Participant ID 1300564400028

Participant Name PANKAJ

Test Center Name Pariksha Desk
Test Date 10/09/2023
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject ASI or Lab Technician

Section : General Knowledge & Numerical Aptitude

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT one of the classical languages of India?
Ans 1. Telugu

2. Tamil

3. Sindhi

4. Sanskrit

Question ID : 630680356283
Option 1 ID : 6306801387142
Option 2 ID : 6306801387141
Option 3 ID : 6306801387144
Option 4 ID : 6306801387143
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.2 Which of the following is correctly matched?

I. M1 and M2 – Narrow money

II. M3 and M4 – Broad money
Ans 1. Only II

2. Both I and II

3. Only I

4. Neither I nor II

Question ID : 630680356280
Option 1 ID : 6306801387130
Option 2 ID : 6306801387131
Option 3 ID : 6306801387129
Option 4 ID : 6306801387132
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 In July 2023, India defeated West Indies in a test series by what margin?
Ans 1. 3 – 0

2. 1 – 0

3. 2 – 0

4. 2 – 1

Question ID : 630680356277
Option 1 ID : 6306801387120
Option 2 ID : 6306801387117
Option 3 ID : 6306801387118
Option 4 ID : 6306801387119
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.4 Umesh’s income is 75 percent of Ravi’s income and Ravi’s income is 120 percent of Prem’s
income. Umesh’s income is what percentage of 36 percent of combined income of Ravi and
Prem?
Ans 1. 133.6 percent

2. 103.6 percent

3. 113.6 percent

4. 12.6 percent

Question ID : 630680356293
Option 1 ID : 6306801387181
Option 2 ID : 6306801387183
Option 3 ID : 6306801387184
Option 4 ID : 6306801387182
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.5 A shopkeeper sells a table at a loss of 50 percent. Had he sold the table for Rs. 120 more,
then he would have suffered a loss of 30 percent. To earn a profit of 40 percent, what should
be the selling price of the table?
Ans 1. Rs. 720

2. Rs. 840

3. Rs. 800

4. Rs. 750

Question ID : 630680356295
Option 1 ID : 6306801387189
Option 2 ID : 6306801387191
Option 3 ID : 6306801387190
Option 4 ID : 6306801387192
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 The marked price of a trouser and a jacket is in the ratio of 5 : 8. The shopkeeper gives 20
percent discount on the trouser. If the total discount offered on both of them together is 30
percent, then what is the discount percentage offered on the jacket?
Ans 1. 34.28 percent

2. 35.8 percent

3. 36.25 percent

4. 33.33 percent

Question ID : 630680356296
Option 1 ID : 6306801387195
Option 2 ID : 6306801387193
Option 3 ID : 6306801387194
Option 4 ID : 6306801387196
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 Mahatma Gandhi called a halt the Non-Cooperation Movement because of the ______.
Ans 1. Chauri Chaura incident

2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

3. Poona Pact

4. Jallianwalla Bagh incident

Question ID : 630680356282
Option 1 ID : 6306801387138
Option 2 ID : 6306801387139
Option 3 ID : 6306801387140
Option 4 ID : 6306801387137
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.8 The simple interest received on a certain sum is Rs. 1600 for 5 years. What will be the
simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of interest for 7 years?
Ans 1. Rs. 2540

2. Rs. 2780

3. Rs. 3200

4. Rs. 2240

Question ID : 630680356299
Option 1 ID : 6306801387207
Option 2 ID : 6306801387205
Option 3 ID : 6306801387208
Option 4 ID : 6306801387206
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9 Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi MaanDhan (PM-SYM) pension scheme was launched in ______.
Ans 1. 2012

2. 2017

3. 2019

4. 2015

Question ID : 630680356278
Option 1 ID : 6306801387121
Option 2 ID : 6306801387123
Option 3 ID : 6306801387124
Option 4 ID : 6306801387122
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 Which of the following number is NOT divisible by 18?

Ans 1. 50436

2. 54036

3. 65043

4. 34056

Question ID : 630680356290
Option 1 ID : 6306801387169
Option 2 ID : 6306801387170
Option 3 ID : 6306801387172
Option 4 ID : 6306801387171
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 Article 6 of the Indian Constitution mentions ______.

Ans 1. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan

2. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan

3. Admission or establishment of new States

4. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution

Question ID : 630680356287
Option 1 ID : 6306801387158
Option 2 ID : 6306801387159
Option 3 ID : 6306801387160
Option 4 ID : 6306801387157
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.12 Which of the following can vote in the election of the President of India?

I. Elected member of State Legislative Council.

II. Elected member of Legislative Assembly of states.
Ans 1. Only II

2. Both I and II

3. Only I

4. Neither I nor II

Question ID : 630680356288
Option 1 ID : 6306801387162
Option 2 ID : 6306801387163
Option 3 ID : 6306801387161
Option 4 ID : 6306801387164
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 What is the average of 90, 245, 144, 215 and 698?
Ans 1. 278.4

2. 280.6

3. 277.4

4. 290.8

Question ID : 630680356291
Option 1 ID : 6306801387173
Option 2 ID : 6306801387174
Option 3 ID : 6306801387176
Option 4 ID : 6306801387175
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 The difference between simple interest and compound interest (compounding of interest is
done annually) on a certain sum of money for 2 years at the rate of 40 percent per annum is
Rs. 1200. What is the sum?
Ans 1. Rs. 7500

2. Rs. 8200

3. Rs. 7700

4. Rs. 8000

Question ID : 630680356300
Option 1 ID : 6306801387212
Option 2 ID : 6306801387209
Option 3 ID : 6306801387211
Option 4 ID : 6306801387210
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15 Average age of a group of 21 boys is 27 years. A boy having age 14 years leaves the group.
A new boy joins the group and the average increases by 0.5 year. What is the age of the new
boy?
Ans 1. 24.5 years

2. 26 years

3. 28.5 years

4. 25 years

Question ID : 630680356292
Option 1 ID : 6306801387179
Option 2 ID : 6306801387178
Option 3 ID : 6306801387180
Option 4 ID : 6306801387177
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.16 Sum of Rs. 84000 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 5 respectively. If each of
them has received Rs. 100 less, then what will be the ratio of the amount received by B and
C respectively?
Ans 1. 349 : 207

2. 209 : 349

3. 209 : 347

4. 349 : 201

Question ID : 630680356298
Option 1 ID : 6306801387204
Option 2 ID : 6306801387201
Option 3 ID : 6306801387202
Option 4 ID : 6306801387203
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.17 Under Atal Pension Yojana, minimum pension of Rs. 5000 is guaranteed by the Government
of India to the subscriber at the age of 60 years, with a minimum monthly contribution (for
those joining at age 18) of ______.
Ans 1. Rs. 84

2. Rs. 168

3. Rs. 42

4. Rs. 210

Question ID : 630680356279
Option 1 ID : 6306801387126
Option 2 ID : 6306801387127
Option 3 ID : 6306801387125
Option 4 ID : 6306801387128
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.18 Which of the following peninsular river flows westward?
Ans 1. Mahanadi

2. Narmada

3. Krishna

4. Godavari

Question ID : 630680356286
Option 1 ID : 6306801387153
Option 2 ID : 6306801387155
Option 3 ID : 6306801387156
Option 4 ID : 6306801387154
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.19 Surajkund Craft Mela is associated with which of the following Indian States?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Rajasthan

3. Haryana

4. Uttar Pradesh

Question ID : 630680356284
Option 1 ID : 6306801387146
Option 2 ID : 6306801387147
Option 3 ID : 6306801387145
Option 4 ID : 6306801387148
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.20 The ratio of salary of T, V and R is 7 : 6 : 12. If R gets Rs. 3600 more than V, then what is the
salary of T?
Ans 1. Rs. 3600

2. Rs. 7200

3. Rs. 4200

4. Rs. 600

Question ID : 630680356297
Option 1 ID : 6306801387197
Option 2 ID : 6306801387198
Option 3 ID : 6306801387199
Option 4 ID : 6306801387200
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.21 Beh-dien-khlam is a major religious festival of which of the following tribes?
Ans 1. Baiga tribe

2. Sahariya tribe

3. Bhariya tribe

4. Jaintia tribe

Question ID : 630680356285
Option 1 ID : 6306801387150
Option 2 ID : 6306801387151
Option 3 ID : 6306801387152
Option 4 ID : 6306801387149
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.22 Which of the following pair of type of cell – size of cell is correct?

I. Prokaryotic cell – 1-10 µm

II. Eukaryotic cell – 5-100 µm
Ans 1. Both I and II

2. Only II

3. Only I

4. Neither I nor II

Question ID : 630680356289
Option 1 ID : 6306801387167
Option 2 ID : 6306801387166
Option 3 ID : 6306801387165
Option 4 ID : 6306801387168
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.23 Two trains are moving in the same direction at the speed of 50 km/hr and 125 km/hr. The
time taken by faster train to cross a man sitting in the slower train is 24 seconds. What will
be the length of the faster train?
Ans 1. 400 metres

2. 450 metres

3. 600 metres

4. 500 metres

Question ID : 630680356301
Option 1 ID : 6306801387213
Option 2 ID : 6306801387214
Option 3 ID : 6306801387215
Option 4 ID : 6306801387216
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.24 Who of the following was associated with the Young Bengal Movement?
Ans 1. Keshub Chunder Sen

2. Swami Vivekananda

3. Henry Derozio

4. Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Question ID : 630680356281
Option 1 ID : 6306801387136
Option 2 ID : 6306801387134
Option 3 ID : 6306801387133
Option 4 ID : 6306801387135
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.25 P sells a book to Q at a profit of 30 percent and Q sells it to R at a profit of 40 percent. If R

pays Rs. 1638 for the book, then what was the cost price of book for P?
Ans 1. Rs. 920

2. Rs. 900

3. Rs. 800

4. Rs. 850

Question ID : 630680356294
Option 1 ID : 6306801387185
Option 2 ID : 6306801387186
Option 3 ID : 6306801387187
Option 4 ID : 6306801387188
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Section : Human Anatomy & Physiology

Q.1 In the human lymphatic system, spleen is also known as the graveyard of ______.
Ans 1. WBC’s

2. Lymphocytes

3. Lymph nodes

4. RBC’s

Question ID : 630680356310
Option 1 ID : 6306801387249
Option 2 ID : 6306801387251
Option 3 ID : 6306801387252
Option 4 ID : 6306801387250
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.2 The study of teeth in human anatomy is known as ______.
Ans 1. Nephrology

2. Skeletonology

3. Neurology

4. Odontology

Question ID : 630680356314
Option 1 ID : 6306801387268
Option 2 ID : 6306801387265
Option 3 ID : 6306801387267
Option 4 ID : 6306801387266
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.3 Which of the following is NOT a method of medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?
Ans 1. Condom

2. Dilatation and curettage

3. Vaccum aspiration

4. Administration of prostaglandin

Question ID : 630680356321
Option 1 ID : 6306801387296
Option 2 ID : 6306801387293
Option 3 ID : 6306801387294
Option 4 ID : 6306801387295
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.4 The disorder rickets is caused in the human body due to the deficiency of ______.
Ans 1. Vitamin B

2. Vitamin K

3. Vitamin A

4. Vitamin D

Question ID : 630680356303
Option 1 ID : 6306801387222
Option 2 ID : 6306801387224
Option 3 ID : 6306801387221
Option 4 ID : 6306801387223
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.5 What is the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood?
Ans 1. 95 mm Hg

2. 120 mm Hg

3. 10 mm Hg

4. 40 mm Hg

Question ID : 630680356319
Option 1 ID : 6306801387286
Option 2 ID : 6306801387287
Option 3 ID : 6306801387288
Option 4 ID : 6306801387285
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.6 The deposition of uric acid crystals (sodium urate), causes which disorder in the human
skeletal system?
Ans 1. Osteoarthritis

2. Rickets

3. Gout

4. Bursitis

Question ID : 630680356312
Option 1 ID : 6306801387259
Option 2 ID : 6306801387257
Option 3 ID : 6306801387260
Option 4 ID : 6306801387258
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 In the human nervous system, which plexus is formed by 5th – 8th cervical nerves?
Ans 1. Brachial plexus

2. Lumbar plexus

3. Cervical plexus

4. Sacral plexus

Question ID : 630680356306
Option 1 ID : 6306801387234
Option 2 ID : 6306801387235
Option 3 ID : 6306801387233
Option 4 ID : 6306801387236
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8 In which of the following conditions in humans, the cardiac output does not decreases?
Ans 1. Anemia

2. Hemorrhage

3. Hypothyroidism

4. Atrial fibrillation

Question ID : 630680356320
Option 1 ID : 6306801387292
Option 2 ID : 6306801387291
Option 3 ID : 6306801387289
Option 4 ID : 6306801387290
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a part of male reproductive system?

Ans 1. Penis

2. Scrotum

3. Testis

4. Hymen

Question ID : 630680356302
Option 1 ID : 6306801387219
Option 2 ID : 6306801387217
Option 3 ID : 6306801387218
Option 4 ID : 6306801387220
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 In the human ear, which cells are also known as Boettcher cells?
Ans 1. Cells of Hensen

2. Phalangeal cells

3. Outer hair cells

4. Cells of Claudius

Question ID : 630680356315
Option 1 ID : 6306801387269
Option 2 ID : 6306801387271
Option 3 ID : 6306801387272
Option 4 ID : 6306801387270
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11 In the filtration process of urine of humans, what is the full form of GFR?
Ans 1. Glomerular Finite Rate

2. Globule Fraction Range

3. Glomerular Fraction Range

4. Glomerular Filteration Rate

Question ID : 630680356323
Option 1 ID : 6306801387303
Option 2 ID : 6306801387304
Option 3 ID : 6306801387301
Option 4 ID : 6306801387302
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 In humans, those glands whose secretion directly diffuse out of their secretory cells are
called ______.
Ans 1. Merocrine glands

2. Apocrine glands

3. Holocrine glands

4. Heterocrine glands

Question ID : 630680356313
Option 1 ID : 6306801387264
Option 2 ID : 6306801387261
Option 3 ID : 6306801387262
Option 4 ID : 6306801387263
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 The disorder in which person can only see near object and have difficulty in focusing distant
object is known as ______.
Ans 1. Blindness

2. Myopia

3. Hypermetropia

4. Conjunctivitis

Question ID : 630680356305
Option 1 ID : 6306801387231
Option 2 ID : 6306801387229
Option 3 ID : 6306801387230
Option 4 ID : 6306801387232
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14 In the visual process, the loss of vision when light in the environment becomes dim is
known as ______.
Ans 1. Nyctalopia

2. Light adaption

3. Myopia

4. Blindness

Question ID : 630680356316
Option 1 ID : 6306801387274
Option 2 ID : 6306801387273
Option 3 ID : 6306801387275
Option 4 ID : 6306801387276
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.15 In Pancreas, how many amino acid peptide are present in pancreatic polypeptide?
Ans 1. 26

2. 36

3. 15

4. 45

Question ID : 630680356322
Option 1 ID : 6306801387298
Option 2 ID : 6306801387297
Option 3 ID : 6306801387299
Option 4 ID : 6306801387300
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.16 Exteroceptors are a part of receptors which give response to stimuli arising from outside
the human body. Which of the following is NOT a division of exteroceptors?
Ans 1. Chemoreceptors

2. Cutaneous Receptors

3. Proprioceptors

4. Telereceptors

Question ID : 630680356318
Option 1 ID : 6306801387282
Option 2 ID : 6306801387281
Option 3 ID : 6306801387284
Option 4 ID : 6306801387283
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.17 The protein ‘Vitellin’ is found abundantly in which food product?
Ans 1. Vegetables

2. Wheat

3. Milk

4. Egg

Question ID : 630680356324
Option 1 ID : 6306801387308
Option 2 ID : 6306801387306
Option 3 ID : 6306801387307
Option 4 ID : 6306801387305
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.18 How many molars are present in permanent teeth of a human jaw?
Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 6

4. 3

Question ID : 630680356304
Option 1 ID : 6306801387225
Option 2 ID : 6306801387226
Option 3 ID : 6306801387227
Option 4 ID : 6306801387228
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.19 What is the percentage of urea in normal human urine?

Ans 1. 50 percent

2. 31 percent

3. 2 percent

4. 10 percent

Question ID : 630680356308
Option 1 ID : 6306801387244
Option 2 ID : 6306801387242
Option 3 ID : 6306801387243
Option 4 ID : 6306801387241
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.20 In humans, which digestive enzyme of pancreatic juice gives out the end product Dextrin
and Maltose?
Ans 1. Chymotrypsin

2. Elastase

3. Pancreatic amylase

4. Colipase

Question ID : 630680356325
Option 1 ID : 6306801387309
Option 2 ID : 6306801387310
Option 3 ID : 6306801387312
Option 4 ID : 6306801387311
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.21 In the human skeletal system, which muscle is present at the back of the neck between
occipital condyles of the skull and shoulder blade, it is also meant for the movement of
shoulder?
Ans 1. Trapezius

2. Rotator

3. Latissimus

4. Serratus Magnus

Question ID : 630680356307
Option 1 ID : 6306801387237
Option 2 ID : 6306801387238
Option 3 ID : 6306801387239
Option 4 ID : 6306801387240
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.22 Due to degeneration, loss of function and death of neurons in many parts of brain, a disease
occurs in human body. This disease is known as ______.
Ans 1. Dementia

2. Alzheimer’s disease

3. Amnesia

4. ADHD

Question ID : 630680356317
Option 1 ID : 6306801387278
Option 2 ID : 6306801387279
Option 3 ID : 6306801387277
Option 4 ID : 6306801387280
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.23 Myofibril present in sarcoplasm of the muscle cell has a diameter of ______.
Ans 1. 0.002 – 0.02 µ

2. 20 – 40 µ

3. 0.2 – 2 µ

4. 50 – 70 µ

Question ID : 630680356326
Option 1 ID : 6306801387315
Option 2 ID : 6306801387314
Option 3 ID : 6306801387313
Option 4 ID : 6306801387316
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.24 Which of the following statement about an artery in the human heart is NOT correct?
Ans 1. Blood flow is faster

2. Arteries are thick walled

3. Arteries have valves

4. Arteries have narrow lumen

Question ID : 630680356309
Option 1 ID : 6306801387245
Option 2 ID : 6306801387247
Option 3 ID : 6306801387246
Option 4 ID : 6306801387248
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.25 Pernicious anemia, is a disorder in the blood. This disorder is due to the deficiency of which
vitamin?
Ans 1. Vitamin C

2. Vitamin A

3. Vitamin K

4. Vitamin B12

Question ID : 630680356311
Option 1 ID : 6306801387256
Option 2 ID : 6306801387254
Option 3 ID : 6306801387253
Option 4 ID : 6306801387255
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Section : Professional Subject

Q.1 Hemoglobin & cytochromes are examples of:
Ans 1. Chromoprotein

2. Nucleoproteins

3. Lipoproteins

4. Glycoproteins

Question ID : 630680356357
Option 1 ID : 6306801387438
Option 2 ID : 6306801387437
Option 3 ID : 6306801387440
Option 4 ID : 6306801387439
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.2 Which of the following is the main cause for a reduction in platelet numbers?
Ans 1. Carcinoma

2. Aplastic anemia

3. Hemorrhage

4. Chronic myeloproliferative disease

Question ID : 630680356341
Option 1 ID : 6306801387375
Option 2 ID : 6306801387373
Option 3 ID : 6306801387374
Option 4 ID : 6306801387376
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3 What is a list of items that are kept at a certain place which is used to check stocks of
equipment in use, at intervals?
Ans 1. A ledger record

2. Inspection checklist

3. An inventory

4. Invoice of materials

Question ID : 630680356333
Option 1 ID : 6306801387342
Option 2 ID : 6306801387341
Option 3 ID : 6306801387343
Option 4 ID : 6306801387344
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.4 Which mould used for block in embedding of tissue, has flat and well-polished base that
helps to remove liquid paraffin?
Ans 1. Asbestos mould

2. Stainless steel mould

3. Plastic mould

4. T-shaped Leuckhard embedding mould

Question ID : 630680356372
Option 1 ID : 6306801387500
Option 2 ID : 6306801387498
Option 3 ID : 6306801387499
Option 4 ID : 6306801387497
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 Which is one of the expendable materials of a laboratory?

Ans 1. Autoclaves

2. Incubators

3. Glass wares

4. Balances

Question ID : 630680356327
Option 1 ID : 6306801387318
Option 2 ID : 6306801387317
Option 3 ID : 6306801387319
Option 4 ID : 6306801387320
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.6 Identify one of the biological hazards?

Ans 1. Carcinogens

2. Burns from flammable stains

3. Leaking gas

4. Laboratory acquired infections

Question ID : 630680356339
Option 1 ID : 6306801387367
Option 2 ID : 6306801387366
Option 3 ID : 6306801387365
Option 4 ID : 6306801387368
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.7 What is regarded as an anhydride of β - D glucose?
Ans 1. Inulin

2. Amylose

3. Chitin

4. Cellulose

Question ID : 630680356345
Option 1 ID : 6306801387392
Option 2 ID : 6306801387389
Option 3 ID : 6306801387391
Option 4 ID : 6306801387390
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.8 Which is a mononuclear leucocyte?

Ans 1. Neutrophils

2. Basophiles

3. Eosinophils

4. Lymphocytes

Question ID : 630680356376
Option 1 ID : 6306801387513
Option 2 ID : 6306801387514
Option 3 ID : 6306801387516
Option 4 ID : 6306801387515
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.9 Which is the clinical microbiology test used for the detection of microbial antigens?
Ans 1. Hemagglutination test

2. Coagglutination test

3. Tube agglutination test

4. Latex agglutination test

Question ID : 630680356347
Option 1 ID : 6306801387399
Option 2 ID : 6306801387400
Option 3 ID : 6306801387398
Option 4 ID : 6306801387397
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.10 Identify the common site of infection for a parasite i.e., A. lumbricoides?
Ans 1. CNS

2. Cecum

3. G.I. Tract

4. Small bowel

Question ID : 630680356349
Option 1 ID : 6306801387408
Option 2 ID : 6306801387407
Option 3 ID : 6306801387405
Option 4 ID : 6306801387406
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.11 Laboratory acquired infections can be prevented by:

Ans 1. being immunized against low infectious pathogens.

2. practicing mouth-pipetting.

3. Disposing safely of specimens and non-contaminated material.

4. Safe handling of specimens and infectious materials.

Question ID : 630680356351
Option 1 ID : 6306801387413
Option 2 ID : 6306801387414
Option 3 ID : 6306801387415
Option 4 ID : 6306801387416
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 What does combines with calcium, thereby preventing the conversion of prothrombin to
thrombin, and coagulation does not occur?
Ans 1. Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

2. Balanced or double oxalate

3. Trisodium Citrate

4. Heparin

Question ID : 630680356358
Option 1 ID : 6306801387444
Option 2 ID : 6306801387442
Option 3 ID : 6306801387441
Option 4 ID : 6306801387443
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.13 Which type of simple proteins are coagulated by heat and are deficient in methionine?
Ans 1. Glutelins

2. Albumins

3. Globulins

4. Prolamins

Question ID : 630680356350
Option 1 ID : 6306801387412
Option 2 ID : 6306801387409
Option 3 ID : 6306801387410
Option 4 ID : 6306801387411
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.14 What is the characteristic of viruses?

Ans 1. Possess both DNA and RNA.

2. Plasma membrane

3. Sensitive to antibiotics.

4. Pass through bacteriological filters.

Question ID : 630680356374
Option 1 ID : 6306801387505
Option 2 ID : 6306801387506
Option 3 ID : 6306801387507
Option 4 ID : 6306801387508
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 ______ are the cellular determinants specific for each individual of species and they are
associated with the plasma membrane of tissue cells.
Ans 1. Iso-antigens

2. T-cell epitopes

3. Histocompatibility antigens

4. Super antigens

Question ID : 630680356365
Option 1 ID : 6306801387469
Option 2 ID : 6306801387471
Option 3 ID : 6306801387470
Option 4 ID : 6306801387472
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.16 Which is the immunoglobulin that neutralizes toxins and viruses in human?
Ans 1. IgD

2. IgG

3. IgA

4. IgE

Question ID : 630680356353
Option 1 ID : 6306801387424
Option 2 ID : 6306801387421
Option 3 ID : 6306801387422
Option 4 ID : 6306801387423
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.17 Which immunosuppressive agents include nitrogen mustard, cyclophosphamide etc?

Ans 1. Antimetabolites

2. Radiometric drugs

3. Corticosteroids

4. X-irradiation

Question ID : 630680356330
Option 1 ID : 6306801387332
Option 2 ID : 6306801387331
Option 3 ID : 6306801387329
Option 4 ID : 6306801387330
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 What are a group of compounds characterized by at least one aromatic ring bearing one or
more hydroxyl groups?
Ans 1. Phenolics

2. Cuticular compounds

3. Alkaloids

4. Terpenoids

Question ID : 630680356375
Option 1 ID : 6306801387509
Option 2 ID : 6306801387512
Option 3 ID : 6306801387511
Option 4 ID : 6306801387510
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 What is the property of Papovaviridae, one of the human DNA viruses?
Ans 1. Single stranded, linear

2. Presence of terminal reiterated sequences

3. Double stranded, linear

4. Double stranded, circular

Question ID : 630680356362
Option 1 ID : 6306801387458
Option 2 ID : 6306801387460
Option 3 ID : 6306801387457
Option 4 ID : 6306801387459
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.20 What is the cause of cracked and folded tissue section in processing?
Ans 1. Excessive blood in tissue

2. Dehydration process in suboptimum

3. Excessive dehydration

4. Tissue is too thick during grossing.

Question ID : 630680356366
Option 1 ID : 6306801387474
Option 2 ID : 6306801387473
Option 3 ID : 6306801387475
Option 4 ID : 6306801387476
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.21 In which stage of acquired syphilis, all external signs of the disease disappear (6 weeks to 6
months), but blood tests diagnostics for syphilis are positive?
Ans 1. Primary latent period

2. Incubation stage

3. Secondary stage

4. Tertiary latent stage

Question ID : 630680356332
Option 1 ID : 6306801387337
Option 2 ID : 6306801387338
Option 3 ID : 6306801387339
Option 4 ID : 6306801387340
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.22 What is the structure of immunoglobulins class IgM?
Ans 1. Dimer

2. Pentamer

3. Monomer

4. Trimer

Question ID : 630680356359
Option 1 ID : 6306801387447
Option 2 ID : 6306801387446
Option 3 ID : 6306801387445
Option 4 ID : 6306801387448
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.23 Which blood smears staining consists of a combination of a Romanowsky stain with
another stain, e.g. Giemsa?
Ans 1. Jenner staining

2. Leishman Stain

3. Wright stain

4. Panoptic staining

Question ID : 630680356352
Option 1 ID : 6306801387420
Option 2 ID : 6306801387418
Option 3 ID : 6306801387417
Option 4 ID : 6306801387419
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.24 Which is the true statement for standard activation of macrophages?

Ans 1. Cell fusion is not a dominant feature.

2. Pro-inflammatory cytokines.

3. Mannose receptor up-regulated.

4. Arginine metabolism towards nitric oxide synthesis.

Question ID : 630680356338
Option 1 ID : 6306801387363
Option 2 ID : 6306801387361
Option 3 ID : 6306801387362
Option 4 ID : 6306801387364
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.25 ______ is identified by detection of the genome by reverse transcriptase PCR or other RNA
detection methods.
Ans 1. Hepatitis B

2. Hepatitis D

3. Hepatitis G

4. Hepatitis A

Question ID : 630680356367
Option 1 ID : 6306801387478
Option 2 ID : 6306801387480
Option 3 ID : 6306801387477
Option 4 ID : 6306801387479
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.26 In which isomerism, the basic carbon skeleton remains unchanged, but important groups
are moved around on that skeleton?
Ans 1. Chain isomerism

2. Functional isomerism

3. Stereo isomerism

4. Position isomerism

Question ID : 630680356334
Option 1 ID : 6306801387345
Option 2 ID : 6306801387347
Option 3 ID : 6306801387348
Option 4 ID : 6306801387346
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.27 Which method of measuring hemoglobin is both precise and accurate and is also one of the
few hemoglobin systems that does not require dilution or measuring of the blood?
Ans 1. Oxyhemoglobin Method

2. Cyanmethemoglobin method

3. Alkaline Hematin Method

4. HemoCue non-dilution photometric technique

Question ID : 630680356329
Option 1 ID : 6306801387326
Option 2 ID : 6306801387327
Option 3 ID : 6306801387328
Option 4 ID : 6306801387325
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.28 Which of the following parasite enter in human by ingestion?
Ans 1. B. microti

2. T. cruzi

3. O. volvulus

4. T. solium

Question ID : 630680356343
Option 1 ID : 6306801387383
Option 2 ID : 6306801387382
Option 3 ID : 6306801387384
Option 4 ID : 6306801387381
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.29 ______ of bacteria, viruses and other foreign particles is the most important function of the
macrophages.
Ans 1. Cytokine production

2. Granulocytes

3. Phagocytosis

4. Antigen presentation

Question ID : 630680356336
Option 1 ID : 6306801387355
Option 2 ID : 6306801387356
Option 3 ID : 6306801387353
Option 4 ID : 6306801387354
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.30 Which type of sample is used for most tests that require anticoagulation or larger quantities
of blood?
Ans 1. Arterial collection

2. Sub-arterial collection

3. Venous Blood Collection

4. Capillary blood collection

Question ID : 630680356364
Option 1 ID : 6306801387466
Option 2 ID : 6306801387465
Option 3 ID : 6306801387468
Option 4 ID : 6306801387467
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.31 Which problem in staining of blood smears, is due to inadequate washing, too high alkalinity
of stain or diluent?
Ans 1. Excessively pink stain

2. Excessively blue stain

3. Excessively yellow stain

4. Precipitate on the film

Question ID : 630680356346
Option 1 ID : 6306801387394
Option 2 ID : 6306801387395
Option 3 ID : 6306801387396
Option 4 ID : 6306801387393
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.32 Identify the occurrence of hexose?

Ans 1. Proteoglycans

2. Gum Arabic

3. Cane sugar

4. Wood gums

Question ID : 630680356328
Option 1 ID : 6306801387323
Option 2 ID : 6306801387321
Option 3 ID : 6306801387322
Option 4 ID : 6306801387324
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.33 Identify the fixation troubleshooting remedy for insoluble brownish-black granular pigment?
Ans 1. Keep formalin in a closely capped bottle.

2. Keep more time in formalin for fixation.

3. Use buffered formalin.

4. Cut thin section for fixation.

Question ID : 630680356348
Option 1 ID : 6306801387402
Option 2 ID : 6306801387403
Option 3 ID : 6306801387401
Option 4 ID : 6306801387404
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.34 Which is the most sensitive of all syphilis tests, but it is technically the most difficult where
both the performance of the test and the reading of results have to be thoroughly checked?
Ans 1. Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption.

2. Treponemal tests for specific IgM.

3. Immunochromatographic card test.

4. Treponema Pallidum Particle Agglutination.

Question ID : 630680356361
Option 1 ID : 6306801387454
Option 2 ID : 6306801387456
Option 3 ID : 6306801387455
Option 4 ID : 6306801387453
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.35 Identify an example of virus, associated receptor protein of rabies virus?

Ans 1. Fibre protein

2. G protein

3. HA

4. gp 120

Question ID : 630680356368
Option 1 ID : 6306801387481
Option 2 ID : 6306801387483
Option 3 ID : 6306801387482
Option 4 ID : 6306801387484
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.36 Which complement activation pathway is a component of innate immune system?

Ans 1. Alternative pathway

2. Lectin pathway

3. Classical pathway

4. Primary pathway

Question ID : 630680356342
Option 1 ID : 6306801387379
Option 2 ID : 6306801387380
Option 3 ID : 6306801387378
Option 4 ID : 6306801387377
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.37 Which fixatives are good for electron microscopy?
Ans 1. Zenker’s fluid

2. Osmium tetroxide

3. Buffered formalin

4. Ethyl alcohol

Question ID : 630680356344
Option 1 ID : 6306801387387
Option 2 ID : 6306801387386
Option 3 ID : 6306801387388
Option 4 ID : 6306801387385
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.38 What is the advantage of commonly used formaldehyde fixative in the laboratory?
Ans 1. Well preserved cell morphology

2. Good for staining of fat and enzymes

3. Preserve acid mucopolysaccharides

4. Quick fixation

Question ID : 630680356337
Option 1 ID : 6306801387359
Option 2 ID : 6306801387360
Option 3 ID : 6306801387358
Option 4 ID : 6306801387357
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.39 What is an example of enzyme class ligases?

Ans 1. RNA polymerase

2. Hexokinase

3. Triose phosphate

4. Fumarase

Question ID : 630680356369
Option 1 ID : 6306801387485
Option 2 ID : 6306801387488
Option 3 ID : 6306801387487
Option 4 ID : 6306801387486
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.40 Identify an example of Microsporidia, one of the protozoan parasites?
Ans 1. Trichomonas

2. Trypanosoma

3. Giardia

4. Encephalitozoan

Question ID : 630680356356
Option 1 ID : 6306801387435
Option 2 ID : 6306801387434
Option 3 ID : 6306801387433
Option 4 ID : 6306801387436
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.41 What is the advantage of VDRL test?

Ans 1. Serum specimens must be heat inactivated before testing.

2. It can be performed on serum or cerebrospinal fluid.

3. The antigen must be prepared fresh daily.

4. The test needs to be read with the aid of a microscope.

Question ID : 630680356355
Option 1 ID : 6306801387432
Option 2 ID : 6306801387431
Option 3 ID : 6306801387429
Option 4 ID : 6306801387430
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.42 Which of the following clearing agent used in histopathology labs, is not inflammable?
Ans 1. Xylene

2. Chloroform

3. Esters

4. Toluene

Question ID : 630680356360
Option 1 ID : 6306801387451
Option 2 ID : 6306801387452
Option 3 ID : 6306801387449
Option 4 ID : 6306801387450
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.43 The amount of HCG excreted in the urine is almost the same as that found in:
Ans 1. the semen

2. the lymph

3. the blood

4. the saliva

Question ID : 630680356373
Option 1 ID : 6306801387501
Option 2 ID : 6306801387504
Option 3 ID : 6306801387502
Option 4 ID : 6306801387503
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.44 What are neutrophils with coarse blue black or purple granules?
Ans 1. Neutropenia

2. Hypersegmentation

3. Hypergranular neutrophils

4. Agranular Neutrophils

Question ID : 630680356335
Option 1 ID : 6306801387351
Option 2 ID : 6306801387350
Option 3 ID : 6306801387352
Option 4 ID : 6306801387349
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.45 What of the following influencing factor of tissue processing, increases the better
penetration of fluid?
Ans 1. Negative pressure

2. Size of the tissue

3. Agitation

4. Heat

Question ID : 630680356354
Option 1 ID : 6306801387428
Option 2 ID : 6306801387427
Option 3 ID : 6306801387425
Option 4 ID : 6306801387426
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.46 Enzymes are classified as:
Ans 1. Catalytic proteins

2. Regulatory proteins

3. Storage proteins

4. Structural proteins

Question ID : 630680356363
Option 1 ID : 6306801387461
Option 2 ID : 6306801387462
Option 3 ID : 6306801387463
Option 4 ID : 6306801387464
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.47 What is the physical / chemical barrier of acquired immunity?

Ans 1. Skin

2. Antimicrobial chemicals

3. Lymphocytes in epithelia

4. Mucosal epithelia

Question ID : 630680356371
Option 1 ID : 6306801387494
Option 2 ID : 6306801387496
Option 3 ID : 6306801387493
Option 4 ID : 6306801387495
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.48 What is the size of Pronormoblast?

Ans 1. 12-14µm in diameter

2. 10-12µm in diameter

3. 16-18µm in diameter

4. 20-25µm in diameter

Question ID : 630680356370
Option 1 ID : 6306801387490
Option 2 ID : 6306801387489
Option 3 ID : 6306801387491
Option 4 ID : 6306801387492
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.49 Which is one if the physical properties of polysaccharides?
Ans 1. Soluble in water

2. Need to be digested after absorbed in blood stream.

3. Sweet to taste

4. Amorphous compound

Question ID : 630680356340
Option 1 ID : 6306801387369
Option 2 ID : 6306801387372
Option 3 ID : 6306801387371
Option 4 ID : 6306801387370
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.50 Which is the type of compound fixation?

Ans 1. Osmium tetroxide

2. Formaldehyde

3. Bouins fluid

4. Picric acid

Question ID : 630680356331
Option 1 ID : 6306801387336
Option 2 ID : 6306801387335
Option 3 ID : 6306801387333
Option 4 ID : 6306801387334
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1