Polity Test 4-1

1. Consider the following statements.
1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members
of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President.
2. The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution.
3. The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a
political party within six months of being nominated to the House.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Ans: b
Solution:
In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the
Constitution.
The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action
under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The
first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of
such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when
an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political
party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.
The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of
being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion.

1. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
2. Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence.
3. The presiding officer is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: c
Solution:Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of

Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”.
When any of these rights and
immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of
Parliament.
A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held
guilty of breach of privilege.
A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a
breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however
mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the
intervention of the House.
• The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair
can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of
Parliament.
3. Consider the following statements regarding President’s rule that is imposed under Article 356 of
the Constitution.
1. It cannot be imposed without the written recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state.
2. Every proclamation of President’s rule must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within
a stipulated time.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution:Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation
has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions
of the Constitution.
Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie,
even without the governor’s report).
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament
within two months from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the
President’s Rule continues for six months.
4.The Speaker of the Lok-Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to

1) Prime Minister of India
2) President of India
3) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
4) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: c
Solution: (3) The Speaker may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the
Deputy Speaker. The Speaker can be removed from office only on a
resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. Such a
resolution has to satisfy some conditions like: it should be specific with respect to the charges and it
should not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory
statements, etc. Not only these, discussions should be confined to charges referred to in the
resolution
5.For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of
1) 25 years
2) 30 years
3) 35 years
4) 18 years
Ans: c
Solution:(3) Article 58 of the Constitution sets the principle qualifications one must meet to be eligible
to the office of the President. A President must be: a citizen of India; of 35 years of age or above;
and qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha.

1. President has the power to issue Ordinance on those provisions which Parliament is not
empowered to do.
2. Ordinance passed by the President ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the
reassembly of Parliament.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution: b)
7. The committee on subordinate legislation deals with

a) Delegated legislation
b) Financial legislation
c) Municipal legislation
d) State legislation
Ans: A
Solution:(1) The Committee on Subor-dinate Legislation of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members

nominated by the Speaker. A Minister is not nominated to this Committee. The Committee
scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-
laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised by
the executive within the scope of such delegation.
8. consider the following statement –
1. preamble talks about economic liberty.
2.Fundamental rights promotes political democracy.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution: preamble talks about liberty of thought expression belief faith and worship.
Fundamental rights aims at promoting political democracy whereas DPSPs promotes social
democracy.
9. Consider the following statements

1. The office of governor of a state is considered as an employment under the Central government.
2. The governor is indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college same like president.
3. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Solution: The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially
constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by
warrant under his hand and seal.
As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under
the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or
subordinate to the Central government.
10. A bill is not deemed to be a money bill if it provides for:

1. Imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
2. Receipt of money on account of the public account of India.
3. Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body
for local purposes.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Ans: c
Solution: Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is
deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following
matters:
The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of
moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount
of any such expenditure;
The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of Indiaor
the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or Any
matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
However, a bill is not to be deemed to be a money bill by reason only that it provides for:
the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or
the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered; or
the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body
for local purposes.
11.. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3) Sir B.N. Rao
4) Shri K.M. Munshi
Ans: C
Solution:Sir Benegal Narsing Rau CIE (26 February 1887 – 30 November 1953) was an Indian civil
servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He
was the Constitutional Advisor to Constituent Assembly.
12. Consider the following statements regarding Public Account of India.

1. Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the Union government
acts as a banker.
2. It includes state provident funds and small savings deposits.
3. Expenditures from Public Account of India require the approval of the parliament.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2 only
d) 2, 3
Ans:b
Solution:Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is
merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution.
Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the
government. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature
of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament.
13. Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission of India.

1. Finance Commission is set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.
2. Union Finance Minister acts as the ex officio member of the commission.
3. The commission addresses the imbalances that arise between the taxation powers and
expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the states, respectively.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Ans: d
Solution: FC is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.

Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed
between the Centre and states.
There are no-ex officio members of the commission as such, because it is constituted afresh every
five years.
Besides suggesting the mechanism to share tax revenues, the Commission also lays down the
principles for giving out grant-in-aid to states and other local bodies.
The commission has to take on itself the job of addressing the imbalances that often arise between
the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the states, respectively.

1. Article 324 of the Constitution provides the same protection to all the election commissioners as
the chief election commissioner.
2. The chief election commissioner can only be removed on the same grounds as a judge of the
Supreme Court.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution: The CEC and the Election Commissioners have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of
65, whichever is earlier, and enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to
Supreme Court judges.
The CEC and the Election Commissioners enjoy the same decision-making powers which is
suggestive of the fact that their powers are at par with each other.
However, Article 324(5) does not provide similar protection to the Election Commissioners and it
merely says that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
15. Consider the following statements regarding Objectives Resolution.

1. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly and was
unanimously adopted by the Assembly in 1950.
2. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution: On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the
Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947.
It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified
version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
16. Consider the following statements regarding Major Committees of Constituent Assembly.
1. Union Powers Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
3. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Ans: c
Solution: The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of
constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor
committees. The names of these committees and their Chairman are given below:
Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru

Union Constitution Committee -Jawaharlal Nehru.
Provincial Constitution Committee -Sardar Patel
Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar
Patel.
Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
17. Consider the following statements regarding Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
1. He acts as the Chairman only when the Vice president is absent from the sitting of the House.
2. The Deputy Chairman is subordinate to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
3. Like the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman, while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first
instance.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 3 only
Ans: d
Solution: The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself from amongst its members.
Whenever the office of the Deputy Chairman falls vacant, the Rajya Sabha elects another member
to fill the vacancy.
The Deputy Chairman vacates his office in any of the following three cases:
if he ceases to be a member of the Rajya Sabha;
if he resigns by writing to the Chairman; and
if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha.
Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
The Deputy Chairman performs the duties of the Chairman’s office when it is vacant or when the
Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President. He also acts as the
Chairman when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House.
In both the cases, he has all the powers of the Chairman. It should be emphasised here that the
Deputy Chairman is not subordinate to the Chairman.
He is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
Like the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman, while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first
instance; he can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie. Further, when a resolution for the
removal of the Deputy Chairman is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside over a
sitting of the House, though he may be present.
18. Which of the following principles is considered as the bedrock principle of parliamentary
government?
a) Liberty
b) Sovereignty
c) Fraternity
d) Collective Responsibility
Ans: d
Solution: The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry
(i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no
confidence. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively
responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a
team, and swim and sink together.
19. The President can advance money to meet unforeseen expenses

from the
a) Consolidated Fund of India
b) Grants of the Central Government
c) Aid from the Union Government
d) Contingency Fund
Ans: D
Solution: (4) The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of the President. He
can advance money of this fund to meet unforeseen expenses and recover the same after due
authorization by the parliament. The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president.
Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action.
20. Who has the power to prorogue the Lok Sabha ?

a) The Speaker
b) The Prime Minister
c) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
d) The President
Ans: d
Solution:(4) As per Article 85 of Indian constitution, the President shall from time to time summon
each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not
intervene between its lasting sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the
next session. The same article adds that he may from time to time - l prorogue the Houses or either
House; l dissolve the House of the People
21. Consider the following statements regarding Governor’s legislative powers.

1. If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor
shall reserve the bill for consideration of the President.
2. If a bill sent by Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without
amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution:Article 200 provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature, is presented to the
Governor, the Governor shall declare—
a) that he assents to the Bill; or
b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or
c) that he reserves the Bill for the President’s consideration; or
d) the Governor may, as soon as possible, return the Bill (other than a Money Bill) with a message
for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But, if the Bill is again passed by the Legislature with or
without amendment, the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom; or
e) if in the opinion of the Governor, the Bill, if it became law, would so derogate from the powers of
the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position, he shall not assent to but shall reserve it for
the consideration of the President.
22. ‘Cabinet system’ and ‘Collective responsibility’ are the contributions of

a) Ireland
b) United States
c) India
d) Britain
Ans: D
Solution: Cabinet system' and 'collective responsibility' are features of parliamentary form of
government, which is contribution of Britain. 'Cabinet' is a group of ministers within Council of
Ministers which is power-center of decision making whereas 'collective responsibility' means
existence of Council of Ministers is only till they enjoy majority in lower house and all their actions
are subject to scrutiny of parliament
23. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties incorporated in the
Constitution.
1. All Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the Constitution 42nd
Amendment Act, 1976.
2. They are not enforceable by law, but a court may take them into account while adjudicating on a
matter.
3.The concept of Fundamental Duties is taken from the Constitution of Russia.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: c
Solution: The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the
Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Today, there are 11 Fundamental Duties described under
Article 51-A, of which 10 were introduced by the 42nd Amendment and the 11th was added by the
86th Amendment in 2002.
These are statutory duties, not enforceable by law, but a court may take them into account while
adjudicating on a matter. The idea behind their incorporation was to emphasise the obligation of the
citizen in exchange for the Fundamental Rights that he or she enjoys. The concept of Fundamental
Duties is taken from the Constitution of Russia.
24. In which year the constituent assembly of India started functioning?

a) 1945
b) 1946
c)1947
d) 1948
Ans: B
Solution: The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. The Muslim League
boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan. The meeting was thus attended
by only 211 members. Dr Sachchidanand Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary
President of the Assembly, following the French practice..
25. Which one of the following amendments empowered the president to send back the advice of
cabinet for reconsideration?
a) 39th Amendment
b) 40th Amendment
c) 42nd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment
Ans: d
Solution: Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978 empowered the president to send back once the
advice of cabinet for reconsideration. But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president.
26. Consider the following statements about Motion of Thanks.

1. It is addressed by the Leader of the House.
2. The motion is put to vote in both the houses of the parliament.
3. It is addressed at the beginning of every new session of the Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: c
Solution: Motion of Thanks: The first session after each general election and the first session of
every fiscal year is addressed by the president. In this address, the president outlines the policies
and programmes of the government in the preceding year and ensuing year. This address of the
president, is discussed in both the Houses of Parliament on a motion called the ‘Motion of Thanks’.
At the end of the discussion, the motion is put to vote. This motion must be passed in the House.
Otherwise, it amounts to the defeat of the government.
27. The NOTA voting option is applicable in

1. State Legislative Assembly Elections
2. Lok Sabha elections
3. Election of the President and Vice-President
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1 only
Ans: a
Solution: “None of the Above” (or NOTA) has been provided as an option to the voters of India in
most elections since 2009. The Supreme Court in PUCL vs. Union of India Judgement 2013 directed
the use of NOTA in the context of direct elections to the Lok Sabha and the respective state
assemblies.
28. Which of the following are the provisions for independent functioning of the UPSC?
1. The chairman can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds
similar to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. The entire expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The chairman is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: c
Solution:The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the
independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC:
(a) The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the president only in the
manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure.
(b) The conditions of service of the chairman or a member, though determined by the president,
cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
(c) The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and
members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to
vote of Parliament.
(d) The chairman of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is not eligible for further employment in the
Government of India or a state.
(e) A member of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman of
UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), but not for any other employment in the
Government of India or a state.
(f) The chairman or a member of UPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for
reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term).
29. Which of these is NOT included as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution ?
a) Right to Freedom of Speech
b) Right to Equality before the Law
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
d) Right to equal wages for equal work
Ans: D
Solution:
There are six fundamental rights as of present, they are:
○ Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
○ Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
■ According to Article 19(1)(a): All citizens shall have the right to
freedom of speech and expression.
■ 'Right to life and personal liberty' as a fundamental right is provided
under Article 21 of the constitution of India.
○ Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
○ Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
○ Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
○ Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Additional Information
● Fundamental Rights:
○ Articles 12-35 of Part - III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental
Rights.
○ Fundamental rights are enforceable in the court of law.
30. A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to

a) an official to perform public duty
b) the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet
c) the company to raise wages
d) the Government to pay the salaries to employees
Ans: a
Solution: The literal meaning of the word mandamus is command. This prerogative remedy of
mandamus is used for enforcing the performance of public duties by public authorities of all
kinds.
Writ of mandamus demands some activity on part of the person or body to whom it is addressed.
The demand is to perform a public or quasi-public duty which the body or person has refused to
perform and the performance of which cannot be enforced by any other legal remedy.
Therefore, it is that no mandamus will lie except when the applicant has a legal right to seek the
performance of a legal duty and the authority against which the writ is sought is bound to perform
that duty.
Instances where mandamus will be issued
The writ of mandamus can be issued for the following:
● Against the State to refund the tax it collected illegally.
● Against a University if they change the regulations after the candidate has appeared
in the exam, to his disadvantage.
● Where the Government neither records nor communicates to the parties the reasons
for not making a reference under Section 12(5) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947,
the aggrieved party can seek the legal recourse of mandamus.
● When an Income Tax Tribunal passes an order and the Income Tax Officer refuses
to carry out the instructions passed by the Tribunal.
● Where the land acquisition officer erroneously refuses to pay the interest on the
compensation amount.
● Where an order of detention is passed against the petitioner but he is not under
detention.
31. What was/were the essential changes brought by the 73rd constitutional amendment Act in the
Panchayati Raj system in India?
1.Panchayats were created by Act as they did not exist in Independent India.
2. Panchayati Raj System received constitutional status.
3. It fixed the size of Panchayats and granted executive power to the panchayats.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: b
Solution: Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj in 1959. Other states also
followed suit.
Though most of the states created panchayati raj institutions by mid 1960s, there were differences
from one state to another with regard to the number of tiers, relative position of samiti and parishad,
their tenure, composition, functions, finances and so on.
The 73rd Act harmonized all the systems into a common structure and granted PRIs constitutional
status
Panchayat is elected from area wards, and its size is not fixed by the constitution.

1. The Constitution of India places the appointment of district judges in the domain of the states.
2. High Courts exercise jurisdiction over the subordinate judiciary in the state.
3. District judges are selected through a process conducted by the State Public Service
Commissions and the concerned High Court.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: d
Solution: How are district judges currently recruited?

Articles 233 and 234 of the Constitution of India deal with the appointment of district judges, and
place it in the domain of the states.
The selection process is conducted by the State Public Service Commissions and the concerned
High Court, since High Courts exercise jurisdiction over the subordinate judiciary in
the state. Panels of High Court judges interview candidates after the exam and select them for
appointment.
All judges of the lower judiciary up to the level of district judge are selected through the Provincial
Civil Services (Judicial) exam. PCS(J) is commonly referred to as the judicial services exam.
33. Consider the following statements regarding State Legislative Council.

1. The constitution leaves the choice of having a Legislative Council to the Parliament.
2. A Council cannot have more than a third of the number of MLAs in the state, and not less than 40
members.
3. The states having Legislative Council are Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra,
Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: D
Solution:
The Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist)
by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting, if the legislative
assembly of the concerned state, by a special majority, passes a resolution to that effect.
o Special majority implies
· A majority of the total membership of the assembly and
· A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.
Composition
Under Article 171 of the Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state shall not have more than one-third of
the total strength of the State Assembly, and not less than 40 members.
Manner of Election
o One-third of the MLCs are elected by the state’s MLAs,
o Another 1/3rd by a special electorate comprising sitting members of local governments such as municipalities
and district boards,
o 1/12th by an electorate of teachers and another 1/12th by registered graduates.
o The remaining members are appointed by the Governor for distinguished services in various fields namely,
literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
34. The Constitution and Representation of People Act (1951) lays down which of the following
qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature:
1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He must be not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative council and legislative
assembly.
3. He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the
Election Commission.
4. A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly
constituency in the concerned state.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: c
Solution: The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member
of the state legislature.
(a) He must be a citizen of India.
(b) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the
Election Commission for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears
(i) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(ii) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than
25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
(d) He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the
Representation of People Act (1951):
(a) A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency
in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the
concerned state.
(b) A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly
constituency in the concerned state.
(c) He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat
reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a
seat not reserved for them.
35. Match these schedules of the Constitution to what they contain.

1. First Schedule – List of names of All States and Union Territories
2. Second Schedule – Powers of President, Governor and Judges
3. Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
4. Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Ans:c
Solution: First Schedule — Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction; Names of the Union
Territories and their extent.
Second Schedule — Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of
President, Governor, Judges etc.
Third Schedule — Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for MPs, Ministers, Constitutional functionaries
etc.
Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Fifth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and
scheduled tribes.
Sixth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union
List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).
Eighth Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution.
Ninth schedule – Acts & regulation of states dealing with the land reforms & abolition of zamindari
system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st
Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation
of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this
schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
Tenth schedule – Anti-defection provisions
Eleventh schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayat
Twelfth schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities
36.The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ was borrowed by the framers of the Indian
Constitution from the Constitution of
a) South Africa
b) the Republic of Germany
c) the Republic of Ireland
d) Canada
Ans: C
Solution:The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
The makers of the Constitution of India were influenced by the Irish nationalist movement,
particularly the Irish Home Rule Movement. Hence, the Directive Principles of the Indian constitution
have been greatly influenced by the Directive Principles of Social Policy.
37. Consider the following statements regarding Adjournment of the house.

1. An adjournment means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the
President.
2. It does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution: Adjournment:
An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or
weeks. In this case, the time of reassembly is specified.
An adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House.
The power of adjournment lies with the presiding officer of the House.
It does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House and the same can be
resumed when the House meets again.
Prorogation
Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President
under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the
House.
38. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the
a) Montague Chelmsford Act 1919
b) Nehru Report, 1928
c) Government of India Act of 1935
d) Objectives Resolution, 1946
Ans: c
Solution: Dr B R Ambedkar had said ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions,
which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the
British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.’
What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive.
39. Who is eligible to cast the deciding vote over a bill in a Joint Parliamentary session ?
a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Prime Minister
Ans: c
Solution:C Joint Session of Parliament is called when a Bill is passed by one House and rejected by
the other House and in case where the amendment proposed to a Bill in one House is rejected by
other House and also in case the other House sits on a Bill without taking any action for six months.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha is eligible to cast the deciding vote over a bill in a Joint Parliamentary
session
40. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of StatE Policy by the
42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
c) Right to work, education and public assistance
d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Ans: b
Solution: 42nd Amendment to the Constitution Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal
justice and free-legal aid, participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of
environment, forests and wild life.
41.The members of Estimates Commitee are

a) elected from Lok Sabha only
b) elected from Rajya Sabha only
c) elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: a
Solution: Among the Standing Committees, the three Financial Committees - Committees on
Estimates, Public Accounts and Public Undertakings - constitute a distinct group as they keep an
unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance. While members of the Rajya
Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, the members
of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
42. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measures’ and Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context
of the affairs of the:
a) Food and Agriculture Organization
b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
c) World Trade Organization
d) United Nations Environment Programme
Ans: c
Solution:
• Refer : https://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/agric_e/ag_intro05_other_e.htm
• Recently, India demanded World Trade Organization (WTO) find a permanent
solution to the issue of public stockholding (PSH) of food
• Background:
o India’s MSP policy for procurement of produce (for supporting farmers’
income as well as providing subsidized food for the poor) had fallen out of
WTO rules. Under WTO law, such price support-based procurement from
farmers is considered a trade-distorting subsidy.
o Currently, India has temporary relief due to a ‘peace clause’ that bars
countries from raising legal challenges against these subsidies.
o WTO’s peace clause (inserted in Bali Ministerial, 2013)protects India’s
food procurement programmes against action from WTO members in case the subsidy ceilings are
breached.

1. Russia borders both Black Sea and Caspian Sea.
2. Georgia borders only Caspian Sea.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Solution:
44. Consider the following statements:

1. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted on 5th December, 1985.
2. The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA.
3. The prime objective of NALSA is speedy disposal of cases and reducing the burden of
judiciary
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Solution:
• S1: National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) was formed on 5th
December 1995 under the authority of the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987.
• S2: The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second
seniormost judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
• S3: The prime objective of NALSA is speedy disposal of cases and reducing the
burden of judiciary
45. Consider the following statements about Lok Adalat:

1. It has statutory authority under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
2. There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
3. The jurisdiction of the Lok Adalats is upto Rs. Ten Lakhs.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Solution:
• S1: Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a
forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage
are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory
status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
• S2: There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a
matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled
subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the
complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
• S3: Nature of Cases to be Referred to Lok Adalat o Any case pending before any
court. o Any dispute which has not been brought before any court and is likely
to be filed before the court. o Provided that any matter relating to an offence not
compoundable under the law shall not be settled in Lok Adalat
46. The famous ‘Indra Sawhney case’ case is related to?

a) Reservation
b) Surrogacy
c) Child trafficking
d) Police reforms
Ans: a
Solution:Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) case:

• The court examined the scope and extent of Article 16(4).
• The Court has said that the creamy layer of OBCs should be excluded from the
list of beneficiaries of reservation, there should not be reservation in promotions;
and total reserved quota should not exceed 50%.
• The Court dwelled on the interrelationship between Articles 16(1) and16(4) and
declared that Article 16(4) is not an exception to article 16(1), rather an
illustration of classification implicit in article 16(1).
47. Consider the following statements about Nagar Van Yojana:

1. It was launched in 2017.
2. The finances for the scheme will be paid for by the CAMPA (Compensatory
Afforestation Fund (CAF) Act, 2016) funds
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution:
• Launched in 2020
• Van will be maintained by State Government
• Funding: CAMPA Fund (under Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act 2016)
• Minister of State for Environment, Forest & Climate Change
• Warje Urban Forest in Pune (Maharashtra) will be considered a role model for
the Scheme.
48. What is “Hellfire R9X”, sometimes seen in the news?

a) An Israeli radar system
b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
c) An American 'kinetic kill' missile system
d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Ans: (c)
Solution:
• The US military used its ‘secret weapon’ — the Hellfire R9X missile (‘Ninja
missile’)– to kill Al Qaeda chief Ayman al-Zawahiri on the balcony of a safe
house in Kabul.
• Better known in military circles as the AGM-114 R9X, the Hellfire R9X is a USorigin missile known
to cause minimum collateral damage while engaging
individual targets.
• It weighs about 45 kg and the missile can also be launched from helicopters,
aircraft and Humvees. The range of these missiles varies from 500 metres to
11 km.
• Hellfire means Heliborne, Laser, Fire and Forget Missile
• Al-Zawahiri, an Egyptian surgeon who had a $25 million bounty on his head,
had helped coordinate September 11, 2001, attacks that had killed nearly 3,000
people.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system
in India:
1. The MSP is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers.
2. It is based on a calculation of at least one-and-a-half times the cost of production
incurred by the farmers.
3. The MSP is fixed thrice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Solution:
• The MSP is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers,
and is based on a calculation of at least one-and-a-half times the cost of
production incurred by the farmers.
• The Union Budget for 2018-19 had announced that MSP would be kept at
levels of 1.5 the cost of production.
• The MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is a statutory body and submits
separate reports recommending prices for kharif and rabi seasons
50. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Solution:
• Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
• According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or
MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or
state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment
Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was
constitutionally valid.
51. Consider the following statements about Employees Pension Scheme (EPS):
1. It is a social security scheme that was launched in 2003.
2. Employees who are members of EPF automatically become members of EPS.
3. EPF scheme is mandatory for employees who draw a basic wage of Rs. 15,000 per
month.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution: Employees Pension Scheme (EPS):

• It is a social security scheme that was launched in 1995.
• The scheme, provided by EPFO, makes provisions for pensions for the employees
in the organized sector after the retirement at the age of 58 years.
• Employees who are members of EPF automatically become members of EPS.
• Both employer and employee contribute 12% of employee’s monthly salary (basic
wages plus dearness allowance) to the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) scheme.
• EPF scheme is mandatory for employees who draw a basic wage of Rs. 15,000
per month.
• Of the employer’s share of 12 %, 8.33 % is diverted towards the EPS.
• Central Govt. also contributes 1.16% of employees’ monthly salary.
52.The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of

a) centre/state relations
b) Legislative problems
c) Union territories problems
d) Tribal areas
Ans: a
Solution: (1) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. The
Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the relationship
and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes
within the framework of Constitution of India. The Commission was so named as it was headed by
Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The other two
members of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR Sen
53. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Sirpur Wetland: Tamil Nadu
2. Vellode Bird Sanctuary: Andhra Pradesh
3. Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary: Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
Solution:
• Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary (Karnataka): It is a bird sanctuary in the
Mandya District of the state of Karnataka in India. It is the largest bird
sanctuary in the state on the bank of the Kaveri River. It is designated as an
Important Bird area (IBA)
Sirpur Wetland (Madhya Pradesh): Situated on the Sirpur Lake (created by the
Holkars of Indore State in the early 20th century), the wetland is situated in
Indore City.
• Vellode Bird Sanctuary (TN): It lies near the temple town of Erode in the State
of Tamil Nadu and is considered a paradise for bird lovers
54. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in
riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution:
• The removal of sand from the river bed increases the velocity of the flowing
water, with the distorted flow-regime eventually eroding the river banks.
• Sand acts like a sponge, which helps in recharging the water table; its
progressive depletion in the river is accompanied by declining water tables in the
nearby areas.
• Depletion of sand in the stream bed causes the deepening of rivers and
estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to
saline-water intrusion.
• Sand acts as an efficient filter for various pollutants and thus maintains the
quality of water in rivers and other aquatic ecosystems.
55. India is a member of which of the following?

1. Asia-Pacific economic corporation.
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations.
3. East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution:
• India is a member of East Asia Summit. India is a member of ASEAN+6, not
ASEAN.
• India is also not a member of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC).
56. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission.

1. The chief objective of the Mission is to provide piped water supply to all households
by 2024.
2. It aims to create local infrastructure for rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge
and management of household waste water for reuse in agriculture.
3. Jal Jeevan Mission will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes
to achieve its objectives of sustainable water supply management.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution:
• S1: The chief objective of the Mission is to provide piped water supply (Har Ghar
Jal) to all rural households by 2024.
• Key features:
o It aims to create local infrastructure for rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge and
management of household waste water for reuse in agriculture.
o The Jal Jeevan Mission is set to be based on various water conservation efforts like point
recharge, desilting of minor irrigation tanks, use of greywater for agriculture and source
sustainability.
o The Jal Jeevan Mission will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes to
achieve its objectives of sustainable water supply management across the country.
57. Consider the following pairs:

Places in news Country
1. City of Bam: Azerbaijan
2. Xinjiang :China
3. City of Budapest :Austria
Which of the given above pairs is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
Solution:
• From Australia’s Great Barrier Reef to the city of Budapest [ Hungary’s capital, is bisected by the
River Danube] and the watery wonderland that is Venice, several beauty spots risk losing their
treasured UN World Heritage status because of environmental damage, excess development or
overtourism.
• Bam, city in eastern Kermān province, Iran.
• Read:
58. Katchal Island is situated in

a) Nicobar Islands
b) Andaman Islands
c) Lakshadweep
d) Gulf of Kutch
Ans: (a)
Solution:
• The United States National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) recently highlighted the
loss of mangrove cover on Katchal island, a part of India’s Nicobar archipelago.
• More than 90% of mangrove cover on the island was lost due to the Indian Ocean Tsunami.
59. ‘Global State of Democracy’ report is published by which of the following?

a) V-Dem
b) Freedom House
c) International IDEA
d) Reporter’s Without Borders
Ans: (c)
Solution:
India’s status on Democracy:
• Freedom House 2021 report put India as only “partly free”
• V-Dem report called India an “electoral autocracy”.
• Global State of Democracy 2021 report:
o It is released by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International-
IDEA).
o India was amongst the 10 most backsliding democracies—a more severe and deliberate kind of
democratic erosion
60. In India, the registration of political parties is governed by which of following

provisions?
a) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
b) Section 70 in The Information Technology Act, 2000
c) Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961
d) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
Ans: (d)
Solution: Registration of political parties:

• Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of
the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
• A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Election Commission has to submit an
application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per
guidelines prescribed by the Election Commission of India in exercise of the powers conferred by
Article 324 of the Commission of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act,
1951
61. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the
Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Solution:• Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality.

• Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational
Rights
62. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Ans: (d)
Solution:
• The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two
reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the
states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede
from the federation.
• The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an
integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of
administration.
63. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news
in the context of negotiations held between India and
a) European Union
b) Gulf Cooperation Council
c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Ans: (a)
Solution:• In June 2007, India and the EU began negotiations on a broad-based Bilateral
Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) in Brussels, Belgium.
• These negotiations are pursuant to the commitment made by political leaders
at the 7th India-EU Summit held in Helsinki on 13th October 2006 to move
towards negotiations for a broad-based trade and investment agreement on the
basis of the report of India-EU High Level Technical Group.
64. Where the High Courts in India

first set up ?
a) Delhi and Calcutta
b) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
c) Bombay, Delhi, Calcutta
d) Madras and Bombay
Ans: B
Solution:• The Charter of High Court of Calcutta was issued on 14th May, 1862 and Madras and
Bombay was issued on June 26, 1862.
So, the Calcutta High Court has the distinction of being the first High Court and one of the three
Chartered High Courts to be set up in India, along with the High Courts of Bombay, Madras.
High Court at Calcutta which was formerly known as High Court of Judicature at Fort William was
established on July 1, 1862. Sir Barnes Peacock was its first Chief Justice.
On 2nd February, 1863, Justice Sumboo Nath Pandit was the first Indian to assume office as a
Judge of the Calcutta High Court.
The Bombay High Court was inaugurated on 14th August ,1862.
Indian High Court Act 1861 also gave power to set up other High Courts like the High Courts of the
Presidency Towns with similar powers.
Under this power, a High Court was established in 1866 at High Court of Judicature for the North-
Western Provinces at Agra on 17 March 1866 by the Indian High Courts Act of 1861 replacing the
Sadr Diwani Adalat.
Sir Walter Morgan, Barrister-at-Law was appointed the first Chief Justice of the High Court of North-
Western Provinces. However it was shifted to Allahabad in 1869 and the name was correspondingly
changed to the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad from 11 March 1919.
65. The term “Quantum key distribution” is used in the context of:
a) Digital security infrastructure
b) Secure communication method
c) Internet of things
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Solution:Quantum key distribution (QKD):

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully
demonstrated communication between its two labs using Quantum Key Distribution technology.
• The Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) and The Research Centre Imarat
(RCI) were the two labs that participated in this demonstration.
• Quantum key distribution (QKD) is a secure communication method which implements a
cryptographic protocol involving components of quantum It enables two parties to produce a shared
random secret key known only to them, which can then be used to encrypt and decrypt messages
66. Consider the following statements regarding G20 Countries.

1. G20 is an international forum of the governments and central bank governors from
20 major economies.
2. G20 was formed as a result of 2008 Global Financial Crisis.
3. It works to address issues related to climate change mitigation, and sustainable
development.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution:Formed in 1999, the G20 is an international forum of the governments and

central bank governors from 20 major economies.
• It works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial
stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.
67. Consider the following statements about PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana :

1. It is a central sector scheme.
2. It was introduced by Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Solution:
• PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is a central sector scheme introduced by Ministry of
Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
68. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into
environment?
a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Ans: (a)
Solution:
• Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter in their largest
dimension. They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical
plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene. They are used in exfoliating personal care products,
toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science research.
• Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for
aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water
69. The word ‘Megalodon’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
b) an early shark species
c) a cave system found in North-East India.
d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Ans: (b)
Solution:• Megalodons roamed the oceans an estimated 23 million to 2.6 million years
ago.
• Megalodon could “completely ingest, and in as few as five bites,” a prey as big as the killer whale.
According to the study, the Megalodon was bigger than a school bus at around 50 feet from nose to
tail. In comparison, the great white sharks of the present can grow to a maximum length of around
15 feet. Using their digital model, the researchers have suggested that the giant transoceanic
predator would have weighed around 70 tonnes — or as much as 10 elephants.
70. MARPOL Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Safety, security, and sustainability of airspace.
b) Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
c) Prevention of Pollution from Ships
d) Control the use of chemical weapons and their precursors.
Ans: (c)
Solution:• The International Maritime Organisation’s (IMO) adopted the International

Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) Annex VI
in 2008 that regulates the prevention of air pollution from ships and prohibits
deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances such as sulphur oxides and
nitrous oxides.
• Following the adoption, exhaust scrubbers have become one of the most
preferred ways of reducing sulphur exhaust as they ‘scrub’ pollutants out of
emissions.
71. Consider the following statements regarding Non-fungible tokens (NFTs).

1. Non-fungible tokens are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique
identification codes that distinguish them from each other.
2. NFTs can be used to represent individuals’ identities and property rights.
3. They are similar to tokens like cryptocurrencies.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution:
• Virtual Digital Assets also include Non-fungible tokens or NFTs, which are cryptographic assets on
a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
• NFTs can also be used to represent individuals’ identities, property rights,
and more.
• This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies, which are identical to each other and,
therefore, can be used as a medium for commercial transactions.
72. With reference to International Maritime Organization, which of the statements given
below is/are correct?
1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations.
2. Its work supports the UN sustainable development goals.
3. It is headquartered in London, United Kingdom.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Solution:
Context: India and Iran signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on recognition of Certificates
of Competency in Unlimited Voyages to help seafarers from both countries as per the provisions of
the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers
(1978).
• IMO – the International Maritime Organization – is the United Nations specialized agency with
responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric
pollution by ships. IMO's work supports the UN sustainable development goals.
• Headquartered in London, United Kingdom, IMO currently has 175 Member States and three
Associate Members.
73. Recently, which one of the following Indian Dance nominated in UNESCO Heritage
List?
a) Lambadi
b) Dhamal
c) Bagurumba
d) Garba
Ans: (d)
Solution:
• Garba is a form of dance, as well as a religious and social event that originated in Gujarat. If
approved for the list, it will become the first intangible cultural heritage of Gujarat to be listed by
UNESCO.
74. Consider the following countries:
1. Israel
2. Libya
3. Sudan
4. Jordan
5. Ethiopia
Which of the above have borders with Egypt?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Solution:
• Countries with international borders to Egypt are the occupied Palestinian territory of the Gaza
Strip, Israel, Libya, and Sudan. Egypt shares maritime borders with Cyprus, Greece, Jordan, Saudi
Arabia, and Turkey.
75. Recently, which one of the following nations has launched the world’s first fleet of
hydrogen-powered passenger trains?
a) USA
b) Israel
c) Germany
d) Russia
Ans: (c)
Solution:
• Germany has launched the world’s first fleet of hydrogen-powered passenger trains Coradia iLint
• Coradia iLint trains have a range of up to 1,000 kilometers and a maximum speed of 140 kmph (87
mph).
• By using hydrogen produced with renewable energy the trains will save 1.6 million liters (more than
422,000 gallons) of diesel fuel a year. Hydrogen is currently produced as a byproduct of chemical
processes, but German specialty gas company Linde plans to manufacture it locally using only
renewable energy within three years.
76. World Water Week is the leading annual event on global water issues, organized by
a) UN-Water
b) UN Environment Programme
c) World Bank Group
d) Stockholm International Water Institute
Ans: (d)
Solution:
• What is World Water Week?
• World Water Week is the leading annual event on global water issues, organized
by ‘Stockholm International Water Institute’ (SIWI) since 1991.
• The theme for World Water Week 2022 is “Seeing the Unseen: The Value of
Water.
77. Global Gender Gap Report is released by which of the following?

a) UNESCO
b) UNDP
c) WEF
d) OECD
Ans: (c)
Solution:
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World
Economic Forum. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure
gender equality
78. Recently, the Lisbon Declaration was in the news. It aims at?
a) Ocean conservation
b) Preserving the Wetlands
c) Persistent Organic Pollutants
d) Trade in Endangered Species
Ansa: a
Solution: In News - Recently, all 198 members of the United Nations unanimously adopted the
Lisbon Declaration on ocean conservation.]
● Aim: is to follow science-based and innovative actions on an urgent basis. It sends a strong
signal to urgently improve the health, sustainable use and resilience of the ocean.
● Need: It was recognised that developing countries, particularly small island developing states
and least developed countries, need assistance with capacity building.
● Participants at the conference also agreed to work on preventing, reducing and controlling
marine pollution. It includes:
○ Nutrient pollution
○ Untreated wastewater
○ Solid waste discharges
○ Hazardous substances
○ Emissions from the maritime sector, including shipping, shipwrecks
○ Anthropogenic underwater noise
79. Which of the following best describes “Agnikul” and “Skyroot”, which were recently in news?
a) ISRO’s in-orbit satellite servicing stations
b) Start-ups developing launch vehicles for small payloads
c) The controlled anti-satellite weapons
d) ISRO’s initiative to monitor space debris
Ans: B
Solution: Agnikul:
● A Chennai start-up, Agnikul Cosmos, is on its way to build India’s first private small satellite
rocket and will seek help from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for conducting
tests.
● The rocket is named ‘Agnibaan’ and according to their website it will be a two-stage
LOX/Kerosene vehicle with a third ‘baby stage’.
Skyroot:
● The company sky root plans to build technologies for ‘responsive, reliable and economic access to
space’.
● It hopes to make spaceflight as regular, reliable and affordable as air flight.
● It is founded by former engineers of the rocket design centre of ISRO.
● The company’s rocket is ‘Vikram’. It is named after Dr Vikram Sarabhai, the father of the
Indian Space Program.
● It is a series of launch vehicles especially crafted for the small satellite market
80. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘Soul’ of the constitution?
a) Fundamental rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) The Preamble
d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (d)
Solution:(d) Article 32 of the Indian constitution is called as the pillar of constitution. About this part of
the constitution Dr. Ambedaker has said that it was the soul of Indian Constitution.
81. Which of the following statements in regard to the fundamental rights, mentioned in the
Constitution of India are correct?
1. They are the part of the basic structure of the constitution.
2. They are permanent in nature and can’t be abolished.
3. There can be reasonable restrictions on them.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Solution:
(c) The fundamental rights mentioned in the constitution of India are not permanent in nature and
they can be abolished by the parliament as the Right to property was abolished. The Forty-Fourth
Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. A new provision,
Article 300-A, was added to the constitution which provided that “no person shall be deprived of his
property save by authority of law”. Thus if a legislature makes a law depriving a person of his
property, there would be no obligation on the part of the State to pay anything as compensation. The
aggrieved person shall have no right to move to the court under Article 32
82. Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in Part III of the Consitution of
India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?
1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Abolition of titles
3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular
religion
4. Protection of interests of minorities
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
Solution:
(d) Abolition of Untouchability –Article 17
Abolition of titles- Article 18
Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular
religion -Article 27
Protection of interests of minorities.— Article 29
83. Consider the following statements regarding appointment of judges:

1. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the president.
2. The judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Solution:The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the president. The chief justice is
appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts
as he deems necessary.
The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. The chief justice is appointed by the
President after consultation with the chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned.
For four members.
b) The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice or a Judge of a High Court.
c) The chairperson and members are appointed by the Governor.
d) The chairperson appointment of other judges, the chief justice of the concerned high court is also
consulted.
In case of a common high court for two or more states, the governors of all the states concerned are
consulted by the president.
84.Who was the first woman Chief

Justice of a High Court of a state
in India ?
a) Sunanda Bhandare
b) Fathima Beevi
c) Leila Seth
d) Anna Chandy
Ans: c
Solution C
Justice Leila Seth became the first Indian woman Chief Justice of a state High Court. She was also
the first woman judge of the Delhi High Court.Leila Seth was born in October 1930 in Lucknow and
was the first woman to top the London Bar exam and joined the Bar in 1959.
In the same year she also graduated as an IAS officer. Upon topping the Bar in England, Seth was
referred to as “Mother-in-Law” by a London newspaper, which carried a photograph of a young and
attractive Leila Seth with her infant son, born only a few months before the exams. At the same time,
other newspapers expressed their grief about how out of 580 students who took the Bar Exam, a
married woman topped it.
85. Which of the following is/are come/s under original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. The dispute between the Centre and one or more states.
2. The dispute between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states
on the other side.
3. The dispute between two or more states.
Choose the correct answer from below given codes:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Solution:As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the
Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
Between the Centre and one or more states; or
Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other
side; or
Between two or more states.
In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive
means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such
disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal
86. The ‘Bhagoria festival’ seen in the news recently, is associated with which of the following
states?
a) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
b) Rajasthan and Gujarat
c) Jharkhand and Bihar
d) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
Ans: a
Solution:Option A is correct. The Bhagoria festival, also known as the Bhagoria Haat
festival, is celebrated by the tribal people (Bhil, Bhilala, Pateliya, etc.) of the Indian states
of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. It has an agricultural significance attached to it as it
coincides with the end of harvesting of crops. People celebrate it to mark the completion
of harvesting. Also, this festival provides an opportunity for thousands of tribal men and
women to choose a life partner of their own choice.
87. The President of India is elected by

a) members of both houses of Parliament
b) members of both houses of Parliament and of State legislatures
c) members of both houses of Parliament and of State legislative assemblies
d) elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State legislative
assemblies
Ans: d
Solution(4) The President is indirectly elected by the people through elected members of the
Parliament of India (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) as well as of the state legislatures (Vidhan
Sabhas), and serves for a term of five years.
88. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India is
a) Estimates Committee
b) Select Committee
c) Public Accounts Committee
d) None of these
Ans: c
Solution:(3) The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of selected members of

Parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the auditing of the expenditure of the
Government of India. Its chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. CAG assists the committee during the course of
investigation. None of the 22 members shall be a minister in the government
89. With respect to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the
following statements:
1. It aimed to oversee the financial regularities mainly in the banking sector.
2. It is an executive body constituted under the Executive Order by the Ministry of Finance.
3. The Finance Secretary is the Chairman of the FSDC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Solution: Option B is correct: The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was
constituted in December 2010. The FSDC was set up to strengthen and institutionalise the
mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and
promoting financial sector development. An apex-level FSDC is not a statutory body.
The membership of the FSDC is- The Finance Minister is the Chairman of the FSDC.
Members of FSDC include Heads of the Financial Sector Regulators listed below:
● Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
● Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
● Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
● Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
● Other members are Finance Secretary, Chief Economics Advisor and Secretary of the
Department of Financial Services.
90.Who was the creator of the imaginary character named “Kripabor Borua”
a. Lakshminath Bezbarua
b. Devakanta Barua’
c. Hemchandra Goswami
d. Chandrakumar Agarwala
Ans: a
Solution A
Lakshminath Bezbarua was an Indian poet, novelist and playwright of modern Assamese literature.
He was one of the literary stalwarts of the Jonaki Era, the age of romanticism in Assamese literature
when through his essays, plays, fiction, poetry and satires, he gave a new impetus to the then
stagnating Assamese literary caravan. He responded to the prevailing social environment through
his satirical works to bring and sustain positive changes to the former. His literature reflected the
deeper urges of the people of Assam.
91.In which year, Lakshminath Bezbarua presided over the Assam Sahitya Sabha
a. 1920 Tezpur
b. 1923 Jorhat
c. 1924 Guwahati
d. 1925 Nagaon
Ans: c
Solution: Bezbaroa was honoured by a unique title on 29 December 1931 as 'Roxoraj' by Asam
Sahitya Sabha at its Sibsagar session. In the felicitation letter by Asam Sahitya Sabha, the word
'Sahityarathi' was used for the first time for Bezbaroa. Roxoraj meaning 'The King of Humour' in
Assamese literature for his ever-popular satirical writings under the pen-name "Kripaabor
Borbaruah", a pseudo-personality that he created and portrayed as the lead character in such works.
He is also known in Assamese literary society as the Sahityarathi which means "Charioteer of
Literature" for his expertise in all branches of literature. .
He was the founding president of the Asom Chattra Sanmilan (All-Assam Students' Conference) at
Lataxil, Guwahati in 1916.
He presided over the 7th annual session of Assam Sahitya Sabha held at Guwahati in 1924
92.The Namdang Stone bridge was constructed during the reign of

a. Lakshmi singha
b. Siva Singha
c. Gadadhar Singha
d. Rudrasingha
Ans: d
Solution: King Pratap Singha built a town on its bank and much later Rudra Singha constructed a
masonry bridge over it. According to Peter Wade, the Namdang bridge was regarded as the
western gate of the military capital of Rangpur, and was capable of being rendered a post of great
strength, as the Moamoria rebels experienced. Many battles were fought in the vicinity during the
reign of Gaurinath Singha and the Moamaria rebels. In 1825 a decisive battle took place between
the British and Burmese in the bank of the Namdang river.
93.The Moamaria rebellion started during the reign of

a. Kamaleswar Singha
b. Siva Singha
c. Lakshmi singha
d. Pratap singha
Ans: c
Solution: On September 15, 1769, Ragh Neog, a leading disciple of the sattra, was flogged by Ahom
officials for not supplying the required number of elephants. By November, the Mataks led by Ragh
Neog, Naharkhora Saikia and his two wives Radha and Rukmini, promised the throne to three Ahom
princes (Mohanmala, a brother, and two others, nephews of Lakshmi Singha the king) and with their
help liberated the territory north of the Burhidihing river. On November 21, 1769 the rebels occupied
the Ahom capital and placed Ramananda, son of Naharkhora, on the throne. The Ahom king,
Lakshmi Singha, was captured and kept a prisoner. All high officers were executed and three
common Mataks became the three great Gohains. Ragh Neog became the Borbarua, a kanri paik
became the Borphukan and two common Ahoms became the Gohains at Sadiya and Marangi.
94.The first Assamese romantic poem “Bon Konwari” was written by

a. Dibeswar Neog
b. Chandra Kumar Agarwala
c. Lakshminath Bezbarua
d. Hemchandra Goswami
Ans: b
Solution: Chandra Kumar Agarwala was an eminent writer, poet, journalist from Assam. He is a
pioneer people of Jonaki Era, the age of romanticism of Assamese literature. Agarwala was titled as
Pratimar Khonikor in Assamese literature. Agarwala was the first editor and financer of the Jonaki
magazine and a founder member of Oxomiya Bhaxa Unnati Xadhini Xobha, a literary organization of
Assam with his intimate friends Lakshminath Bezbarua and Hemchandra Goswami. Agarwala, along
with his friend Lakshminath and Hemchandra, are known as "Trimurti of Assamese literature" for
their remarkable contribution to the very beginning of modern Assamese literature. Chandra Kumar
Agarwala was the brother of writer and poet Ananda Chandra Agarwala and uncle of Jyoti Prasad
Agarwala, a noted poet, playwright, composer, lyricist, writer and first Assamese Filmmaker.
95.Who wrote the book “Bhakti Ratnavali”

a. Sankardeva
b. Madhav Kandali
c. Madhabdeva
d. Hem Saraswati
Ans: c
Solution C
Bhakti Ratnāvali is an outstanding work, rendered by Madhavadeva from the original work by
Visnupuri in Sanskrit (consisting of 1208 slokas). It is divided into 13 Viracanas or chapters:
96.BakulKayastha was in the court of
a. Durlabhnarayan
b. Naranarayan
c. Satrudaman
d. Borahi king Mahamanikya
Ans: b
Solution: Following Naranarayan request, Bakul Kayastha wrote Lilavati, a landmark on

mathematics. During Nara Narayan's reign, Purushottam Vidyavagish wrote the Prayogaratnamala,
a treatise on Sanskrit grammar.
97.The first rebellion against the British rule in Assam in 1828 was led by
a. Piyali Phukan
b. Maniram Dewan
c. Gomdhar Konwar
d. Piyali Barua
Ans: c
Solution: In 1828, Gomdhar Konwar (Assamese: গোমধৰ কোঁৱৰ), a prince of the Ahom royal
family, his colleague Dhanjay Borgohain and their followers rose in revolt against the British
occupation of Assam.
By end of 1828 the process extension of British dominion into Assam was completed. With the
assumption of the political power by the officers of the East India Company, the ruling Ahom
monarchy lost not only their political authority but social privileges too
98.The state anthem “O Mur Apunar Desh” was first published in the magazine named
a. Bahi
b. Jonaki
c. Surabhi
d. Jonbiri
Ans: a
Solution: Mur Apunar Dekh (Assamese pronunciation: is the state and traditional song of Assam,
India. It was written by Lakshminath Bezbarua and the tune was made by Kamala Prasad Agarwala.
It was first published in 1909 in an Assamese magazine named Bahi ("flute"). It was officially
adopted as the Assam's state song in 1927 at asom chatrô sônmilôn ("Assam Student Conference")
held in Tezpur
99.The first conference of Assam Sahitya Sabha was held at

a. Kamrupa
b. Sivasagar
c. Barpeta
d. Dhubri
Ans:b
Solution: The conference of the Asam Sahitya Sabha is held biennially. First conference of Asam
Sahitya Sabha was held at Sivasagar, Assam
100.Who was the first martyr of 1942 quit Indian revolt in Assam
a. Kanaklata Barua
b. Kamala miri
c. Kushal Konwar
d. Maniram Dewan
Ans: a
Solution: Kanaklata Barua also called Birbala and Shaheed (martyr), was an Indian independence
activist and AISF leader who was shot dead by the British police while leading a procession bearing
the National Flag during the Quit India Movement of 1942.Barua was born in the Borangabari village
of the undivided Darrang district of Assam as the daughter of Krishna Kanta and Karneshwari Barua.
Her grandfather Ghana Kanta Barua was a famous hunter in Darrang.

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1. Consider the following statements.

2. Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion.

Solution:Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of

4.The Speaker of the Lok-Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to

6. Consider the following statements.

7. The committee on subordinate legislation deals with

Solution:(1) The Committee on Subor-dinate Legislation of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members

9. Consider the following statements

10. A bill is not deemed to be a money bill if it provides for:

The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

12. Consider the following statements regarding Public Account of India.

13. Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission of India.

Solution: FC is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.

14. Consider the following statements.

15. Consider the following statements regarding Objectives Resolution.

Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru

He is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha.

19. The President can advance money to meet unforeseen expenses

20. Who has the power to prorogue the Lok Sabha ?

21. Consider the following statements regarding Governor’s legislative powers.

22. ‘Cabinet system’ and ‘Collective responsibility’ are the contributions of

24. In which year the constituent assembly of India started functioning?

26. Consider the following statements about Motion of Thanks.

27. The NOTA voting option is applicable in

30. A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to

32. Consider the following statements.

Solution: How are district judges currently recruited?

33. Consider the following statements regarding State Legislative Council.

35. Match these schedules of the Constitution to what they contain.

37. Consider the following statements regarding Adjournment of the house.

41.The members of Estimates Commitee are

43. Consider the following statements.

44. Consider the following statements:

45. Consider the following statements about Lok Adalat:

46. The famous ‘Indra Sawhney case’ case is related to?

Solution:Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) case:

47. Consider the following statements about Nagar Van Yojana:

48. What is “Hellfire R9X”, sometimes seen in the news?

50. Consider the following statements:

Solution: Employees Pension Scheme (EPS):

52.The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of

53. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

55. India is a member of which of the following?

56. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission.

57. Consider the following pairs:

58. Katchal Island is situated in

59. ‘Global State of Democracy’ report is published by which of the following?

60. In India, the registration of political parties is governed by which of following

Solution: Registration of political parties:

Solution:• Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality.

62. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

64. Where the High Courts in India

Solution:Quantum key distribution (QKD):

66. Consider the following statements regarding G20 Countries.

Solution:Formed in 1999, the G20 is an international forum of the governments and

67. Consider the following statements about PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana :

69. The word ‘Megalodon’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

70. MARPOL Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to

Solution:• The International Maritime Organisation’s (IMO) adopted the International

71. Consider the following statements regarding Non-fungible tokens (NFTs).

77. Global Gender Gap Report is released by which of the following?

83. Consider the following statements regarding appointment of judges:

84.Who was the first woman Chief