The principle of judicial review of the exercise of powers under Article
356 to impose president’s rule in a State was laid down in –
A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
D. S.R.Bommai v. Union of India
Answer: D
Q14. Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion’ but it is subject to -
A. Public order, Morality &Health
B. Justice, Equity and Good Conscience
C. Security of the state & friendly relations with foreign states
D. Contempt of court
Answer: A
15) The constitutional 86th Amendment Act added ____________ into the part
III of the constitution
A. Right to education
B. Right of equal pay for equal work
C. Double jeopardy
D. Right to livelihood
Answer: A

16) India is known as a parliamentary Democracy because the –

A. Executive is responsible to the parliament
B. Parliament is responsible to the executive
C. Judiciary has power of judicial review
D. Media is watchdog of democracy
Answer: A
17. Which state sends the maximum representatives to the Loksabha?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Maharashtra
Answer: A
18. Elections to Lok sabha and Legislative Assembly in India are conducted on
the basis of –
A. Block Voting
B. Adult Franchise
C. The two round (run off) system.
D. Cumulative voting
Answer: B
Q19. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the collegium
system?
A. The articles of the constitution do not directly provides for the
establishment of the Collegium system.
B. Collegium system of appointment was born as an outcome of the second
and third judges’ case.
C. At present the collegium system has given way to the National Judicial
Appointment commission for the appointment of judges.
D. The collegium system of appointment is utilized to appoint the judges of
the the Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer: C
Q20. The right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question
of law or fact belongs to:
A. The Parliament
B. The President
C. The High courts
D. The Governor
Answer: B
Constitutional law MCQ

1. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by

(A) The Constitution First Amendment Act.

(B) The Constitution Second Amendment Act
(C) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act.
(D) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.

Answer: (A)

2. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the
territory of India as per

(A) Article 40
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 44
(D) Article 48

Answer: (C)

3. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in

(A) Bhikaji Vs State of M.P.

(B) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner.
(C) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar
(D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

Answer: (A)

4. Article 360 has been invoked

(A) Only one time.

(B) two times.
(C) three times.
(D) Never invoked

Answer: (D)

5. The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of
the Constitution of India
(A) Berubari case
(B) A. K. Gopalan case
(C) Balaji Case
(D) Minerva Mill’s case

Answer: (A)

6. Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and

(A) Seven other judges

(B) Twelve other judges
(C) Thirteen other judges
(D) Fifteen other judges

Answer: (A)

7. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a
public office is

(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo-Warranto

Answer: (D)

8. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

(A) Legislative power

(B) Executive power
(C) Quasi-judicial power
(D) Judicial power

Answer: (A)

9. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because:

(A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

(B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.

(D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.

Answer: (A)

10. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of

(A) Religion, race and caste only.

(B) Religion, caste and sex only.

(C) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.

(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Answer: (D)

11. ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This
observation was made by the Supreme Court in

(A) P. Rathinam V. Union of India

(B) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab

c. Keshavanand Bharti V. UOI

(D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

12. The President gives his resignation to the

(a) Chief Justice

(b) Parliament

(c) Vice President

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: c

13. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?

(a) Governor

(b) Election Commissioner

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: a

14. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be
preferred by

(a) Both Houses of Parliament

(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Lok Sabha

Answer: a

15. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the

(a) Planning Commission

(b) National Development Council

(c) Inter State Council

(d) Finance Commission

Answer: c

16. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) President

(c) House of the People

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: c

17. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States ?

(a) Vice- President

(b) Leader of the opposition

(c) President

(d) Speaker

Answer: a

18. Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India deals with

a) Anti Defection Law

b) Union list, State List and Concurrent list
c) List of states and territories of India
d) The languages

Answer : b

19. Which case laid down the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India?

a) A K Kraipak v Union of India

b) Kesavananda Bharti v State of Kerala
c) A K Gopalan v State of Madras
d) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

20. When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance which is
to be ratified by the Parliament within

(a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament

(b) 6 months from the reassembly of the Parliament

(c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance.

(d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance.

Answer: a
 LUC LAW - TYBLS/ FY LLB - CONSTITUTIONAL LAW -
MCQs

1. India has _____ States ANS- (b)

a. 20
b. 29
c. 25
d. 23

2. The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in the _____ of the

Constitution of India ANS- (d)
a. Part IV
b. Part I
c. Part II
d. Part III

3. During the Proclamation of Emergency, which Fundamental right

is suspended ANS- (d)
a. Art. 20
b. Art. 14
c. Art. 21
d. Art. 19

4. The Directive Principle Art _____ endeavours Uniform Civil Code

for Citizen of India ANS- (a)
a. Art. 44
 b. Art. 45
c. Art. 46
d. Art. 40

5. Art. _____ Lays down the Duties of every citizen of India ANS-
(c)
a. Art. 39
b. Art. 47
c. Art. 51A
d. Art. 31

6. The _____ is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Army ANS-

(c)
a. Governor
b. Vice President
c. President
d. Prime Minister

7. The _____ is Called as the “Keystone of the Cabinet arch”

ANS- (a)
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Solicitor General of India
d. Attorney General of India
8. Only _____ states have a Legislative Council ANS- (b)
a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

9. A Municipal Corporation is for a _____ ANS- (b)

a. Smaller Urban Area
b. Larger Urban Area
c. A Transitional Area
d. Village

10. There are _____ types of Writs ANS- (a)

a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

11. In India Sovereignty Lies with ANS- (d)

a. The Constitution
b. The Supreme Court
 c. The Parliament
d. The People

12. Originally the Supreme Court Consisted of a Chief Justice and

ANS- (a)
a. Seven other Judges
b. Twelve other Judges
c. Thirteen other Judges
d. Fifteen other Judges

13. The power of the President of India to issue an Ordinance is a

ANS- (b)
a. Executive Power
b. Legislative Power
c. Quasi-Judicial Power
d. Judicial Power

14. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on ANS-

(d)
a. Precedent & Convention
b. Rule of law
c. Due Process of Law
d. Procedure Established by Law

15. The Maximum Interval Between the Two Session of Each House
Of Parliament is ANS- (d)
 a. three months
b. four months
c. five months
d. six months

16. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on
the ground(s) of ANS- (a)
a. Proved misbehavior or incapacity
b. Violation of the constitution
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

17. ______ Is described as the soul of the Indian Constitution

ANS- (d)
a. Fundamental rights
b. Fundamental duties
c. Directive principles of State policy
d. Preamble

18. The Governor of the state is appointed by the President on the

advice of the ANS- (c)
a. Vice President
b. Chief Minister
c. Prime Minister
d. Chief Justice

19. ______ Administers the Oath of Office to the President of India

before he enters Upon the Office ANS- (a)
 a. Chief Justice
b. Speaker
c. Vice President
d. Prime Minister

20. ______ is the ex-officio chairman of the council of States

ANS- (c)
a. President
b. Speaker
c. Vice President
d. Leader of the Opposition

21. The union council of ministers is collectively responsible to

ANS- (b)
a. The President
b. The House of People
c. The council of states
d. The Governor

22. ______ Types of emergency have been visualised in the

Constitution of India ANS- (b)
a. Four
b. Three
c. One
d. Two

23. The Election Commission doesn't conduct the Election to the

ANS- (d)
 a. Lok Sabha
b. President's Election
c. Rajya Sabha
d. Local bodies

24. ______ Was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly

ANS- (a)
a. Dr. Rajendra prasad
b. C. Rajagapalachari
c. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

25. ______ Is the Highest Court of Appeal in India ANS- (a)

a. Supreme Court
b. President
c. High Court
d. Privy Council

Answers

1. b 6. c 11. d 16. a 21. b

2. d 7. a 12. a 17. d 22. b
3. d 8. b 13. b 18. c 23. d
4. a 9. b 14. d 19. a 24. a
5. c 10. a 15. d 20. c 25. a
1. Which judgement held that Parliament cannot make any law, which takes away or
abridges Fundamental Rights?
A. NM Thomas v State of Kerala
B. Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan
C. Golaknath v State of Punjab
D. Maneka Gandhi v UOI

Answer c. Golaknath v State of Punjab

2. Which of the following is true as regards national emergency in India?

A. Can be declared on grounds of internal disturbance, war and external
aggression
B. Can be continued indefinitely
C. State governments are dissolved automatically
D. No approval of the Parliament is required for extension

Answer B. Can be continued indefinitely

E.
3. The case Rupa Hurra v Ashok Hurra lay down the law on
A. Curative petitions
B. Death penalty
C. State Emergency
D. Appeals directly to the Supreme Court

Answer A Curative petitions

4. According to Art___, residuary powers lie with the___

A. 246, Centre
B. 248, Centre
C. 246, State
D. 248, State

Answer B. 248, Centre

5. Which of the following cases first stated that Judicial Review is a Basic Structure?
A. IR Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu
B. Navtej Singh Johar v Union of India
C. Minerva Mills v Union of India
D. Waman Rao v. Union of India
 Answer c. Minerva Mills v Union of India

6. Which of the following is false of the money bill

A. Art 110 defines Money Bills
B. Can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
C. Any law regulating borrowing of money from the Consolidated Fund of India can
be a money bill
D. Rajya Sabha can block the passing of a Money Bill

Answer d. Rajya Sabha can block the passing of a Money Bill

7. In which manner are judges of the High Court and Supreme Court appointed?
A. Collegium consisting of 4 senior most judges and the Chief Justice of India
B. Appointed through the National Judicial Appointments Commission
C. Collegium consisting of 3 senior most judges and the Chief Justice of India and
the law minister
D. Appointed through the National Judicial Appointments Commission with the
assent of the President

Answer a Collegium consisting of 4 senior most judges and the Chief Justice of India

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The boundaries of a state may be changed by the Parliament without consulting
of the States
B. States are assimilated in the Union of India through Art 2
C. In order to alter the name of the State, the Parliament shall have to consult the
Governor of the State
D. Parliament can convert a State to a Union Territory if so required

Answer c. In order to alter the name of the State, the Parliament shall have to
consult the Governor of the State

9. Which amendment Act is also known as the mini constitution?

A. 39th
B. 42nd
C. 44th
D. 72nd

Answer b. 42nd
 10. The ordinary original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not lie in
A. Inter-state disputes
B. Centre-State disputes
C. Sharing of river water disputes
D. Fundamental Rights violations

Answer d. Fundamental Rights violations

11. Which case is also called as Pavement Dwellers case?

a. Francis Coralie vs Delhi Administration
b. Olga Tellis Vs Bombay Municipal Corporation
c. M.C.Mehta Vs State of Tamil Nadu
d. M.P Vashi vs State of Maharashtra

Answer b. Olga Tellis Vs Bombay Municipal Corporation

12. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India

by which of the following Amendment Act?

(a) 40th Amendment Act

(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 43rd Amendment Act
(d) 42nd Amendment Act

Answer d) 42nd Amendment Act

13. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the
Right to Religious Freedom?

(a) Articles 25-28

(b) Articles 29-30
(c) Articles 32-35
(d) Articles 23-24

Answer (a) Articles 25-28

14. Which fundamental right is called as the heart and soul of the
Constitution?

a) Right to Equality

b) Right to Freedom

c) Right against Exploitation

 d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Answer Right to Constitutional Remedies

15. The Golden Triangle of Fundamental Rights refers to

a) Articles 14, 19 and 21

b) Articles 14, 19 and 32

c) Article 19, 21 and 32

d) Article 14, 21 and 32

Answer a. Articles 14, 19 and 21

16. Under which one of the following writs a person can be prevented from taking an action
to which he is officially not entitled?

(a) Mandamus.

(b) Quo Warranto.

(c) Certiorari.

(d) Mandamus.
Answer . (b) Quo Warranto

17. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens cannot be suspended under any
circumstances.

(b) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the Parliament by a
two-third majority.

(c) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the president during
the national emergency.

(d) The fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the
national emergency as well as emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional
machinery in a state.

Answer c) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the president during
the national emergency 2
18. The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the idea of Directive Principles of State Policy
from

(a) The Government of India Act,1935.

(b) The Government of U.S.S. R.

(c) The Constitution of U.S.A.

(d) The Constitution of Irish Republic.

Answer (d) The Constitution of Irish Republic.

19. The concept of public interest litigation originated in _____
(a) USA.

(b) UK.

(c) Australia.

(d) Canada.

Answer (a) U.S.A

20. The president can vacate his office by addressing his resignation to

(a) The Vice-President.

(b) The speaker of Lok-Sabha.

(c) The Prime minister.

(d) The Chief Justice of India.

Answer (a) The Vice-President

Constitutional law

Objective type questions

1. The Concept of Directive Principles of State policy has been borrowed from _______.
a. France
b. Italy
c. USA
d. Ireland
2. ____ Members are nominated from Anglo Indian Community.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 12

3.The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act substituted _______ in place of internal disturbance
pertaining to the Emergency provisions.

a. War

b. armed rebellion

c. External Aggression

d. Territorial Inclusion

4. An Appeal to the Supreme Court cannot be maintained without _______ from the High Court.

a) Certificate
b) authentication
c) appeal
d) letter

5. The Right to Eduction Act was passed in the year______.

a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) 2020

6. Untouchability is abolished and is punishable under______

a) Art 15
b) Art 16
c) Art 17
d) Art 21

7.Art 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to ________.

a) All persons domiciled in India

b) All persons living in India
 c) All minors
d) All Citizens

8.Fundamental Duties were added by the ______ amendment.

a) 42nd
b) 44th
c) 47th
d) 52nd

9.Which Judgment is also famous as Habeas Corpus Case?

a) A.D.M. Jabalpur Vs Shivkant Shukla

b) HH Keshavnand Bharti Vs State of Kerala
c) Olga Tellis Vs State of Maharashtra
d) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

10.What is Double Jeopardy?

a) A person cannot be punished twice for the same offence

b) A person cannot be arrested twice for the same offence
c) A person cannot be prosecuted for the same offence
d) A person cannot be defamed for the same offence.

11. ______Members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years.

a) One third
b) Two third
c) One fourth
d) Three fourth

12.The Money Bill is introduced first in __________of the Parliament .

a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Legislative Council
d) Legislative Assembly

13.Which of the following is not a State under Art 12?

a. Life Insurance Corporation of India

b. ICICI Prudential

c. State Trading Corporation

d.Mumbai University

14. The Constitution of India was adopted on _________.

a. 15th August 1947

b.26th January 1950

c.26th November 1949

d.14th May 1958

15.The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was

a. Dr B.R. Ambedkar

b. Dr Rajendra Prasad

c. Jawarharlal Nehru

d Sardar Patel

16.Which Doctrine means “ what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”.

a. Doctrine of Pith and substance

b. Doctrine of Colorable legislation

c.Doctrine of Eclipse

d. Doctrine of Estoppel

17.Which Article binds all courts by the decisions of Supreme Court of India.

a. Art 141

b. Art 136

c. Art 131

d. Art 143

18.Preamble is part of the Indian Constitution was decided in the case____.

a. Keshvanand bharti vs State of Kerala

b.Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India

c. Golaknath vs State of Punjab

d.Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan

19. The Removal of President before the expiry of term can be done by way of _____.

a. Impeachment

b. Lounge

c. Challenge

d. Dismissal

20.Locus Standi means

a. Right to bring an action in the court of law

b. right to participate in the proceedings of the house of parliament

c. right to file a petition in the international court

d. right to be free from the custody.

Q1. In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court has laid down guidelines
regarding
A. Rape victims
B. Rights of the children of prostitutes
C. Women rights
D. Arrest and detention rights
Answer: (D)
Q2. Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be suspended
during the Proclamation of Emergency?
A. Articles 14 and 15
B. Articles 19 and 20
 C. Articles 20 and 21
D. Articles 21 and 22
Answer: C)
Q3. In India Judicial review implies:
A. The power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
B. The power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
legislatures.
C. The power of the judiciary to review all legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the president.
D. The power of the judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or
different cases.
Answer: A)
Q4. What is meant by freedom of religion?
A. You can’t choose the time you practice your religion.
B. You must choose a religion.
C. You can practice any religion, or not practice a religion.
D. No one can practice a specific religion.
Answer: C
Q5. 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India provides for:
A. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and district levels
B. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and block levels
C. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the block and district levels
D. Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district levels.
Answer: D)
Q6. Constitution of India was adopted by constituent assembly on?
A. 26 January 1949
B. 26 January 1950
C. 26 November 1948
D. 26 November 1949
Answer: D

Q7. Which of the following is matched correctly?

A. Mohini Jain vs. State of Karnataka :: Right to education is a fundamental right
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India :: Uniform civil code
C. TMA Pai Foundation vs. State of Karnataka :: Prohibition of children working in
hazardous industries
D. Gaurav Jain v. Union of India :: Right to not to speak
Answer: A
Q8. What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly- this is reflected in which of the
following constitutional doctrines?
A. Pith and substance
B. Implied powers
C. Ancillary powers
D. Colourable legislation
Answer D

Q9. The jurisdiction of the supreme court of India may be enlarged by whom?
A. Ruling government policy decision
B. Parliament by Law
C. The President
D. The Chief Justice of India in concurrence with other Supreme Court Judges
Answer: B

Q10. Which of the following is the best description of Separation of powers?

A. People have the power
B. Powers are divided between the national and state governments
C. Powers are divided among 3 branches of government
D. Branches have power over each other to keep each other from becoming too powerful
Answer: C
Q11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. An amendment of the Constitution under Art. 368 can be initiated only by the
introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament.
B. An amendment of the Constitution under Art. 368 can be initiated by in the
parliament or the State Legislature.
C. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the federal structure of the polity can be
amended by a special majority of the Parliament, plus the consent of half of the state
legislatures by a simple majority.
D. The amending power under Article 368 is limited by the doctrine of basic structure
developed by the Supreme Court.
Answer: B
Q12. Which of the following committee advocated for the Fundamental Duties to be
incorporated within the Indian constitution?
A. Verma Committee
B. Sarkaria Committee
C. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
 D. Swarn Singh Committee
Answer: D
Q13. Which of the following is not the Fundamental Duty?
A. Safeguarding public property
B. To obey the parents
C. To make compulsory education to children of 6 to 14 years
D. To spread brotherhood among the people
Answer: B
Q14. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
A. In re Delhi Law Case (1951) SCR 747 :: Advisory jurisdiction (Art.143)
B. State of Bihar v. Union of India :: Original Jurisdiction (Art. 131)
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India :: Advisory jurisdiction (Art.143)
D. State of Karnataka v. Union of India :: Original Jurisdiction (Art. 131)
Answer: C
Q15. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The Speaker has the right to prohibit publication and exclude any part of the
parliamentary proceedings.
B. A person can be a member of both houses of parliament.
C. A person can be a member of parliament and a member of the state legislative
assembly at the same time.
D. Freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under article 105 (1) is subject to the
restrictions mentioned under Article 19(2).
Answer: A
Q16. The term ‘secularism’ implies that:
A. Parliament should support religions
B. State and religion are inseparable
C. State does not recognize any religion as a State religion
D. People are free to worship State recognized religion
Answer C
Q17. Which of the following case is popularly known as ‘the Fundamental Rights’ case?
A. M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
B. Keshavanand Bharati V. State of Kerala
C. S.P. Gupta V. Union of India
D. Champakam Dorairajan V. State of Madras
Answer: B
Q18. A writ of certiorari can be issued against
A. A Lower Court/Tribunal to prevent it from proceeding further.
 B. Parliament to stop the proceedings taking place in the House.
C. Lower Courts to remit all the documents to the writ court for verification.
D. To give direction to the executive to perform their duties.
Answer: C
Q19. Right to life’ does not include ‘right to die’. It has been held in case of
A. P. Rathinam V. Union of India
B. Bandhua Mukti Morcha V. Union of India
C. A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras
D. Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
Answer: D
Q20. Who certifies a bill as a money bill when it goes to other house or for President's
assent?
A. Finance Minister
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker of the House of People
D. Speaker of the Council of states
Answer C
Q21. Right against ‘Double Jeopardy’ is guaranteed under
A. Article 20(1)
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 22 (1)
D. Article 21
Answer: B
Q22. Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding the Directive principles?
A. Directive principles of state policy are part and parcel of Fundamental Rights.
B. DPSPs are the non-justiciable that is they are not legally enforceable by the courts for
their violation.
C. DPSPs require legislation for their implementation they are not automatically
enforced.
D. Law violative of any of the directive principle cannot be declared as unconstitutional
and invalid.
Answer: A
Q23. The main object of Article 39 is
A. Creation of Democratic State
B. Creation of Welfare State
C. Creation of just and humane conditions of work
D. Providing Legal Aid
Answer: C
Q24. Article 30 Clause (1) of Indian Constitution States that all minorities whether based on
religion or language shall have the right
A. To establish and administer
B. To establish and maintain
C. To acquire property and establish
D. To establish religious institutions
Answer: A
Q25. Which of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian
Constitution
A. Distribution of Powers between Centre and State
B. Authority of Courts
C. Supremacy of the Constitution
D. Single citizenship
Answer: D
1. Which Act declared the end of British Supremacy over Indian States?

a) Government of India Act, 1919.

b) Government of India Act, 1935.
c) Indian Independence Act, 1947.
d) Indian Republic Act, 1950.

2. According to the Constitution of India right to freedom of religion can

be restricted on the grounds of ________________.

a) Public Order, Morality and Health.

b) Sovereignty and Integrity of nation and friendly relations with
other states
c) Defamation and Incitement of Offence.
d) Security of the state and Contempt of Court.

3. Parliament consists of_____________________.

a) Loksabha and Rajya Sabha only.

b) President, Loksabha and Rajyasabha.
c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
 d) Governor, Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.

4. Which amongst the following cases the Apex Court explained Right
against self incrimination?

a) S.P. Gupta v Union of India

b) Nandini Satpaty v. P.L.Dany
c) Keshavanada Bharti v. State of Kerala
d) M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath

5. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Directive

Principles of State Policy?

a) Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the

Courts.
b) Directive Principles of State Policy are provided from Articles 52-
72 of the Constitution.
c) Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from USSR.
d) Directive Principles of State Policy contains the ideals
which the government should keep in mind while
formulating laws.

6. The concept of “What cannot be done directly cannot be done

indirectly also” is emphasised in which amongst the following
doctrines?

a) Doctrine of Eclipse
b) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
c) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
d) Doctrine of Repugnancy

7. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to_______________.

 a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Lok Sabha
d) Rajya Sabha

8. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on

ground/s of____________________.

a) Proven Misbehaviour or Incapacity

b) Violation of Constitution
c) Gross Negligence
d) Crime

9. President of India can be impeached on the ground of

______________________.

a) Proven Misbehaviour or Incapacity

b) Violation of Constitution
c) Gross Negligence
d) Crime

10. Which of the following is false regarding Money Bill?

a) It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha

b) It can be introduced only with prior recommendation of
President
c) Money Bill must be passed by Special Majority in both
houses of Parliament.
d) Recommendations of Rajya Sabha can be rejected by Lok Sabha
in case of Money Bill.

11. Which article/s cannot be suspended during National Emergency?

 a) Article 14 to 18
b) Article 19
c) Article 20 & Article 21
d) Article 32

12. The power of declaring National emergency is with _________.

a) Prime Minister
b) Parliament
c) Loksabha
d) President

13. Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court in

which amongst the following cases?

a) S.R.Bommai v. Union of India

b) Minerva Milla v. Union of India
c) I.CGolaknath v. State of Punjab
d) Keshavananda Bharathi v. State of Kerala

14. Which of the following Statements is false with respect to Election

Commission of India?

a) It is a constitutional body
b) The term of the Election Commissioners is up to 6 years or 65
years of age.
c) Election Commission of India conducts the Lok Sabha elections
and election to the offices of President and Vice President.
d) Election Commission of India conducts the elections to
Panchayath and Municipal Corporations.
15. Which Constitutional Authority has the power to institute a new All
India Service?

a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Prime Minister
d) President

16. Which part of the Constitution is considered to be the key to the

mind of the framers of the constitution?

a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Fundamental Duties

17. In which amongst the following cases the Supreme Court interpreted
Art. 21 to include the phrase “due process of law” in it?

a) A.K.Gopalan v. State of Madras

b) Gobind v. State of U.P
c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d) A.D.M Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla

18. Protection of Civil Rights Act was originally named as____________.

a) Untouchability Offences Act

b) Prohibition of Untouchabilty Act
c) Prevention of Untouchability Act
d) Protection of Untouchables Act

19. Who is the Executive Head of the State Government?

 a) Chief Minister
b) Home Minister
c) Prime Minister
d) Governor

20. Which constitutional amendment added three new words-Socialist,

Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble?

a) 40th Constitutional Amendment

b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
c) 44th Constitutional Amendment
d) 46th Constitutional Amendment

21. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of
Parliament is__________.
a) Six Months
b) Four Months
c) Three Months
d) 12 Months
22. Division of power between centre and state by way of three lists is
contained in which schedule of the constitution?
a) 4th Schedule
b) 5th Schedule
c) 6th Schedule
d) 7th Schedule
23. Who is the highest legal officer of the Union Government of
India?
a) Advocate General
b) Attorney General
c) Solicitor General
d) Comptroller and Auditor General
24. Which among the following has the power to legislate on the
matters which are neither in the Union List, nor in the State List nor
in the Concurrent list of the Constitution of India?
a) Parliament
b) State Legislatures
c) President
d) Supreme Court of India
25. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States?
a) President
b) Speaker
c) Vice President
d) Prime Minister
 Constitution of India MCQ

1. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the
American Federation?
a. A single citizenship.
b. Three lists in the Constitution
c. Dual judiciary
d. A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution.
2. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High court and the
Supreme Court?
a. Disputes between the Centre and the States.
b. Disputes between the States inter se.
c. Protection of the Fundamental Rights.
d. Protection against the violation of the Constitution.
3. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that:
a. Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to its that they cannot be abrogated.
b. Fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away.
c. The Constitutioncannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure
prescribed in Article 368.
d. The preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not part of the
Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit.
4. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only
with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
a. Election of the President.
b. Representation of States in Parliament.
c. Any of the lists in the 7th Schedule.
d. Abolition of the Legislative Council of State.

Choose the correct answer from the cods given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4.
c. 1, 3 and 4.
d. 2, 3 and 4.
5. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term
of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Which of the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given bellows:
a. 1 only.
 b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2.
d. Neither.
6. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc., (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India ) is a fundamental right classifiable under:
a. The right to freedom of religion
b. The right against exploitation.
c. The cultural and educational rights
d. The right to equality.
7. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its :
a. Advisory jurisdiction.
b. Appellate Jurisdiction.
c. Original jurisdiction
d. Constitutional jurisdiction.
8. According to the Constitution of India, the term “District Judge” shall not include:
a. Chief presidency magistrate.
b. Sessions judge
c. Tribunal judge.
d. Chief Judge of a small cause court.
9. Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College for the election of the President of
India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
a. LokSabha
b. RajyaSabha.
c. State Legislative Councils.
d. State Legislative Assemblies
10. The concept of public Interest Litigation originated in
a. The United Kingdom
b. Australia.
c. The United States.
d. Canada
11. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection Act?
a. Second schedule
b. Fifth schedule
c. Eighth schedule
d. Tenth schedule.
12. The Indian Parliamentary system is different from the British Parliamentary system in that
India has …
a. Both the real and nominal executive
b. A system of collective responsibility
c. Bicameral legislature
d. The system of judicial review
13. Panchayat raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in ………
a. Rajasthan
b. Tamil nadu
c. Kerala
d. Karnataka.
14. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to ………….
a. Freedom of trade and profession
b. Equality before the law
c. Protection of life and personal liberty
d. Freedom of religion
15. The Constitution of India recognizes…………
a. Only religious minorities
b. Only linguistic minorities
c. Religious and linguistic minorities
d. Religious , linguistic and ethnic minorities
16. The primary function of the finance commission in India is to …….
a. Distribute revenue between the Centre and the state.
b. Prepare the annual budget
c. Advise the President on financial matters.
d. Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
17. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavor of every state to
provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of
education?
a. Article 349
b. Article 350
c. Article 350 A
d. Article 351.
18. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law and fact
……….
a. On its own initiative
b. Only if he seeks such advice
c. Only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
d. Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
19. Which one of the following duties is not performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India?
a. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
b. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts.
c. To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts.
d. To control the receipt and issue of public money and to ensure that the public revenue is
lodged in the exchequer
20. If the new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules
of the Constitution may be amended?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fifth
 21. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the
promotion of international peace and security?
a. 51
b. 48 A
c. 43 A
d. 41
22. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar as the heart and soul
of the Constitution?
a. Right to freedom of religion
b. Right to property
c. Right to equality
d. Right to Constitutional remedies.
23. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his
executive council by substituting “portfolio” or departmental system for corporate
functioning?
a. Indian Council Act, 1861
b. Government of India Act, 1858
c. Indian Council Act, 1892
d. Indian Council Act, 1909
24. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any
matter included in the Union List of Legislative powers rest with ……….
a. The President of India
b. The Chief Justice of India
c. The Parliament
d. The Union Ministry of Law, justice and company affairs.
25. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the
Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election
Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections ( in the year 2002) ?
a. Article 142
b. Article 143
c. Article 144
d. Article 145.

Answer key

1. D

2. C

3. A

4. A

5. B

6. D

7. C
8. C

9. D

10. C

11. D

12. D

13. A

14. A

15. C

16. A

17. C

18. B

19. D

20. A

21. A

22. D

23. A

24. C

25. B

MCQ for Constitutional law

1. The subjects mentioned in the state list are of local importance such as:-
a) Public order, public health, police and defence etc.
b) Law and order, currency, sanitation and taxation etc.
c) Education, law and order, agriculture, and state taxes etc.
d) Law and order, banking, taxation, and foreign affairs etc.
 Ans. c

2. The writ of habeas corpus will lie if the power vested in the authority was
exercised__________
a) Without mala fide intention
b) Without any ill will or ulterior motive
c) With mala fide intention
d) Without any reason
Ans. c
3. It was held in Sankalchand case that the word consultation means_____________
a) Consultation with everybody
b) Full and effective consultation
c) Consultation with chief Justice of India
d) Consultation with Union executive
Ans. b
4. Clause 4 of the Article 22 provides that no law providing for preventive detention shall
authorize the detention for a longer period then______
a) 3 months
b) 2 months
c) 4 moths
d) 6 months
Ans. a
5. The text of preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure, ___________
a) Fundamental rights to all the individuals
b) Fundamental rights to all the citizens
c) Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d) Security of service to the government servant
Ans. c
6. In which of the following cases secularism has been held as the basic feature of Indian
Constitution?
a) S.R.Bomai V. Union Of India
b) Gulam abbas V. State of U.P.
c) I.C. Golaknath V. State of Punjab
d) A.K.Gopalan V. State of Madras
Ans. a
7. The words used in the preamble, “Justice, Liberty, Equality, and fraternity” are given
contents by _________
a) Part I and IV
b) Part V and VI
c) Part III and IV
d) Part III
Ans. c
8. Which article deals with adult suffrage?
a) Article 320
b) Article 326
c) Article 225
d) Article 226
Ans. b
9. Which of the following article supports the secular feature of Indian Constitution?
a) Article 14- 18
b) Article 20 – 22
c) Article 23-24
d) Article 25-28
Ans. d
10. Indian constitution is framed to work as _____
a) A federal system
b) A Unitary System
c) A federal in normal times and Unitary in emergency
d) A Unitary in normal times and federal in emergency
Ans. c
11. Fundamental duties have been incorporated in the constitution through insertion of Article
51A by which amendment?
a) 42nd amendment
b) 43rd amendment
c) 44th amendment
d) 1st amendment
Ans. a
12. “The Directive Principles of State policy have to confront to and run as subsidiary to the
chapter of fundamental rights, because the latter as enforceable in the court while the
former are not.” It was held in
a) State Of Madras V. Champakam Dorairajan
b) Mohd. Hanif Qureshi V. State of Bihar
c) Minerva Mills V. UOI
d) Keshavanand Bharti V. State of Kerala
Ans. a
13. According to the constitution of India, executive power of the Union is vested in____
a) President
b) Prime minister
c) Parliament
d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. a
14. The president assigns his resignation to ______
a) Vice president
b) Prime Minister
c) Speaker of loksabha
d) Speaker of rajyasabha
Ans. a
15. The house which passes the motion to prefer a charge against the president_______
a. Shall be entitled to investigate the charge
b. Shall not be entitled to investigate the charge
c. Shall be entitled to investigate the charge only if the other house permits
d. Shall appoint a committee consisting of members from both the houses to investigate
the charge
Ans. b
16. The members of state commission are appointed by ___________
a. The Governor
 b. The President
c. The Prime Minister
d. The Chief Minister
Ans. a
17. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Court in regard to civil
matters can be invoked if the High Court certifies….
a) That the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
b) That in the opinion of the High Court the said question needs to be decided by the
Supreme Court
c) The question involves statutory Rights
d) The question involves Fundamental Rights

18. The law made by the parliament,

a) Are valid, even if they have extra territorial jurisdiction
b) Are invalid if they have extra territorial jurisdiction
c) Are valid, even if they have extra territorial jurisdiction, if the subject is covered
under Union list
d) Are valid, even if they have extra territorial jurisdiction, if the subject is covered
under Concurrent list
Ans. a
19. “What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly.” This statement is related to the
doctrine of _____________
a. Pith and Substance
b. Colorable Legislation
c. Strict construction
d. Harmonious construction
Ans. b
20. If the council of state reject the proclamation of national emergency, it shall expire after
a) One month
b) Two months
c) Three months
d) Four months
Ans. a
1. The President appoints
(a) Advocate General
(b) Solicitor General
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) ***Comptroller and Auditor General.

2.Which one of the following is incorrect statement as regards to the

term of office of the Governor
(a) the Governor writing under his addressed to the President,
resigning office
(b) the Governor is in the office as long as the President is pleased
with his function
(c) the term is five years from the date of assuming the office of
(d) ***the term is five years until he attains the age of 65.

3. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha vested with

(a) ***President of India on the advise of Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Lt. Governors of the Union territories.

4. The Vice President of India is elected by

(a) way of people's representation
(b) the representatives of State and Central Legislature
(c) directly by the people
(d)*** the Members of both the Houses of Parliament assembled
at a joint meeting

5. The Executive Power of the State is vested with

(a) People of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c)*** Governor of the State
(d) State Legislature

6. All matters relating to, or connected with the election of the

President including an election petition are enquired into and decided
by
(a) a tribunal constitutes for the purpose of Election of President
(b) any High Court where the petition is moved
(c) ***the Supreme Court of India.
(d) a committee specially constituted for the purpose by the Rajya
Sabha
7. Give correct response to:
(a) the President of India is eligible for re-election as many times as
he desire
(b) the President of India is ineligible for re- election
(c) the President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three
terms
(d) ***the President of India can seek re-elector, as many times
under the letter of Constitution, but there is well established
convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two
terms.

8. The term of the office of Vice President is

(a) ***five years from the date on which he enters upon his office
(b) five years from the date on which he takes, oath of the office
(c) five years from the date of his election is announced
(d) five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office.

9. In regard to the qualification for the election of Vice President

which of the following statements is incorrect
(a) he should be citizen of India
(b) he should have attained the age of 35 years
(c) he should not hold the office of profit
(d) ***he should be qualified to be a Member of Lok Sabha

10. The President of India nominates

(a) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) ***All the options are correct.
11. The President of India is
(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces
(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
(c) Head of the Government
(d) ***Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and
Executive Head of the Union

12. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a:

(a) ***Directive principle of state policy
(b) statutory provision in Labour law
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) matter of State to pass Bill.

13. The ‘fundamental duties’ are intended to serve as a reminder to:

(a) the State to perform duties conferred by the Constitution
(b) the judiciary to administer justice properly
(c) ***every citizen to observe basic norms of democratic conduct
(d) the legislature wing to make laws for the welfare of the State.

14. Fundamental Duties of citizens:

(a) lie scattered throughout the Constitution
(b) are contained in Part IVA of the Constitution (c) are contained in
Schedule IX of the Constitution
(d) none of the above.

15. India borrowed the idea of incorporating Fundamental Rights in

the Constitution from:
(a) France
(b) ***USA
(c) Britain
(d) Charter of Human Rights.
16. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizen are:
(a) enshrined in the original Constitution
(b)*** added to the Constitution by 42nd Amendment
(c) added to the Constitution by 44th Amendment (d) added to
Constitution by the Supreme Court judgment in Keshvananda Bharti
case.

17. The Directive' of State Policy aim at:

(a) ensuring individual liberty
(b) ensuring strengthening of country's independence
(c) Providing a social and economic base for genuine democracy in
the country
(d) ***achievement of all these objectives.

18. In which part of the Constitution the concept of Welfare state

finds elaboration:
(a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) ***Directive Principles

19. The farmers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive

Principles from:
(a) Constitution of Indian Republic
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) ***Constitution of Ireland
(d) Constitution of Switzerland.

20. From which country the principles of Fundamental Duties have

been derived
(a) Ireland
(b) ***USSR
(c) Britain
(d) France

21. Fundamental Duties were inserted in the Constitution by

(a) ***42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 47th Amendment
(d) 49th Amendment

22. How many duties are conferred on the citizens in Article 51A:
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) ***11
(d) 12

23. Under Article 15 of the Constitution, the State shall not

discriminate against any citizen on grounds:

(a) Colour
(b) religion
(c) Sex
(d)*** both religion and sex

24. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not true:

(a) ***Article 20 directly relevant to the civil and criminal

process
(b) Article 20(1) is concerned with the substantive law of criminal
liability and penalty only
(c) Article 20 (2) and 20 (3) are mainly concerned with the stage of
procedure
(d) Article 20 (3) gives protection against ‘testimonial compulsion’.

25. 'Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment' is

mentioned in which of the following Articles:
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) ***Article 16
(d) None of the above.

26. Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit:

(a) traffic in human beings
(b) beggar
(c) forced labour
(d) ***compulsory service for public purposes

27. The word 'practice' mentioned in Article 25 does not include:

(a) ***Propagation
(b) Religious worship
(c) Rituals
(d) Observations

28. Under Article 24, which place of employment is not explicitly

prohibited:
(a) any factory (b) mine
(c) hazardous employment of any kind
(d) ***hotel
29. When the court declare certain provisions of the Act invalid, it
does not affect the validity of the Act it remains as it is:
(a) Doctrine of severability
(b) Doctrine of eclipse
(c) Doctrine of prospective overruling
(d) ***All options are incorrect

30. In which case the decision of the Supreme Court was a big blow
on Article 21 when it held that, "Right to life and personal liberty
guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution could not be enforced in
view of proclamation of emergency and an order issued under Article
359 (1)"?
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(b) ***ADM Jabalpur v. Shukla
(c) Minerva Mill Ltd. v. Union of India
(d) Waman Rao v. Union of India.

MCQs on CONSTITUTIONAL LAW-FYBLS AND FYLLB (25 MCQs)

1. What is the correct order in which the following terms are enshrined in the Preamble to
the Constitution of India?
a) Equality b) Liberty c) Justice d) Fraternity

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) a, b, c and d
b) b, a, c and d
c) c, b, a and d
d) c, a, b and d
Ans.1) C) c, b, a and d
2. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution is mentioned under the Article
_____________of India Constitution.
a) 5
b) 12
c) 13
d) 5-A

Ans.2) A) 5
3. The words, “Sovereign, democratic republic was inserted in ‘Preamble’ by
____________Amendment Act, 1976.
a) 41st
b) 42nd
c) 44th
d) 46th
Ans. 3) B) 42nd

4. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is

mentioned under Article ______of Indian Constitution.
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16

Ans. 4) C) 15
5. Abolition of titles that “No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be
conferred by the State is mentioned under Article __________ of Indian Constitution.
 A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18

Ans. 5) D) 18
6. To form associations or co-operative societies means ____________ of Indian
Constitution.
A) 19 (a)
B) 19 (b)
C) 19 (c)
D) 19 (d)

Ans. 6) 19 (c)
7) The __________shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of
six to fourteen years in such manner as described under Indian Constitution.
A) Union of India
B) Central Government
C) Parliament
D) State

Ans. 7) D) State

8) Seventh Schedule is mentioned under _______ of Indian Constitution.

(A) From languages
(B) From Panchayati Raj
(C) From the judicial areas of the states
(D) Partition of powers between center and states
Ans.8) D Partition of powers between Center and States
9) Which country is having the most detailed Constitution in the world?
a) United States
b) France
c) India
d) Japan
Ans.9) C) India
10) The feature of ‘Concurrent List’ in our Constitution is adopted from which country’s
Constitution?
a) Japan
b) Australia
c) United States
d) Ireland
Ans.10) B) Australia
11) The idea of Fundamental Rights and Judicial Review is borrowed from:
a) British form of government
b) Australian form of government
c) Japanese form of government
d) United States
Ans.11) D) United States
12) Which is the apex judicial institution in India whose decisions are binding on all courts?
a) Parliament
b) Supreme Court
c) Law Minister
d) Lok Sabha
Ans.12) B) Supreme Court
13) The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the _____Constitutional Amendment Act,
1988.
a) 44th
b) 46th
c) 48th
d) 61st
Ans.13) D) 61st

14) ‘Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases’ is an essence of
which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 40
B. Article 39
C. Article 41
D. Article 42
Ans. 14) C) Article 41
15) Living, wage etc. for workers has been mentioned in Article of Indian Constitution.

A. 41
B. 42
C. 43A
D. 43
Ans. 15) D) 43

16) Which of the following Articles says, “The State shall Endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”?
A. Article 44
B. Article 45
C. Article 43A
D. Article 46
Ans. 16) B) Article 45

17) The expression, “________shall, in relation to any local area, have the same meaning as
that expression or its local equivalent has in the existing law relating to land tenures in force
in that area”.
A. State
B. Statute
C. Estate
D. Article 42
Ans. 17) C) Estate

18) “Right to Property” omitted by the Constitution under _________Amendment) Act,

1978.
A. Article 46th
B. Article 48th
C. Article 44th
D. Article 42
Ans. 18) C) Article 44th

19) After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, it shall be transmitted to
the ___________ for its recommendations.
A. Council of States
B. P.M.
C. Parliament
D. Cabinet
Ans. 19) A) Council of States

20) When a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the
_____.
A. Council of States
B. President
C. Parliament
D. Cabinet
Ans. 20) B) President

21) Administrative tribunals are ___________.

A. Council of States
B. President
C. 323A
D. Cabinet
Ans. 21) C) Article 323-A

22) ___________ certifies that the continuance in force of the Proclamation approved under
clause (3) during the period specified in such resolution is necessary on account of difficulties
in holding general elections to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
A. Council of States
B. President
C. Election Commission
D. Cabinet
Ans. 22) C) Election Commission

23) “Proclamation of Emergency” means, a Proclamation issued under clause (1) of _______.
A. Council of States
B. Article 352
C. Election Commission
D. Cabinet
Ans. 23) B) Article 352

24) As per 371A, special provision with respect to the State of _________is mentioned.
A. Delhi
B. Assam
C. Goa
D. Nagaland
Ans. 24) D) Nagaland

25) Under the Article______, this Constitution may be called, ‘The Constitution of India’.
A. Article 393
B. Article 394
C. Article 395
D. Article 395-A
Ans. 25) A) Article 393
 10 MCQs Constitutional Law

1. In which case the Supreme Court declared Preamble to be a part of

Constitution?
(a)Berubari Union Case
(b)Keshavanada Bharathi v. State of Kerala
(c) S.P Gupta v. Union of India
(d) Aruna Roy v. Union of India

2. An ex-post facto law cannot be made in case of ___________.

(a) criminal matters

(b) civil matters

(c) tax matters

(d) property matters

3. A Supreme Court judge can be removed on the ground/s of ____________.

(a) Violation of Constitution

(b) Proved Misbehaviour or incapacity

(c) Gross Negligence

(d) Committing a Crime

4. The tenure of Comptroller and Auditor General is____________.

(a) 5 years or upto 60 years whichever is earlier

(b) 5 years or upto 62 years whichever is earlier

(c) 6 years or upto 60 years which ever is earlier

 (d) 6 years or upto 65 years whichever is earlier

5. A pre-constitutional law inconsistent with the fundamental rights is not a

nullity or void ab initio but only remains unenforceable. Which doctrine says so?

(a) Doctrine of Pith and Substance

(b) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
(c) Doctrine of Waiver
(d) Doctrine of Eclipse

6. Who presides over a joint sitting of two houses of Parliament?

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(b) Chairman of Rajyasabha
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister

7. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains

provisions regarding official languages?

(a)Second schedule
(b) Fifth schedule
(c)Eighth schedule

(d)Tenth schedule

8. The Executive Power of the Union is vested with ----------------------

a. People of the Union

b. Prime Minister

c. President

d. Parliament

9. Which article deals with All India Services?

(a) Article 320

(b) Article 315
(c) Article 312
 (d) Article 310

10. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to freedom of speech and expression

(b) Right to practice any profession
(c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
(d) Right to Property