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Vyas IAS
EPFO
General Ability Test
Time allowed- 2 Hours Max Marks - 300

Instructions
1. The test consists of 120 questions divided into two parts, Part A and Part
B
2. All questions carry equal marks
3. Penalty for Wrong Answers:
a. 1/3rd of the marks allotted to the question will be deducted as
penalty
b. Every question carries 2.5 marks

Paper-8

Best of Luck

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PART-A 4. Which one of the following is the

antonym of the word written in
1. Which one of the following is the
capital letters in the sentence, “Hindi
synonym of the word written in
is no longer an OPTIONAL subject
capital letters in the sentence,
at the local elementary school.”?
"Grandma calmly asserted that
RETRIBUTION in family matters is
never an option.”?
(a) Elementary (b) Compulsory
(c) Voluntary (d) Necessary
(a) Forgiveness (b) Reprieve
(c) Requital (d) Escape
5. Which one of the following is the
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence, “In an
2. Which one of the following is the
odd and DOUR mood, the manager
synonym of the word written in
proceeded to address the team about
capital letters in the sentence, “Some
the company's future.”?
students are naturally more
SANGUINE about their chances of
doing well than others and it has
(a) Active (b) Young
effects on their careers.”?
(c) Radical (d) Cheerful

(a) Optimistic (b) Suspicious

6. Which one of the following is the
(c) Despondent (d) Blunt
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence,
“Mohan quickly adopted an
3. Which one of the following is the
URBANE attitude to win friends in
synonym of the word written in
this new place.”?
capital letters in the sentence, “He
cited the MONOTONOUS nature of
work as the reason for his
(a) Rude (b) Rustic
resignation which wasn't very
convincing.”? (c) Violent (d) Indifferent

(a) Autonomous (b) Exhausting 7. Which one of the following options

replaces the erroneous phrase in the
(c) Irksome (d) Repetitive
sentence, “In there desire to achieve
success, people are willing to

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compromise their morals'', to make (d) what you purpose

it grammatically correct?

10. Which one of the following words

(a) In their desire to achieve success can be used as a substitute for the
phrase, “A vehicle for carrying a
(b) In there desire for achieve success
dead body is called--”?
(c) people were willing to
(d) compromise with there morals.
(a) Ambulance
(b) Cart
8. Which one of the following options
(c) Hearse
replaces the erroneous phrase in the
sentence, “A family that had been (d) Lorry
once tried to kill the man was also
the first to embrace him.”, to make it
grammatically correct? 11. Which one of the following words
can be used as a substitute for the
phrase, “Animals living on land and
(a) had once been trying to in water--”?
(b) had once tried to
(c) once had been tried to (a) Ambiguous
(d) had to once try, and (b) Natives
(c) Citizens
9. Which one of the following options (d) Primitive
replaces the erroneous phrase in the
12. Which one of the following is the
sentence, “You may be well
appropriate question tag in the
organized in your thoughts but what
sentence, ‘Don't open the window,
would you purpose may not be
_____”?
necessarily acceptable on all
occasions”, to make it grammatically
correct?
(a) will you?
(b) don't you?
(a) what you would purpose
(c) do you?
(b) what would you purpose
(d) have you?
(c) what you would have proposed

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13. Which one of the following is the (d) casted away

appropriate question tag in the
sentence, "I know a little about him,
______”? 16. Which one of the following
phrasal verbs may be used in the
blank space in the sentence,
(a) Do I? “Ramesh could not __________
(understand clearly) the tricks used
(b) Am I?
by Raj to take advantage of his
(c) don't I? business."?
(d) Be I? (a) see fit
(b) look in
14. Which one of the following (c) see through
phrasal verbs may be used in the
(d) see to
blank space in the sentence, “The
officials at the Embassy have to
_________ (endure) the strange
17. Which one of the following
demands of foreign guests."?
phrasal verbs may be used in the
blank space in the sentence, “A
deadly pandemic is enough to
(a) put out
_______ (end) an entire species or
(b) put to the sword generation."?
(c) put up (a) wipe out
(d) put up with (b) wipe away
(c) turn over
15. Which one of the following (d) turn against
phrasal verbs may be used in the
blank space in the sentence,
“Modern scientists have ________ 18. Which one of the following
(challenged) the claims made by prepositions may be used in the
Albert Einstein in his early works. "? blank space in the sentence,
“Crocodiles can live effortlessly both
______ water and ______ land”?
(a) called off
(b) called in question
(a) in, on
(c) called up
(b) inside, above
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(c) with, over

(d) without, the
19. Which one of the following can be
used as a substitute for the words
written in capital letters in the
sentence, “Sophia was UNDER A
CLOUD when she spilled the drink
on the client during the last
meeting."
(a) Sophia was in hiding
(b) Sophia was under suspicion
(c) Sophia was in disgrace
(d) Sophia was in the dark place

20. Which one of the following can be

used as a substitute for the words
written in capital letters in the
sentence, “His job had only one
redemption that it KEPT THE
WOLF FROM THE DOOR for his
family."
(a) kept the family inside
(b) kept the family safe from wolves
(c) prevented from hunger and
starvation
(d) provided comfort and safety

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PART- B

21. Which of the following (a) He organised All India Depressed

statements is not correct with respect Classes Congress in 1930 with a clear
to the Quit India Movement? anti-Congress agenda.
(a) Many violent activities were (b) He participated in All three Round
witnessed during the Quit India Table Conferences.
Movement.
(c) He founded Independent Labour
(b) Gandhiji instructed public servants Party to mobilise the poor and the
to resign from the government service untouchables.
to support the movement.
(d) All of the aboverv
(c) Indian National Congress was
24. Which of the following
declared illegal in the initial phase of
statements is/are correct about
the movement.
Karachi session 1931?
(d) Members of the Communist Party
(a) it was a special session of the
of India (CPI) did not participate in the
Congress to endorse Gandhi Irwin pact
movement and supported British in the
World War II. (b) it was headed by Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel
22. Which of the following
statements with respect to the (c) Both of them
Interim Government formed after
(d) Neither of them
Second World War is not correct?
25. Harcourt Butler committee,
(a) Its formation was proposed under
appointed in 1927 recommended
the Cabinet Mission of 1946.
(a) granting complete autonomy to
(b) Muslim league never joined the
princely states.
Interim Government.
(b) higher and more extensive
(c) The Viceroy acted as the President
employment of Indians in public
of the Executive Council of the Interim
service.
Government.
(c) preservation of princely states
(d) All of the above
through British paramountcy.
23. Which of the following
(d) state support to victims in the event
statements is/are correct regarding
of famine.
Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar?
26. Consider the following statements
regarding activities carried out by

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Gandhiji in his early career in South (b) Rowlatt act and imposition of
Africa: martial law in Punjab.
1. Gandhiji's first satyagraha was (c) Rising animosity between Congress
carried out against the bill that and Muslim League after Lucknow
disenfranchised the Indians. pact. of 1916.
2. Gandhiji started the Natal Indian (d) Failure of montague-chelmsford
Congress and paper called Indian reforms to provide effective self
Opinion to publicize the demands of governance.
Indians in South Africa.
29. Which of the following is not
Which of the statements given above correct with reference to the Ghadr
is/are correct? party?
(a) 1 only (a) Its objective was to establish an
independent republic of India.
(b) 2 only
(b) Its ideology was based on
(c) Both 1 and 2
democratic and egalitarian content.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) It published a weekly paper, the
27. In the context of freedom Ghadr in commemoration of the
struggle, Rajagopalachari formula of Mutiny of 1857
1944 wa formulated to:
(d) It successfully mobilized peasants
(a) seek cooperation of Muslim League and soldiers of India in large numbers
with the Congress in forming a
30. Consider the following passage:
provisional government.
He was a great social reformer and
(b) prepare a comprehensive plan for educationist. He founded Servants of
the industrial development. India Society a secular organisation
to unite and train Indians of
(c) formulate a detailed national
different ethnicities and religions in
scheme for basic education.
welfare work. He served as a
(d) develop a comprehensive scheme Member of the Indian Public Service
for the development of depressed Commission. He was also elected to
classes. the Imperial Legislative Council
where he was conferred the title of
28. Which of the following is not a
the leader of the opposition'.
reason for the rise of discontent
among Indians before the Khilafat- Which of the following personality is
Non-cooperation movement? being described in the above
passage?
(a) Worsening of economic situation
post 1919 due to World War I. (a) Vithalbhai patel

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(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (d) restricting the trips of the rulers of
Princely states to Europe.
(c) Pherozeshah Mehta
34. Which of the following
(d) Chittaranjan Das
administrative reforms were
31. Which of the following was/were undertaken by Lord Curzon?
included in the extremist Programme
(a) A Famine Commission under Sir
of Action during Swadeshi
Anthony Macdonnell was appointed to
movement?
enquire into the results of famine
(a) Extensive use of traditional festivals operations.
and melas as a means of reaching out to
(b) A resolution on Local Self-
the masses.
Government was adopted leading to
(b) Individual Satyagraha to affirm the local boards and Municipal
right of speech. committees.
(c) Organisation of labour strikes (c) A new Department of Commerce
primarily in foreign-owned companies. and Industry was established to look
after the industrial and commercial
(d) Both (a) and (c)
interests in India.
32. With reference to the life of Raja
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Rammohan Roy, which among the
following events happened earliest? 35. Which of the following was the
reason for removal of Subhas
(a) Establishment of the Calcutta
Chandra Bose from all Congress
Unitarian Committee.
positions in August 1938?
(b) Foundation of Vedanta college in
(a) After resigning as the Congress
Calcutta.
President he wanted to form his own
(c) Foundation of Brahmo party called Forward Bloc.
(d) Starting of the newspaper Sambad (b) He had refused to work with the old
Kaumudi. Working Committee of the Congress.
33. In the context of British India, (c) He had called for an all-India
Curzon Kitchener controversy was protest against an AICC resolution
associated with banning civil disobedience by
Congressmen without previous
(a) abolition of dual control of military
permission of Pradesh Congress
affairs.
Committee (PCCs).
(b) annulment of partition of Bengal
(d) He had accused the majority of the
(c) reducing the strength of elected top Congress leadership of working on
members in Calcutta Corporation a compromise with the government on
the question of federation.
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36. Which of the given legislation (d) B. R. Ambedkar

gives constitutional status to three-
40. Which among the given is not a
tier Panchayati Raj system –
Panchayati Raj Institution –
(a) 73rd constitutional amendment,
(a) Gram Panchayat
1993
(b) Gram Sabha
(b) 72nd constitutional amendment,
1992 (c) Gram Cooperative Society
(c) 74th constitutional amendment, (d) Nyaya Panchayat
1993
41. Match the following:
(d) 75th constitutional amendment,
Constitutional Provisions Sources
1994
A. Federation 1. USA
37. Which of the following article
empowers the President to call for B. Parliamentary 2. Britain
joint sitting of both houses?
C. Directive Principle 3. Canada
(a) Art 102
D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland
(b) Art 101
ABCD
(c) Art 108
(a) 2 1 4 1
(d) Art 110
(b) 2 3 1 4
38. Which among the given is not an
(c) 3 4 2 1
administrative function of a Village
Panchayat – (d) 3 2 4 1
(a) Providing burial & cremation 42. Which of the following is
grounds mentioned in the Constitution of
India?
(b) Providing sanitation & drainage
(a) Motion of No Confidence
(c) Providing college education
(b) Tenure of office of the Attorney
(d) Maintenance of road
General
39. Who among the following was the
(c)Oath of the Speaker of Lok Sabha
Chairman of the Drafting Committee
of the Constitution – (d) President's Address to a joint
session of Parliament after a general
(a) Rajendra Prasad
election to Lok Sabha
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) J. L. Nehru

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43. The correct nomenclature of (b) Inclusive growth focuses on

India according to the Preamble is: productive employment
(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic (c) Inclusive growth focuses on income
Republic redistribution
(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic (d) All of the above
(c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, 47. Which of the following
Democratic Republic statements are true regarding
‘replacement level fertility’?
(d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist
Democracy (a) It is the level of fertility at which
44. Who is competent to prescribe population remains constant
conditions as for acquiring Indian
(b) It is the level of fertility at which
citizenship?
population growth remains constant
(a) Parliament
(c) It is the level of fertility at which a
(b) State Legislatures population exactly replaces itself from
one generation to another
(c) President
(d) None of the above
(d) Attorney General
48. Which one of the following
45. What were the reasons which led
statements represent ‘Headcount
to bank nationalization of 1969?
ratio’?
(a) Expansion of bank branches was
(a) When the number of poor is
mostly in urban areas
estimated as the proportion of people
(b) Agriculture and small scale below the poverty line
industries were not getting proper
(b) When the number of poor is
access to banking facilities
estimated as the proportion of people
(c) Bank credit was not utilized for above the poverty line
financing projects according to Plan
(c) When the number of people is
priorities
estimated as the proportion of people
(d) All of the above below the median income of the
country
46. Which of the following
statements is not true regarding (d) None of the above
“Inclusive growth”?
49. The wage rates of MGNREGA
(a) Inclusive growth is fuelled by workers are revised annually based
market driven sources of growth on which index?
(a) CPI-Agricultural Labourers
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(b) CPI-Rural Labourers (a) Able Climate Prize

(c) CPI-Rural (b) Stockholm Nature Prize
(d) CPI-Combined (c) Goldman Environmental Prize
50. The National Census is conducted (d) Soviet Environmental Prize
by which of the following offices/
54 BrahMos Aerospace is a joint
agencies:
venture company set up by Russia’s
(a) National Statistical Office (NSO) Mashinostroyeniya and which other
company of India?
(b) Labour Bureau
(a) ISRO
(c) Registrar General and Census
Commissioner, Ministry of Home (b) DRDO
Affairs
(c) HAL
(d) Census Bureau of India
(d) BHEL
51. ‘Hualong One’, which was seen in
55. India held the inaugural meeting
news recently, was the first
of the Counter-narcotics Working
domestically made nuclear reactor of
Group (CNWG), with which
which country?
country?
(a) Russia
(a) United States
(b) China
(b) Japan
(c) Israel
(c) Brazil
(d) Germany
(d) Israel
52. Which country hosted the 4th
56. The process of transferring a
India – Sri Lanka – Maldives
Trilateral Meeting on Maritime journal entry to specific accounts is
Security Cooperation? called
(a) India
(a) Journalising
(b) Sri Lanka
(b) Posting
(c) Maldives
(d) Japan (c) Analysing
53. Which award is given to (d) Narration
individuals for their sustained and
significant efforts to protect 57. which of the following is not
environment?
correct regarding the Journal entry
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(a) the Journal is the basic book of

original entry
59. Interest received will be included
(b) There are two kinds of Journal in which of the following ledgers
entries, simple and compound
(a) Capital ledger
(c) The journal entries need to be in the
(b) Asset Ledger
chronological order as they are later
posted into the specific account books (c) Income Ledger

(d) Liability ledger

(d) Goods purchased on credit will be
credited to the purchase account

58. An entity named Natasha Nail 60. The ledger folio column of
Art has the following transactions. journal is used to:

1. It deposits Rs.10,000 into Bank (a) Record the date on which amount

2. It buys goods worth Rs.50,000 posted to a ledger account.

from Lacme Ltd. (b) Record the number of ledger

3. It sells goods worth Rs.35,000 account to which information is posted.

to Melon Ltd. (c) Record the number of amounts

The sale done to Melon Ltd. Will be posted to the ledger account.

treated as (d) Record the page number of the

(a) Melon Ltd will be credited with Rs. ledger account.

35000

(b) Sales account will be debited with 61. Which of the following is not
Rs. 35000 correct regarding the accounting

(c) Melon Ltd. Will be debited with Rs. treatment of capital and Revenue

35000 expenditures

(d) None of the above

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(a) The capital expenditures are shown
in the investing section of the Cash
Flow statements
(b) The cost of capital expenditure is
spread over many years
(c) Revenue expenditures are spread
over many years
(d) Revenue expenditures are recurring
in nature
62. Which of the following
statements regarding the Partnership
is not correct in India
(a) The companies act, 2013 prescribes
a minimum of two partners to form a
partnership
(b) The Central government only can
set an upper limit on the number of
persons required for a partnership
(c) The companies act, 2013 provides
that the Maximum number of partners
for formation of a partnership cannot
exceed 100
(d) Central government has prescribed
an upper limit of 70 partners for
formation of a partnership.
63. Choose the incorrect statement
regarding the Partnership
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(a) if the partnership deed is silent
about the profit-sharing ratio, the profit
will be shared in proportion to the
capital invested by every individual
partner
(b) No interest can be charged on the
drawings by the partners if the
partnership deed doesn’t have any
provision for the same
(c) if the partner carries out any
business competing with the firm, he is
obligated to account for the profit made
by him and pay to the firm
(d) If any partner has extended any loan
to the firm, the partner is entitled to
receive an interest at the rate of 6% per
anum
64. Clutch corporation while
preparing its trading and profit and
loss account treated the cost of
repairs of a machinery as a capital
expenditure instead of revenue
expenditure, which of the following
will be the effect on profit and loss of
the firm
(a) The profit will be overstated
(b) Loss will be overstated
(c) Profit will be understated
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(d) the expenses on repairs of 67. The provision for bad debts is
created by
machinery have been treated correctly
and hence no overstating of Profit of (a) Debiting profit and loss account

loss (b) Debiting Provisions for Bad debts

account
65. consider the following regarding
(c) also shown as deductions from the
the profit and loss accounts:
creditors on the liability side of balance
(i) bad debt is considered as
sheet
direct expense
(ii) the indirect expenses are (d) Crediting the profit and loss account
transferred to the debit side of
profit and loss account
(iii) Gross Profit = Sales – 68. Tirna’s trial balance provides the
(Purchase + Direct expenses) following information:
Choose the correct statements:
Debtors 80,000
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct Bad debts 2,000
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
Provision for doubtful debts 4,000
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct It is desired to maintain a provision
for bad debts of 1,000. State the
amount to be debited/credited in
profit and loss account:
66. Which of the following is not
correct regarding the outstanding (a) 5,000 (Debit)
expenses like wages, rent etc. (b) 3,000 (Debit)
(a) The outstanding expenses are
(c) 1,000 (Credit)
treated as liability in the balance sheet
(d) none of these.
(b) The outstanding wages are debited
to the wages account and credited to 69. which of the following is not a
the Outstanding wages account benefit of the written down method
for calculation of depreciation
(c) the outstanding wages account will
be subtracted from the wages account (a) This method charges a higher
for the preparation of trading and profit depreciation in the initial years,
and loss account therefore it is a more realistic
assumption
(d) none of the above is correct
(b) This method is accepted by the
income tax department

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(c) It is suitable where rate of (c) Both 1 and 2

obsolescence is high
(d) None of the above
(d) The rate of depreciation can be
easily determined in written down
value method as compared to the fixed 72. Which of the following is not a
value method part of PM-Shram Yogi Mandhan
Yojana
70. When the bill of exchange is
encashed before the period of (a) The scheme is being implemented
maturity, Which of the following by Ministry of Labour and employment
actions takes place
(b) The beneficiary should not be
(a) Bills Sent for Collection A/c Dr. enrolled in any statutory social security
scheme viz. EPF/ESI/NPS
To Bills Receivable A/c
(c) Should have an Aadhar Card and
(b) Bills Receivable A/c Dr.
Pan Card
To Debtors A/c
(d) Monthly income of the beneficiary
(c) Bank A/c Dr. should not exceed Rs. 15000
Discount A/c Dr.
To Bills Receivable A/c 73. Which of the following is not
correct regarding the Code on wages
(d) none of the above
Act, 2020
(a) Code on Social security prescribes
71. Consider the following statements the statutory benefits for gig and
regarding the Atmanirbahr Bharat platform workers commensurate with
Rojgar Yojana: the Organised workers
(1) Incentive for Employers of EPFO
(b) The lower threshold for the
registered establishments & their New
applicability of the code for hazardous
Employees with monthly wage less
workers is 10 workers
than Rs.15000
(2) for establishments employing upto (c) Primary responsibility of
1000 employees, the incentive will be contributions lies on the employers,
whole contribution towards EPF by failing to do so can attract penalties
both employer and employee
(d) Failure on the part of employer to
Choose the correct option:
deduct employees contribution from
(a) 1 only wages is stipulated at Rs. 1 lakh.
(b) 2 only
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74. Consider the following statements 76. Which of the following statement
regarding Mahila shakti Kendras is not correct regarding the PM-Jan
Aushadhi Scheme?
1. It was started in 2017 under
Ministry of Finance (a) Jan Aushadhi Scheme was launched
in 2008
2. It seeks to provide rural
women with one stop centre for (b) Bureau of Pharmaceutical PSU of
skill development, nutrition and India under the Ministry of Health and
digital literacy family welfare is the nodal agency for
the implementation of the scheme
3. At the village level, the
Aanganwadi centres will be one (c) BPPI can source the medicines not
stop centre for MSK services only from from the PSUs but also from
Private sector
Choose the correct answer:
(d) The scheme not only contains the
(a) 2 and 3 only
Medicines but also surgical equipment
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
77. Which of the following statement
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is not correct regarding the
MGNREGS scheme?
(a) it aims to provide 100 days of
75. The revised central sector scheme
guaranteed work to one member of any
on rehabilitation of Bonded Labour
family who is willing to work
was launched in 2016 to help the
freed bonded labour start their life (b) Wages specified are the wages
anew by skilling them to earn a prescribed for Agricultural Labour
gainful employment, the under the Minimum wages act, 1948
rehabilitation compensation amount
(c) At least one half of the
under the scheme is
beneficiaries have to be women
(a) Rs. 10,000 per adult beneficiary.
(d) The scheme is being implemented
(b) Rs. 10.000.00 per adult male by the Ministry of Rural development
beneficiary
(c) Rs. 50.000 per adult male
78. Penalty employed on the
beneficiary
employer in case of contravention of
(d) None of the above standing orders under the Code on
industrial Relations, 2020 shall be
(a) not less than Rs. 50,000 but can be
extended to Rs. 10,00,00.
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(b) Not less than Rs. 1 Lakh but can be (b) Where 20 or more workers are
extended upto Rs. 2 lakh employed and manufacturing is going
on without aid of power
(c) Not less than Rs. Twenty five
thousand but can be extended to Rs. 50 (c) Where 40 or more workers are
thousand employed and the manufacturing
activity is being carried without the aid
(d) None of the above
of power
(d) Where 40 workers are employed
79. Choose the statement that is not and the manufacturing activity is being
correct with regard to the code on carried with the aid of power
Industrial Relations, 2020
(a) The unfair Labour Practices are
81. Which one of the following is not
mentioned in the second schedule of
the principal employer where the
the Code
contract labour is employed
(b) Although the state government can under the code on occupational
appoint an officer for holding enquiry safety and health, 2020
under the Code on Industrial Relations,
(a) Respect to any government office,
2020, the procedures will be prescribed
the head of the department or that
by the Central government only
office
(c) When a reference to a tribunal has
(b) In a mine the owner or the agent of
been made regarding the retrenchment,
the mine
the tribunal should deliver its
judgement within 60 days of such a (c) In a factory, the owner or occupier
reference or the manager
(d) When an application for lay-off has (d) All of the above are to be
been made to the appropriate considered as Principal employer
government, the government should
convey within sixty days of such an
application its permission or refusal 82. Which of the following is not
“wage” under the code on
80. Factory under the Code on Occupational Health and safety,
Occupational health and safety, 2020 2020?
is
(a) Basic Pay
(a) where 10 or more workers are
(b) Dearness allowance
working and the manufacturing is
going on with aid of power (c) Retaining amount.
(d) HRA
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83. Which of the following is not a 85. Under the code on Wages 2020,
the payment of bonus from the
correct statement regarding the Code
allocable surplus should be
on wages Act, 2019
(a) 50% of the allocable surplus
(a) Central government only can fix the (b) 60% of the allocable surplus in case
floor wages whereas state of bank and 67% of the allocable surplus
governments can also fix the in case of other industries

minimum wages (c) 40% of the allocable surplus in case

of bank and 50% of the allocable surplus
(b) The Minimum wages should be
in other industries
revised within a period not
(d) None of the above
exceeding 5 years
(c) The committees formed for
considering the revision of 86. The provisions of Payment of
bonus in the code on Wages act, 2020
Minimum wages can’t contain shall not apply to
independent members more than
(a) RBI
one half of the total members
(b) LIC
(d) The minimum wages fixed by the
(c) ONGC
state governments cannot be lower
than the floor wages. (d) all of the above

87. Under the code on Wages Act,

84. The employer is obligated to pay
2020 which of the following shall not
the worker, the wages
be deemed to be deduction under the
provision of chapter on payment of
(a) daily basis, at the end of the shift; wages
(b) weekly basis, on the last working
(a) Loss of wages due to Withholding
day of the week, that is to say,
increment due to sufficient cause.
before the weekly holiday; \
(b) Loss of wages due to Reduction to a
(c) fortnightly basis, before the end of
lower post.
the second day after the end of the
(c) Loss of wages due to suspension
fortnight;
(d) Any Payment made by the employer
(d) all of the above
to the agent of employee
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(a) Pondicherry State Weaver's Co op.

Society v. Regional Director,
88. The theory of Industrial
Employees' State Insurance
Democracy which says that Trade
Corporation, Madras
unionism was an extension of the
democracy to the Industrial (b) Kunnathunad C.S. Co-operative
establishments was propounded by Society v. Regional Director, E.S.I
(a) Frank Tannebaum (c) Balachandra Aggrawal and another
v. Union of India and others
(b) Sydney and Beatrice webb
(d) None
(c) Cobb Douglas
91. Which one of the following
(d) Dunlop
statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted
89. “The rules of the industrial much like HIV.
relations system are viewed as being (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C,
determined through the rule making does not have a vaccine.
process of collective bargaining which
is regarded as a political institution (c) Globally, the number of people
infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses
involving a power relationship
are several times more than those
between employers and employees” is
infected with HIV.
the main proposition of Oxford school
of thought on Industrial relations. (d) Some of those infected with
Who is attributed as the founder of Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show
this school the symptoms for many years.

(a) Allan Flanders. 92. Why are dewdrops not formed on

a cloudy night?
(b) James Parson
(c) Henry Ford (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released
(d) None of the above from the Earth's surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's
90. In which of the following cases radiation.
was it held that a co-operative society (c) The Earth's surface would have the
is a separate legal entity distinct from low temperature on cloudy nights.
its members. Hence a society
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to
employing its members for wage in
ground level.
manufacturing process is liable to be
covered under the ESI Act,1948. 93. In India, the use of carbofuran,
methyl parathion, phorate and
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triazophos is viewed with 96. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in

apprehension. These chemicals are which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen
used as are used to generate electricity,
which of the following statements
(a) Pesticides in agriculture
is/are correct?
(b) Preservatives in processed foods
(a) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel,
(c) Fruit-ripening agents the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-
products.
(d) Moisturising agents in cosmetics
(b) Fuel cells can be used for powering
94. Which of the following
buildings and not for small devices like
statements best describes "carbon
laptop computers.
fertilization"?
(c) Fuel cells produce electricity in the
(a) Increased plant growth due to
form of Alternating Current (AC).
increased concentration of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere (d) All of the above
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due 97. Which of the following statement
to increased concentration of carbon is/are correct?
dioxide in the atmosphere
(a) The Earth's magnetic field has
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a reversed every few hundred thousand
result of increased concentration of years.
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) When the Earth was created more
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on than 4000 million years ago, there was
Earth to the climate change brought 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
about hr the increased concentration of
(c) When living organisms originated,
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
they modified the early atmosphere of
95. The terms 'Event Horizon', the Earth.
'Singularity', `String Theory' and
(d) All of the above
'Standard Model' are sometimes seen
in the news in the context of 98. Formation of colors in soap
bubble is due to
(a) Observation and understanding of
the Universe (a) dispersion of light
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar (b) interference of light
eclipses
(c) diffraction of light
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the
(d) polarization of light
Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living
organisms on the Earth
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99. What is the correct sequence of 102. Which of the following is the first
conductivity when arranged in indigeneously assembled super
ascending order? Computer in India
(a) Metals, semiconductors, insulators (a) Param Siddhi
(b) Insulators, metals, semi-conductors (b) Param Brahm
(c) Semiconductors, metals, insulators (c) Param Shivay
(d) Insulators, semiconductors, metals
(d) Mihir
100. Diamond is a polymorph of
graphite. Both contain carbon atoms.
Diamond is obtained after applying 103. Which of the following is a
(a) very high pressure and low structured programming technique
temperature (a) Object oriented Programming
(b) very low pressure and high (b) Algorithmic Programming
temperature
(c) Pseudo code Programming
(c) very low pressure and low
temperature (d) Top Down design Programming

(d) very high pressure and high

temperature
104What is the full form of SCSI?
(a) Standard computer systems interface
101. While browsing internet, what do (b) Small computer systems interface
we call the area of storage that (c) Super computer systems interface
compensates for the different speeds (d) Small computer standard interface
of data flow or timings of events by
105. A spreadsheet is the best
temporarily holding a block of data
application for ____________.
that is waiting to be processed?
(a) Writing an information
(a) Cache
(b) Handling simple accounts
(b) Buffer
(c) Producing a grid-referenced map
(c) flash
(d)Keeping an inventory of equipment
(d) Trash
used

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106 Selling an article @270, a man (d) 75

loses 10%. If he would sell it @360,
110. Sum of the base and altitude of a
his gain percentage is?
triangle is 30cm. What is the
(a) 10 maximum possible area of such
triangle?
(b) 15
(a) 100
(c) 20
(b) 110
(d) 25
(c) 112.5
107. 9 mangoes cost as much as 5
oranges. 5 oranges cost as much as 3 (d) 120
apples. 4 apples as much as 9
111. Through how many degrees
pineapples and if 3 pineapples cost
does the hour hand in a clock move
48. what will a mango cost?
as the time changes from 3 hours and
(a) 9 12 minutes to 6 hours?
(b) 12 (a) 105
(c) 18 (b) 99
(d) 27 (c) 90
108. if the ratio of X:Y=3/4 and ratio (d) 84
of Y:Z=12/13 then ratio of X:Z is
112. Two glasses of equal volume are
(a) 13/3 respectively half and three-fourths
filled with milk. They are then filled
(b) 1/3
to the brim by adding water. Their
(c) 4/13 contents are then poured into
another vessel. What will be the ratio
(d) 9/13
of milk to water in this vessel?
109. Two cars are moving in the
(a) 1:3
same direction with a speed of 45
km/hr and a distance of 10 km (b) 2:3
separates them. If a car coming from
(c)3:2
the opposite direction meets these
two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, (d) 5:3
its speed would be:
113. Consider the following
(a) 45 statements:
(b) 55 1. All X-brand cars parked here are
white.
(c) 65
2. Some of them have radial tyres
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3. All X-brand cars manufactured after (a) Rama

1986 have radial tyres are parked here.
(b) Padma
4. All cars are not X-brand.
(c) Rani
Which one of the following
(d) Ratna.
conclusions can be drawn from the
above statements? 116. As per agreement with a bank, a
businessman had to refund a loan in
(a) Only white cars are parked here.
some equal installments without
(b) Some white X-brand cars with interest. After paying 18 installments
radial tyres are parked here. he found that 60 percent of his loan
was refunded.
(c) Cars other than X-brand cannot
have radial tyres. How many installments were there in
the agreement?
(d) Most of the X-brand cars are
manufactured before 1986. (a) 22
(b) 24
114. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an (c) 30
average speed of 48km/hr. The time
(d) 33
taken to cover the first 60% of the
distance is 10 minutes more than the 117. There are seven persons up on a
time taken to cover the remaining ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in
distance. How far is his office? that order). A is further up than E
but is lower than C. B is in the
(a) 30km
middle. G is between A and B. E is
(b) 40km between B and F. If F is between E
and D, the person on the bottom step
(c) 45km
of the ladder will be
(d) 48km
(a) B
115. Examine the following
(b) F
statements:
(c) D
1. Rama scored more than Rani
(d) E
2. Rani scored less than Ratna
118. If the 3rd day of a month is
3. Ratna scored more than Rama
Monday, which one of the following
4. Padma scored more than Rama but will be the fifth day from 21st of this
less than Ratna. month?
Who scored the highest? (a) Monday

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(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
119. For a charity show, the total
tickets sold were 420. Half of these
tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5
each, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3
each and the rest for Rs. 2 each.
What was the total amount received?
(a) Rs. 900
(b) Rs. 1,540
(c) Rs. 1,610
(d) Rs. 2,000
120. Given the statement: "Buses are
the cause of more accidents than
cars, and trucks causes fewer
accidents than buses", which of the
following conclusions can we draw?
(a) There are more buses on the road
than trucks.
(b) Car drivers are more careful than
bus drivers.
(c) Truck drivers are more skilled than
either car or bus drivers.
(d) None of the above

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