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Vyas IAS
EPFO
General Ability Test
Time allowed- 2 Hours Max Marks - 300

Instructions
1. The test consists of 120 questions divided into two parts, Part A and Part
B
2. All questions carry equal marks
3. Penalty for Wrong Answers:
a. 1/3rd of the marks allotted to the question will be deducted as
penalty
b. Every question carries 2.5 marks

Paper-10

Best of Luck

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PART-A written in capital letters in the

sentence, “A breeze rushed in and
1. Which one of the following
the windchime JANGLED loudly
is the synonym of the word
that startled the cat.”?
written in capital letters in the
sentence, "He claimed that he was
CAJOLED by Martin into
(a) Calmed (b) Tinkled
staying longer than he wanted
to.”? (c) Chimed (d) Clanked

(a) Blamed (b) Chided 5. Which one of the following

is the antonym of the word
(c) Wheedled (d) Scolded
written in capital letters in the
sentence, “The house
BROACHED a subject that many
2. Which one of the following
found uncomfortable to sit
is the synonym of the word
through.”?
written in capital letters in the
sentence, “The department will
ACQUIESCE and let the
(a) Soothing (b) Silenced
employee have two off-days.”?
(c) Started (d) Alluded

(a) Oppose (b) Approve

6. Which one of the following
(c) Complain (d) Protest
is the antonym of the word
written in capital letters in the
sentence, “People have the
3. Which one of the following
tendency to MEDDLE in other
is the synonym of the word
people's affairs.”?
written in capital letters in the
sentence, “Years ELAPSED
before the family could reclaim
(a) Disregard (b) Obtrude
the land.”?
(c) Snoop (d) Interfere

(a) Freezed (b) Remained

7. Which one of the following
(c) Hastened (d) Lapsed
options replaces the erroneous
phrase in the sentence, “As my
senior, Anjali came forward and
4. Which one of the following is
the antonym of the word
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offered me valuable advices.'', to (a) The neighborhood finally

make it grammatically correct?
(b) to move on a bigger house
(c) since the new family member
(a) Like my senior, Anjali
(d) No error.
(b) come forwarded and offered
(c) valuable advice.
10. Which one of the following
(d) No error. words can be used as a substitute
for the phrase, “Stealing from the
writings of others--”?
8. Which one of the following
options replaces the erroneous
phrase in the sentence, “Rakesh (a) Copying
asked Meena that he did not
(b) Reproducing
understand why she kept
suffering without doing nothing.”, (c) Reframing
to make it grammatically correct
(d) Plagiarism
and if there's no error, choose
"No error."?
11. Which one of the following
words can be used as a substitute
(a) Rakesh told Meena
for the phrase, “One who is made
(b) he had not understand to bear the blame due to others--
”?
(c) without doing anything.
(d) No error.
(a) Nincompoop
(b) Scapegoat
9. Which one of the following
options replaces the erroneous (c) Innocent
phrase in the sentence, “The
(d) Ignoramus
neighbours finally decided to
move in a bigger house because
they were going to be a big family
12. Which one of the following
once the new family member
is the appropriate question tag in
moves in.”, to make it
the sentence, '‘Let's dance
grammatically correct and if
together, _____”?
there's no error, choose "No
error."?

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(a) should we? by his friends' offensive attitude

towards women."?
(b) do we?
(a) let away
(c) shall we?
(b) let off
(d) shalln't we?
(c) let in
(d) let down
13. Which one of the following
is the appropriate question tag in
the sentence, "Grandma's rosary
16. Which one of the following
beads were found all over the
phrasal verbs may be used in the
terrace, ______”?
blank space in the sentence, “The
(a) wasn't it? doctors _______ (concluded) the
unfortunate result of deadly
(b) weren't they?
disease in their study which the
(c) did they? patient was suffering from."?
(d) was she? (a) arrived at
(b) turned at
14. Which one of the following (c) turned in
phrasal verbs may be used in the
(d) arrived by
blank space in the sentence, “The
teachers got _______ (emotional)
at the graduation ceremony of the
17. Which one of the following
2020 batch and shared some of
phrasal verbs may be used in the
their personal experiences with
blank space in the sentence, “As
students."?
expected, most of his colleagues
(a) carried away __________ (left because of fear)
when it came to filing an official
(b) broke through
report against the supervisor."?
(c) carried on
(d) casted away

(a) fished out

15. Which one of the following
(b) beavered away
phrasal verbs may be used in the
blank space in the sentence, (c) chickened out
“Sumit was _____ (disappointed)
(d) horsed around

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(b) busy with drama

18. Which one of the following (c) entertained and hooked
prepositions may be used in the
(d) in a state of suspense
blank space in the sentence, “You
had __ assist him ___ his project
while your project was in
shambles.”?
(a) to, with
(b) to, for
(c) to, and
(d) to, as

19. Which one of the following

can be used as a substitute for the
words written in capital letters in
the sentence, “Some students
BURNT THE MIDNIGHT OIL
to achieve the desired results
while others chose comfort."

(a) neglected their health

(b) became obsessed
(c) worked hard even at night
(d) caused themselves extreme
discomfort

20. Which one of the following

can be used as a substitute for the
words written in capital letters in
the sentence, “The reality shows
usually keep the audience ON
TENTERHOOKS in the grand
finale episodes."
(a) in a state of shock and fear
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PART- B

21. Which of the following colleges (c) Exploitation of tribal people by the
was the first to be established? government offi cials and
moneylenders.
(a) Hindu College, Calcutta
(d) Oppression of peasants at the hands
(b) Banaras Hindu University
of Indigo planters
(c) Mayo College
25. With respect to the Indian
(d) Muslim Anglo-Oriental College freedom struggle, Surya Sen was
associated with?
22. Which among the following is
credited with the introduction of (a) Ghadar movement
Mahalwari System?
(b) Kakori conspiracy
(a) Holt Mackenzie
(c) Bombay textile mills strike in 1928
(b) Thomas Munro
(d) Chittagong Armoury Raid
(c) Lord Cornwallis
26. What was the intention behind
(d) Alexander Reid Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar
Dutt’s action of throwing bombs in
23. Under treaty of subsidiary
the Central Legislative Assembly?
alliance, which of the following
power was given to princely states? (a) To avenge the death of Lala Lajpat
Rai by killing those legislators who
(a) Finance
sanctioned lathi charge against him
(b) Defence during the protests against the Simon
Commission.
(c) Communications
(b) To kill as many as legislators as
(d) External Affairs
possible and create fear in the hearts
24. Deen Bandhu Mitra’s play, Neel and minds of British offi cials.
Darpan was famous for its depiction
(c) To let the people know about their
of
changed objectives and the need for a
(a) Police excessess upon the people revolution by the masses.
during protests against the all white
(d) Because they believed that only
Simon Commission
violence will ensure the independence
(b) Large scale violence unleashed by of India.
the British during Quit India
Movement.
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27. For which of the following (c) Muslim League was not in favor of
reasons the British government the idea of a round table conference.
awarded Kaiser-i-Hind to Mahatma
(d) Congress did not like the idea of
Gandhi?
talking to Britishers as equals, as the
(a) The role played by Gandhiji in British lacked the legitimacy of their
South Africa to organize the Indian rule
workers to enable them to fi ght for
30. Regarding the modern history of
their rights.
India, ‘Youme-Nijat’ is associated
(b) The role played by Gandhiji in the with:
upliftment of the status of Harijans and
(a) Lahore Resolution adopted by
propagating removal of untouchability
Muslim League in 1940
in all its form.
(b) Direct Action Day that resulted in
(c) For raising an Indian Ambulance
communal riots
Code during Boer wars.
(c) Resignation of Congress ministries
(d) None of the above
in 1939
28. Which of the following is
(d) Announcement of August Offer in
incorrect regarding Jinnah Direct
1940
Action Resolution?
31. Which of the following
(a) It was given on 27 January 1946.
movements came to be known in
(b) It led to large scale communal riots. Andhra Pradesh as the
Vandemataram movement?
(c) It was announced after Nehru’s
statement regarding NWFP and Assam (a) Swadeshi and Boycott movement
during the Constitutional Assembly
(b) Non-Cooperation movement
election.
(c) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(d) Calcutta was one of the most
affected areas of the riots. (d) Civil Disobedience Movement
29. Why did the Congress party 32. After which movement, Gandhiji
reject the “Irwin Offer” of 1929? admitted to having committed a
Himalayan blunder by offering the
(a) Congress party demanded “Purna
weapon of satyagraha to the people
Swaraj” but Irwin offered only
insuffi ciently trained in the
dominion status.
discipline of non-violence?
(b) Congress wanted to discuss when
(a) Quit India Movement.
dominion status would be granted but
the British offered to negotiate the (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
Principle of dominion status.

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(c) Chauri-chaura incident of Non- (c) Supporting peasants’ cause in

cooperation movement. Bengal
(d) Rowlattsatyagraha (d) Both A and B
33. Which of the following 36. Indian federalism is
statements regarding the Quit India constitutionally asymmetric because
Movement is/are correct? of:
A. There were no communal clashes (a) Existence of a State including its
during the movement. territorial integrity is in the hands of
Parliament.
B. It was a non-violent movement.
(b) More important subjects are vested
C. Vidyut Vahini was a nationalist
with centre.
newspaper that started during the
movement. (c) Differences in the way some States
and other constituent units of the Indian
D. All of the above
Union relate to the Centre.
34. Arrange the following events in
(d) Presence of emergency provisions,
chronological order of their
which can turn our federal polity into a
occurrence:
highly centralized system.
1. Alipore Bomb Conspiracy
37. Consider the given statement:
2. Chittagong Armoury Raid “Constituent Assembly declares its
firm and solemn resolve to proclaim
3. Kakori Train Robbery Case
India as an Independent Sovereign
4. Dalhousie Square Bomb Case Republic and to draw up for her
future governance a Constitution”.
5. Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy
The above statement belongs to:
Select the correct answer using the
code given below: (a) Cabinet Mission plan
(a) 1-5-3-4-2 (b) Objective Resolution
(b) 5-1-3-2-4 (c) Indian Independence Act of 1947
(c) 1-5-3-2-4 (d) None of the above
(d) 5-1-3-4-2 38. Which of the following rights falls
under the category of Right to
35. Which of these were the
Equality?
achievements of Swarajists?
(a) Abolition of untouchability
(a) The defeat of Public Safety Bill
(b) Prohibition of forced labour
(b) Exposing hollowness of Montford
reforms
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(c) Right to move the courts for (a) The Fundamental Rights are meant
issuance of writs for promoting the ideal of political
democracy.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Judiciary can give liberal
39. The Constitution confers which
interpretation to any of the
of the following rights and privileges
Fundamental Rights without changing
on the citizens of India and denies
its basic structure.
the same to aliens?
(c) ‘Equal protection of law’ provision
(a) Cultural and educational rights.
is taken from British constitution.
(b) Right to freedom of speech and
(d) Article 17 is an absolute right.
expression.
42. Which of the following States
(c) Right against discrimination on
were formerly Union Territories?
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth. 1. Himachal Pradesh
(d) All of the above. 2. Manipur
40. Which one of the following 3. Tripura
statement is correct related to the
Select the correct answer using the
values mentioned in the
code given below:
Constitution?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Equality of status is explicitly
mentioned in the Preamble of the (b) 2 and 4 only
Constitution of India.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) Equality of opportunity is not
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of
the Constitution of India. 43. Though the Indian Constitution
is federal and envisages a dual polity
(c) The term ‘Socialistic pattern of
(Centre and states), it provides for
society’ was adopted as a goal in the
only a single citizenship, that is:
original Preamble.
(a) The citizens in India owe allegiance
(d) Fraternity has not been mentioned
only to the Constitution.
in the Preamble of the Constitution of
India (b) The citizens in India owe allegiance
only to the Union.
41. Which one of the following
statement is incorrect related to the (c) The citizens in India owe allegiance
Indian Constitutional Provisions? only to the state.
(d) The citizens in India owe allegiance
only to the Supreme Court.
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44. With reference to the trade policy
adopted by India after Independence
which of the following statement is
correct?
(a) The policy was called outward
looking policy substituting or replacing
imports with domestic production.
(b) The policy was based on which
country seeks economic development
by opening itself up to international
trade.
(c) The policy was based on
substituting or replacing the imports
with the domestic production which is
often called inward looking strategy.
(d) The policy was mix of both the
inward and the outward looking
strategy
45. What will be the effect of
sterilization done by Reserve Bank of
India on the high-powered money
supply and total money in the
economy?
(a) Increase the High-powered money
supply and total money supply
(b) Reduce the stock of High-powered
money supply and total money supply
(c) The stock of High-powered money
and total money supply remain
unchanged
(d) High powered money supply will
remain same whereas total money
supply will increase.
46. Which of the following statement
regarding tax structure in India is
correct?
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(a) Direct taxes have more share than
indirect taxes in total Tax Revenue.
(b) Income tax is biggest contributor in
Direct Taxes.
(c) Share of capital expenditure in total
expenditure is much higher than
revenue expenditure.
(d) Tax-GDP ratio in India is one of the
highest globally.
47. To meet the objective of infl ation
control, the Central Bank should
adopt:
(a) Increase in cash reserve ratio, along
with purchase of securities under open
market operations.
(b) Increase in cash reserve ratio, along
with sale of securities under open
market operations.
(c) Decrease in cash reserve ratio,
along with purchase of securities under
open market operations.
(d) Decrease in cash reserve ratio,
along with sale of securities under open
market operations
48.‘Churning poor’ is a category of
poor defined as:
(a) People who are always or usually
poor but may sometimes have a little
more money
(b) People who regularly move in and
out of poverty
(c) People who are rich most of the
times but
may sometimes have a patch of bad
luck
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(d) None of the above (D) Impact of Covid-19 on women

49. Which of the following 52. Which Badminton star won gold
statements about exchange rate of in the BWF Swiss Open Super 300?
currency is/are correct?
(A) P V Sindhu
(a) The price of one currency in terms
(B) Carolina Marin
of the other is known as the exchange
rate. (C) Naomi Osaka
(b) It is defi ned as the amount of (D) Saina Nehwal
domestic currency required to buy one
53. Who is the head of the committee
unit of foreign currency.
formed to commemorate the 75 years
(c) It is defi ned as the cost in foreign of India’s independence?
currency of purchasing one unit of
(A) Prime Minister
domestic currency.
(B) President
(d) All of the above
(C) Home Minister
50. Which of the following
statements is/are not correct (D) Defence Minister
regarding the Strategic and Minority
54 Which organisation conducted
sale?
the final test of Air Independent
(a) Strategic sale involves the sale of Propulsion (AIP), used in
maximum 51 % state of a Public Sector submarines?
Unit (PSU) to the private sector.
(A) DRDO
(b) The control and management of
(B) HAL
PSU remains with the government in
minority sale. (C) Ordnance Factory Board
(c) Strategic sale is done through a (D) Bharat Electronics Ltd
process of competitive bidding and
55. What is the name of the portal to
subsequent sales to the partner.
be launched by the Union Commerce
(d) None of the above and Industry ministry, to facilitate
domestic investors?
51. What is the theme of the
International Women’s Day 2021? (A) Atmanirbhar Niveshak Mitra
(A) Educate Organise and Agitate (B) NIRYAT Mitra
(B) Gender Equality: March against (C) Atmanirbhar Invest Mitra
Patriarchy
(D) Contribute for Atmanirbhar Bharat
(C) Women in leadership: Achieving
an equal future in a COVID-19 world.
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56. Which of the following regarding (a) Debenture holders are creditors of
the treatment of accounting entities the company
is not correct?
(b) Debentures are shown as “Long
(a) “Salary paid in advance” is not an Term Borrowings” in the balance sheet
expense because it neither reduces the of the company
assets nor increases the liability
(c) Interest paid is the appropriation of
(b) Written down value method is the profits of the company
followed to have uniform charge for
(d) Debenture holders have no voting
Depreciation and repairs and
rights
maintenance together.
(c) The financial statements must
disclose all the relevant and reliable
information in accordance with the Full
disclosure principle
59. Sitara ltd. Issued 40,0008%
(d) Debenture interest is payable after
interest bearing shares priced at Rs.
the payment of preference dividend but
50 each payable on application as
before the payment of equity dividend
mentioned in the prospectus and
redeemable at par anytime after 3
years from the date of issue. What
57. Which among the following is not
would be the right entry for the
a capital receipt?
transfer of application money to the
(a) 10,000 spent as travelling expenses 8% debentures account consequent
of the directors on trips abroad for upon allotment?
purchase of capital assets.
(a) Bank Account
(b) Amount received from Trade Dr.
receivables during the year.
To Debenture Application A/c
(c) Amount spent on demolition of
(b) Debenture Application A/c
building to construct a bigger building
Cr.
on the same site.
To 8% Debenture A/c
(d) Insurance claim received on
account of a machinery damaged by (c) Bank Account Cr.
fire.
To 8% Debenture A/c
(d) Debenture Application A/c
58. Which of the following is not a Dr.
feature of Debenture?
To 8% Debenture A/c

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60. Which of the following 63. Which of the following statement

statements regarding the Payment is not true regarding the treatment of
and Receipts book of a Non-Profit Goodwill in a Partnership
organisation is not correct
(a) As per Accounting Standards it is
(a) All the receipts are debited, are the not recommended to raise a Goodwill
expenses are credited Account but to make adjustments of the
goodwill through the Partner’s capital
(b) It starts and ends with Cash and
Account
Bank Balances
(b) When a New Partner is added to the
(c) This accounting method is based on
partnership, the compensation paid to
the Accrual system of accounting
the older partners is done through
(d) Surplus or deficit can’t be accounting for goodwill
ascertained from this account
(c) Profit Sacrificing Ratio is calculated
61. Companies registered as Non- by subtracting the new Profit sharing
Profits under the section 8 of ratio from the old profit sharing ratio.
Companies Act, 2013 are required to
(d) The premium for Goodwill brought
maintain the Balance sheet as per
in by the new partner will be credited to
which of the following schedule of
the older partners in the profit-sharing
the said Act?
ratios
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
64. Which of the following is not a
(c) Third Schedule capital expenditure?
(d) Fourth Schedule (a) Expenses incurred in connection
with obtaining a license for starting the
factory for ` 10,000.
62. Scholarships granted to students
(b) Rs. 1,000 paid for removal of
out of specific funds provided by the
Inventory to a new site.
government are debited to
(c) Rings and Pistons of an engine were
(a) Income and Expenditure account
changed at a cost of Rs. 5,000 to get
(b) receipt and Payment Account fuel efficiency
(c) Funds granted for scholarship (d) A factory shed was constructed at a
account cost of Rs. 1,00,000. A sum of ` 5,000
had been incurred in the construction of
(d) None of the above
temporary huts for storing building
material.

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65. Prudence, Neutrality and faithful (d) When opening inventory is

representation of alternative values understated, net income for the
is an essential feature of which of the accounting period will be overstated.
following concepts of accounting?
(a) Materiality Concept
68. which of the following is the
(b) Conservatism correct method for calculating the
Cost of Goods sold under the
(c) consistency
Periodic Inventory System
(d) going concern
(a) Cost of goods sold = Opening
inventory (known) + Purchases
(known) - closing inventory (physically
66. Which of the following statement
counted)
is not correct regarding the Contra
Entries in the cash Books? (b) Cost of goods sold = Closing
inventory (known) + Purchases
(a) These entries are made in both the
(known) - opening inventory
receipt and payments side of the Cash
(physically counted)
Books
(c) Cost of goods sold = Opening
(b) If the cash is deposited in the bank,
inventory (known) + Purchases
the bank account will be debited
(known) + closing inventory
(c) If the cash is withdrawn from the (physically counted)
bank, the bank account will be credited
(d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
67. which of the following is not a
69. Which of the following is not a
correct statement regarding the
correct statement regarding the
understatement or overstatement of
treatment of transactions in the
Inventory?
Trading Account of a Non-
(a) When closing inventory is Manufacturing unit
overstated, net income for the
(a) The opening Inventory and
accounting period will be overstated.
purchases are written on the debit side
(b) When opening inventory is
(b) Sales and closing Inventory are
overstated, net income for the
written on the credit side
accounting period will be overstated
(c) Direct expenses are written on the
(c) When closing inventory is
Credit side
understated, net income for the
accounting period will be understated. (d) If the balance of the credit side is
more, the difference is written on the
debit side of the trading account
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1. Ministry of Urban
Development is the Nodal
70. Which of the following is not a
agency steering the scheme
correct entry for the Bad Debt in the
balance sheet of non-Manufacturing 2. Ministry of Home affairs
companies? focuses on the Left-wing
extremism affected districts
(a) Bad Debt Account Dr.
3. Districts were selected on the
To Debtor’s account
basis of deprivation criteria
(b) Bad Debt Account Cr. enumerated under the Socio-
Economic caste census 2011.
To Debtor’s account
Choose the correct option:
(c) Bad Debt Account Dr.
(a) 1 and 3 only
To Creditor’s account
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Bad Debt Account Cr. (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All of the above
To creditor’s account
73. Which of the following statement
71. Consider the following statements
is not correct regarding the Jeevan
regarding the Atal Pension Yojana
Praman Scheme?
1. The beneficiary should not be
(a) It is a scheme for the retired
registered with any other
employees of Central government and
statutory Social Security scheme
PSUs only
2. The minimum age for joining
(b) The scheme provides for the
the scheme is 40 years and
biometric authentication of the identity
maximum is 60 years
of Pensioners
3. The scheme replaces the
(c) This will eliminate the need of
existing Swawlmban scheme
physical verification of existence of the
Choose the correct answer: pensioner
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Aadhar is necessary for availing the
(b) 1 and 2 only benefits of the scheme
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
74. Which of the following statement
72. Consider the following statements
is not correct regarding the Payment
regarding the Transformation of
of Gratuity as provided under the
Aspirational Districts Initiative:
Code on Wages, 2020?
(a) The employer shall pay the gratuity
within thirty days from which the
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person becomes eligible for the employer and employees without

payment of Gratuity. outside interference and with
collective bargaining?
(b) If the employer fails to pay the
gratuity within the stipulated period, (a) Giri Approach
the beneficiary shall be paid Compound
(b) Gandhian Approach
interest as per the rates specified by the
central government (c) Pluralistic Approach
(c) If there exists any dispute regarding (d) None of the above
the payment of gratuity, the employer
shall
78. The wage rate of overtime work
(d) the Competent authority for
under the code on wages act, 2020
adjudication of disputes on the Gratuity
shall not be?
shall have the powers of a civil court
(a) Less than the normal wage rate
75. Maternity Benefit under the
Code on Social security Act, 2020 (b) less than one and half times the
provides for Medical Benefit from normal wage rate
her employer. What is the stipulated
(c) Twice the normal wage rate
amount that the act provides?
(d) None of the above
(a) Rs. 3000
(b) Rs. 3500
79. Which of the following
(c) Rs. 4000
statements is not correct regarding
(d) Rs. 5000 the time period for the payment of
wages under the Code on wages Act,
2020?
76. The theory of “Political and
(a) The wages can be paid on daily
apolitical nature of Industrial
basis, weekly basis, fortnightly basis
relations” was propounded by?
and Monthly basis
(a) Miller and Form
(b) Where the employee has resigned or
(b) John T. Dunlop been retrenched, the wages shall be
paid within two working days of his
(c) Jerome Joseph
resignation
(d) None of the above
(c) When an employee has been
dismissed from service, he shall be paid
wages within a fortnight of such
77. Which approach of Industrial
dismissal
relations emphasises on the
settlement of disputes between the
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(d) Both central and state governments (c) The national tribunal shall consist of
can provide for the time limit for the two members
payment of wages
(d) The opinion of State governments is
important precursor for formation of a
Tribunal which involves multiple states
80. The fine for second conviction
within five years of the first
conviction for failure to pay
83. For the purpose of Layoff and
stipulated payments under the code
Retrenchment under the Code on
on wages Act, 2020 shall be
Industrial relations, 2020 which of
(a) Fifty thousand rupees the following is not a “continuous
service”
(b) One Lakh Rupees
(a) A worker having worked below the
(c) one and half lakh rupees
ground Six months in case of a mine
(d) None of the above Shall be considered to be in continuous
service for one year
(b) A worker having worked below the
81. A trade union registered under
ground for Ninety five days shall be
the Code on Industrial Relations
considered to be in continuous service
shall not be treated as a
for six months
(a) A Body corporate
(c) A worker other than mine shall have
(b) A Society under Societies worked for 240 days to be considered
Registration Act, 1860 in continuous service for one year
(c) A co-operative body under co- (d) None of the above
operatives Societies act, 1912
(d) both b and c
84. What is compensation payable to
the worker who has been in
continuous service for at least a year
82. which of the following statement
is laid off?
about the National Industrial
Tribunal is not correct? (a) Not less than 50% of Basic wages
(a) Central government can constitute (b) Not less than 50% of Basic Wages
more than one national Industrial and Dearness allowance
Tribunals
(c) Not less than 50% of Basic wages
(b) A national tribunal can be formed +DA+ Retaining allowance
for an issue that has ramifications of
(d) None of the above
national security and/or disputes which
involve multiple states
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85. An employer who acts in (b) Secretary, Ministry of Labour and

contravention with the finally Employment—
submitted standing orders finally
(c) Director General, Factory Advice
certified shall be punishable with a
Service and Labour Institutes
fine of
(d) none of the above
(a) Fifty Thousand Rupees but can be
extended to Rs. 1 Lakh
(b) One Lakh Rupees but can be 88. Which of the following is not a
extended to Rs. 2 Lakh welfare provision under the code on
Occupational health and safety?
(c) One Lakh Rupees but can be
extended upto Rs. One and half lakh (a) adequate and suitable facilities for
washing to male and female employees
(d) None of the above
separately;
86. Which of the following is not an
(b) bathing places and locker rooms for
establishment under the code on
male, female and transgender
Occupational health and safety?
employees separately;
(a) a place where any industry, trade,
(c) place of keeping clothing not worn
business, manufacturing or occupation
during working hours and for the
is carried on in which ten or more
drying of wet clothing
workers are employee
(d) Potable drinking water
(b) motor transport undertaking,
newspaper establishment, audio-video
production, building and other
89. Every worker employed in any
construction work or plantation, in
establishment shall be entitled to a
which ten or more workers are
paid leave in every calendar year
employed;
provided that he has worked for at
(c) a mine or port or vicinity of port least
where dock work is carried out:
(a) 240 days in a calendar year
(d) any Hazardous activity where ten or
(b) 195 days in a calendar year
more workers are employed
(C) 180 days in a calendar year
(d) None of the above
87. Who shall be deemed as the ex-
officio chairman of the National
Occupational Safety and Health
90. The Code on Occupational health
Advisory Board
and safety applies to such
(a) Minister for Labour and establishments where
Employment
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(a) at least twenty contract labours are maximum quantities in a living

employed organism?
(b) at least thirty-five contract labours (A) Potassium, Manganese,
are employed Molybdenum, Calcium
(c) at least fifty contract labours are (B) Potassium, Molybdenum, Copper,
employed Calcium
(d) None of the above (C) Pottassium,Sodium, Magnesium,
Calcium
91. Which of the following
statements is incorrect about large (D) Sodium, Magnesium, Copper,
intestine? Manganese
(A) It secretes a number of hormones 95. What of the following represents
linear magnification?
(B) Villi is absent in large intestine
(A) ratio of the height of the image to
(C) It takes part in the absorption of
the height of the object
water from the indigestible residue
(B) ratio of the height of the object to
(D) The colon is also called the large
the height of the image
intestine
(C) product of the height of the object
92. Alveoli is related to which of the
to the height of the image
following system of human body?
(D) difference of the height of the
(A) Excretory system
image to the height of the object
(B) Respiratory system
96. What is the property of a
(C) Circulatory system conductor to resist the flow of
charges known as?
(D) Reproductive system
(A) Conductance
93. Which of the following is the
result of the decrease in white blood (B) Conductivity
cells?
(C) Resistance
(A) Decrease in Antibodies
(D) Electric Potential
(B) Increase in Antigens
97. Which of the following is true
(C) Increase in Antibodies about metals?
(D) No change (A) They are good conductors of
electricity
94. The metals in which among the
following groups are required in (B) They have low resistivity
(C) Both a and b
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(D) None of the above 102. Which of the following is the

appropriate definition of Information
98. Which of the following is correct
about Aromatic hydrocarbons? Technology?

(A) They are also called as Arenes

(B) They are polar molecules (a) Information Technology refers to the
use of hardware and software for
(C) Aromatic hydrocarbons are
processing information.
miscible in water
(D) All of the above
(b) Information Technology refers to the
99. Which of these polymer is
use of hardware and software for
commonly used in making parachute
ropes? distribution of useful information.

(A) Bakelite
(B) Nylon-66 (c) Information Technology refers to the
use of hardware and software for
(C) Neoprene
storage, retrieval, processing and
(D) SBR distributing information of many kinds.
100. Which of these polymers are
used to produce Butyl-rubber?
(d) Information Technology refers to the
(A) butadiene and neoprene use of principles of Physical sciences
(B) butadiene and styrene and Social sciences for processing of
information of many kinds.
(C) butadiene and acrylonitrile
(D) butadiene and isobutylene
103. Satellite Communications work
101.Information and Communication through
Technology includes:
(a) Radar
(a) Online learning
(b) Transponder
(b) Learning through the use of
EDUSAT (c) Receptor

(c) Web based learning (d) Transmitter

(d) All of the above

104. The hexadecimal number system
consists of the symbols;

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(a) 0 - 7 my father's wife.” How is the boy

playing football related to Babu?
(b) 0 - 9, A - F
(a) Uncle
(c) 0 - 7, A - F
(b) Elder brother
(d) None of these
(c) Younger brother
(d) Cousin
105. The first general purpose
electronic computer in the word was 109. In a certain code, FAT is written
as 418 and HAIR is written as 4156.
(a) UNIVAC What will FAIR be written as ?
(b) EDVAC (a) 4156
(c) ENIAC (b) 4180

(d) All of the Above (c) 6980

106 Find the wrong number in the (d) 3214

given series. 110. My house is to the South of
2, 8, 26, 90, 356, 1870, 11226 market and the post office is to the
East of my house, which is as far
(a) 26 away from the market as from the
(b) 90 post office. I first go to the market
and then start walking to the post
(c) 356 office. Just when I am half way, I
(d) 1870 meet a friend and then we decide to
walk back to house. In which
107. A cube of 3 cm side is divided direction are we walking now?
into smaller cubes of side 1 cm. How
many times will it be cut to obtain (a) North-West
smaller cubes? (b) South-West
(a) 8 (c) North-East
(b) 4 (d) South-East
(c) 6 111. What should come in place of
(d) 9 the question mark(?) in the following
series ?
108. Babu said to Sanjay, “That boy
playing with football is younger of 19, 2, 57, 3, 228, 4, ?
the two brothers of the daughter of (a) 1130
(b) 912
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(c) 1140 going are there from city A to the

city C?
(d) 1368
(a) 6
112. Statements
(b) 8
All dhabas are restaurants.
(c) 10
No shops are restaurants.
(d) 12
All hotels are dhabas
115. The average age of a class of 20
Conclusion
students is 12 years. Out of which,
1. Some hotels are shops. one student whose age is 10 years left
the class and two new boys entered
2. Some hotels are not shops.
the class. The average age of the class
3. No dhabas are shops remains the same and the difference
between the ages of new boys is 4
(a) 1 and 2 follow
years. What will be the age of the
(b) 2 and 3 follow younger one?
(c) Only 2 follows (a) 9
(d) Only 3 follows (b) 11
113. The income of Suresh is 10000 (c) 7
and its expenditure is 6000 and thus
(d) 13
saves 4000 Rs. In the next year, his
income is increased by 10% and its 116. In a community of 175 persons, 40
expenditure increased by 20%. Now read The Hindu, 50 read The Indian
his saving is what percent lower than Express. What is the range of people
the previous saving reading both the papers?
(a) 5% (a) 125 and 135
(b) 7.5 (b) 40 and 85
(c) 10% (c) 25 and 85
(d) 15% (d) 25 and 40
114. There are two different ways of 117. In a group of buffaloes and
going from the city A, to the city B. ducks, the number of legs of the
There are 3 different ways of going group is 24 more than twice the
from the city B, to the city C. There number of heads of the group. Find
are two different ways of going from the number of buffaloes in the
city C that are not passing through group?
city B. How many different ways of
(a) 6
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(b) 12 (b) 9
(c) 8 (c) 7
(d) None of these (d) 11
118. A salesman gets commission on
total sales at 12%. If his sales exceed
Rs.10000, he gets a 4% bonus on
excess of sales over Rs.10000. If he
gets a total commission (including
bonus) of Rs.1800, then the bonus
received is
(a) 400
(b) 150
(c) 450
(d) 600
119. In a sum of money lying in
helter skelter, the ratio of Rs.5 coins,
Rs 2 coins and Rs 1 coins can be
expressed in the ratio of three
consecutive odd prime numbers that
are in ascending order. The total
value of coins in the bag is Rs 64. If
the ratio is reversed, find the change
in value of the coins ?
(a) Rs. 68
(b) Rs. 43
(c) Rs. 96
(d) Rs. 32
120. XYZ is a 3 digit number such
that when we calculate the difference
between the two three-digit numbers
XYZ-YXZ the difference is exactly
90. How many possible values exist
for the digits X and Y?
(a) 8

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