SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET SERIES - 11

Serial: 737245 GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER - I A

TEST 11 – INDIAN POLITY - III
Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
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for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
1. For which of the following area amendment 3. National Judicial Appointment Commission
requires only a simple majority of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given
parliament (Half of the members present and below.
voting)?
(a) 2 only
(a) Representation of states in parliament
(b) 3 only
(b) Use of English language in parliament
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Directive principles of state policy
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Election of President and its manner

4. 'Rohingiyas' who are often seen in news are

2. Which of the following provisions does not predominantly found in which of the following
require a constitutional amendment? countries?

1. Abolition or creation of states. (a) India

2. Abolition or creation of legislative council in (b) Indonesia

a state. (c) Syria
3. Change in Second schedule (d) Myanmar
4. Delimitation of constituencies

Select the correct answer using the codes given 5. A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme
below. Court has recently said that who among the

(a) 2 and 4 only following has the sole prerogative to determine

which Bench of judges hears which cases?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) CJI
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Collegium
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Minister for Law

(d) The President

3. Which of the following constitutional
amendments passed recently would have gone
through special amendment process (2/3rd of 6. Which of the following countries has recently
Members of parliament present and voting and imposed and revoked blockade on Yemen?
half of the states ratifying it)? (a) Saudi Arabia

1. Granting the National Commission on (b) Iran

Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional
(c) Iraq
status.
(d) Syria
2. Introduction of the goods and services tax

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
7. Consider the following statements with 9. Which of the following can be a reason(s) for
reference to Lt. Governor: creating Union territories?

1. Unlike the Governor of a state, an 1. The union territories were not a part of
India during independence.
administrator of a Union Territory doesn’t
have discretionary powers. 2. Safeguarding the rights of indigenous
cultures
2. The President may appoint a Governor of an
adjoining state as administrator of a Union 3. Maintain military prowess

territory. Select the correct answer using the codes given

below.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Who among the following can authorise a
Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such

8. The state assembly of Delhi can make law on taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with
such procedure and subject to such limits?
all the matters of the State List except few,
which are those? (a) The parliament

1. Public order (b) Zilla parishad

2. Local Government (c) The District collector

(d) State legislature

3. Police

4. Land
11. Which of the following agreement is signed
Select the correct answer using the codes given
between two countries to promote foreign
below.
investment?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) LEMOA

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) TRIPS

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) DTAA

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Kigali Agreement

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
12. Which among the following is not a credit Which of the statements given above is/are
rating agency? correct?
(a) Moody's
(a) 1 only
(b) Standard & Poor
(b) 2 only
(c) Fitch
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Visa
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Consider the following statements with

reference to powers of Panchayati Raj
15. Consider the following statements with
institutions:
reference to Model Code of Conduct:
1. The state legislature can enact laws to
endow powers to the Panchayats on the 1. The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set
subjects of fisheries, agriculture and of guidelines issued by the Representation
libraries.
of people act,1951 to regulate the conduct
2. The village panchayat shall not have any of political parties and their candidates in
power to sell, transfer, alienate or pledge
the run up to elections and is aimed at
the properties transferred to it.
ensuring free and fair elections
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 2. Mosques, Churches, Temples or other

(a) 1 only places of worship can be used as forum for

election propaganda.
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The Code of Conduct comes into force 45

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 days before the elections are supposed to be

held by the Election Commission.

14. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are not
reference to National Council of Senior correct?
Citizens:
(a) 2 only
1. The mandate of the National Council of
Senior Citizens is to advise the Central and (b) 2 and 3 only
State Governments on the entire gamut of
(c) 1 and 2 only
issues related to the welfare of senior
citizens and enhancement of their quality of (d) 1, 2 and 3
life.

2. It comes under the ambit of Ministry of

Health and Family Welfare.
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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
16. Which of the following valleys is/are found in 18. Consider the following features:

the state of Assam? 1. It is one of the festival celebrated in the

state of Assam
1. Brahmaputra valley
2. It is very famously known for its barter
2. Barak Valley system

3. Doon Valley 3. The mela starts with community fishing in

a wetland.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the following is aptly described by the
given below.
given above features?
(a) 1 only (a) Jonbeel Festival

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Ambubashi Festival

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Majuli Festival

(d) Bihu Festival

(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Consider the following statements with

17. Consider the following statements regarding reference to Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities:
the state of Assam:
1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not
1. It is the only state that shares border with
make any provision with respect to the
all other North East Indian states Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
including Sikkim.
2. The Constitution does not specify the
qualifications, tenure, salaries and
2. It also shares border with Bhutan and
allowances, service conditions and
Bangladesh as well as West Bengal
procedure for removal of the Special Officer

Which of the statements given above is/are for Linguistic Minorities.

not correct? Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
20. Consider the following statements with 3. When tribunals for other matters are
reference to Chief Information Commissioner: created under Article 323 B, a hierarchy of

1. The salary, allowances and other service tribunals may be created.

conditions of the Chief Information
Which of the statements given above is/are
Commissioner are similar to those of the
correct?
Chief Election Commissioner.

2. The President can remove the Chief (a) 1 and 2 only

Information Commissioner on the ground of

(b) 2 and 3 only
proved misbehaviour or incapacity using
his discretionary powers and need not (c) 1 and 3 only

consult anyone regarding this matter.

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
22. NOTA or None of the above was the fourth most
(a) 1 only
popular choice of the people in Gujarat and
(b) 2 only
Himachal Pradesh and even in the recent R. K.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Nagar by-poll. With reference to the statement
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
above, consider the following statements

1. The NOTA option would not impact the

21. Consider the following statements with
results of the elections
reference to difference between Administrative
Tribunals and tribunals for other matters: 2. India is the first country to allow voters to

cast NOTA.
1. While tribunals for other matters under
Article 323 B contemplates establishment Which of the statements given above is/are
of tribunals for public service matters only,
correct?
Administrative Tribunals under
Article 323 A contemplates establishment of (a) 1 only

tribunals for certain other matters.

(b) 2 only
2. While Administrative Tribunals under
(c) Both 1 and 2
Article 323 A can be established only by
Parliament, tribunals for other matters (d) Neither 1 nor 2
under Article 323 B can be established both
by Parliament and state legislatures.

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
23. Which among the following is/are a voluntary 25. Consider the following features:
provisions under 73rd constitutional 1. The location of the oldest oil refinery
amendment act?
2. The location of largest riverine island
1. Providing reservation of seats (both
3. The largest coffee producer of the country
members and chairpersons) for backward
classes in panchayats. Which of the features given above is/are rightly
applicable to the state of Assam?
2. Minimum age for contesting elections to
(a) 1 only
panchayats.
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson
of panchayats at the intermediate and (c) 2 and 3 only
district levels. (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Devolution of powers and responsibilities
upon panchayats to prepare plans for
26. Tea gardens in Assam do not follow the Indian
economic development and social justice.
Standard Time (IST) mainly because of
Codes: (a) The cultural tradition of early awakening in
Assam
(a) 1 2 3 4
False False True True (b) Avoiding school and Governmental office'
time confusions in Assam
(b) 1 2 3 4 (c) Saving the daylight by finishing the work
True True True False during daytime

(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) Tea cultivation requires more night time

False False False False

27. Which of the following species is found only in

(d) 1 2 3 4
the state of Assam?
True False False True
1. Pygmy Hog

2. Wild Water Buffalo

24. It is usually said that it is the place where the
3. One Horned Rhinoceros
phenomenon of birds "committing suicide" is
4. Hoolock Gibbon
takes place. This place is located in
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) Keoladeo National Park
below
(b) Jatinga
(a) 1 only
(c) Pulicat Lake
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Chilika Lake (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
28. Consider the following statements with 30. Consider the following statements with
reference to Administrative reforms reference to National Disaster Response Fund

commission: (NDRF):

1. The NDRF has so far been financed through

1. The recommendations given by ARC are
the levy of a cess on certain items,
binding on the government
chargeable to excise and customs duty, and
2. There have been only two ARC setup so far. approved annually through the Finance
Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The passage of GST will impact the funding
correct?
of NDRF.
(a) 1 only
3. Companies can contribute to NDRF under
(b) 2 only corporate social responsibility under
companies act, 2013.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

29. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 and 3 only

reference to Central Bureau of Investigation (c) 1 and 3 only
(CBI):
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The CBI is not a statutory body.

2. The CBI is the main investigating agency of 31. Which of the following statements is not correct
the Central Government. with reference to Finance Commission?

3. Crimes related to Cyber technology is not (a) Finance Commission is a quasi judicial

dealt by the CBI. body.

(b) The Finance Commission consists of a

Which of the statements given above is/are
chairman and four other members to be
correct?
appointed by the president.
(a) 2 only
(c) The members of Finance commission are
(b) 1 and 2 only not eligible for reappointment.

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) The Constitution authorises the Parliament

to determine the qualifications of members
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of the commission and the manner in which
they should be selected.

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
32. Consider the following statements with 34. Which of the statements given below is not

reference to UPSC: correct with reference to Voter Verifiable Paper

Audit Trail (VVPAT)?

1. The UPSC can advise the government on
(a) VVPATs are the first line of verification and
any matter referred to the commission by
are particularly useful in the time when
the President.
allegations around Electronic Voting

2. It is not concerned with the classification of Machines’ tampering crop up.

services, pay and service conditions, cadre (b) VVPAT system gives instant feedback to the

management, training, and so on. voter showing that the vote polled has in

fact been allotted against the candidate

Which of the statements given above is/are
chosen.
correct?
(c) After a voter presses the button on the EVM
(a) 1 only
against the chosen candidate, the VVPAT

(b) 2 only prints a slip containing name of the

candidate and the election symbol and

(c) Both 1 and 2
drops it automatically into a sealed box.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) The machines give the chance for the voter

to verify their vote.

33. Which of the following statements about Law

Commission of India is not correct? 35. The Dr. Bhupen Hazarika Setu, also referred to

as the Dhola–Sadiya Bridge connecting the

(a) It is truly an ad hoc and advisory body.
northeast states of Assam and Arunachal

(b) None of the recommendations given by it Pradesh, is built on which of the following

are binding upon the Government. river?

(a) Barak
(c) The Head of Law Commission can only be a

retired judge of Supreme Court. (b) Manas

(c) Lohit
(d) The States also can constitute their own

law commissions. (d) Teesta

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
36. Consider the following features 38. Consider the following statements with
reference to Citizen's Charter:
1. It is a kind of silk available only in Assam
1. The Citizen’s Charter is not legally
2. It is known for its extreme durability and
enforceable and, therefore, is non-
has a natural yellowish-golden tint
justiciable.
3. It is a variety of silk geographically tagged 2. Currently citizen charter is being issued by
to the state of Assam. almost all the Agencies/ Organizations of
all States/ Union Territories.
Which of the following is rightly described by
the given above features? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Mulberry Silk
(a) 1 only
(b) Muga Silk
(b) 2 only
(c) Eri Silk
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Tussar Silk
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements regarding
the Leh–Manali Highway
1. It is the world’s highest motorable road
connecting Leh in Ladakh in Jammu and
Kashmir state and Manali in Himachal
Pradesh state.
2. It is designed, built and maintained entirely
by the National Highways Authority of India
39. Consider the following statements with
reference to Comptroller and Auditor General of
India(CAG)
1. CAG is provided with the security of tenure.
2. CAG is not eligible for further office, either
under the Government of India or of any
state, after he ceases to hold his office
3. No minister can represent the CAG in

(NHAI). Parliament (both Houses) and no minister

can be called upon to take any
3. It is open throughout the year for both responsibility for any actions done by him.
civilian and military purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
40. Consider the following statements with National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to
reference to National Youth policy, 2014: drive Mobile Governance in India.

1. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines the 3. It is initially available only in the official
age of youth as persons between the ages languages, Hindi and English.
15-29 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. No separate funds have been allocated for correct?
implementation of this Policy.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 43. The Union Cabinet has approved India's
Membership for European Bank for
Reconstruction & Development (EBRD). What
41. Recently the Government of India has
appointed some officers as Prabhari officers for would be the possible impacts of this entry to

in the special task such as India?

(a) To increase the GST collection across the 1. It would open up new vistas for Indian
country professionals on the one hand, and give a

(b) To promote communal harmony across the fillip to Indian exports on the other.
country 2. The membership would help India leverage
(c) To spread the awareness about yoga across the technical assistance and sectoral
the country knowledge of the bank for the benefit of
(d) To bring out rapid transformation in development of private sector.
backward districts across the country.
3. It would also enable Indian nationals to get
the employment opportunity in the Bank.

42. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct answer using the codes given
the UMANG or Unified Mobile Application for below.
New-age Governance App
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. It provides a single platform for all Indian
Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services (b) 1 and 3 only
ranging from Central to Local Government
(c) 2 and 3 only
bodies and other citizen centric services.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is developed by Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology (MeitY) and
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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
44. Consider the following statements with 46. Consider the following statements with
reference to Interest groups/Pressure group: reference to Central Vigilance Commission

1. They are not solely political organizations (CVC):

and unlike political parties they don't put
1. It is a executive body established by an
up candidates for election.
executive resolution of the Central
2. FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM, AIMO, FAIFDA are
government.
all business pressure groups in India.
2. The salary, allowances and other conditions
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? of service of the Central Vigilance

Commissioner are similar to those of the

(a) 1 only
Chairman of UPSC and that of the vigilance
(b) 2 only
commissioner are similar to those of a
(c) Both 1 and 2
member of UPSC.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
45. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 only
reference to Central Administrative Tribunal
(CAT): (b) 2 only

1. A person shall not be qualified for

(c) Both 1 and 2
appointment as the Chairman of CAT
unless he is, or has been, a Judge of a High (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Court.

2. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in

47. Who among the following heads Civil Services
relation to recruitment and all service
Board?
matters of public servants covered by it.

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) The Prime Minister

correct?
(b) The President
(a) 1 only
(c) The Ministry of Personnel, Public
(b) 2 only
Grievances and Pensions
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Cabinet secretary
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
48. The National Foundation for Communal
Harmony (NFCH), sometimes seen in News, is
a/an
(a) Non Governmental Organization aims for
communal Harmony
(b) Autonomous organization with the Ministry
of Home Affairs
(c) Independent body under the ministry of
Minority Affairs
(d) Registered Organization under the Ministry
of Culture
49. With respect to the Project Saksham, recently
in News, which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) It is Railway connectivity program across
the country.
(b) It is a skill development program for the
Railway employees
(c) It is kind of social awareness campaign
about Dengue fever
(d) It is a project for conserving endangered
species
50. Consider the following statements regarding
the Bank for International Settlements (BIS):
1. It is an international financial institution
jointly owned by the World Bank and
International Monetary Fund.
2. It provides banking services only for the
members nations not for the International
Organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
51. Consider the following statements with
reference to Right to Information Act, 2005:
1. The Act extends to the whole of India.
2. The Public Information Officer cannot
refuse to accept an application for
information under “any circumstances”
even if the information does not pertain to
his/her department/jurisdiction, she/he
has to accept it.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Consider the following statements with
reference to Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006:
1. The Act outlines forest rights which include
the right to live in the forest, to self
cultivate, and to use minor forest produce
and activities such as hunting and trapping
are prohibited.
2. The Governor of the concerned state is
empowered to initiate the process of
determining the extent of forest rights that
may be given to each eligible individual or
family.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
53. Consider the following statements with 55. The major objective of the Deen Dayal Sparsh
Yojana, which was recently launched by the
reference to Mayoral Elections:
Government of India, is to

1. In India all Mayors are directly Elected (a) Promote the Awareness about the
cleanliness across the country
2. 74th Constitution Amendment in 1992 did
(b) Increase the awareness about the sexual
not prescribe the manner of election, tenure education among the students

or powers of the Mayors/Chairpersons of
ULBs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Increase the reach of Philately among the
school students
(d) Provide the skill development among rural
youth population

correct?

56. The Chenab Bridge, making it the world's

(a) 1 only
highest rail bridge when finished, is being built
at the height of 359 meter across the Chenab
(b) 2 only
River in which of the following state?

(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Uttarakhand
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Punjab

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

54. The Creative Cities Network List, recently in

57. The World Bank Group released which of the
News, is released by which of the following
following reports/indices in the year 2017?
organization?
1. Doing Business Report 2017

(a) United Nations Human Settlements 2. Global Economic Prospects 2017

Programme (UN–Habitat) 3. Atlas of Sustainable Development Goals

2017
(b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) below.

(a) 1 only
(c) World Tourism Organization (UNWTO)
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) World Intellectual Property Organization
(c) 1 and 3 only
(WIPO)
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
58. A port trust is created by Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) An act of parliament
(a) 1 only
(b) An act of state legislature.
(b) 2 only
(c) Government
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) The people in the port themselves
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

59. With reference to the State Finance

61. The Mines and Mineral (Development and
Commission, consider the following statements:
Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) was
1. State finance commission is constituted by amended through the MMDR Amendment Act,
the governor every five years by all the 2015 which provides for the establishment of
states in India. District Mineral Foundation (DMF). With
reference to the above, consider the following
2. There is a synchronization of the periods
statements:
covered by the reports of State finance
commission with that of the central finance 1. District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a

commission. trust set up as a non-profit body, in those

districts affected by the mining works, to
Which of the statements given above is/are
work for the interest and benefit of persons
correct?
and areas affected by mining related
(a) 1 only operations and it is funded through the
contributions from Central government.
(b) 2 only
2. The Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan
(c) Both 1 and 2
Yojana (PMKKKY) has been launched by the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Government which will be implemented
through funds collected under DMF.

Which of the statements given above is/are

60. With reference to the State Election
correct?
Commissioner, consider the following
statements: (a) 1 only

1. State Election Commissioner will be (b) 2 only

appointed by the Governor. (c) Both 1 and 2

2. He is responsible for conducting elections (d) Neither 1 nor 2

to the state legislature.

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 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
62. Consider the following statements with 64. Employees Provident Fund Scheme (EPF) is the
reference to Prime Minister's Office (PMO): main scheme under The Employees’ Provident

1. Prime Minister's Office (PMO) is a Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.

constitutional body. It is managed under the aegis of Employees'

Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). It covers

2. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund
every establishment in which 20 or more
(PMNRF) and the National Defence Fund
(NDF) are operated directly by the PMO. persons are employed and certain

organisations are covered, subject to certain

Which of the statements given above is/are
conditions and exemptions even if they employ
correct?
less than 20 persons each. With reference to
(a) 1 only
the above passage, consider the following
(b) 2 only statements:

(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Under EPF scheme, an employee has to pay

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 a certain contribution towards the scheme

and an equal contribution is paid by the

employer.
63. Consider the following statements with
reference nature of Civil services in India: 2. The employee gets an amount including self

and employer’s contribution with interest

1. In India Civil services is mostly composed of
on both, on retirement.
Generalist administrators.

3. Employees drawing less than Rs 15000 per

2. The practice of rotating senior officers in
and out of the Secretariat position is known month have to mandatorily become

in official parlance as the Cadre system. members of the EPF.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

15
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
65. Consider the following statements with 67. The country’s first Mega Coastal Economic
reference to administration of Union territories: Zone has been planned at

(a) Mumbai
1. Every union territory is administered by the
President acting through an administrator (b) Chennai

appointed by him. (c) Kolkatta

(d) Kandla
2. Even though all the union territories belong
to one category, there is no uniformity in
their administrative system. 68. Consider the following Pairs:

3. An administrator of a union territory is the Animal Sports Prominent

head of Union territory like a governor of a Regions
state.
1. Camel Race - Rajasthan
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Kambala Race - Karnataka
correct?
3. Bulbul Fight - Assam
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Bullock Cart Race - Maharashtra

(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

66. Consider the following Pairs: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Festivals Region

1. Bali Jatara - Odisha 69. The Geographical Indication (GI) tag conveys an
assurance of quality and distinctiveness which
2. Sangai - Manipur is essentially attributable to the fact of its
origin in a defined geographical locality, region
3. Namami Barak - Assam or country. This status is being issued under
which of the organization?
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(a) World Intellectual Property Organization
matched? (WIPO)

(a) 1 only (b) World Trade Organization (WTO)

(c) United nations Conference on Trade and

(b) 1 and 2 only
Development (UNCTAD)
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) The International Trademark Association
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (INTA)

16
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
70. Public Finance Management System would 72. Consider the following statements with
help in tracking and monitoring the flow of reference to Electoral bonds:
funds for which of the following category of
1. Electoral bonds will be issued by a notified
schemes
bank for specified denominations.
1. Central Sector schemes
2. One can buy these bonds by making
2. Centrally sponsored schemes payments digitally or through cheque but
not by cash.
3. Additional Central Assistance
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the codes given
correct?
below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

73. The jurisdiction of the Union Public Service

71. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Commission can be extended by
has constituted an Expert Committee under
chairmanship of Shri B S Baswan to (a) The state legislature
comprehensively examine the various issues
(b) Cabinet Ministers
raised from time to time regarding Civil
(c) By order of president
Services Examination, with respect to which of
the following? (d) By an act of Parliament

1. Eligibility

2. Syllabus 74. The INSPIRE programme, sometimes seen in

3. Status of reservation in Civil services
4. Scheme and pattern of the Examination
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
News, is related with which of the following?
(a) Skill development initiative in the Naxal
Areas
(b) Scholarship program for promoting primary
education in the North East Region

(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Subsidy program for promoting clean

energy in rural areas
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Scholarship program for promoting
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
scientific research among the students
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
75. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct answer using the codes given
the South Asia Economic Summit recently held below.
in Kathmandu of Nepal
(a) 1 only
1. It is led by a group of five eminent think
tanks that take turns to organize the (b) 2 only
annual event in one of the SAARC countries
(c) Both 1 and 2
since 2008.

2. The main objective of the summit is to help

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
the South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC) process on economic
77. Consider the following Pairs:
development.

3. All the South Asian countries excluding Projects Purpose

Pakistan are co-organizers of this event.

Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Sagarmala - Modernizing India’s

correct? airports into Modern

World Class Airports
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Setu Bharatam - Shipping route in the

(c) 2 and 3 only shallow straits

between India and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Sri Lanka

76. Recently the Cabinet Committee on Economic 3. Diamond - Connecting the four
Affairs (CCEA) approved a new scheme called Quadrilateral metro cities in India,
'Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra’. In this i.e. Delhi, Mumbai,
regard, which of the following statements
Kolkata and
is/are correct?
Chennai.
1. The scheme is part of the Umbrella Scheme
"Mission for Protection and Empowerment Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
for Women" of the ministry of women and not matched?
child development.
(a) 1 and 3 only
2. It is envisioned as one-stop convergence
support service for empowering both rural (b) 1 and 2 only
and Urban women with opportunities for
(c) 2 and 3 only
skill development, digital literacy, health
and employment. (d) 1, 2 and 3

18
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
78. Consider the following statements
reference to Denotified tribes in India:
1. The constitution of India identifies only
scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and
backwardness but it does not make any
special provision for denotified tribes as
such.
with 80. A 3-year-old adopted Indian-American child
was found dead in mysterious circumstances in
Dallas, USA. There is an overall decline in
child adoptions, both within and outside India,
which is being attributed to tightened norms to
protect the adopted children. With reference to
the above passage, consider the following
statements:

2. In 2005, the Government of India 1. All prospective parents, irrespective of

nationality, have to register with the
established the National Commission for
Central Adoption Resource Authority
De-notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic
(CARA).
Tribes (NCDNT) to study various
developmental aspects of these Tribes. 2. Foreign couples are treated at par with
Indian ones in India for adoption of Child.
3. There are 1500 Nomadic / Semi-Nomadic
3. The minimum age difference between the
Tribes and around 150 Denotified Tribes,
child and either of the adoptive parents
which make about 11 Crore of India’s should not be greater than 25 years.
population.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Which of the statements given below is not
79. Which of the following statements is not
correct with reference to Anti-Defection Law?
(a) Anti Defection law is an original feature of
the constitution.
(b) Any person elected as speaker or chairman
could resign from his party, and rejoin the
party if he demitted that post.
(c) A party could be merged into another if at
least two-thirds of its party legislators voted
for the merger.
(d) The law initially permitted splitting of
parties, but that has now been outlawed.
correct with reference to Nirbhaya fund?
(a) It is a non-lapsable corpus fund.
(b) It is a fund setup for implementation of
initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety
and security for women in the country
(c) Ministry of Women and Child Development
is the nodal Ministry to appraise schemes
under Nirbhaya Fund and also to review
and monitor the progress of sanctioned
Schemes in conjunction with the line
Ministries/Departments. .
(d) The Fund is administered by Department of
Women and Child Development of the
finance ministry.
19
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
82. India has fastest growing demography of Sixty- 83. Consider the following statements with

plus. Roughly 9% of India‘s population is aged reference to Juvenile Justice Board (JJB):

60 years or more, as per Census figures from 1. Typically, each district would have a
juvenile justice board that would deal with
2011, as opposed to 12% globally. By 2050, the
affairs pertaining to that area.
60+ age group is expected to form 19 per cent
2. The JJB has all powers of a normal
of India‘s population. Kerala, Goa, Tamil Nadu,
magistrate court.
Punjab and Haryana are the top five states
Which of the statements given above is/are
where the elderly comprise 10% or more of the
correct/
population. With reference to the above
(a) 1 only
passage, consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only
reference to Elderly population
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Caring for the elderly is a Directive Principle
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of State Policy under the Indian

Constitution.
84. The Balfour Declaration is associated with
2. The Ministry of finance has been
(a) Protectorate States of League of Nations
implementing Indira Gandhi National Old
(b) Jewish state in Palestine
Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) since 1995
(c) Establishment of United Nations
with the aim to provide financial security to
(d) Dissolution of the Soviet Union
senior citizens living below the poverty line.

Which of the statements given above is/are

85. Which among the following is a non-
correct?
communicable disease?

(a) 1 only
(a) Cancer

(b) 2 only (b) Ebola

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Tuberculosis

(d) Leprosy
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

20
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
86. At present a party is recognized as a political 87. Assume that you are about to circumnavigate

party in a state when which of the following the world. If you are to perform this task with
condition(s) is/are fulfilled. least amount of fuel, which one of the following

1. If it secures six percent of the valid votes fuels should you choose?

polled in the state at a general election to

(a) Biomass
the legislative assembly of the state
(b) Jet Fuel
concerned; and, in addition, it wins 2 seats

in the assembly of the state concerned. (c) Uranium

2. If it secures six percent of the valid votes (d) LNG

polled in the state at a general election to

the Lok sabha from the state concerned;

and, in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok 88. Consider the following statements with

Sabha from the state concerned. reference to Protection of street Vendors:

3. If it wins three percent of seats in the 1. The hawkers are protected under the Street

legislative assembly at a general election to Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and

the legislative assembly of the state Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014.
concerned; or 3 seats in the assembly
2. The government has recognized street
whichever is more.
vending as a source of self-employment for
4. If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every
the poor in cities and towns.
25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to
Which of the statements given above is/are
the state at a general election to the Lok

Sabha from the state concerned. correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 1 only

below.
(b) 2 only

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) Either 1 or 2 or 3 or 4
21
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
The next four (04) items are based on the table given below

Match List I with List II, List III and List IV and select the correct answer using the code given below

List I List II List III List IV

Schedule Subject Matter Articles Covered Related Amendments

A) Eight 1) Specified the power, authority and I) 102 and 191 i) 74th Amendment
Schedule responsibilities of Panchayats

B) Tenth 2) Languages recognized by the II) 243-w ii) 71st Amendment

Schedule constitution

C) Eleventh 3) Specifies the power, authority and III) 344 and 351 iii) 52nd Amendment
Schedule responsibilities of municipalities

D) Twelfth 4) Provisions relating to IV) 243 G iv) 73rd Amendment

Schedule disqualifications of the members of
parliament and state legislature on
the ground of defection

89.
91.

List I List II List III List IV List I List II List III List IV

(a) A 4 I i (a) B 4 III iii

(b) A 2 III ii (b) C 1 IV i

(c) B 4 II iii (c) B 4 I iii

(d) B 2 III i (d) C 1 IV iii

90. 92.

List I List II List III List IV List I List II List III List IV

(a) C 1 IV iii (a) D 4 III iii

(b) D 3 II iv (b) C 1 IV i

(c) C 1 IV ii (c) D 4 I iii

(d) D 3 II i (d) C 1 IV iv

22
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
93. Match the following:

List I List II
(Form of oath or Affirmation /oath of secrecy) (Concern authority)
A. “I, A.B., do 1. Form of oath of Secrecy by
the union minister
Swear in the name of god
solemnly affirm
that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the constitution of India as
by law established and that I will faithfully discharge the duty upon
which I am about to enter”

B. “I, A.B., do 2. Oath of affirmation by the

comptroller and auditor –
Swear in the name of god
general of India
solemnly affirm
that I will faithfully execute the ____ of (name of the state) and will to
the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the constitution
and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being
of the people of ______ (name of the state)”

C. “I, A.B., do 3. Oath or affirmation by the

vice-president
Swear in the name of god
solemnly affirm
that I will not directly or indirectly communicate or reveal to any
person or persons any matter which shall be brought under my
consideration or shall become known to me as a ______ for the union
except as may be required for the due discharge of my duties as such
____”

D. “I,A.B., have been appointed __________ do 4. Oath or affirmation by the

governor
Swear in the name of god
solemnly affirm
that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the constitution of India as
by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of
India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability,
knowledge and judgement perform the duties of my office without
fear of favour, affection or ill will and that I will uphold the
constitution and the laws”
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

23
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
94. Consider the following statements with 96. Consider the following statements with
reference to National Green Tribunal (NGT): reference to National company law tribunal
(NCLT):
1. The Tribunal is mandated to make and
1. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
endeavour for disposal of applications or
is a quasi-judicial body
appeals finally within 6 months of filing of
the same. 2. NCLT is recognized as adjudicating
authority for partnership firms and
2. Tribunal is competent to hear cases for
individuals under Insolvency and
several acts such as Forest (Conservation)
Bankruptcy code.
Act, Biological Diversity Act, Environment
Which of the statements given above is/are
(Protection) Act, Water & Air (Prevention &
correct?
control of Pollution) Acts etc., and also have
(a) 1 only
appellate jurisdiction related to above acts
after establishment of Tribunal. (b) 2 only

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2

correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 97. Consider the following statements with

reference to Official languages in India:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Constitution does not specify the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 official language of different states.

2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and

in every high court are to be in the English
95. Which of the following acts/policies mandated
language only, until Parliament provides
creation of Compensatory Afforestation Fund
otherwise.
Management and Planning Authority?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Wildlife Protection act,1972
correct?
(b) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (a) 1 only

(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (b) 2 only

(d) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional (c) Both 1 and 2
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rights) Act, 2006

24
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMYTM
98. Consider the following statements with 100. The Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) is
reference to Election commission: recommended for people infected with

1. It can suo moto review the result of an (a) Human Immunodeficiency virus
election
(b) Measles
2. The decisions of the EC are not subject to
(c) Legionnaires’ disease
judicial review
(d) Chagas disease
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. Which of the following statements about NITI

Aayog is not correct?

(a) NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think

Tank’ of the Government of India, providing
both directional and policy inputs.

(b) At the core of NITI Aayog’s creation are two

hubs – Team India Hub and the Knowledge
and Innovation Hub.

(c) Finance Minster is the Ex-officio chairman

of NITI Aayog

(d) Permanent members of the governing

council are all state Chief Ministers, chief
ministers of Delhi and Puducherry,
Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and
Nicobar, and vice chairman nominated by
the Prime Minister.

25