SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

TEST 11 – INDIAN POLITY - III - ANSWER KEY

1. Ans (b)
Explanation:
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
These provisions include:
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors,
the Speakers, judges, etc.
5. Quorum in Parliament.
6. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
7. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
8. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
9. Use of English language in Parliament.
10. Number of Puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
11. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
12. Use of official language.
13. Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
15. Delimitation of constituencies.
16. Union territories.
17. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.

2. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 Article 169 empowers Parliament to provide by law for the abolition or creation of the Legislative
Councils in States and specifies that though such law shall contain such provisions for the
amendment of the Constitution as may be necessary, it shall not be deemed to be an amendment
of the Constitution for the purposes of article 368.
 The Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new
states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names
of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution
under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the
ordinary legislative process.
 Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such as salaries of
President, Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India etc.
Which can be amended by a ordinary legislation.
 Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every
census. After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a
Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the
Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act. The present delimitation of
constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census figures under the provisions of
Delimitation Act, 2002. Passage of Delimitaion act doesnt require Amendment of constitution.

3. Ans (c)
Explanation:
Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be
amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state
legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, it
does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed. There is
no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.
The following provisions can be amended in this way:
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1. Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and high courts.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
6. Representation of states in Parliament.
7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself)

4. Ans (d)
Explanation:
The Rohingya people are a stateless Indo-Aryan-speaking people from Rakhine State, Myanmar. There
were an estimated 1 million Rohingya living in Myanmar before the 2016–17 crises.

5. Ans (a)

6. Ans (a)

7. Ans (b)
Explanation: Lt. Governor has even wider discretionary powers compared to Governor of a state.
A Union Territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator to be appointed by
him with such designation as he may specify. There is no uniformity in the designation of the
administrator. It is at some places Lieutenant Governor (e.g., Delhi and Puducherry) at other Chief
Commissioner or Administrator. The Governor of state may be appointed as Administrator of an
adjoining Union Territory. An Administrator of Union Territories is not a head of state like a Governor
but is an agent of the President.

8. Ans (c)
Explanation: Special provisions for Delhi:
 The 69th Amendment Act, 1992 has added two new Art. 239AA and Art. 239AB under which the
Union Territory of Delhi has been given a special status.
 Art. 239AA provides that the Union Territory of Delhi shall now be called the National Capital
Territory of Delhi and its administrator shall be known as Lt. Governor.
 It also creates a legislative assembly for Delhi which can make laws on the state list and
concurrent list except on these matters: public order, land and police.
 It also provides for a Council of Ministers for Delhi consisting of not more than 10% of the total
number of members in the assembly.
 The President shall make appointments to the Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister.

9. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 As far as history goes, the union territories were either not a part of India during independence or
they were too small to be made into a state as per the provision of the Constitution. During the
discussion on reorganisation of states in 1956, the States Reorganisation Commission
recommended creation of a different category for these territories since they neither fit the
model of a state, nor do they follow a uniform pattern when it comes to governance.
 It was observed that these “economically unbalanced, financially weak, and administratively and
politically unstable” territories can’t survive as separate administrative units without depending
heavily on the Union government. Thus the Union Territories were formed.
 In certain cases, the government of India deliberately chose not to merge smaller territories with
the neighbouring states due to a host of reasons. While in some cases the status of “Union
Territory” was assigned to a region for safeguarding the rights of indigenous cultures, there had
been other instances wherein a portion of geographical landmass was made into a union territory
to maintain military prowess and also to avert political turmoil.

10. Ans (d)

Explanation: Art 243H. Powers to impose taxes by, and funds of, the Panchayats.—
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The Legislature of a State may, by law,—
(a) authorize a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in
accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits;
(b) assign to a Panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the State
Government for such purposes and subject to such conditions and limits;
(c) provide for making such grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State;
and
(d) provide for constitution of such Funds for crediting all moneys received, respectively, by or on
behalf of the Panchayats and also for the withdrawal of such moneys there from, as may be
specified in the law.

11. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 A DTAA is a tax treaty signed between two or more countries. Its key objective is that tax-payers in
these countries can avoid being taxed twice for the same income. A DTAA applies in cases where a
tax-payer resides in one country and earns income in another.
 DTAAs can either be comprehensive to cover all sources of income or be limited to certain areas
such as taxing of income from shipping, air transport, inheritance, etc. India has DTAAs with more
than eighty countries, of which comprehensive agreements include those with Australia, Canada,
Germany, Mauritius, Singapore, UAE, the UK and US.
 DTAAs are intended to make a country an attractive investment destination by providing relief on
dual taxation. Such relief is provided by exempting income earned abroad from tax in the resident
country or providing credit to the extent taxes have already been paid abroad. DTAAs also provide
for concessional rates of tax in some cases.

12. Ans (d)

13. Ans (c)

Explanation: Powers, Duties and Functions of Gram Panchayat
 It shall be the duty of the Gram Panchayat to meet the requirements of the villagers of the
Panchayat area, provided that it shall be the duty of the Gram Panchayat to render services to the
inhabitants of the village,
 The Gram Panchayat shall have exclusive power to administer, to prepare and implement
schemes relating thereto for economic development and social justice.
 The State Government, the District Panchayat and the Intermediate Panchayat shall, subject to
availability of resources, provide necessary financial, technical and other assistance to the Gram
Panchayats to enable them to discharge their functions.
 All grants-in-aid sanctioned by the State Government shall be distributed through the Gram-
Panchayat concerned.
 The State Government shall, as soon as may be, after the commencement of this Act, transfer all
institutions, schemes, buildings and other properties, assets and 3.11 liabilities to the Gram-
Panchayat and every institution so transferred shall be in the name of the said Gram- Panchayat.
 The Gram- Panchayat shall administer the institutions and schemes transferred to it, subject to
the guidelines and technical assistance of the State Government and in accordance with the State
and National policies.
 The Gram- Panchayat shall not have any power to sell, transfer, alienate or pledge the properties
transferred to it.

14. Ans (a)

Explanation:
The mandate of the National Council of Senior Citizens is to advise the Central and State Governments
on the entire gamut of issues related to the welfare of senior citizens and enhancement of their
quality of life, with special reference to the following:-

i. Policies, programmes and legislative measures;

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ii. Promotion of physical and financial security, health and independent and productive living;
and

iii. Awareness generation and community mobilization.

It comes under the ambit of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

15. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Election Commission of India's Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election
Commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with
respect to speeches, polling day, polling booths, election manifestos, processions and general
conduct. These set of norms has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have
consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code in its letter and spirit. The Model Code
of Conduct comes into force immediately on announcement of the election schedule by the
commission for the need of ensuring free and fair elections. Much of it is designed to avert communal
clashes and corrupt practices. For example, politicians should not make hate speeches, putting one
community against another or make promises about new projects that may sway a voter. Mosques,
Churches, Temples or other places of worship cannot be used as forum for election propaganda.

16. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The Barak Valley is located in the southern region of the Indian state of Assam. The main city of
the valley is Silchar. The region is named after the Barak River.
 The Brahmaputra Valley is a region situated between hill ranges of the eastern and northeastern
Himalayan range.
 The valley consists of the western Brahmaputra valley covering the regions of Dhubri, Goalpara
and Kamrup; the central Brahmaputra valley region covering Darrang, Nagaon and Sonitpur
districts; and, the eastern Brahmaputra valley covering the districts of Lakhimpur, Dibrugarh and
Sibsagar. The Teesta River in North Bengal also drains into Brahmaputra River.
 The Doon Valley is an unusually wide, long valley within the Shivalik Hills in the Lesser Himalayas,
in the states of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Haryana India. Within the valley lies the city of
Dehradun, the capital of Uttarakhand state.

17. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The state shares maximum number of borders with other states of North East. It is surrounded by
seven states : Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Mehalaya and West
Bengal.
 It does not share its border with Sikkim

18. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Jonbeel Mela is a three-day Tiwa community fair held the weekend of Magh Bihu at a historic
place known as Dayang Belguri at Joonbeel. The Joonbeel (Joon and Beel are Assamese
terms for the Moon and a wetland respectively) is so called because a large natural water body
is shaped like a crescent moon.
 Bihu is the chief festival in the Assam state of India. It refers to a set of three different festivals:
Rongali or Bohag Bihu observed in April, Kongali or Kati Bihu observed in October, and Bhogali or
Magh Bihu observed in January

19. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation
in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article
350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article contains the following provisions: There should be a
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India. It would be the
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duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic
minorities under the Constitution. He would report to the President upon those matters at such
intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such reports before each House of
Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned. It must be noted here that the
Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions
and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

20. Ans (a)

Explanation: The President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information
Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. However, in these cases, the
President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the
enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the President can remove him.

21. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only.
 Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters.

22. Ans (a)

Explanation:
The NOTA option on EVMs has no electoral value. Even if the maximum number of votes cast is for
NOTA, the candidate getting the most of the remaining votes would be declared winner so the NOTA
option would not impact the results of the elections
India became the 14th country to institute negative voting.

23. Ans (d)

Explanation: Compulsory Provisions
1. Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages
2. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels
3. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels
4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels
5. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats
6. 6.Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the
three levels
7. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all
the three levels
8. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months
in the event of supersession of any panchayat
9. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats
10. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position
of the panchayats
Voluntary Provisions
1. Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature
(both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.

2. Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in
panchayats at any level.

3. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of
self-government.

4. Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic
development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the
Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
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5. Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

24. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Jatinga a village on a ridge, is located in Dima Hasao district, Assam State in India. It is most
famous for the phenomenon of birds "committing suicide". Although the birds do not commit
suicide and are actually killed, the myth of the suicides has spread far and wide among common
people.
 At the end of monsoon months especially on moonless and foggy dark nights between 6 p.m. and
9:30 p.m., birds are not disturbed by the locals but out of the dark northern skies will start to
descend as they are attracted to lights. These dazed birds are captured using bamboo poles by the
locals.The local tribals first took this natural phenomenon to be spirits flying from the sky to
terrorize them. Conservation groups and wildlife officials in India have taken steps to prevent
wanton killing of birds across India, creating awareness in the illiterate villagers.

25. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Coffee production in India is dominated in the hill tracts of South Indian states; with the state of
Karnataka accounting 71% followed by Kerala 21% and Tamil Nadu 5% of production of 8,200
tonnes.
 Assam is the largest producer of tea in India. Approximately 52% of the total tea produced in India
comes from the state of Assam. The state registered 652.95 million kilograms of tea production in
the year 2015-16. Lakhimpur, Kamrup, Goalpara, Sivasagar, Cachar, Nagaon and Derang districts
of the state are major producers of tea.
 Digboi is a town and a town area committee in Tinsukia district in the north-eastern part of the
state of Assam, India. Crude oil was discovered here in late 19th century. Digboi is known as the
Oil City of Assam where the first oil well in Asia was drilled. The first refinery was started here as
early as 1901. Digboi has the oldest oil well in operation.
 Mājuli or Majoli is a river island in the Brahmaputra River, Assam and in 2016 became the first
island to be made a district in India. It is recognized as the world's largest river island.

26. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Tea gardens in Assam do not follow the Indian Standard Time (IST), which is the time observed
throughout India and Sri Lanka. The local time in Assam's tea gardens, known as "Tea Garden
Time" or Bagan time, is an hour ahead of the IST. The system was introduced during British days
keeping in mind the early sunrise in this part of the country.
 By and large, the system has subsequently been successful in increasing the productivity of tea
garden workers as they save on daylight by finishing the work during daytime, and vice versa.
Working time for tea labourers in the gardens is generally between 9 a.m. (IST 8 a.m.) to 5 p.m.
(IST 4p.m.) It may vary slightly from garden to garden.

27. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 In northeast India, the hoolock is found south of Brahmaputra and east of the Dibang Rivers. Its
range extends into seven states covering Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura (The seven northeastern states of India).It’s the State Animal of
Arunachal Pradesh
 The pygmy hog is a critically endangered suid,previously spread across Bangladesh,Bhutan, India
and Nepal, but now only found in India (Assam)
 Only one viable population remains in the Manas Tiger Reserve, but even there, threats due to
livestock grazing, poaching, fire, and tigers persist.
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 Wild water buffalo occur in India, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Cambodia, with an
unconfirmed population in Myanmar. They have been extirpated in Pakistan, Bangladesh, Laos,
and Vietnam in and around D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. A small
population survives in Balpakram National Park in Meghalaya, and in Chhattisgarh (formerly part
of Madhya Pradesh) in the Indravati National Park and the Udanti Wildlife Sanctuary.
 Single Horn Rhinoceros found in
 Kaziranga National Park - Assam
 Jaldapara National Park - West Bengal
 Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary - Assam
 Orang National Park - Assam
 Gorumara - West Bengal
 Dudhwa National Park - Uttar Pradesh
 Manas National Park - Assam
 Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary - Uttar Pradesh

28. Ans (b)

Explanation: The recommendations given by ARC are not binding on the government
The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) as a Commission of Inquiry was set up in
January,1966.
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on 31.08,2005, as a
Commission of Inquiry, under the Chairmanship of Shri Veerappa Moily.

29. Ans (b)

Explanation: The CBI derives its power from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. It is not
a statutory body.
To combat Cyber Crime, the CBI has created a specialized structure. This includes:
1. Cyber Crimes Research and Development Unit (CCRDU)
2. Cyber Crime Investigation Cell (CCIC)
3. Cyber Forensics Laboratory
4. Network Monitoring Centre

30. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The NDRF is financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and
customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill. The requirement for funds beyond
what is available under the NDRF is met through general budgetary resources.
 Currently, a National Calamity Contingency Duty (NCCD) is levied to finance the NDRF and
additional budgetary support is provided as and when necessary. A provision also exists in the DM
Act to encourage any person or institution to make a contribution to the NDRF. However, this
source has not yet been tapped.
 The financing of the NDRF has so far been almost wholly through the levy of cess on selected
items, but if the cesses are discontinued or when they are subsumed under the goods and services
tax (GST)

31. Ans (c)

Every member of the Commission shall hold office for such period as may be specified in the order of
the President appointing him, but shall be eligible for reappointment
32. Ans (b)
Explanation: UPSC advises on service related matters only by President. UPSC is not concerned with
the classification of services, pay and service conditions, cadre management, training, and so on. It is
managed by the DoPT.

33. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. It is truly an ad hoc
and advisory body whose work is to do research and make recommendations for law reforms such
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as amendments and updations of prevalent and inherited laws. None of these recommendations
is binding upon the Government.
 Law Commission of is established by an order of central government. Who will head the law
commission is completely at the discretion of the Government. However, it is a convention that a
retired judge of Supreme Court heads India’s Law Commission. Further, the States also can
constitute their own law commissions.

34. Ans (a)

Explanation: VVPATs are a second line of verification and are particularly useful in the time when
allegations around Electronic Voting Machines' tampering crop up.

35. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Dr. Bhupen Hazarika Setu, also referred to as the Dhola–Sadiya Bridge, is a beam
bridge in India, connecting the northeast states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The bridge spans the
Lohit River, a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River, from the village of Dhola (Tinsukia District) in
the south to Sadiya to the north. The bridge is the first permanent road connection between the
northern Assam and eastern Arunachal Pradesh.At 9.15 kilometres (5.69 mi) in length, it is the longest
bridge in India.

36. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Assam silk denotes the three major types of indigenous wild silks produced in Assam—golden
Muga, white Pat and warm Eri silk. The Assam silk industry, now centered in Sualkuchi, is a labor-
intensive industry. Sualkuchi has large number of cottage industry engaged in handloom, for
which it is also known as the "Manchester of Assam".
 Muga silk is a variety of wild silk geographically tagged to the state of Assam in India. The silk is
known for its extreme durability and has a natural yellowish-golden tint with a shimmering, glossy
texture. It was previously reserved for the use of royalty. Muga silk was recognized as a protected
geographical indication (GI) in 2007, and was granted a GI logo for trademark purposes in 2014.

37. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The Leh–Manali Highway is a 490 km (300 mi) long highway in northernmost India connecting Leh
in Ladakh in Jammu and Kashmir state and Manali in Himachal Pradesh state.
 It is open for only about four and a half months in a year in summer between May or June, when
the snow is cleared, and mid-October when snowfall again blocks the high passes. It connects
Manali valley to Lahaul and Spiti valleys and Zanskar valley in Ladakh.
 Leh–Manali Highway was designed and built and is maintained entirely by the Border Roads
Organisation (BRO) of Indian army. It is capable of supporting the heaviest of army vehicles.

38. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Citizen’s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment
of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standard of Services, Information, Choice
and Consultation, Non-discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value for
Money. This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the
commitment of the Organisation.
 Citizen’s Charter initiative not only covers the Central Government Ministries/ Departments/
Organisations but also the Departments/ Agencies of State Governments and UT
Administrations. Various Departments/ Agencies of many State Governments and UT
Administrations have brought out their Charters. More than 600 Citizen’s Charters have so far
been issued by Agencies/ Organisations of 24 States/ Union Territories. Not all states haves
citizen charter

39. Ans (d)

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40. Ans (c)

Explanation: The action for implementation of the Policy is required to be taken by concerned
Ministries/Departments from their own budgetary allocations. No separate funds have been allocated
for implementation of the Policy. Ministry of MSME is implementing Entrepreneurship Development
Programmes (EDPs), Industrial Motivation Campaigns (IMCs), Entrepreneurship and Skill Development
Programmes (ESDPs) and Management Development Programmes (MDPs) Scheme for Skill
Development for employment and self employment.

41. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 In a significant step towards realisation of the Prime Minister’s vision for creation of a New India
by 2022, Government has identified 115 backward districts for rapid transformation by 2022. For
each of the Districts, a senior official in the rank of Additional secretary and Joint secretary has
been nominated as Prabhari officer.
 The prabhari officers will work towards poverty, health, education and infrastructure in a
collaborative manner.

42. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is envisaged to make e-governance
. It is developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-
Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India.
 UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services
ranging from Central to Local Government bodies and other citizen centric services.
 UMANG intends to provide major services offered by Central and State Government departments,
Local bodies and other utility services from private organizations. It provides a unified approach
where citizens can install one application to avail multiple government services.
 UMANG service has been made available on multiple channels like mobile application, web, IVR
and SMS which can be accessed through smartphones, feature phones, tablets and desktops.
UMANG has been created with a thought to add convenience to your lifestyle. UMANG will
revolutionize the way how an Indian citizen avails government services today, because it leverages
the current accelerated internet and smartphone penetration in our country.
 App is initially available in 13 language and will replace or compliment 1500 apps launched by the
government so far.

43. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Membership of EBRD would enhance India's international profile and promote its economic
interests. Access to EBRD's Countries of Operation and sector knowledge.
 India's investment opportunities would get a boost.
 It would increase the scope of cooperation between India and EBRD through co-financing
opportunities in manufacturing, services, Information Technology, and Energy.
 EBRD's core operations pertain to private sector development in their countries of operation. The
membership would help India leverage the technical assistance and sectoral knowledge of the
bank for the benefit of development of private sector.
 This would contribute to an improved investment climate in the country.
 The membership of EBRD would enhance the competitive strength of the Indian firms, and provide
an enhanced access to international markets in terms of business opportunities, procurement
activities, consultancy assignments etc.
 This would open up new vistas for Indian professionals on the one hand, and give a fillip to Indian
exports on the other.
 Increased economic activities would have the employment generating potential.
 It would also enable Indian nationals to get the employment opportunity in the Bank.

44. Ans (c)

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Explanation:
A pressure group, also known as an interest group or lobby, is an organization formed by like-minded
people who seek to influence public policy to promote an interest. Pressure groups exist in all modern
pluralist democracies and have sprung up on all sides.

45. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public
servants covered by it.
 Its jurisdiction extends to the All-India Services, the Central Civil Services, civil posts under the
centre and civilian employees of defense services.
 However, the members of the defense forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the
secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
 A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Chairman unless he is, or has been, a judge
of a High Court.

46. Ans (b)

Explanation: It has status of statutory autonomous body and free of control from any executive
authority as per provisions of Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) Act,2003.

47. Ans (d)

48. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH), an autonomous organisation with the
Ministry of Home Affairs, organises the Communal Harmony Campaign coinciding with the Qaumi
Ekta Week and also observes the Communal Harmony Flag Day. The Foundation promotes
Communal Harmony and strengthens National Integration. Under its Project ‘Assist’, the NFCH
also provides financial assistance for relief and rehabilitation of children rendered orphan or
destitute in communal, caste, ethnic or terrorist violence.
 The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) is observing the Communal Harmony
Campaign and Fund Raising Week from November 19-25, 2017 and the Flag Day was celebrated
today with enthusiasm and fervour.

49. Ans (b)

Explanation: The Indian Railways will launch the country’s largest time-bound “upskilling” exercise for
government employees to upgrade the skillsets of its 13 lakh-strong workforce with a single drive
spanning nine months. Named Project Saksham, the exercise will start in January 2018 and go on till
September, putting through training courses and specially designed skill-upgrade modules. Employees
from the rank of a peon to the Railway Board Members and everyone in between will undergo the
training.

50. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 RBI Gov Urjit Patel appointed as member of advisory board of Bank of International Settlement.
 He was appointed as a board member of the Financial Stability Institute (FSI).
 The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial institution owned by
central banks which "fosters international monetary and financial cooperation and serves as a
bank for central banks". The BIS carries out its work through its meetings, programmes and
through the Basel Process – hosting international groups pursuing global financial stability and
facilitating their interaction. It also provides banking services, but only to central banks and other
international organizations. It is based in Basel, Switzerland, with representative offices in Hong
Kong and Mexico City.
 With regard to its banking activities, the customers of the BIS are central banks and international
organisations. As a bank, the BIS does not accept deposits from, or provide financial services to,
private individuals or corporate entities.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

51. Ans (b)

Explanation: RTI act extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

52. Ans (a)

Explanation: The Gram Sabha is empowered to initiate the process of determining the extent of forest
rights and not the Governor.

53. Ans (b)

Explanation: The passage of the 74th Constitution Amendment in 1992 resulted in Urban Local Bodies
(ULBs) — Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils and Municipal Corporations — becoming a
constitutionally recognised “institution of self-government”. However, it did not prescribe the manner
of election, tenure or powers of the Mayors/Chairpersons of ULBs.

54. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) is a project of UNESCO launched in 2004 to promote
cooperation among cities which recognized creativity as a major factor in their urban
development. As of 2017, there are 180 cities from 72 countries in the network.
 The Network recognizes the following creative fields:
 Crafts and Folk Arts
Media Arts
 Film
 Design
 Gastronomy
Literature
 Music
Chennai has got this international recognition. The city has been included in the UNESCO Creative
Cities Network for its rich musical tradition.

55. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Minister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha launched a Pan India scholarship program for
school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana to increase the reach of Philately.
 Under the scheme of SPARSH (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a
Hobby), it is proposed to award annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good
academic record and also pursuing Philately as a hobby through a competitive selection process in
all postal circles.

56. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The Chenab Bridge is a railway steel and concrete arch bridge under construction between Bakkal
and Kauri in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir in India. When finished, the bridge will span
the Chenab River at a height of 359 m (1,178 ft) above the river, making it the world's highest rail
bridge. The bridge is scheduled to open in 2019.
 This makes the Chenab Bridge:
 The world's highest railway bridge
 The bridge with the widest span in the Indian broad gauge railway network
 The bridge forms a crucial link in the 111-km stretch between Katra and Banihal, which is part of
the Udhampur- Srinagar-Baramulla rail link project.
 An under-construction railway bridge over the Chenab river in Jammu and Kashmir’s Reasi district,
billed to be the world’s highest, can withstand earthquakes measuring up to eight on the Richter
scale and high-intensity blasts, railway officials have said.
 The work on the Rs 1,250-crore bridge, which will be 359 metres above the Chenab river bed and
stand 30 metres taller than the iconic Eiffel Tower in Paris, will be completed by May, 2019.
 Please refer the link
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 http://indianexpress.com/article/india/worlds-highest-rail-bridge-on-chenab-river-can-stand-
quakes-blasts-officials-4934343/
 https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/railways/worlds-highest-rail-
bridge-taller-than-eiffel-tower-in-jk-to-be-completed-in-two-years/articleshow/58491446.cms

57. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The Atlas of Sustainable Development Goals 2017 uses maps, charts and analysis to illustrate,
trends, challenges and measurement issues related to each of the 17 Sustainable Development
Goals. The Atlas primarily draws on World Development Indicators (WDI) - the World Bank's
compilation of internationally comparable statistics about global development and the quality of
people's lives Given the breadth and scope of the SDGs, the editors have been selective,
emphasizing issues considered important by experts in the World Bank's Global Practices and
Cross Cutting Solution Areas
 The ease of doing business index is an index created by Simeon Djankov at the World Bank Group.
 Global activity is firming broadly as expected. Manufacturing and trade are picking up, confidence
is improving, and international financing conditions remain benign. Global growth is projected to
strengthen in 2018-19, in line with January forecasts. In emerging market and developing
economies (EMDEs), growth is predicted to recover in 2017-19, as obstacles to growth in
commodity exporters diminish amid moderately rising commodity prices, and activity in
commodity importers remains robust.

58. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Powers for creating port trusts is vested in the Major Ports Trust Act 1963 through
which the Central Government could install port trusts.

59. Ans (a)

Explanation: Article 243I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as
soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third
Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance
Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the
Governor.

60. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The superintendent, direction and control of the preparation electoral roles for and conduct of, all
elections to the Gram Panchayat and Zilla Pachayat shall be vested in the State Election
Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
 The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) is the nodal officer who is in charge of ensuring implementation
of all the provisions of electoral laws in the state.

61. Ans (b)

Explanation: The DMF is funded through the contribution of miners.

62. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The PMO is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body
 The National Defense Fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with PM as Chairperson,
and Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members. Finance Minister is the Treasurer of the
Fund and the Joint Secretary, PMO dealing with the subject is Secretary of the Executive
Committee. Accounts of the Fund are kept with the Reserve Bank of India. The fund is entirely
dependent on voluntary contributions from the public and does not get any budgetary support.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established with public contributions to
assist displaced persons from Pakistan. The resources of the PMNRF are now utilized primarily to
render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities like floods, cyclones and
earthquakes, etc. and to the victims of the major accidents and riots.

63. Ans (a)

Explanation: The practice of rotating senior officers in and out of the Secretariat position is known in
official parlance as the tenure system.

64. Ans (d)

65. Ans (a)

Explanation: The Governor is the head of the State but head of a Union territory is only administering
the area on behalf of the State(i.e., President).

66. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Bali Jatara festival is held in Odisha (a state in eastern India), in the city of Cuttack at Gadagadia
Ghata of the Mahanadi river, to mark the day when ancient Sadhabas (Oriya mariners) would set
sail to distant lands of Bali, as well as Java, Sumatra, Borneo (all in Indonesia), and Sri Lanka for
trade and cultural expansion.
 Sangai festival is an annual cultural festival organised by Manipur Tourism Department every year
from November 21 to 30. Even though many editions of this Festival has been celebrated over the
past few years with the name of Tourism Festival, since 2010 this has been renamed as the Sangai
Festival to stage the uniqueness of the shy and gentle brow-antlered deer popularly known as the
Sangai Deer, which is the state animal of Manipur.
 Assam Chief Minister inaugurated the Namami Barak festival said that Barak and Brahmaputra
rivers have the same language, that is of brotherhood, unity and harmony.

67. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The government has given the go-ahead for setting up India’s first mega coastal economic zone
(CEZ) at the Jawaharlal Nehru Port in Maharashtra as part of a plan to develop 14 such industrial
clusters to spur manufacturing and generate jobs.
 The Union Cabinet had last year approved setting up of 14 mega CEZs under the National
Perspective Plan of the Sagarmala Programme, with an aim to promote development of industrial
clusters around ports, encourage portled development, reduce logistics cost and time for
movement of cargo, enhance global competitiveness of India’s manufacturing sector and create
hubs of job creation.

68. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Kambala Kannada is an annual Buffalo Race (he-buffalo) held traditionally under the auspices of
local landlords and households or Patel of the village, in coastal Karnataka, India. The ‘track’ used
for Kambala is a paddy field filled with slush and mud.
 Kadri Kambala used to be held at Kadri, Mangalore, and it is called Devara Kambala (God’s
kambala) as it is associated with Sri Manjunatha Temple. This event was attended by Alupa kings
of Mangalore, 300 years ago. Kambala still continues to draw the rural crowd. In traditional form,
the racing is non-competitive. A ritualistic approach is also there, as some agriculturists race their
he-buffaloes for thanksgiving (to God) for protecting their animals from diseases.
 Every Makar Sankranti, which coincides with Assam’s harvest festival Bhogali Bihu, bulbul fights
are organised in the Hayagriva-Madhava Temple in Hajo, 30 km from Guwahati.
 People believe that great Ahom King Swargadeo Pramatta Singha saw two Bulbul birds fighting
while descending the stairs of the temple. The king was amused by their struggle and instructed
his men to catch Bulbul birds and organise their fights. Later it became a part of the tradition and
a unique signature event of the temple during the Magh Bihu.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
 In parts of rural Maharashtra, bullock cart races have, for long, been a source of recreation and
entertainment. Bullock races last around 25 seconds. Maximum distance is 500 metres. For many
people, it is a status symbol, while many farmers take it up as a hobby, no betting involved in
these races held in village fairs. The Supreme Court judgement of 7 May 2014, banned the bullock-
cart races in the country. The state government has then issued a gazette notification regarding
resumption of bullock cart races in the state. In April 2017, the state legislature had cleared the
bill amending the PCA act (1960). After getting a presidential consent, a gazette notification was
issued on July 31 enforcing the PCA act 2017.
 But The Bombay High Court in October 2017, refused to vacate its stay restraining the
Maharashtra government from granting permission for bullock cart races, observing bulls were
not anatomically designed to participate in races and would be subjected to cruelty if used as a
performing animal.
 Horse and camel race during the Pushkar fair period attract the most crowds, and the winner gets
a cash prize from the government of Rajasthan. The camels are trained to take part in the race
and to emerge as winners. The race takes place amidst a celebration of folk dancing and music.
There is also a camel beauty contest. Another competition makes large numbers of people sit on
the camel’s back and usually fall. The camel that accommodates the maximum number of people
on its back wins the competition.

69. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The GI tag conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to
the fact of its origin in a defined geographical locality, region or country.
 TRIPS requires WTO members to provide copyright rights, covering content producers including
performers, producers of sound recordings and broadcasting organizations; geographical
indications, including appellations of origin; industrial designs; integrated circuit layout-designs;
patents; new plant varieties; trademarks; trade dress; and undisclosed or confidential information.
 Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property,
geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles
22 to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which
was part of the agreements concluded at the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations.
 India, as member of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of
Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 that came into force from September 15, 2003.

70. Ans (a)

71. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Baswan Committee is not mandated to provide recommendations on reservation
policy.

72. Ans (c)

73. Ans (d)

Explanation: Article 321 of the constitution states that an Act made by Parliament or, as the case may
be, the Legislature of a State may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the Union Public
Service Commission or the State Public Service Commission as respects the services of the Union or
the State and also as respects the services of any local authority or other body corporate constituted
by law or of any public institution.

74. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 "Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)" is an innovative programme
sponsored and managed by the Department of Science & Technology for attraction of talent to
Science. The basic objective of INSPIRE is to communicate to the youth of the country the
excitements of creative pursuit of science, attract talent to the study of science at an early age
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
and thus build the required critical human resource pool for strengthening and expanding the
Science & Technology system and R&D base.
 A striking feature of the programme is that it does not believe in conducting competitive exams
for identification of talent at any level. It believes in and relies on the efficacy of the existing
educational structure for identification of talent.
 (November 2017 News)The Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and
Technology, Government of India invites applications from students pursuing graduation and post
graduation courses in natural or basic sciences for INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for
Inspired Research) Scholarship for Higher Education (SHE) 2017.

75. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The tenth edition of the South Asia Economic Summit (SAES X) is being held in Kathmandu from
14-16 November 2017 with a theme Deepening Economic Integration for Inclusive and
Sustainable Development in South Asia. This Summit will focus on various topics and issues
important for the South Asia region under this overarching theme.
 SAES is led by a group of five eminent think tanks that take turns to organize the annual event in
one of the SAARC countries since 2008. The co-organizers are: South Asia Watch on Trade,
Economics and Environment (SAWTEE), Nepal; Centre for Policy Dialogue (CPD), Bangladesh;
Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS), India; Sustainable Development
Policy Institute (SDPI), Pakistan; and Institute of Policy Studies of Sri Lanka (IPS), Sri Lanka.

76. Ans (a)

Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra
Modi has given its approval for expansion of the schemes of Ministry of Women and Child
Development under Umbrella Scheme "Mission for Protection and Empowerment for Women" for a
period 2017-18 to 2019-20. CCEA has also given approval to the new scheme called ‘Pradhan Mantri
Mahila Shakti Kendra', which will empower rural women through community participation to create
an environment in which they realize their full potential.

77. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Sethu samudram Shipping Canal Project is a proposed project to create a shipping route in the
shallow straits between India and Sri Lanka.
 The Rs 50,800-crore Setu Bharatam project aims to ensure highways without railway crossings by
2019 and overhaul of 1,500 British-era bridges.
 Sagarmala Project: It aims to promote port- led direct and indirect development and provide
infrastructure to transport goods to and from ports quickly, efficiently and cost- effectively. The
project is estimated to cost around Rs 12,00,000 crore. The government wants to implement the
projects worth Rs 5,00,000 crore under the ambitious programme by May 2019.It is a strategic
and customer-oriented investment initiative of the Government of India entailing setting up of 6+
mega ports, modernization of several dozen more ports, development of 14+ Coastal Economic
Zones and at least 29 Coastal Economic Units, development of mines, industrial corridors, rail,
road and airport linkages with these water ports
 It aims to modernize India's Ports so that port-led development can be augmented and coastlines
can be developed to contribute in India's growth. It also aims for "transforming the existing Ports
into modern world class Ports and integrate the development of the Ports, the Industrial clusters
and hinterland and efficient evacuation systems through road, rail, inland and coastal waterways
resulting in Ports becoming the drivers of economic activity in coastal areas."
 The Diamond Quadrilateral is a project of the Indian railways to establish a high speed rail
network in India. This quadrilateral will connect the four metro cities in India, i.e. Delhi, Mumbai,
Kolkata and Chennai. This project is similar to Golden Quadrilateral which is a roadway project
which connects the four metros by Express Ways.

78. Ans (d)

 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
Explanation: The Criminal Tribes Act refers to legislations passed during the British rule in India in the
1870s which declared specific tribal groups as ‘Criminal Tribes’. The legislations were repealed in 1952
under Independent India.

79. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 The anti-defection law was passed by parliament in 1985.
 The 52nd amendment to the Constitution added the Tenth Schedule which laid down the process
by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection. A member of parliament or state
legislature was deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily resigned from his party or
disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote. That is, they may not vote on any issue
in contravention to the party’s whip. Independent members would be disqualified if they joined a
political party. Nominated members who were not members of a party could choose to join a
party within six months; after that period, they were treated as a party member or independent
member.

80. Ans (a)

Explanation: The minimum age difference between the child and either of the adoptive parents
should not be less than 25 years incase of US.

81. Ans (d)

Explanation: It is managed by Ministry of Finance not department of women and child development

82. Ans (a)

Explanation: IGNOAPS is being implemented by Ministry of rural development

83. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The JJ Act 2015 creates different authorities from regular courts that control how children interact
with the law. The Juvenile Justice Board or JJB is the authority that deals with Children in Conflict
with Law (a child offender).
 Typically, each district would have a juvenile justice board that would deal with affairs pertaining
to that area.
 The JJB has all powers of a normal magistrate court. In addition to this, there are several functions
and responsibilities that the JJB is conferred with.
 These are aimed towards making the proceedings least intimidating and as child-friendly as
possible. So, the JJB works to ensure informed consent and participation of the child and family at
each stage. It has an interpreter or translator, and assured legal aid for children in need.
The other set of functions are aimed to ensure the protection of children. The JJB can conduct jail
visits to check if children are accidentally lodged there. It must inspect the facilities for children at
least once a month to check on their upkeep. Similarly to the magistrate, the JJB can also order
the lodging of an FIR for offences committed against children.

84. Ans (b)

Explanation: The Balfour Declaration was a public statement issued by the British government during
World War I announcing support for the establishment of a "national home for the Jewish people" in
Palestine, then an Ottoman region with a minority Jewish population.

85. Ans (a)

86. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Either of all the above is only required for recognition as a state party not all of them.

87. Ans (c)

Explanation: Uranium has the highest energy density among them.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
88. Ans (c)
Explanation:
 The Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014 was
passed on the basis of the legislative recognition that street vendors constitute “an integral part of
our urban economy”. The government recognised street vending as not only a source of self-
employment for the poor in cities and towns, but also as a means to provide “affordable” as well
as “convenient” services to a majority of the urban population.
 The law mandates that hawkers can be removed only as a last resort or unless there is a clear and
urgent need, that too to rehabilitate them.

89. Ans (b)

90. Ans (d)

91. Ans (c)

92. Ans (d)

93. Ans (d)

Explanation: Oath and affirmation is mentioned in the Third Schedule of the Constitution

94. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for
effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation
of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to
environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for
matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a specialized body equipped with the
necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues.
 The NGT functions under the Ministry of Environment Forestry and Climate Change

95. Ans (b)

Explanation:
Explanation:
 The Forest (Conservation) Act 1980 governs the diversion of forest land to non-forest purposes.
The Act mandates that a compensatory fund is to be paid by the organization which is diverting
forest land. This gave the impetus for setting up compensatory afforestation funds.
 The Supreme Court on July 2009 issued orders that there will be a Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) as National Advisory Council under the
chairmanship of the Union Minister of Environment & Forests for monitoring, technical assistance
and evaluation of compensatory afforestation activities.

96. Ans (a)

Explanation: The National Company Law Tribunal functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It
is an adjudicating authority for firms and corporations but not for individuals.

97. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Constitution of India designates the official language of the Government of India as
Hindi written in the Devanagari script, as well as English. There is no national language as declared by
the Constitution of India. Hindi and English are used for official purposes such as parliamentary
proceedings, judiciary, communications between the Central Government and a State Government.
States within India have the liberty and powers to specify their own official language(s) through
legislation and therefore there are 22 officially recognized languages in India.

98. Ans (d)

Explanation: The decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme
Court of the India by appropriate petitions. By long standing convention and several judicial
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
pronouncements, once the actual process of elections has started, the judiciary does not intervene in
the actual conduct of the polls. Once the polls are completed and result declared, the Commission
cannot review any result on its own. This can only be reviewed through the process of an election
petition, which can be filed before the High Court, in respect of elections to the Parliament and State
Legislatures. In respect of elections for the offices of the President and Vice President, such petitions
can only be filed before the Supreme Court.

99. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog.

100. Ans (a)