ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023

(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
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ĐỀ SỐ 4
Họ, tên thí sinh: ................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: .....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. think B. thank C. theater D. therefore
Question 2: A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effort B. effect C. deafness D. speaker
Question 4: A. committee B. referee C. employee D. refugee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The website __________ by the web developer is user-friendly and easy to navigate.
A. develops B. developing C. developed D. is developing
Question 6: Tom is __________ than David.
A. handsome B. the more handsome C. more handsome D. the most handsome
Question 7: John will start studying for the exam __________.
A. after he finished his lunch B. when he finishes his lunch
C. before he finished his lunch D. until he is finishing his lunch
Question 8: The manager is directly responsible ___________ the efficient running of the office
A. about B. for C. at D. in
Question 9: Silly is going to my party, __________?
A. isn’t she B. will she C. won’t she D. doesn’t she
Question 10: We needed __________ house to live in when we were in London.
A. a B. the C. any D. Ø
Question 11: - “How was your exam?”
- “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the __________ it was pretty easy.”
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
Question 12: The United States __________ some 150,000 military reservists when the war broke out.
A. came about B. caught on C. called up D. carried out
Question 13: We wish __________ to college next year.
A. go B. to go C. going D. shall go
Question 14: I was left out in the __________ in the annual promotions in the company.
A. rain B. sun C. snow D. cold
Question 15: I __________ TV when the phone rang.
A. was watching B. was watched C. was watch D. is watching
Question 16: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to __________ the demand
for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 17: The company hopes that their new product launch _______ by many potential customers.
 A. will be attended B. will attend C. was attended D. will be attending
Question 18: Mr Lam is a cycle driver in Ho Chi Minh City, who usually has a ______ working day.
A. business B. busy C. busily D. busying
Question 19: Despite the initial __________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: John and Mary are talking about what to do after class.
- John: “__________”
- Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.”
A. Do you often have time for a drink after class? B. Would you like to have a drink after class?
C. Do you often go out for a drink after class? D. Would you like tea or coffee after class?
Question 21: Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
- Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
- Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Those who advocate for doctor-assisted suicide say the terminally ill should not have to
suffer.
A. support B. oppose C. annul D. convict
Question 23: James may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.
A. get into trouble B. fall into disuse C. remain calm D. stay safe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Question 25: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind.
A. Never B. Always C. Hardly D. Sometimes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Surely John won't forget his wedding anniversary again.
A. John could have forgotten his wedding anniversary again.
B. John must forget his wedding anniversary again.
C. John may forget his wedding anniversary again.
D. John can't forget his wedding anniversary again.
Question 27: The only time I’ve ever eaten sushi was when I was on a trip to Japan.
A. I haven't eaten sushi since my trip to Japan.
B. I often eat sushi on my trips to Japan.
C. When I went to Japan, I was always eating sushi.
D. I finally ate sushi when I went to Japan.
Question 28: My mother said to me, “Have you finished your homework yet?”
A. My mother asked me if I had finished my homework
B. My mother told me to finish my homework .
C. My mother reminded me to finish my homework
D. My mother questioned me whether I would finish my homework.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: At the comer of the street is a shop where you can buy something special for your
A B C
significantly other.
D
Question 30: The boy swum the narrow canal in ten minutes to find himself in the base, out of danger.
A B C D
Question 31: A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of
A B C
their own.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She doesn’t have a car. She can’t drive to work.
A. Provided that she has a car, she can drive to work.
B. If she had a car, she could drive to work.
C. If she has a car, she could drive to work.
D. as if she had a car, she can drive to work.
Question 33: I only realized what I had missed when they told me about it later.
A. Only after I had realized what I had missed did they tell me about it later.
B. As soon as they told me about it I realized what I had missed.
C. Only when they told me about it later did I realize what I had missed.
D. They told me about it and I realized what I had missed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In European and North American cultures, body language behaviors can be divided into 2 groups:
open or closed and forward or backward.
Open/ closed postures are the easiest to (34) _______. People are open to messages when they show
open hands, face you fully, and have both feet on the ground. This indicates that they are (35) ________
to listen to what you are saying, even if they are disagreeing with you. When people are closed to
messages, they have their arms folded or their legs crossed, and they may turn their bodies away. This
body language usually means that people are rejecting your message.
Forward or backward behavior reveals an active (36) _________ a passive reaction to what is being
said. If people lean forward with their bodies toward you, they are actively engaged in your message.
They may be accepting or rejecting it, but their minds are on (37) __________ you are saying. On the
other hand, if people lean back in their chairs or look away from you, or perform activities such as
drawing or cleaning their eyeglasses, you know that they are either passively taking in your message or
that they are ignoring it. In other case, they are not very (38) __________ engaged in the conversation.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English)
Question 34: A. indicate B. do C. refer D. recognize
Question 35: A. likely B. reluctant C. able D. willing
Question 36: A. or B. but C. and D. so
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. things
Question 38: A. much B. many C. little D. more
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them
going for the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon
became the pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out
so-called “energy drinks”. These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has
stated in interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink
for athletes. Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer’s body and mind. In order to
do this, the makers of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals
to their beverages. The added chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy.
The vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a
person energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show
that all of the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person’s energy level. Another problem
is that there are so many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in
energy drinks work together.
Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing
all the claims energy drinks make. He says, “It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will
get a good result.” However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact
on the body. “We just don’t know at this point” he says.
(Trích từ đề minh họa lần 1, 2017)
Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink.
B. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy.
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink.
D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks.
Question 40: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. one example B. the company C. Red Bull D. thirst quencher
Question 41: According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an energy
drink gives people energy?
A. Natural chemicals in a person‘s body B. The average age of the consumer
C. The number of beverage makers D. The mixture of various ingredients
Question 42: The word “plausible” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. impossible B. reasonable C. typical D. unlikely
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers.
B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks.
C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work.
D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes
minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends
on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of
the plaque have been “primed” by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular
dental hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in
the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling
saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are
forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack
by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early
carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce
your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful
acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva.
Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your
teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that
scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed
when eating sweets.
Question 44: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 45: The word “it” refers to _________.
A. dental floss B. bacteria C. removal of plaque D. plaque
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT
_________.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 47: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is _______.
A. It strengthens tooth enamel
B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 48: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 49: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your
saliva increases __________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 50: The word “scrape off” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve
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