SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

TEST 16 – POLITY - FULL TEST - ANSWER KEY

1. Ans (c)

2. Ans (b)
Explanation:
 Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a
situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory
is threatened. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in
declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any
ground. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978
implying that the satisfaction of the president
 is not beyond judicial review.
 A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament
within two months from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency
is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the
proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution,
provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
 Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely
till it is revoked. This implies two things:
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
2. Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
 A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of
Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and
voting.
 A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at anytime by a
subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.

3. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Parliamentary Legislation in the State Field:
The scheme of distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states is to be
maintained in normal times. But, in abnormal times, the scheme of distribution is either modified or
suspended. In other words, the Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter
enumerated in the State List under the following five extraordinary circumstances:
When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution If the Rajya Sabha declares
That it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State
List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be
supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one
year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time.
The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in
force.
This provision does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. But,
in case of inconsistency between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail.
During a National Emergency
The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to matters in the State List, while a
proclamation of national emergency is in operation. The laws become inoperative on the expiration of
six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
Here also, the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter is not restricted. But, in
case of repugnancy between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail.
When States Make a Request When the legislatures of two or more
states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the
Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states
which have passed the resolutions. However, any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a
resolution to
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
that effect in its legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by
the legislatures of the concerned states. The effect of passing a resolution under the above provision
is that the Parliament becomes entitled to legislate with respect to a matter for which it has no power
to make a law. On the other hand, the state legislature ceases to have the power to make a law with
respect to that matter. The resolution operates as abdication or surrender of the power of the state
legislature with respect to that matter and it is placed entirely in the hands of Parliament which alone
can then legislate with respect to it. Some examples of laws passed under the above provision are
Prize Competition Act, 1955; Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972; Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974; Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976; and Transplantation of Human
Organs Act, 1994.
To Implement International Agreements
The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international
treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its
international obligations and commitments. Some examples of laws enacted under the above
provision are United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act, 1947; Geneva Convention Act, 1960;
Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 and legislations relating to environment and TRIPS.
During President’s Rule
When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws
with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state. A law made so by the Parliament
continues to be operative even after the president’s rule. This means that the period for which such a
law remains in force is not co-terminus with the duration of the President’s rule. But, such a law can
be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature.

4. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 A National ICT based portal is developed primarily to connect the opportunities with the
aspirations of youth. This portal facilitates registration of job seekers, job providers, skill
providers, career counsellors, etc.
 The portal provides job matching services in a highly transparent and user-friendly manner. These
facilities along with career counselling content will be delivered by the portal through multiple
channels like career centres, mobile devices, CSCs, etc.
 The project would be capable of meeting the varied demands and requirements of the youth for
information on education, employment and training and will be supported by a multi lingual call
centre.
The portal will also make available information on local service providers available to house hold
and other consumers for services like driving, plumbing, carpentry, etc.

5. Ans (c)
Explanation:
 UAN is Universal Account Number - The UAN is a 12-digit number allotted to employee who is
contributing to EPF will be generated for each of the PF member by EPFO.
 The UAN will act as an umbrella for the multiple Member Ids allotted to an individual by different
establishments and also remains same through the lifetime of an employee. It does not change
with the change in jobs. The idea is to link multiple Member Identification Numbers (Member Id)
allotted to a single member under single Universal Account Number. This will help the member to
view details of all the Member Identification Numbers (Member Id) linked to it.
The Major benefit of UAN or Universal Account Number will include easy tagging of multiple
Employee's Provident Fund Member Id under a single number, thus reducing the confusion.

6. Ans (a)
Explanation: Article 312 makes the following provisions in respect of all-India services:
The Parliament can create new all-India services (including an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya
Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so.
Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
voting. This power of recommendation is given to the Rajya Sabha to protect the interests of states in
the Indian federal system.

7. Ans (b)

8. Ans (c)
Explanation:
 The Preamble in its present form reads:
 “We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
 JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
 EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;
 FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
 IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
 The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, which has added three new words— Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the
Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.

9. Ans (a)
Explanation: The National Pension System (NPS) is a voluntary defined contribution pension
system administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority (PFRDA), created by an Act of the Parliament of India. The NPS started with the
decision of the Government of India to stop defined benefit pensions for all its employees
who joined after 1 January 2004. While the scheme was initially designed for government
employees only, it was opened up for all citizens of India in 2009. NPS is an attempt by the
government to create a pensioned society in India.

10. Ans (b)

Explanation:
WHAT IS PMKVY?
 Approved for another four years (2016-2020) to benefit 10 million youth Allocated Budget
12,000 Crores Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The objective of this Skill
Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-
relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with
prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of
Prior Learning (RPL).

11. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Madhubani art or Mithila art) is practiced in the Mithila region of India and Nepal.
Painting is done with fingers, twigs, brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks, using natural dyes
and pigments, and is characterised by eye-catching geometrical patterns. There is ritual
content for particular occasions, such as birth or marriage, and festivals, such as Holi,
Surya Shasti, Kali Puja, Upanayana, Durga Puja.
 Madhubani painting/Mithila painting was traditionally created by the women of various
communities in Mithila region of India and Nepal. It is originated from Madhubani district
of Mithila region of Bihar, and it is popularly called Mithila painting or Madhubani
painting. Madhubani is also a major export centre of these paintings. This painting as a
form of wall art was practiced widely throughout the region; the more recent
development of painting on paper and canvas mainly originated among the villages
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
around Madhubani, and it is these latter developments led to the name Madhubani art
being used alongside the name "Mithila Painting."

12. Ans (a)

Explanation:
1953: Andhra Pradesh carved out of Madras
1960: Gujarat separated out of Bombay(15th State)
1963: Nagaland separated out of Assam(16th State)
1966: Haryana separated out of Punjab(17th State) HP separated as UT
1971: HP converted into state from UT(18th state)
1972: Manipur converted to state from UT(19th)
1972: Tripura converted to state from UT(20th)
1972: Meghalaya converted to state from sub state in Assam(21st)
1975: Sikkim from being a protectorate of India became a full state(22nd)
1987: Mizoram converted to state from UT(23rd)
1987: Arunanchal converted to state from UT(24th)
1987: Goa converted to state from UT(25th)
2000: Chhatisgarh (26th)
2000: Uttarakhand (27th)
2000: Jharkhand (28th)
2014: Telangana (29th)

13. Ans (a)

Explanation:
The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act
or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation:
1. By Renunciation
Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship.
Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. However, if such
a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the
Central Government. Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of
that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he
may resume Indian citizenship.
2. By Termination
When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or
compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically
terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged.
3. By Deprivation
It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if: (a) the citizen has
obtained the citizenship by fraud: (b) the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India: (c)
the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war; (d) the citizen has,
within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years;
and (e) the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

14. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The fundamental rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), find common origin in
the Sapru Report of 1945, which had divided the fundamental rights into two parts viz. Justifiable
and non-justifiable rights.
 While justifiable rights were incorporated in the Part III; non-justifiable rights were incorporated
as directive principles to the state without any guarantee to be enforced via court. Thus, the
directive principles are guidelines by the constitution to the state.
 Preamble is neither enforceable not justifiable in a court of law. This implies that courts cannot
pass orders against the government in India to implement the ideas in the Preamble.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a
spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties, set out in Part IV–A of the
Constitution, concern individuals and the nation. Like the Directive Principles, they are not
enforceable by the law.

15. Ans (d)

Explanation: Valmiki National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the West Champaran
district of Bihar state, India.

16. Ans (d)

Explanation: Vikramashila was one of the two most important centres of learning in India during
the Pala Empire, along with Nalanda. Vikramashila was established by King Dharmapala (783 to 820) in
response to a supposed decline in the quality of scholarship at Nalanda. Atisha, the
renowned pandita, is sometimes listed as a notable abbot. It was destroyed by the forces
of Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji around 1200.

17. Ans (c)

Explanation: Refer India map

18. Ans (b)

Explanation: Tribunals on Labour disputes are laid out in Concurrent list.

19. Ans (c)

Explanation:
By Art 259, Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust either
conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation to any
matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Though there is a rigid division of legislative powers, such rigidity cannot be practical in case of the
executive sphere because it would then cause conflicts more frequently. Towards this end, the
constitution provides inter-government delegation of executive powers via two methods as follows:
Delegation by agreement
With the consent of the state government, the President can entrust that state government any of the
executive function of the centre. Similarly, with the consent of the Central Government, governor of
the state can entrust any of the executive function of a state to centre. This mutual delegation of
administrative function is available to both centre and states; and can be either conditional or
unconditional.
Delegation by law
We note here that the constitution provides entrustment of executive function of centre to state
without even consent of that state but then this delegation comes from parliament {by law} and not
president. This implies that a law made by the Parliament on Union List subject can confer powers and
impose duties on a state, or authorize the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre
upon a state (irrespective of the consent of the state concerned). This power of delegation by law is
not available to state.

20. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The State Election Commissions constituted under the Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-
fourth) Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union Territory are vested with the powers of
conduct of elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla Parishads, District Panchayats,
Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats and other local bodies. They are independent of the Election
Commission of India.
 The 74th amendment act bars the interference by courts in the electoral matters of municipalities.
It declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the
allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court. It further lays down
that no election to any municipality is to be questioned except by an election petition presented
to such authority and in such manner as provided by the state legislature.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
21. Ans (b)
Explanation: The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archaeological site in central India that spans the
prehistoric paleolithic and Mesolithic periods, as well as the historic period. It exhibits the earliest
traces of human life on the Indian subcontinent and evidence of Stone Age starting at the site in
Acheulian times. It is located in the Raisen District in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh about 45
kilometres (28 mi) southeast of Bhopal.

22. Ans (b)

Explanation: On June 18, 2015 a group of Indians, mostly pilgrims on their way to Kailash Mansarovar,
crossed the India-China border at the Nathu La pass in Sikkim. The new route via Sikkim is in addition
to the older route via Lipulekh Pass—the only route earlier that was badly damaged in the
Uttarakhand floods in 2013. Both the routes are operational, though the new route via Nathu La is
shorter, safer and more comfortable.

23. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a global, open platform that facilitates the preparation
and structuring of complex infrastructure public private partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization
of private sector and institutional investor capital. The GIF platform coordinates and integrates
the efforts of Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs), private sector investors and financiers, and
governments interested in infrastructure investment in Emerging Markets and Developing
Economies (EMDEs).
 The World Bank (WB) has launched the GIF to specifically cater to the infrastructure needs of the
emerging economies and developing countries.

24. Ans (a)

Explanation: There is no security of tenure provided for both Governor and attorney general.

25. Ans (d)

Explanation: Third Schedule contains Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:
1. The Union ministers
2. The candidates for election to the Parliament
3. The members of Parliament
4. The judges of the Supreme Court
5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
6. The state ministers
7. The candidates for election to the state legislature
8. The members of the state legislature
9. The judges of the High Courts

26. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President
under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of
the House. Usually, within a few days after the House is adjourned sine die by the presiding
officer, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of the session. However, the
President can also prorogue the House while in session. However president cannot prorogue a
session using his discretionary powers
 Prorogation (of a session) does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the
House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation
and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
27. Ans (c)
Explanation:
 The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas launched country-wide Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat
scheme to distribute LPG connections among rural areas where conventional fuel is used for
domestic purposes.
 The scheme was launched by Union Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Dharmendra Pradhan at
MotaIshanpur village in Gandhi nagar district in Gujarat. It is backup scheme to existing Pradhan
Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.
 The LPG Panchayat scheme aims at spreading awareness among LPG users about how to properly
use clean fuel and its useful benefits. It will provide platform to trigger discussion through sharing
of personal experiences on benefits of use of clean fuel compared to traditional fuels like cow
dung, charcoal or wood.

28. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has extended the Anti-Narcotics Scheme for 3 more
years to combat illicit trafficking in drugs and psychotropic substances.
Anti-Narcotics Scheme
 The scheme was first launched in October 2004 for period of five years. It was later extended
twice in subsequent years. It aims to assist states and Union Territories financially which are
contributing in controlling inter-state and cross-border drug trafficking. The main strategy under
the scheme includes reduction of both supply and demand of drugs and psychotropic substances.
The supply reduction will include enforcement activities and demand reduction will involve
rehabilitation and de-addiction measures.
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) being the national nodal agency for drug administration will
process the requests from state governments and UTs for financial assistance for improving their
enforcement capabilities in dealing with the supply side of the drug menace.

29. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS), TERI's flagship event, has been
conceptualized as a single platform to accelerate action towards sustainable development and
especially climate change. The WSDS series seeks to bring together the finest minds and leading
thinkers of the world to focus attention on the challenge of sustainable development and has
emerged as a landmark event addressing issues pertinent to the future of humanity.
 The second edition of WSDS builds on the success and legacy of the Delhi Sustainable
Development Summit (DSDS) which was the leading forum for discussing sustainable development
issues. The DSDS held under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
with support from the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India was an epitome of Track 2
diplomacy.
 With an aim of expanding the scope and reach of the Summit to the global community, DSDS
transitioned to WSDS in 2016.
 The Energy and Resources Institute’s (TERI's) annual event, the Delhi Sustainable Development
Summit (DSDS), has been rebranded to World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS).
 The first edition of the WSDS is slated from 5–8 October 2016 in New Delhi, India under the broad
rubric of ‘Beyond 2015: People, Planet and Progress’.

30. Ans (d)

Explanation: In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience
in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the
proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the
Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the
privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.

31. Ans (a)

 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
32. Ans (b)
Explanation:
 The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267 (1) of the Constitution is in the nature
of an imprest (money maintained for a specific purpose) which is placed at the disposal of the
President to enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending
authorization by the Parliament. Approval of the legislature for such expenditure and for
withdrawal of an equivalent amount from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained to
ensure that the corpus of the Contingency Fund remains intact. The corpus for Union Government
at present is Rs 500 crore (Rs 5 billion) and is enhanced from time to time by the Union
Legislature. The Ministry of Finance operates this Fund on behalf of the President of India.
 Similarly, Contingency Fund of each State Government is established under Article 267(2) of the
Constitution – this is in the nature of an imprest placed at the disposal of the Governor to enable
him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the
State Legislature. Approval of the Legislature for such expenditure and for withdrawal of an
equivalent amount from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained, whereupon the
advances from the Contingency Fund are recouped to the Fund. The corpus varies across states
and the quantum is decided by the State legislatures.

33. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Union cabinet approved a proposal for ratification of the Minamata Convention, a global
treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of mercury.
 After joining the Convention, it will now be easier for India to get technological or financial
assistance to address issues related to mercury.
The approval entails ratification of the Minamata Convention on mercury along with flexibility for
continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compound up to 2025.

34. Ans (b)

Explanation: The Union Government has announced Rs.1.4 lakh-crore KisanUrja Suraksha evam
Utthaan Mahaabhiyan (KUSUM) scheme for promoting solar farming i.e. decentralized solar power
production of up to 28,250 MW to help farmers. The Union Budget 2018-19 has allocated Rs. 48,000
crore for the scheme for the ten-year period.

35. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 It is an international NGO. Omar Sultan Al-Ulama is the Managing Director of the World
Government Summit.
 The Indian Prime Minister addressed the World Government Summit in Dubai where he was the
chief guest. PM said that it is a matter of pride for not only him but 125 cr. Indians that he had
been called as the chief guest at the 6th edition of World Govt Summit.

36. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of
which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and
of the two Union Territories. The present strength of Rajya Sabha, however, is 245, out of which
233 are representatives of the States and Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and 12 are
nominated by the President. The members nominated by the President are persons having special
knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social
service.
 The Lok Sabha, as per the Constitution, consists of not more than five hundred and thirty
Members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States, not more than
twenty Members to represent the Union Territories [Article 81] and not more than two Members
of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President, if he/she is of the opinion that
the Anglo-Indian Community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha [Article 331]. The
limit on the maximum number of Members chosen directly from territorial constituencies in
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
States may be exceeded if such an increase is incidental to the reorganisation of States by an Act
of Parliament.

37. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Recently, Cabinet had approved policy guidelines to allow financially sound State government
entities to borrow directly from bilateral ODA (Official Development Assistance) partners for
implementation of vital infrastructure projects. However constitutional amendment effecting the
same has not yet been passed.
 According to Article 293, the executive power of a State extends to borrowing within the territory
of India upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State within such limits, if any, as may
from time to time be fixed by the Legislature of such State by law and to the giving of guarantees
within such limits, if any, as may be so fixed.

38. Ans (c)

39. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), established in the year 1971 is a major industrial unit of
Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. The complex is responsible for the supply of
nuclear fuel bundles and reactor core components for all the nuclear power reactors operating in
India. It is a unique facility where natural and enriched uranium fuel, zirconium alloy cladding and
reactor core components are manufactured under one roof starting from the raw materials.
 Dr. Dinesh Srivastava, distinguished nuclear scientist, took over as the chief executive of the
Nuclear Fuel Complex

40. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The World Energy Council is the principal impartial network of leaders and practitioners
promoting an affordable, stable and environmentally sensitive energy system for the greatest
benefit of all.
 Formed in 1923, the Council is the UN-accredited global energy body, representing the entire
energy spectrum, with more than 3000-member organizations located in over 90 countries and
drawn from governments, private and state corporations, academia, NGOs and energy-related
stakeholders.
 The World Energy Council informs global, regional and national energy strategies by hosting high-
level events, publishing authoritative studies, and working through its extensive member network
to facilitate the world’s energy policy dialogue.
 The idea for the foundation of the Council came from Daniel Nicol Dunlop in the 1920s. He
wanted to gather experts from all around the world to discuss current and future energy issues.
He organized in 1923 first national committees, which organized the first World Power
Conference (WPC) in 1924. 1700 experts from 40 countries met in London to discuss energy
issues. The meeting was a success and the participants decided on July 11, 1924 to establish a
permanent organization named World Power Conference. Dunlop was elected as its first Secretary
General. In 1968 the name was changed to World Energy Conference and in 1992 it became the
World Energy Council.
 The World Energy Council hosts the World Energy Congress, which is the world’s largest and most
influential energy event covering all aspects of the energy agenda. Staged every three years, the
Congress provides a platform for energy leaders and experts in all aspects of the sector to address
the challenges and opportunities facing suppliers and consumers of energy.
 The 7th India Energy Congress (IEC) 2018 was held in New Delhi. The theme for this edition of
conference was Energy 4.0: Energy Transition Towards 2030. It was organised by World Energy
Council India (WEC India) and inaugurated by Union Power and New and Renewable Energy
Minister.
IEC is the flagship event of WEC India and joint event of Ministries of Power, Coal, New &
Renewable Energy, Petroleum & Natural gas, External Affairs and Department of Atomic Energy.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
41. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 The CBI is headed by a Director. He is assisted by a special director or an additional director.
Additionally, it has a number of joint directors, deputy inspector generals, superintendents of
police and all other usual ranks of police personnel. In total, it has about 5000 staff members,
about 125 forensic scientists and about 250 law officers.
 The Director of CBI as Inspector-General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is
responsible for the administration of the organization. With the enactment of CVC Act, 2003, the
superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment vests with the Central Government save
investigations of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, in which, the
superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission. The Director of CBI has been
provided security of two-year tenure in office by the CVC Act, 2003.

42. Ans (b)

43. Ans (d)

Explanation: Election to both Houses of Parliament
 One cannot be member of both Houses of Parliament Article 101(1) of the Constitution (Appendix
XXIX)
 If one is elected to both Houses of Parliament but have not taken your seat in either House, you
should give, notice in writing signed by you and delivered to the Secretary to the Election
Commission, within ten days from the date or the later of the dates of such election, intimating in
which of the Houses you wish to serve. Your seat in the other House will then become vacant.
 If one fails to send such intimation within that time-limit, your seat in the Council of States will
become vacant automatically.
 Any such intimation given by you will be final and irrevocable [Section 68 of the Representation of
the People Act, 1951.-See Appendix XXX].
 For this purpose, the date of your election to either House of Parliament will be the date on which
you were declared elected by the Returning Officer [Section 67-A of the Representation of the
People Act, 1951 See Appendix-XXX].

44. Ans (b)

Explanation:
As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately
before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member
of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected for this. The
President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers
of the Speaker. He presides over the first sitting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. His main duty is to
administer oath to the new members. He also enables the House to elect the new Speaker. When the
new Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Speaker Pro Tem ceases to exist. Hence, this
office is a temporary office, existing for a few days.

45. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The ‘Pelican Bird Festival-2018’ was held for first in Atapaka Bird Sanctuary on at Kolleru Lake in
Andhra Pradesh. It was jointly organised by Andhra Pradesh Tourism Authority (APTA) and Krishna
district administration. It was the first-ever Pelican Bird Festival-2018 held at the Atapaka Bird
Sanctuary on Kolleru lake in Andhra Pradesh on February 4, 2018.
 During winter season, thousands of pelicans, painted storks and other birds migrate to Kolleru
Lake. During their stay they roost, breed and later fly away with their off springs. Recently,
Atapaka Bird Sanctuary was recognized as one of the largest pelicanry in the world.

46. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The Reserve Bank of India has scrapped numerous loan restructuring programmes prevalent
among banks to restructure defaulted loans and made resolution of defaults time bound with the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code becoming the main tool to deal with defaulters.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 The central bank has warned banks of monetary penalties and higher provisions if banks are found
to have violated or found `evergreening’ accounts to escape its stringent new norms on fixing
defaults.
 Almost all the schemes such as the Corporate Debt Restructuring, Sustainable Structuring of
Stressed Assets or S4A, Strategic Debt Restructuring, and Flexible Structuring of Existing Long
Term Project Loans stand abolished. The Joint Lenders Forum designed to resolve potential bad
debts has also been disbanded.

47. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Forest Survey of India (FSI) has been assessing the forest and tree resources of our country since
1987. The Indian State Forest Report (ISFR) is published for every two years. The results of the
assessment are published in its biennial report titled “India State of Forest Report (ISFR)”
 The 2017 report is 15th report which is more comprehensive than the previous one as it is based
on information from 633 districts compared with 589 covered in the 2015 report.
 The latest ISFR report includes information about water bodies in forests, a new feature.
 It has revealed that total forest and tree cover in India has increased of over 8,021 sq km (about
80.20 million hectare) which is one percent increase from 2015. India is ranked 10th in world, with
24.4% of land area under forest and tree cover, even though it accounts for 2.4 % of the world
surface area and sustains needs of 17 % of human and 18 % livestock population. India was placed
8th in list of Top Ten nations reporting the greatest annual net gain in forest area.
 According to the report Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover (77, 414 sq. km), followed by
Arunachal Pradesh (66,964 sq. km), Chhattisgarh (55,547 sq. km) Odisha (51, 345 sq. km) and
Maharashtra (50,682 sq. km).
 But the forest area in all these states, except Odisha, has decreased since 2015.

48. Ans (b)

49. Ans (a)

50. Ans (c)

51. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio
Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
 The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. Though there is no fixed
tenure, the average tenure of the Cabinet Secretary has been less than 3 years. His or her tenure
however, can be extended.

52. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 An Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) is an area identified using an internationally agreed
set of criteria as being globally important for the conservation of bird populations.
 IBA was developed and sites are identified by Bird Life International. Currently there are over
12,000 IBAs worldwide
Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is a not-for-profit public interest research and advocacy
organization based in New Delhi, India. Established in 1980, CSE works as a think tank on
environment-development issues in India, poor planning, climate shifts devastating India's
Sundarbans and advocates for policy changes and better implementation of the already existing
policies. CSE uses knowledge-based activism to create awareness about problems and propose
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
sustainable solutions. The director of the Centre is Sunita Narain. Sunita Narain is an Indian
environmentalist and political activist as well as a major proponent of the Green concept of
sustainable development. She is the editor of the fortnightly magazine, Down To Earth. In 2016
she was named to Time Magazine's list of 100 Most Influential People.

53. Ans (d)

Explanation: According to the Charter of the SCO, summits of the Council of Heads of State shall be
held annually at alternating venues. The locations of these summits follow the alphabetical order of
the member state's name in Russian. The charter also dictates that the Council of Heads of
Government (that is, the Prime Ministers) shall meet annually in a place decided upon by the council
members. The Council of Foreign Ministers is supposed to hold a summit one month before the
annual summit of Heads of State. Extraordinary meetings of the Council of Foreign Ministers can be
called by any two member states

54. Ans (a)

Explanation:
The Order of precedence is the protocol list in which the officials and functionaries are listed as per their
rank and office in the Government of India.
Rank 1 President of India
Rank 2 Vice President of India
Rank 3 Prime Minister of India
Rank 4 Governors of States in their respective States
Rank 5 Former Presidents
Rank5(A) Deputy Prime Minister
Rank 6 Chief Justice of India. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Rank 7 Cabinet Ministers of the Union
Chief Ministers of States in their respective States
Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
Former Prime Ministers
Leaders of Opposition in Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
Rank7(A) Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
Ambassadors Extraordinary & Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of
Rank 8 Commonwealth countries accredited to India; Governors of States outside their
respective States; Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States
Rank 9 Judges of the Supreme Court
Rank9(A) Chief Election Commissioner; Comptroller & Auditor General of India

55. Ans (d)

56. Ans (a)

Explanation: Right to healthcare is not yet a fundamental right in India

57. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 In a strategic move to expand its footprint in the Indian Ocean region, India has secured access to
the key Port of Duqm in Oman for military use and logistical support. This is part of India’s
maritime strategy to counter Chinese influence and activities in the region. This was one of the
key takeaways of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Oman over the last visit in February
2018
 The Port of Duqm is situated on the south eastern seaboard of Oman, overlooking the Arabian Sea
and the Indian Ocean. It is strategically located, in close proximity to the Chabahar port in Iran.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
With the Assumption Island being developed in Seychelles and Agalega in Mauritius, Duqm fits
into India’s proactive maritime security roadmap.

58. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Union Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) has launched Global Initiative of
Academic Networks (GIAN) Scheme to boost the quality of higher education in India.
 GIAN Scheme aims at improving the quality of higher education in the country through
international collaboration.

59. Ans (a)

60. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Article 28(1) states, “No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution
wholly maintained out of State funds.”
 Article 28(2) states, “Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to an educational institution which is
administered by the State but has been established under any endowment or trust which requires
that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution.”
61. Ans (b)

62. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan has been launched by the Ministry of Health &
Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India. The program aims to provide assured,
comprehensive and quality antenatal care, free of cost, universally to all pregnant women on the
9th of every month.
 PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their 2nd / 3rd
trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities.
 The programme follows a systematic approach for engagement with private sector which includes
motivating private practitioners to volunteer for the campaign; developing strategies for
generating awareness and appealing to the private sector to participate in the Abhiyan at
government health facilities.

63. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Nutrient-rich millets have got a boost with the Union government deciding to declare 2018 as the
‘national year of millets’. This decision has been taken following a request by Karnataka, which is
the country’s leader in the millet sector.
 According to experts, dedicating a year for millets will not only increase awareness about its
health benefits, but also result in higher demand for these drought-resistant varieties, resulting in
remunerative prices for poor and marginal farmers.

64. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Inclusive Development Index is based on a set of Key Performance Indicators that provide a
multidimensional assessment of living standards. The index ranks 109 countries according to their
current level of inclusive development, and also provides a view on recent performance over 5
years
 The IDI is a project of the World Economic Forum’s System Initiative on the Future of Economic
Progress, which aims to inform and enable sustained and inclusive economic progress through
deepened public-private cooperation through thought leadership and analysis, strategic dialogue
and concrete cooperation, including by accelerating social impact through corporate action.
 India was ranked at the 62nd place among emerging economies on Index, much below China’s
26th position and Pakistan’s 47th.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

65. Ans (a)

Explanation:

66. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial
commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Its
head office is in New Delhi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme
Court of India.
 Section 23 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, provides that any person aggrieved by an order of
NCDRC, may prefer an Appeal against such order to Supreme Court of India within a period of 30
days.

67. Ans (b)

Explanation: Some of the members of legislative councils are elected indirectly.

68. Ans (c)

Explanation: The nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha does not participate in the
election of the President as they do not possess any vote value.

69. Ans (d)

Explanation:

70. Ans (b)

 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Explanation: Cantonment boards are under the control of the Central government only and not the
State government.

71. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Flamingo Festival 2018 is a three day event to welcome and celebrate the arrival of migratory
birds, especially Flamingos. The annual Flamingo Festival is celebrated at the bird sanctuary at
Nelapattu, Pulicat Lake and the nearby Sullurupet town in Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh.
Various migratory birds including Flamingo come to this part of Andhra Pradesh. This festival
attracts tourists from all over the world.
 Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest Pelicanry in South-East Asia with more than 1,500
Pelicans breeding an average every year.

72. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Oxfam is a confederation of 19 independent charitable organizations around the world that use
the name Oxfam and are led by Oxfam International.
 Focusing on the alleviation of global poverty, Oxfam was founded in 1942 at 17 Broad Street,
Oxford, as the Oxford Committee for Famine Relief by a group of Quakers, social activists, and
Oxford academics.
 Oxfam’s report titled ‘Reward Work, Not Wealth’ found that the richest 1% in the world owns
more wealth than the whole of the rest of humanity;
 India’s richest 1% garnered as much as 73% of the total wealth generated in the country in 2017,
according to survey by Oxfam.
 The Oxfam report, which was released hours before the annual Davos World Economic Forum
(WEF) meet began, further states that 67 crore Indians, comprising the population’s poorest half,
saw their wealth rise by just 1% in 2017.
 The situation appears even more grim globally, where 82% of the wealth generated last year
worldwide went to the 1%, while 3.7 billion people that account for the poorest half of population
saw no increase in their wealth, the survey said.

73. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 According to AIHES of 2016-17, Tamil Nadu has the highest GER in the country at 46.9%, which is
higher than the national average.
 GER is a statistical measure for determining the number of students enrolled in undergraduate,
postgraduate and research level studies within the country and is expressed as a percentage of
the population.
 Although India aims to attain a GER of 30% by 2020, it’s still much behind countries like China,
which, currently, boasts an enrolment ratio of 43.39%. USA’s GER is 85.8% and Pakistan’s is 9.93%.
 The country’s Gross Enrolment Ratio or GER in higher education has registered an increase from
24.5% in 2015-16 to 25.2% in 2016-17
 According to AIHES of 2016-17, Tamil Nadu has the highest GER in the country at 46.9%, which is
higher than the national average. Bihar’s poor show continues with just 14.9% of its eligible
population (in the age group of 18 to 23 years) pursuing higher education.

74. Ans (a)

Explanation: The provision for disqualification for corrupt practices is found in the Representatives of
People’s Act and not the Constitution of India.

75. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Provision of Fundamental duties was derived from the constitution of the erstwhile
USSR.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
76. Ans (c)
Explanation:
The function of the public accounts committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the
President. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on
appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings. The
committee examines public expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to discover
technical irregularities but also from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety
to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses.

77. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The electoral college of the President and the Vice President are different. The electoral college of the
President includes elected members of the Parliament, elected members of the State assemblies and
the elected members of legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry. The electoral college of the
Vice President includes the members of both houses of the Parliament.

78. Ans (d)

Explanation:

79. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 It is a list of Indian citizens which is meant to decide who is a bona fide Indian citizen and those
who fail to enlist in the register will be deemed illegal migrants. First list was made in 1951 across
India according to the census of that year. It is for the first time that it is being updated and that
too only in Assam. Now, it is not linked to census but one has to link oneself to a family member
whose name had appeared either in the NRC of 1951, or to any of the state’s electoral rolls
prepared till midnight of 24th march 1971. The year of 1971 is chosen as it was agreed in Assam
accord 1985.If the applicant’s name is not on any of these lists, he can produce any of the 12
other documents dated up to March 24, 1971, like land or tenancy record, citizenship certificate
or permanent residential certificate or passport or court records or refugee registration
certificate.
 The part publication draft of NRC Assam was released on 31st December 2017, midnight. In NRC
first draft list, the names of the citizens were published which had been verified by field officer or
any legal documents, the application of the rest applicants is still to be verified. Hence the
Honourable Chief Minister of Assam, “Sarbananda Sonowal” requested all the people of Assam to
have patience while publishing the step by step draft list until the NRC complete result is out. The
verification process of the complete draft will begin on 15th Feb 2018.

80. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has announced an initiative by common
services centres (CSCs) on women’s health and hygiene. The initiative is named ‘Stree
Swabhiman’.
 Under the ‘Stree Swabhiman’ project, sanitary napkin micro manufacturing units are being set up
at CSCs across India, particularly those operated by women entrepreneurs. The initiative is driven
by awareness and personalised outreach by women entrepreneurs who produce and market
sanitary napkins themselves.
 Its purpose is to improve awareness on menstrual health and hygiene of women, thus help to
protect dignity and rights of women.

81. Ans (b)

Explanation: India does not have a uniform civil code.

82. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the
philosophy of modern competition laws. The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control
and M&A), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within
India.
 The objectives of the Act are sought to be achieved through the Competition Commission of India
(CCI), which has been established by the Central Government with effect from 14th October 2003.
CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government. It is the duty
of the Commission to eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition, promote and
sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the
markets of India. The Commission is also required to give opinion on competition issues on a
reference received from a statutory authority established under any law and to undertake
competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on competition issues.

83. Ans (c)

Explanation: GST devolution has only two components Centre and State. The increase in State
revenues does not guarantee the increase in revenue of the local governments as it is under the
discretion of the State government

84. Ans (a)

85. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Virtual ID (VID) is a temporary 16-digit, randomly-generated number that an Aadhaar holder can
use for authentication or KYC services along with his/her fingerprint instead in lieu of the Aadhaar
number. The VID together with biometrics of the user would give any authorized agency, say, a
mobile company, limited details like name, address and photograph, which are enough for any
verification.
 Aadhaar holders can go to the UIDAI website to generate their VID, which will be valid for a
defined period of time, or till the user decides to change it. You can generate as many VIDs as you
want-the older ID gets automatically cancelled once a fresh one is generated. You can also
generate/replace VIDs on the Aadhaar mobile app and at enrolment centres.

86. Ans (a)

Explanation: The maximum gap between sessions authorized by the Constitution of India is six
months.

87. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The Election Commission (EC) has set up a 14-member committee headed by Umesh Sinha to
suggest changes to Section 126 of the Representation of the People (RP) Act, which prohibits poll
campaign in the last 48 hours leading to voting, in the wake of media expansion.
 The committee will study impact of new media and social media during the “silence period” i.e.
during 48 hours period prior to elections and its implication in view of Section 126 of RP Act, 1951.
It will suggest modifications to the RP Act, 1951and model code of conduct (MCC). It will also
examine difficulties faced in regulating media platforms during the prohibitory 48 hours in a multi-
phase election It will submit its report within three months.

88. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme for unorganised sector workers such as personal
maids, drivers, gardeners etc, was launched in June 2015 by the government. This social security
scheme was introduced as a replacement to previous government's Swavalamban Yojana NPS
Lite.
 APY aims to help these workers save money for their old age while they are working and
guarantees returns post retirement. The scheme also promises a co-contribution by Central
Government of 50% of the total prescribed contribution by a worker, up to Rs. 1000 per annum,
but only to those who joined APY before 31.12.2015. Further, this co-contribution would be made
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
only for 5 years, from FY 2015-16 to 2019-20 in the eligible cases subject to conditions mentioned
below.
 You are eligible for the Atal Pension Yojana if you are:
 An Indian citizen
 Have a valid bank account
 Are between 18 and 40 years of age.

89. Ans (c)

Explanation:

90. Ans (b)

Explanation: The right to personal life and liberty empowered under Article 21 cannot be suspended
under National Emergency.

91. Ans (b)

Explanation: In a bid to safeguard the world from hackers and growing data breaches — especially
from nation-states — the World Economic Forum (WEF) announced a new Global Centre for
Cybersecurity. Headquartered in Geneva, the centre will become operational from March.

92. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Arsenic contamination in groundwater in the Ganga Brahmaputra fluvial plains in India and Padma
eghna fluvial plains in Bangladesh and its consequences to the human health have been reported
as one of the world s biggest natural groundwater calamities to the mankind.
 In India, seven states namely West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh in the flood plain of
the Ganga River; Assam and Manipur in the flood plain of the Brahamaputra and Imphal rivers and
Rajnandgaon village in Chhattisgarh state have so far been reported affected by Arsenic
contamination in groundwater above the permissible limit of 10 µg/L.

93. Ans (d)

Explanation: In the literal sense, Quo Warranto means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by
the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal
usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public
office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in
cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any
interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

94. Ans (a)

95. Ans (c)

96. Ans (c)

97. Ans (a)

98. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The SIKKIM RED PANDA (WINTER CARNIVAL) FESTIVAL 2017-18 held from 8th Jan to 18th January
2018.
 Red Panda Winter Festival was previously celebrated under the name of Sikkim Winter Carnival
and was aimed at promoting tourism in the state during the winter months. Starting 2016, it has
been rechristened to honour the animal of the state, Red Panda, with other objectives being the
same.
 Red Panda Winter Festival is one of the most awaited cultural events in Sikkim that provides for an
amazing time to both locals and visitors who travels here from far and wide.
 The festival primarily aims at increasing the influx of tourists during the leaner tourism months of
the year thereby, also promoting the state’s economy and rich culture and cuisine.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 Sammakka Saralamma Jatara or Medaram Jatara is a tribal Hindu festival of honouring the
goddesses celebrated in the state of Telangana, India. This Jatara is known for witnessing one of
the largest people gatherings in the world. The Jatara begins at Medaram in Tadvaimandal in
Jayashankar Bhupalpally district.
 Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the
largest surviving forest belt in the Deccan.
 Jatara is celebrated during the time the goddesses of the tribals are believed to visit them. It is
believed that after Kumbha Mela, the Medaramjatara attracts the largest number of devotees in
the country.
 In Arunachal Pradesh, the most popular Dree festival of Apatani community has celebrated across
the State with traditional pomp and gaiety. Through this festival, the Apatanis pray their
traditional Gods to bring in a bountiful harvest season along with defeat of destructive forces in
the society of the Dree.
 The Apatanis, who inhabit a tranquil pine clad valley called Ziro at the core of Lower Subansiri
District of Arunachal Pradesh, are famous for their unique practice of wet rice cultivation.They are
also known for their sustainable agricultural practices and the agricultural cycles govern their
everyday lives. The agricultural festival of Dree is the highlight in this cycle.

99. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Launched for the first time in 2013, the Global Talent Competitiveness Index (GTCI) is an annual
benchmarking report that measures the ability of countries to compete for talent. The report,
which covers 119 economies, is based on research conducted by INSEAD in partnership with The
Adecco Group and Tata Communications.
 The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic
Forum. Since 2004, the Global Competitiveness Report ranks countries based on the Global
Competitiveness Index.
 The World Economic Forum (WEF) released its Global Manufacturing Index putting India on the
30th position, five places below China.

100. Ans (b)