Microsoft Test-Inside 98-366 v2018-12-28 by Andrew 100q

98-366.exam.100qExam Error! Bookmark not defined.
QUESTION 2
The default port used for SMTP is: 5
A 5
B 5
Number: 98-366
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
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98-366
Networking Fundamentals
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C. 80
D. 8080
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP by default uses TCP port 25.
QUESTION 2
The ping tool is used to: (Choose two.)
A. Determine the network portion of a host address.

B. Self-test a host's own network interface.
C. Determine whether a host is reachable.
D. Manage a host's session when UDP is used.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip
time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
To have your PC ping itself, type ping 127.0.0.1.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following are features of DHCP? (Choose two.)
A. IP address resolution to canonical names

B. Secure shell connections
C. Address reservation
D. Network file transfer
E. IP address exclusion
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
* The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a standardized network protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for dynamically distributing
network configuration parameters, such as IP addresses for interfaces and services.
* Some network devices need to use statically assigned IP addresses rather than addresses dynamically assigned through DHCP. For example, DHCP
servers must have statically configured IP addresses. Also, some devices (such as legacy network printers) do not support DHCP. For the devices that need
static IP assignments, the company creates an exclusion range from each IP address range.
QUESTION 4
Which network does the IP address 220.100.100.100 belong to?
A. 220.100.100.0/24
B. 220.100.100.1/24
C. 255.255.255.0/24
D. 255.255.255.1/24
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which subnet mask is valid?
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.228
C. 255.255.255.164
D. 255.255.255.245
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
These are valid:
QUESTION 6
A service that resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses is:
A. Domain Name Service (DNS).

B. Internet Service Provider (ISP).
C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
D. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is Microsoft's implementation of NetBIOS Name Service (NBNS), a name server and service for NetBIOS computer
names. Effectively, WINS is to NetBIOS names what DNS is to domain names — a central mapping of host names to network addresses.
QUESTION 7
Teredo tunneling is a protocol that:
A. Translates Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) to Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6).
B. Allows IPv6 connectivity through IPv4 devices.
C. Provides VPN security.
D. Dynamically allocates IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Teredo alleviates this problem by encapsulating IPv6 packets within UDP/IPv4 datagrams, which most NATs can forward properly. Thus, IPv6-aware hosts behind
NATs can be used as Teredo tunnel endpoints even when they don't have a dedicated public IPv4 address.
QUESTION 8
What is the default subnet mask for a Class C Internet network?
A. 255.255.255.252
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Class A default subnet mask is 255.0.0.0.
Class B default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.
Class C default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
QUESTION 9
The default port used for telnet is:
A. 23
B. 25
C. 80
D. 8080
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port number 23, where a Telnet server application (telnetd) is
listening.
QUESTION 10
When a client's DHCP-issued address expires, the client will:
A. Select a new address and request approval from the DHCP server.
B. Require manual configuration with a static IP address.
C. Attempt to obtain a new address by broadcasting.
D. Continue to use the address until it is notified to stop.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Rebinding would occur.
Rebinding
If the DHCP client is unable to communicate with the DHCP server from which it obtained its lease, and 87.5 percent of its lease time has expired, it will attempt to
contact any available DHCP server by broadcasting DHCPRequest messages. Any DHCP server can respond with a DHCPAck message, renewing the lease, or
a DHCPNak message, forcing the DHCP client to initialize and restart the lease process.
Note:
Renewing
IP addressing information is leased to a client, and the client is responsible for renewing the lease. By default, DHCP clients try to renew their lease when 50
percent of the lease time has expired. To renew its lease, a DHCP client sends a DHCPRequest message to the DHCP server from which it originally obtained the
lease.
Reference: DHCP Client States in the Lease Process
QUESTION 11
A Media Access Control (MAC) address identifies a/an:
A. UPnP device.
B. Local broadcast domain.
C. Network interface card (NIC).
D. Local area network (LAN).
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment.
QUESTION 12
Two companies want to share data by using the Internet.
Which type of network provides the solution?
A. Ethernet
B. Intranet
C. Extranet
D. Perimeter
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
An extranet is a computer network that allows controlled access from outside of an organization's intranet. Extranets are used for specific use cases including
business-to-business (B2B).
QUESTION 13
VPNs are implemented to provide:
A. A secure connection within a private network.
B. A secure connection through public networks.
C. Additional encryption by using IPSec.
D. Additional security for selected computers.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
VPN is a network that is constructed by using public wires — usually the Internet — to connect to a private network, such as a company's internal network.
There are a number of systems that enable you to create networks using the Internet as the medium for transporting data. These systems use encryption and
other security mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access the network and that the data cannot be intercepted.
QUESTION 14
If an 802.llg Internet connection has connectivity problems, what may be the cause?
A. A cordless phone
B. A cellular phone
C. Incandescent lights
D. Electromagnetic interference (EMI)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Over the last 10 years 802.11 technology has made remarkable strides -- getting faster, stronger and more scalable. But one problem still haunts Wi-Fi: reliability.
Nothing is more frustrating for network managers than users complaining about flaky Wi-Fi performance, spotty coverage and dropped connections. Dealing with a
Wi-Fi environment that you can't see and that is constantly changing is the problem. And radio frequency interference is the culprit.
QUESTION 15
Which of these factors has the biggest impact on data transmission speed in a wireless network?
A. The access method used for the network

B. The transmission standard of the equipment used
C. The use of strong encryption for transmissions
D. The transmission wattage rating used on the NIC
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The speed of a Wi-Fi wireless network connection depends on several factors.
Like most kinds of computer networks, Wi-Fi supports varying levels of performance depending on which technology standards it supports. Each Wi-Fi standard is
rated according to its maximum theoretical network bandwidth:
A Wi-Fi network connection operates at the highest possible speed that both devices (endpoints) can support. An 802.11g laptop connected to an 802.11n router,
for example, will network at the lower speeds of 'g'.
QUESTION 16
Which type of network covers the broadest area?
A. WAN
B. CAN
C. LAN
D. PAN
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
A wide area network (WAN) is a network that covers a broad area (i.e., any telecommunications network that links across metropolitan, regional, national or
international boundaries) using leased telecommunication lines.
QUESTION 17
In local area network (LAN) topologies, the primary media access methods are: (Choose two.)
A. Contention
B. Negotiation
C. Kerberos
D. Token passing
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Media contention occurs when two or more network devices have data to send at the same time. Because multiple devices cannot talk on the network
simultaneously, some type of method must be used to allow one device access to the network media at a time. This is done in two main ways: carrier sense
multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD) and token passing.
QUESTION 18
In a physical star topology, the central device is referred to as a:
A. Bridge
B. Server
C. segmenter
D. Hub
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
In local area networks with a star topology, each network host is connected to a central hub with a point-to-point connection.
QUESTION 19
Which technology can you use to extend an internal network across shared or public networks?
A. VLAN
B. Microsoft ASP-NET
C. Microsoft .NET Framework
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two are published IEEE 802.11 wireless transmission standards? (Choose two.)
A. 802.1 If
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11k
D. 802.11m
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
The 802.11 family consists of a series of half-duplex over-the-air modulation techniques that use the same basic protocol. 802.11-1997 was the first wireless
networking standard in the family, but 802.11b was the first widely accepted one, followed by 802.11a, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ac.
QUESTION 21
What happens when an 802.11b node starts broadcasting within the range of an 802.llg access point?
A. The access point will transmit, but the node will be unable to receive.
B. A connection will be established.
C. Both the node and the access point will be unable to transmit.
D. The node will transmit, but the access point will be unable to receive.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
802.11g hardware is fully backward compatible with 802.11b hardware.
QUESTION 22
A VPN is a/an:
A. Encrypted connection across the Internet.

B. Virtual network within your local area network (LAN).
C. Communication tunnel between VLANs.
D. Personal network for your use only.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
There are a number of systems that enable you to create networks using the Internet as the medium for transporting data. These systems use encryption and
other security mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access the network and that the data cannot be intercepted.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following determines the media access method that is used in a network?
A. Number of hosts connected to the network

B. Number of domain servers on the segment
C. Maximum speed of the media
D. Topology and protocols
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
Which wireless authentication method provides the highest level of security?
A. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP)

B. IEEE 802.lln
C. WI-FI Protected Access (WPA)
D. IEEE 802.11a
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
WPA aims to provide stronger wireless data encryption than WEP.
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a security protocol and security certification program developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance to secure wireless computer networks.
QUESTION 25
Which type of port is used to support VLAN traffic between two switches?
A. Virtual port
B. WAN port
C. Trunk port
D. LAN port
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches.
QUESTION 26
The protocol that maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
E. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a protocol for mapping an Internet Protocol address (IP address) to a physical machine address (MAC address) that is
recognized in the local network.
QUESTION 27
A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company network. The user was able to connect to the network resources
yesterday.
You verify that the user's computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the computer's IP address is 169.254.48.97.
You need to restore access to network resources.
What should you do next?
A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.

B. Reset the user's password on the server.
C. Check your router's current routing tables.
D. Verify that the DHCP service is available.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
169.254.48.97 is an APIPA address. An APIPA address is used when the DHCP server is not available.
QUESTION 28
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:
A. corp
B. com
C. nwtraders
D. exchange
E. mail
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Hostnames are composed of series of labels concatenated with dots, as are all domain names. For example, let's break mail.google.com into its component parts:
mail is the host or local hostname; and

google.com is the domain or parent domain
name.
QUESTION 29
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64 B.
192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://www.subnet-calculator.com/
QUESTION 30
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
A. IPCONFIG
B. ROUTEC. PING
D. CHECK
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip
time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
QUESTION 31
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D. ::1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The localhost (loopback) address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, and the IPv6 unspecified address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0, are reduced to ::1 and ::, respectively.
QUESTION 32
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The full range of multicast addresses is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?
A. IDS
B. DNS Server
C. NAT Server
D. IPS
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
DNS records include:
*A
Address record
* PTR
Pointer record
QUESTION 34
The ipconfig command will:
A. Configure routers
B. Display a client's address
C. Display a client's broadcast mode
D. Configure DHCP clients
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
ipconfig
Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.
Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.
QUESTION 35
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.

B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. ...
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. ...
* Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is
not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.
QUESTION 36
Which of these is an application layer protocol?
A. TCP
B. FTP
C. IP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
FTP is an application layer protocol.
QUESTION 37
In addition to switching, multilayer switches also:
A. Provide Layer 3 routing functions.

B. Interface with CAT3, CATS, CAT5e, and fiber optics.
C. Support 10 MB, 100 MB, and 1 GB local area network (LAN) ports.
D. Operate by using only Layer 1 and 2 protocols.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
One reason to replace an unmanaged switch with a managed switch is to:
A. Manage the routing tables.

B. Support multiple VLANS.
C. Reduce collision domains.
D. Route between networks,
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A multilayer switch (MLS) is a computer networking device that switches on OSI layer 2 like an ordinary network switch and provides extra functions on higher OSI
layers.
The major difference between the packet switching operation of a router and that of a Layer 3 switch is the physical implementation. In general-purpose routers,
packet switching takes place using software that runs on a microprocessor, whereas a Layer 3 switch performs this using dedicated application-specific integrated
circuit (ASIC) hardware.
QUESTION 39
To directly connect the Ethernet network interface cards (NICs) of two computers, you should use a:
A. Crossover cable
B. Straight cable
C. Rollover cable
D. Coaxial cable
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
An Ethernet crossover cable is a type of Ethernet cable used to connect computing devices together directly. Normal straight through cables were used to connect
from a host network interface controller (a computer or similar device) to a network switch, hub or router.
QUESTION 40
The function of a router is to:
A. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts.

B. Forward traffic to other networks.
C. Broadcast routing tables to clients.
D. Store tables for name resolution.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A router is a device that forwards data packets along networks. A router is connected to at least two networks, commonly two LANs or WANs or a LAN and its
ISP's network. Routers are located at gateways, the places where two or more networks connect.
QUESTION 41
If a router cannot determine the next hop for a packet, the router will:
A. Forward the packet to the default route.

B. Send the packet back to the packet's source.
C. Broadcast the packet.
D. Store the packet in the memory buffer.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
If there is no next hop, the packets are not policy routed.
A default route of a computer that is participating in computer networking is the packet forwarding rule (route) taking effect when no other route can be determined
for a given Internet Protocol (IP) destination address.
QUESTION 42
Which two of the following are connectivity options for wide area networks (WANs)? (Choose two.)
A. Token ring
B. Ethernet
C. Dial-up
D. Leased line
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Token ring and Ethernet are used in LANs.
QUESTION 43
A private network that allows members of an organization to exchange data is an:
A. Extranet
B. Ethernet
C. Intranet
D. Internet
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
An intranet is a computer network that uses Internet Protocol technology to share information, operational systems, or computing services within an organization.
This term is used in contrast to extranet, a network between organizations, and instead refers to a network within an organization.
QUESTION 44
Security is a concern on wireless networks due to:
A. The radio broadcast access method.

B. Spread spectrum issues.
C. Frequency modulation issues.
D. The potential for cross-talk.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
A characteristic of the mesh topology is that it:
A. Uses a central hub.

B. Cannot use wired connections.
C. Uses redundant paths.
D. Cannot use wireless connections.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Mesh network topology is one of the key network architectures in which devices are connected with many redundant interconnections between network nodes
such as routers and switches. In a mesh topology, if any cable or node fails, there are many other ways for two nodes to communicate.
QUESTION 46
To protect a network when it is connected to the Internet, you should use a:
A. Bridge
B. Firewall
C. Switch
D. Router
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A firewall is software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet or a network, and then either blocks it or allows it to pass through to your
computer, depending on your firewall settings.
QUESTION 47
One purpose of a perimeter network is to:
A. Make resources available to the intranet.

B. Link campus area networks (CANs).
C. Link local area networks (LANs).
D. Make resources available to the Internet.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
In computer security, a DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an
organization's external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an
organization's local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
QUESTION 48
Which protocol can be used to encrypt packets on the Internet?
A. SNMP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, makes it more difficult for hackers, the NSA, and others to track users. The protocol makes sure the
data isn't being transmitted in plain-text format, which is much easier to eavesdrop on.
QUESTION 49
The service that resolves fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses is:
A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

B. Domain Name Service (DNS).
C. Internet Service Provider (ISP).
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The DNS translates Internet domain and host names to IP addresses. DNS automatically converts the names we type in our Web browser address bar to the IP
addresses of Web servers hosting those sites.
QUESTION 50
If a router is installed so that it separates a DHCP server from its clients, the clients will:
A. Immediately lose connectivity to all segments.

B. Be unable to obtain their leases from the server.
C. Immediately lose connectivity to the local segment.
D. Receive an immediate renewal of their lease.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Which of the following services masks internal IP addresses from outside the network?
A. DHCP
B. WINS
C. NAT
D. DNS
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The majority of NATs map multiple private hosts to one publicly exposed IP address. In a typical configuration, a local network uses one of the designated "private"
IP address subnets (RFC 1918). A router on that network has a private address in that address space. The router is also connected to the Internet with a "public"
address assigned by an Internet service provider.
QUESTION 52
Tracert is used to:
A. Manage routing tables dynamically.

B. Manage session-oriented connections between nodes.
C. Report the route taken by packets across an IP network.
D. Report the shortest route between different networks.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
In computing, traceroute (treacert) is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet
Protocol (IP) network.
QUESTION 53
In which OSI layer does routing occur?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
In the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking, the network layer is layer 3. The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through
intermediate routers.
QUESTION 54
What type of record does DNS use to find a mail service?
A. Service (SRV) DNS record
B. Canonical (CNAME) DNS record
C. Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record
D. Host (A) DNS record
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email
messages on behalf of a recipient's domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of a
domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
QUESTION 55
The default gateway address identifies the:
A. Device that will connect the computer to the local network.

B. Device that will connect the computer to a remote network.
C. Server that will provide name services for the computer.
D. Server that will authenticate the user of the computer.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A default gateway is the node on the computer network that the network software uses when an IP address does not match any other routes in the routing table.
In home computing configurations, an ISP often provides a physical device which both connects local hardware to the Internet and serves as a gateway.
QUESTION 56
How many bits are there in an Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, allowing 2**128, or approximately 3.4×10**38 addresses, or more than 7.9×10**28 times as many as IPv4, which uses 32-bit
addresses
QUESTION 57
What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 100BaseTX network?
A. Category 3 UTP cable

B. Category 5 UTP cable
C. Category 6 UTP cable
D. Multimode fiber cable
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
100BASE-TX is the predominant form of Fast Ethernet, and runs over two wire-pairs inside a category 5 or above cable.
100BASE-TX and 1000BASE-T were both designed to require a minimum of Category 5 cable and also specify a maximum cable length of 100 meters. Category
5 cable has since been deprecated and new installations use Category 5e.
QUESTION 58
Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is responsible for which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing network speed parameters
B. Verifying the client's patch level
C. Negotiating algorithms to use
D. Exchanging key information
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Internet Key Exchange (IKE) negotiates the IPSec security associations (SAs). This process requires that the IPSec systems first authenticate themselves to each
other and establish ISAKMP (IKE) shared keys.
In phase 1 of this process, IKE creates an authenticated, secure channel between the two IKE peers, called the IKE security association. The Diffie-Hellman key
agreement is always performed in this phase.
In phase 2, IKE negotiates the IPSec security associations and generates the required key material for IPSec. The sender offers one or more transform sets that
are used to specify an allowed combination of transforms with their respective settings. The sender also indicates the data flow to which the transform set is to be
applied. The sender must offer at least one transform set. The receiver then sends back a single transform set, which indicates the mutually agreed-upon
transforms and algorithms for this particular IPSec session.
Reference: IPSec Overview Part Four: Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
QUESTION 59
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The process of replicating a zone file to multiple DNS servers is called "zone replication".
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select 'No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.
A. Zone transfer
B. Zone synchronizationC. Start of authority
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
DNS zone transfer, also sometimes known by the inducing DNS query type AXFR, is a type of DNS transaction. It is one of the many mechanisms available for
administrators to replicate DNS databases across a set of DNS servers
QUESTION 60
Which DNS record type specifies the host that is the authority for a given domain?
A. NS
B. MX
C. CNAME
D. SOA
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The start of authority (SOA) resource record indicates the name of origin for the zone and contains the name of the server that is the primary source for
information about the zone. It also indicates other basic properties of the zone.
QUESTION 61
All session data is "encrypted between all machines" while using telnet.
correct.
A. Not encrypted
B. Encrypted between any Windows machines
C. Encrypted only to any non-Windows machines
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Telnet, by default, does not encrypt any data sent over the connection (including passwords), and so it is often practical to eavesdrop on the communications and
use the password later for malicious purposes; anybody who has access to a router, switch, hub or gateway located on the network between the two hosts where
Telnet is being used can intercept the packets passing by and obtain login, password and whatever else is typed with a packet analyzer.
QUESTION 62
IPv4 multicast addresses range from "192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255".
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.
A. 127.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Class D is multicast.
Class A: 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255

Class B: 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255
Class C: 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.25
Class D: 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255
QUESTION 63
The four IEEE standards, 802.11a, b, g, and n, are collectively known as "mobile ad hoc" networks.
correct.
A. WiMAX
B. Bluetooth
C. WiFi
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IEEE 802.11 is a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer (PHY) specifications for implementing wireless local area network (WLAN) computer
communication in the 2.4, 3.6, 5, and 60 GHz frequency bands. They are created and maintained by the IEEE LAN/MAN Standards Committee (IEEE 802). The
base version of the standard was released in 1997, and has had subsequent amendments. The standard and amendments provide the basis for wireless network
products using the Wi-Fi brand.
QUESTION 64
A university has network links between various locations. Where would a T3 connection be appropriate?
A. Server to network in the main campus server room

B. Main campus to a large satellite campus
C. Computer lab PC to lab printer
D. Library laptop PC to Internet
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
T3 lines are a common aggregation of 28 T1 circuits that yields 44.736 Mbps total network bandwidth . Besides being used for long-distance traffic, T3 lines are
also often used to build the core of a business network at its headquarters
QUESTION 65
You work at a coffee shop. Your supervisor asks you to help set up a computer network.
The network needs to have the following items:

A public facing web server
A Wi-Fi network for customers
A private network for the point of sale terminals
An office PC
A file/print server
A network printer
You need to set up a perimeter network to protect the network.
https://vceplus.com/ Which two
items should you include in the perimeter network? (Choose two.)
A. Network printer
B. Web server
C. File server
D. Wi-Fi network
E. Point of sale terminals
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
Put the web server and the network printer on the perimeter network.
The file server, wifi-network, and the Point of sale terminals should not be accessible from the internet.
Note: A network perimeter is the boundary between the private and locally managed-and-owned side of a network and the public and usually provider-managed
side of a network.
QUESTION 66
DRAG DROP
Match the networking topologies to their corresponding characteristics.
To answer, drag the appropriate topology from the column on the left to its characteristic on the right. Each topology may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
* Star
In star topology, every node (computer workstation or any other peripheral) is connected to a central node called a hub or switch.
* Ring
Each device present in Ring Topology is incorporated with a REPEATER.
* Mesh
Fully connected mesh topology:
A fully connected network is a communication network in which each of the nodes is connected to each other.
* Star
In star topology, every node (computer workstation or any other peripheral) is connected to a central node called a hub or switch.
* mesh (full)
The major disadvantage is that the number of connections grows quadratically with the number of nodes,as per the formula: c=n(n-1)/2
* Ring
Ring Topology: In this type of Topology, data is passed from one node to another in a series. Here each device has dedicated Point-to-Point connection, with only
two devices present on either side of it.
QUESTION 67
Which two features of a Windows Server 2008 R2 server should you install to use that server as a software router? (Choose two.)
A. Network Policy and Access Services

B. Routing and Remote Access Services
C. Remote Administration
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
To install the Routing and Remote Access service
1. In the Server Manager main window, under Roles Summary, click Add roles. -- OR --
In the Initial Configuration Tasks window, under Customize This Server, click Add roles.
2. In the Add Roles Wizard, click Next.
3. In the list of server roles, select Network Policy and Access Services. Click Next twice.
4. In the list of role services, select Routing and Remote Access Services to select all of the role services. You can also select individual server roles.
5. Proceed through the steps in the Add Roles Wizard to complete the installation. Reference: Install and Enable the Routing and Remote Access Service
QUESTION 68
What are two characteristics of fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. Conducts electricity
B. Requires metal conduit
C. Supports splicing
D. Requires a polish for end connectors
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
C: A mechanical splice is a junction of two or more optical fibers that are aligned and held in place by a self-contained assembly (usually the size of a large
carpenter's nail).[1] The fibers are not permanently joined, just precisely held together so that light can pass from one to another.
D: Modern connectors typically use a "physical contact" polish on the fiber and ferrule end. This is a slightly convex surface with the apex of the curve accurately
centered on the fiber, so that when the connectors are mated the fiber cores come into direct contact with one another.
Note: Optical fiber connectors are used to join optical fibers where a connect/disconnect capability is required. Due to the polishing and tuning procedures that
may be incorporated into optical connector manufacturing, connectors are generally assembled onto optical fiber in a supplier’s manufacturing facility.
QUESTION 69
Which Microsoft network service can you use to establish a connection to a corporate LAN without any user action?
A. VPN
B. Remote Desktop
C. DirectAccess
D. Nap
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
DirectAccess allows remote users to securely access internal network file shares, Web sites, and applications without connecting to a virtual private network
(VPN). An internal network is also known as a private network or intranet. DirectAccess establishes bi-directional connectivity with an internal network every time a
DirectAccess-enabled computer connects to the Internet, even before the user logs on. Users never have to think about connecting to the internal network and IT
administrators can manage remote computers outside the office, even when the computers are not connected to the VPN.
QUESTION 70
A "secondary zone" is the first DNS zone to which all updates for the records that belong to that zone are written.
correct.
A. Primary zone
B. Stub zone
C. Conditional forwarding zone
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
When a zone that this DNS server hosts is a primary zone, the DNS server is the primary source for information about this zone, and it stores the master copy of
zone data in a local file or in AD DS.
QUESTION 71
You are setting up a network computer game.
You need to open up ports on your firewall so your friends can join the network.
Which command displays the ports that your computer is listening for?
A. nslookup
B. nbtstat
C. ping
D. netstat
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays network connections for the Transmission Control Protocol (both incoming and outgoing), routing
tables, and a number of network interface (network interface controller or software-defined network interface) and network protocol statistics.
Incorrect:
not A: nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.
Not B: Nbtstat is designed to help troubleshoot NetBIOS name resolution problems.
Not C: ping is used to troubleshoot network connectivity.
QUESTION 72
DRAG DROP
Match the TCP ports to the corresponding service.
To answer, drag the appropriate port number from the column on the left to its service on the right. Each port number may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
25 SMTP (Send Mail Transfer Protocol)
21 FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
443 Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)
QUESTION 73
When a client computer is unable to reach a DHCP server, it will automatically assign an IP address in the "10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255" range.
correct.
A. 127.0.0.0-127.0.0.255
B. 169.254.0.0-169.254.255.255
C. 192168.100.0 -192.168.100.255
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255 is the APIPA address range. An APIPA address is used when the DHCP server is not available.
QUESTION 74
A node within a local area network (LAN) must have which two of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Username and password

B. Share name
C. NIC
D. IP address
E. Table of all network nodes
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
A node must be able to access the LAN through a network interface.
A node must also have an IP address.
QUESTION 75
"A/anvirtual private network (VPN)" protects a network's perimeter by monitoring traffic as it enters and leaves.
correct.
A. Extranet
B. Firewall
C. Intranet
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A firewall is software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet or a network, and then either blocks it or allows it to pass through to your
computer, depending on your firewall settings.
QUESTION 76
The loopback address of your computer is "127.0.0.1".
correct.
A. 10.0.1.1
B. 169.254.0.5
C. 192168.1.1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 loopback address.
QUESTION 77
You run the ipconfig command. The output is shown in the following image:
From these settings, you can tell that the computer:
A. Will have limited Internet access

B. Will have full Internet access
C. Will not be able to access the Internet
D. Will not be able to access the local network
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which IEEE 802.11 Wi-Fi networking standard requires dual antennas so it can run in all of its supported frequencies?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IEEE 802.11n-2009, commonly shortened to 802.11n, is a wireless networking standard that uses multiple antennas to increase data rates.
QUESTION 79
Which feature of Category 5e STP cable reduces external interference?
A. Crosstalk
B. Shielding
C. Length
D. Twisting
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors of a single circuit are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic
interference (EMI) from external sources.
QUESTION 80
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They can logically address packets by using IP.

B. They require a router to connect to VLANs on another switch.
C. They compartmentalize a network and isolate traffic.
D. They are efficient because a single switch can implement only a single VLAN.
E. They act as though they are on the same LAN regardless of physical location.
Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* (E) VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. ...
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. ...
* (C) Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them.
* (B) If a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.
QUESTION 81
For which two reasons should you use IPsec between computers? (Choose two.)
A. Data compression
B. Data integrity
C. Data redundancy
D. Data confidentiality
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
IPSEC (Internet Protocol Security) is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication over the Internet. IPSEC supports network-level data integrity,
data confidentiality, data origin authentication, and replay protection.
QUESTION 82
Every router today is "TCP/IP" enabled, which is an industry-standard protocol that you use on the Internet and for local addressing.
correct.
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. SNMP
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
You are home for vacation, and a family member wants your help to purchase and install network cable for a home office.
The cable needs to support at least 300 Mbps.
What is the least expensive option that meets this requirement?
A. Cat3
B. CAT5
C. Cat5e
D. Cat6
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Cat5e cables support up to 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).
Incorrect:
not cat5: Max speed is 100Mbps not
Cat6: 20% higher cost than Cat 5e.
QUESTION 84
What is an example of a network device that associates a network address with a port?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Hub
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A router is a Layer 3 gateway device, meaning that it connects two or more networks and that the router operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
Incorrect:
not switch: Any switch that provides this 'basic' functionality, operates at the 2nd OSI layer also known as the Datalink Layer.
not hub: A network hub, or a repeater, is a simple network device that does not manage any of the traffic coming through it. Any packet entering a port is flooded
out or "repeated" on every other port, except for the port of entry.
QUESTION 85
Which wireless communication problem is caused by electromagnetic waves?
A. Fading
B. Attenuation
C. Interference
D. Diffraction
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Because the air is shared by all transmitters, transmissions by any device at the same frequency as an access point's radio can cause interference. Because
802.11 wireless networks operate in unlicensed bands used by many technologies, such as microwave ovens, video surveillance cameras, cordless phones, they
are subject to interference.
QUESTION 86
An Action Center alert recommends that you enable Windows Firewall.
After enabling the firewall, you can no longer access websites.
Which two TCP ports should you add exceptions for on the firewall? (Choose two.)
A. Port 21
B. Port 23
C. Port 25
D. Port 80
E. Port 443
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Port 80: HTTP
Port 443: HTTPS
QUESTION 87
What are two advantages of using star topology rather than ring topology in a computer lab workgroup? (Choose two.)
A. Failure of a central connectivity device does not bring down the entire network.
B. A central connection point allows for flexibility and scalability.
C. Data travels on redundant paths, so one cable cannot stop its transmission.
D. A cable problem within the group affects two nodes, at most.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
What are three characteristics of Ethernet network topology? (Choose three.)
A. It uses tokens to avoid collisions on the network.

B. It can use coaxial, twisted pair, and fiber optic media.
C. It comprises the largest share of the networks in place today.
D. It is a non-switching protocol.
E. It can negotiate different transmission speeds.
Correct Answer: BCE
Section: (none)
Explanation
B: Ethernet networks can use coax, twisted-pair, or fibre optic cabling.
C: Ethernet is the most widely used network topology.
E: Speed can be negotiated on Ethernet network.
Incorrect:
not A: Tokes is used in ring topologies. The two possible topologies for Ethernet are bus and star.
Not D: A network topology is not a protocol. Switching can be performed on Ethernet networks.
QUESTION 89
Your home computer is having problems accessing the Internet.
You suspect that your Internet router's DHCP service is not functioning, so you check your computer's IP address.
Which address indicates that your router's DHCP service is NOT functioning?
A. 169.254.1.15 B.
172.16.1.15
C. 192.168.1.15
D. 10.19.1.15
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
169.254.1.15 is an APIPA address. An APIPA address is used when the DHCP server is not available.
QUESTION 90
Which of these is a public address space?
A. 192.168.0.0/16
B. 197.16.0.0/12C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 172.16.0.0/12
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Incorrect:
The private address space specified in RFC 1918 is defined by the following three address blocks:
not A: 192.168.0.0/16
The 192.168.0.0/16 private network can be interpreted either as a block of 256 class C network IDs or as a 16-bit assignable address space (16 host bits) that can
be used for any subnetting scheme within the private organization. The 192.168.0.0/16 private network allows the following range of valid IP addresses:
192.168.0.1 to 192.168.255.254.
Not C:
10.0.0.0/8
The 10.0.0.0/8 private network is a class A network ID that allows the following range of valid IP addresses: 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.254. The 10.0.0.0/8 private
network has 24 host bits that can be used for any subnetting scheme within the private organization.
Not D:
172.16.0.0/12
The 172.16.0.0/12 private network can be interpreted either as a block of 16 class B network IDs or as a 20-bit assignable address space (20 host bits) that can be
used for any subnetting scheme within the private organization. The 172.16.0.0/12 private network allows the following range of valid IP addresses: 172.16.0.1 to
172.31.255.254.
Reference: Technet, Public and Private Addresses
QUESTION 91
In a wireless network that requires an SSL certificate, "WEP" handles the SSL certificate.
correct.
A. 802.1X
B. WPA2-PSK
C. WPA-PSK
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
802.1x
This deployment scenario requires server certificates for each NPS server that performs 802.1X authentication.
QUESTION 92
To set lower security settings in Internet Explorer for an extranet site, add the site's URL to the "Local Intranet "zone.
correct.
A. Internet
B. Trusted Sites
C. Extranet Sites
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Trusted sites
The level of security set for Trusted sites is applied to sites that you have specifically indicated to be ones that you trust not to damage your computer or
information.
Reference: Change Internet Explorer Security settings
QUESTION 93
You are helping a friend set up a public-facing web server for a home office.
Your friend wants to protect the internal network from intrusion.
What should you do?
A. Set the web server in a perimeter network.

B. Set the web server to block access on ports 80 and 443.
C. Configure the firewall to block access on ports 80 and 443.
D. Set the IP address of the web server to be within the LAN.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
In computer security, a DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an
organization's external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an
organization's local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
QUESTION 94
Which protocol is responsible for automatically assigning IP addresses?
A. HTTP
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. WINS
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol that enables a server to automatically assign an IP address to a computer from a defined
range of numbers (i.e., a scope) configured for a given network.
QUESTION 95
According to the OSI model, encryption takes place on the "transport layer".
correct.
A. Presentation
B. Network
C. Application
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
SSL or TLS encryption takes place at the presentation layer, Layer 6 of the OSI model.
QUESTION 96
IPSec policies for two machines on a LAN can be modified by using the "IPSec policy snap-in" on Windows 7.
correct.
A. Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in

B. LAN adapter properties
C. Remote Access snap-in
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security is an advanced interface for IT professionals to use to configure both Windows Firewall and Internet Protocol security
(IPsec) settings for the computers on their networks.
Applies To: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Vista
Reference: Windows Firewall with Advanced Security and IPsec
QUESTION 97
An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table is used to associate IP addresses with "host names".
correct.
A. MAC addresses
B. HomeGroup membership
C. Preferred routers
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a protocol for mapping an Internet Protocol address (IP address) to a physical machine address (MAC address) that is
recognized in the local network.
QUESTION 98
"Dynamic routing" is fault tolerant.
correct.
A. Static routing
B. Default route
C. Least cost routing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Dynamic routing protocols can be fault tolerant.
QUESTION 99
Which metric does Routing Information Protocol (RIP) use to determine the least costly route?
A. Delay
B. Host ID
C. Hop count
D. Interface
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
RIP uses a single routing metric (hop count) to measure the distance between the source and a destination network.
QUESTION 100
What are two differences between switches and hubs? (Choose two.)
A. Switches are slower than hubs because of the extra addressing functions that switches perform.
B. Switches send data to all of the computers that are connected to them for efficiency.
C. Switches are capable of sending and receiving data at the same time.
D. Switches identify the intended destination of the data that they receive.
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Hubs repeat everything they receive and can be used to extend the network.
Switches control the flow of network traffic based on the address information in each packet. A switch learns which devices are connected to its ports (by
monitoring the packets it receives), and then forwards on packets to the appropriate port only. This allows simultaneous communication across the switch,
improving bandwidth.

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98-366.exam.100qExam Error! Bookmark not defined.

A. Determine the network portion of a host address.

A. IP address resolution to canonical names

A. Domain Name Service (DNS).

Reference: DHCP Client States in the Lease Process

Which type of network provides the solution?

A. The access method used for the network

A. Encrypted connection across the Internet.

A. Number of hosts connected to the network

A. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP)

A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).

You need to restore access to network resources.

What should you do next?

A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.

mail is the host or local hostname; and

A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.

A. Provide Layer 3 routing functions.

A. Manage the routing tables.

A. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts.

A. Forward the packet to the default route.

A. The radio broadcast access method.

A. Uses a central hub.

A. Make resources available to the intranet.

A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

A. Immediately lose connectivity to all segments.

A. Manage routing tables dynamically.

A. Device that will connect the computer to the local network.

A. Category 3 UTP cable

A. Establishing network speed parameters

Reference: IPSec Overview Part Four: Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

Class A: 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255

A. Server to network in the main campus server room

The network needs to have the following items:

https://vceplus.com/ Which two

items should you include in the perimeter network? (Choose two.)

Select and Place:

A. Network Policy and Access Services

Select and Place:

A. Username and password

The loopback address of your computer is "127.0.0.1".

A. Will have limited Internet access

A. They can logically address packets by using IP.

Correct Answer: BCE

The cable needs to support at least 300 Mbps.

What is the least expensive option that meets this requirement?

After enabling the firewall, you can no longer access websites.

A. It uses tokens to avoid collisions on the network.

Reference: Technet, Public and Private Addresses

Reference: Change Internet Explorer Security settings

Your friend wants to protect the internal network from intrusion.

What should you do?

A. Set the web server in a perimeter network.

A. Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in

Reference: Windows Firewall with Advanced Security and IPsec

"Dynamic routing" is fault tolerant.

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