SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

TEST 6 – INDIAN POLITY - II - ANSWER KEY

1. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 The Committee on Public Accounts is constituted by Parliament each year for examination of accounts
showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India, the
annual Finance Accounts of Government of India, and such other Accounts laid before Parliament as the
Committee may deem fit such as accounts of autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies (except those
of Public Undertakings and Government Companies which come under the purview of the Committee on
Public Undertakings).
 The Committee consists of not more than 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha
every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by
means of single transferable vote and not more than 7 members of Rajya Sabha elected by that House in
like manner are associated with the Committee. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from
amongst its members of Lok Sabha. The Speaker, for the first time, appointed a member of the
Opposition as the Chairman of the Committee for 1967-68. This practice has been continued since then.
However there is no established procedure for appointing Leader of opposition as its head, so it is at the
discretion of the speaker. A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee. If a
member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the
Committee from the date of such appointment.

2. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Ordinance shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six
weeks from the reassembly of Parliament.

3. Ans (b)
Explanation: Delimitation commission
 The Delimitation commission or Boundary commission of India is a commission established by the
Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. The main task of the
commission is redrawing the boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on
a recent census. The representation from each State is not changed during this exercise. However, the
number of SC and ST seats in a state are changed in accordance with the census.
 The Commission is a powerful body whose orders cannot be challenged in a court of law. The orders are
laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However, modifications are
not permitted.

4. Ans (b)
Explanation: The Rapid Action Force (RAF)
It is a specialized wing of the Indian CRPF (Central Reserve Police Force) to deal with riot and crowd control
situations.

5. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made
by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such
State.

6. Ans (c)

7. Ans (b)
Explanation: Law commission
 Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India. Its
major function is to work for legal reform. Its membership primarily comprises legal experts, who are
entrusted a made by the Government. The Commission is established for a fixed tenure and works as an
advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
 It is an advisory body so its recommendations are not binding on the government.
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8. Ans (a)
Explanation: Borders and forces in India
International Border Guarded by
Indo-Pakistan Border Border Security Force (BSF)
Indo-Bangladesh Border Border Security Force (BSF)
Indo-China Border Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Indo-Nepal Border Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
Indo-Bhutan Border Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
Indo-Myanmar Border Assam Rifles (AR)
9. Ans (b)
Explanation:
 During a national emergency, many Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six
freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended.
 Article 358 which suspends Art 19 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 which relates to
other suspension of other fundamental rights may extend to the entire country or a part of it.

10. Ans (a)

Explanation:
We note here that the constitution provides entrustment of executive function of centre to state without
even consent of that state but then this delegation comes from parliament {by law} and not president. This
implies that a law made by the Parliament on Union List subject can confer powers and impose duties on a
state, or authorise the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state (irrespective
of the consent of the state concerned). This power of delegation by law is not available to state.

11. Ans (a)

Explanation:
 Ministry of Defence - controls Indian Armed Forces which include Army, Navy, Air force and Coast Guard
 The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) refers to uniform nomenclature of five security forces in India
under the authority of Ministry of Home Affairs. They are the Border Security Force (BSF), Central
Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP),
and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).
 The term "paramilitary forces" in India has not been defined in any acts or by authorities officially
however they are conventionally used to refer to two forces i.e. Assam Rifles and Special Frontier Force.
 The Assam Rifles (AR) - 63,747 personnel
(led by Indian Army officers reporting to the Ministry of Home Affairs)
 The Special Frontier Force (SFF)
(led by Indian Army officers reporting to Indian Intelligence)

12. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 ITBP is also providing security to the pilgrims during Annual Kailash Mansarovar Yatra from 1981. ITBP
provides communication, security and medical cover to the yatries from Gunji to Lipulekh Pass and back
to Gunji in co-ordination with MEA and Kumaon Mandal Vikas Nigam.
 The CRPF, responsible for the security of Amarnatha Yatra pilgrims, are now using drone cameras to
keep an eye on militants in the region.
 After attack on Amarnath Yatra in July 2017, drones add to security apparatus in Jammu and Kashmir

13. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The process of election of the President of India is original and no other Constitution contains a similar
procedure.
 Article 54 of the constitution says:
 "The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of -
(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National Capital
Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th amendment
Act, 1992)."
14. Ans (d)
Explanation:
Article 136 of the Constitution of India gives power to the Supreme Court of India to grant Special Leave of
appeal against the orders of High Courts, Tribunals and other Courts in the territory of India.

15. Ans (a)

Explanation: Restrictions on Attorney General of India
• The Attorney General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the Government.
• He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a company
without the permission of the Government.
• The Attorney General of India does not have any executive authority, and is not a political appointee;
those functions are performed by the Law Minister of India.
• The Attorney General of India, like an Advocate General of a State is not supposed to be a political
appointee, in spirit, but this is not the case in practice. Every time a party comes to power in the general
elections, in India, all the law officers resign, and law officers loyal to the new party are appointed.
• AG is not a government servant and is not debarred from private legal practice.

16. Ans (c)

Explanation: Personal Law in Indian Constitution is placed under Concurrent list - Entry 5

17. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 There are proposals for proxy voting.
 The Government in August 2017 approved changes in electoral laws to permit Non-Resident Indians to
cast their vote in assembly and Lok Sabha elections from overseas. If the proposal passes political muster
in Parliament, NRIs will be able to exercise their voting rights through “proxy”. Currently, only service
personnel are permitted to vote through proxy.

18. Ans (a)

Explanation:
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within
two months from the date of its issue.

19. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 A recall election is typically a process by which voters seek to remove elected officials through a direct
vote before their term is completed.
 The Right to Recall exists at local level bodies in Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.

20. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 VVPAT is used only for Electronic voting Machine not for Paper Ballot Box
 Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) or Verifiable Paper Record (VPR) is a method of providing
feedback to voters using a ballot less voting system. A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification
system for voting machines designed to allow voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect
possible election fraud or malfunction, and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic results. It
contains name of the candidate (for whom vote has been casted) and symbol of the party/ individual
candidate.
 In India, Voter-verified paper audit trail (VVPAT) system was introduced in 8 of 543 parliamentary
constituencies as a pilot project in Indian general election, 2014
 VVPAT -fitted EVMs was used in entire Goa state in the 2017 assembly elections, which was the first time
that an entire state in India saw the implementation of VVPAT.
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21. Ans (b)
Explanation:
 There are 24 High Courts at the state and union territory level of India, which together with the Supreme
Court of India at the national level, comprise the country's judicial system.
 The Centre has constituted three new High Courts in the northeast — Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura
— taking the total number of High Courts in the country from 21 to 24.
 The Gauhati High Court has largest jurisdiction in terms of states, with its area covering the states of
Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Mizoram.

22. Ans (d)

23. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body and it investigates and discusses such subjects, in which
some or all of the States or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest, for better
coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject. It also deliberates upon such other
matters of general interests to the States as may be referred by the Chairman to the Council
 The Inter-State Council is assisted by Secretariat, which is headed by a Secretary to the Government of
India. The Inter-State Council Secretariat closely monitors the implementation of the recommendations
made by the Inter-State Council, and places the Action Taken Report before the Standing
Committee/Council for consideration. Inter-State Council Secretariat also works as Secretariat of the
Zonal Councils.

24. Ans (a)

Explanation:
• Under GST taxation powers will continue to remain with state legislatures and will be based on the
recommendations of the GST Council, a specialized body set up for this purpose. Under the new GST tax
regime, sovereignty will be shared between the Centre and states. The recommendations of the council
binding on the government.
• The GST Council has legislative, executive and judicial powers. It will recommend GST legislation, oversee
implementation of the GST in the country, and set up a mechanism to adjudicate disputes between its
members.
• In case of inter-state transactions, the Centre would levy and collect the Integrated Goods and services
tax.

25. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Under Article 200, the Governor can reserve a bill passed by the legislature for reconsideration of the
President. A bill can be reserved under the following circumstances: (i) if the bill is unconstitutional, (ii) if it is
against the larger interest of the country, (iii) if it is in direct opposition to the Directive Princi-ples of State
Policy, (iv) if the bill passed by the state legislature is of grave national importance, (v) if it endangers the
position of the High Court and (vi) if the bill, deals with the compulsory acquisition of property under Article
31(C).

26. Ans (c)

Explanation:
• Tribunal is to resolved a dispute of particular type.
• Under article 262 of the Constitution, it is permissible for Parliament, by law, to provide for the
adjudication of disputes relating to inter-State rivers or river-valleys. The law so enacted can exclude the
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts.
• The Interstate River Water Disputes Act, 1956 (IRWD Act) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted
under Article 262 of Constitution of India on the eve of reorganization of states on linguistic basis to
resolve the water disputes that would arise in the use, control and distribution of an interstate river or
river valley. Article 262 of the Indian Constitution provides a role for the Central government in
adjudicating conflicts surrounding inter-state rivers that arise among the state/regional governments.
• Even though exclusive chapter on tribunal was added later through 44th Amendment Act, Article 262 is a
provision related to tribunal in original constitution.
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27. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 NALSA along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats. Lok Adalat is one of the
alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law
or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably.
 Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
 Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil
court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of
law.
 If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an
appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of
appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to
litigate.
 There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
 If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court
fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
 The persons deciding the cases in the Lok Adalats are called the Members of the Lok Adalats, they have
the role of statutory conciliators only and do not have any judicial role; therefore they can only persuade
the parties to come to a conclusion for settling the dispute outside the court in the Lok Adalat and shall
not pressurize or coerce any of the parties to compromise or settle cases or matters either directly or
indirectly.
 The Lok Adalat shall not decide the matter so referred at its own instance, instead the same would be
decided on the basis of the compromise or settlement between the parties.
 The members shall assist the parties in an independent and impartial manner in their attempt to reach
amicable settlement of their dispute.
 Please refer the link
http://nalsa.gov.in/lok-adalat

28. Ans (b)

Explanation: NALSA
 The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities
Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats
for amicable settlement of disputes.
 In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and
directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the
State. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by Hon’ble the Chief Justice of the respective High
Court who is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority.
 In every District, District Legal Services Authority has been constituted to implement Legal Services
Programmes in the District. The District Legal Services Authority is situated in the District Courts
Complex in every District and chaired by the District Judge of the respective district.
 Please refer the link
http://nalsa.gov.in/about-us

29. Ans (d)

Explanation:
• After the General Discussion on the Budget proposals and Voting on Demands for Grants have been
completed, Government introduces the Appropriation Bill. The Appropriation Bill is intended to give
authority to Government to incur expenditure from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India. The
procedure for passing this Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills.
• Both Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill are money bills

30. Ans (d)

Explanation:
The President is required to make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of India (or in his
absence, the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court), an oath or affirmation that he/she shall protect,
preserve and defend the Constitution.
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31. Ans (d)
Explanation:
 The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a fraud investigating agency in India. It is under the
jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India. The SFIO is involved in major fraud
probes and is the co-ordinating agency with the Income Tax Department and the Central Bureau of
Investigation
 It is a multi-disciplinary organization having experts from financial sector, capital market, accountancy,
forensic audit, taxation, law, information technology, company law, customs and investigation. These
experts have been taken from various organizations like banks, Securities and Exchange Board of India,
Comptroller and Auditor General and concerned organizations and departments of the Government

32. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Competition Commission of India is a statutory body of the Government of India responsible for
enforcing The Competition Act, 2002 throughout India and to prevent activities that have an appreciable
adverse effect on competition in India.

33. Ans (d)

Explanation:
• The anti-defection law was passed by parliament in 1985. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution
added the Tenth Schedule which laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on
grounds of defection. A Member of Parliament or state legislature was deemed to have defected if he
either voluntarily resigned from his party or disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
That is, they may not vote on any issue in contravention to the party’s whip. Independent members
would be disqualified if they joined a political party. Nominated members who were not members of a
party could choose to join a party within six months; after that period, they were treated as a party
member or independent member.
• Challenges and Interpretations
• The anti-defection law raises a number of questions, several of which have been addressed by the courts
and the presiding officers.
• Does the law impinge on the right of free speech of the legislators? This issue was addressed by the five-
judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in 1992 (Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachilhu and others). The
court said that “the anti-defection law seeks to recognise the practical need to place the proprieties of
political and personal conduct…above certain theoretical assumptions.” It held that the law does not
violate any rights or freedoms, or the basic structure of parliamentary democracy.
• What constitutes “voluntarily” resigning from a party? Various judgements and orders indicate that a
member who publicly opposes the party or states his support for another party would be deemed to
have resigned from his party. News reports may be used as evidence for this purpose.
• Can the decision of the presiding officer be challenged in the courts? The law states that the decision is
final and not subject to judicial review. The Supreme Court struck down part of this condition. It held
that there may not be any judicial intervention until the presiding officer gives his order. However, the
final decision is subject to appeal in the High Courts and Supreme Court.

34. Ans (c)

Explanation:
The term office of profit has not been defined in the Constitution. But, articles 102 (1) and 191 (1) – which
give effect to the concept of office of profit -- prescribe restrictions at the central and state level on
lawmakers accepting government positions. Any violation attracts disqualification of MPs or MLAs, as the
case may be.

35. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Discretionary power of the governor which is not enjoyed by the president
1. Under Art 163(2), the power to decide whether an issue is discretionary or not is itself is discretion of the
governor.
2. Under Art 166(3), the governor discretion in making rules for the more convenient transaction of state
government in the areas of his discretion.
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3. Under Art 356 the governor can invite the President to take over the state administration.
4. Under Art 200, the governor can reserve any bill for the consideration of the President.
5. The governor acts in discretion while sending the fortnightly report to the centre.
6. Under Art 371 governor of some states have special responsibility. Like -
(a) The governor of Arunachal Pradesh: to maintain law and order of the state.
(b) The governor of Assam: for the administration of the tribal region.
(c) The governor of Karnataka: for the development of Hyderabad- Karnataka region.
(d) The governor of Gujarat: for the development of the Saurashtra and Kutch region.
(e) The governor of Maharashtra: for the development of Vidarbha and Marathwada region.
(f) The governor of Nagaland: law and order
(g) The governor of Manipur: to secure the proper functioning of the committee of state assembly
consisting of the members from hilly region.
(h) The governor of Sikkim: for peace and socio economic development.

36. Ans (d)

Explanation:
Namgyal Monastery
 It is currently located in Mcleod Ganj, Dharamsala, India. It is the personal monastery of the 14th Dalai
Lama. Another name for this temple-complex is Namgyal Tantric College.
 This monastery's key role is to assist with rituals involving the Dalai Lama of Tibet. Its main tantric
practices reportedly include those of Kalachakra, Yamantaka, Chakrasamvara, Guhyasamaja, and
Vajrakilaya.
Hemis Monastery, Ladakh
 Hemis monastery is the largest and is also considered to be the wealthiest monastery in the Ladakh
region. It shares its root with one of the ancient pupils of Buddhism, Naropa who is believed to achieve
enlightenment in Hemis.
Tawang Monastery, Bomdila, Arunachal Pradesh
 It is the largest monastery in India and second largest in the world after the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet.
 Arunachal Pradesh, the North Eastern state of India which is considered to be one of the best places for
trekking, is the home to the magnificent Tawang Monastery.
 Tawang Monastery is also known as the ‘Chosen Horse Monastery’. The peaceful and serene
surroundings of this monastery make it an ideal place to seek solace of mind. The monastery is also the
birthplace of the sixth Dalai Lama. The fifth Dalai Lama wished for a monastery in this region and thus
the monastery was established. Mera Lama Lodre Gyatso founded this monastery.
 Please refer the link
https://www.thrillophilia.com/monasteries-in-india

37. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Arunachal Pradesh got its first railway line in late 2013 with the opening of the new link line from
Harmuti on the main Rangpara North-Murkongselak railway line to Naharlagun in Arunachal Pradesh.
The construction of the 33 kilometre 1,676 mm (5 ft 6 in) broad gauge railway line was completed in
2012, and the link became operational after the gauge conversion of the main line from Assam.
 The state capital Itanagar was added to the Indian railway map on 12 April 2014 via the newly built 20
kilometre Harmuti-Naharlagun railway line, when a train from Dekargaon in Assam reached Naharlagun
railway station, 10 kilometres from the centre of Itanagar, a total distance of 181 kilometres
 On 20 February 2015 the first through train was run from New Delhi to Naharlagun. India plans to
eventually extend the railway to Tawang, near the border with China

38. Ans (c)

Explanation:
• Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies in
accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
• There is no domicile requirement for a person contesting for Rajyasabha election in a particular state.
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39. Ans (d)
Explanation:
The Office of the Speaker is a very powerful one. He derives his powers from three sources –
a. The Constitution, b. The Rules of Procedures and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha and c. The
Parliamentary Convention(residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified).

40. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Censure Motion:
• This motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and by the Opposition of the House. It can be moved
against the Council of Ministers or an individual Minister or a group of Ministers for their failure to act or
not to act or for their policy and may express regret, indignation or surprise of the House at the failure of
the Minister or Ministers. The Motion should be specific and self-explanatory so as to record the reasons
for the censure, precisely and briefly.
• There is no need to state the reasons for the adoption of No confidence motion in the Lok Sabha but for
Censure motion the reason should be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

41. Ans (b)

Explanation: Inner Line Permit
 Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to allow inward
travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period. It is obligatory for Indian citizens
from outside those states to obtain a permit for entering into the protected state. The document is an
effort by the government to regulate movement to certain areas located near the international border
of India. This is an offshoot of the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations, 1873, which protected Crown's
interest in the tea, oil and elephant trade by prohibiting "British subjects" from entering into these
"Protected Areas" (to prevent them from establishing any commercial venture that could rival the
Crown's agents).
 The states which require the permit are:
 Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland.
 There are also ongoing demands for the introduction of ILP in Assam, Meghalaya and Manipur to
regulate entry of outsiders into the state

42. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 Nameri in Assam
 Dampa in Mizoram
 Please refer the link
http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/trd_8222.aspx

43. Ans (a)

Explanation:
A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and
drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House, e.g., all resolutions are
substantive motions.

44. Ans (c)

Explanation:
The President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both
the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Union
Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry.

45. Ans (a)

Explanation:
• Under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, all revenues (example tax revenue from personal
income tax, corporate income tax, customs and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as licence
fees, dividends and profits from public sector undertakings etc.) received by the Union government as
well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneys received by
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the Union Government in repayment of loans shall form a consolidated fund entitled the 'Consolidated
Fund of India' for the Union Government.
• While no amount can be withdrawn from the fund without the authorisation from the Parliament money
borrowed and receipts from loans given by the government doesn’t require the approval of the
parliament.

46. Ans (d)

Explanation: http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/br_8225.aspx

47. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Nathu La connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China's Tibet Autonomous Region.
 Nathu La is one of the three open trading border posts between China and India; the others are Shipkila
in Himachal Pradesh and Lipulekh (or Lipulech) at the trisection point of Uttarakhand–India, Nepal and
China

48. Ans (c)

Explanation:
• The President shall assent to constitutional amendment bills without power to withhold the bills per
Article 368 (2).
• The President of India enjoyed absolute veto on Constitutional amendment till 1971 only. The article 368
(2) before 1971 stated: It, shall be presented to the President for his assent and upon such assent being
given to the bill , the constitution shall stand amended. However, the situation changed in 1971. The
above clause was changed as follows by Constitution 24th Amendment Act, 1971: It, shall be presented
to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon. This means that now, Constitutional
amendments cannot be questioned by the president or any court of law. However, the Basic Structure of
the Constitution still remains under the Judicial Review, in case of such amendment violates the basic
structure.
• The Indian President does not enjoy the power of Qualified Veto.

49. Ans (a)

50. Ans (c)

51. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The International Economic Association (IEA) is a Non-Governmental Organization that was founded in
1950, at the instigation of the Social Sciences Department of UNESCO. It has since its creation
maintained information and consultative relations with UNESCO and is since 1973 a federated member
of the International Social Science Council.
 Please refer the link
http://www.iea-world.org/general-information/

52. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The tunnelling work under the Hooghly River, the first such underwater project in the country, to
provide metro connectivity between Howrah and Kolkata has been completed.
 The tunnel will be a crucial link for the Railway’s 16.6-km-long East-West Metro project in Kolkata.

53. Ans (d)

Explanation:
• The chief justice of a high court can appoint officers and servants of the high court without any
interference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.
• High Court have the power to review and correct its own judgement.

54. Ans (c)

Explanation:
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A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent
proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.

55. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj has inaugurated Know India Programme (KIP) for PIO youths
with a view to provide them with an exposure to the country of their origin so that they can understand
India better and more closely. External Affairs Minister has also launched a portal for the Know India
Programme (KIP)

56. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea is an independent judicial body established by the
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea to adjudicate disputes arising out of the interpretation
and application of the Convention.
 The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent members, elected from among persons enjoying the
highest reputation for fairness and integrity and of recognized competence in the field of the law of the
sea.
 The Tribunal has jurisdiction over any dispute concerning the interpretation or application of the
Convention, and over all matters specifically provided for in any other agreement which confers
jurisdiction on the Tribunal (Statute, article 21).
 The Tribunal is open to States Parties to the Convention (i.e. States and international organisations
which are parties to the Convention).
 It is also open to entities other than States Parties, i.e., States or intergovernmental organisations which
are not parties to the Convention, and to state enterprises and private entities
 In a significant victory for India at the UN, international law expert Neeru Chadha has won a crucial
election to a top UN judicial body that deals with disputes related to the law of the sea, becoming the
first Indian woman to be appointed as a judge at the tribunal.
 Ms. Chadha, an eminent lawyer and the first Indian woman to become the chief legal adviser in the
ministry of external affairs, won the election to the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
for a nine-year term from 2017 to 2026.
 Please refer the link
https://www.itlos.org/the-tribunal/

57. Ans (c)

Explanation: Article 243I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as
may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992,
and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial
position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor.

58. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are
based on five sources, namely,
1. Constitutional provisions,
2. Various laws made by Parliament,
3. Rules of both the Houses,
4. Parliamentary conventions, and
5. Judicial interpretations.
MP’s have freedom of speech in Parliament. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for
anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees. This freedom is subject to the
provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
59. Ans (c)
Explanation: When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed.
However, still, such type of law is not considered a Constitution Amendment Bill. (Article 169).

60. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 ISRO successfully launched the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle-Mark III on 5 June 2017 from
the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Andhra Pradesh.
 GSKV-Mk III is capable of launching four-tonne satellites in the Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
 The rocket is also capable of placing up to eight tonnes in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO), enough to carry a
manned module.
 GSAT-19 satellite with a lift-off mass of 3136 kg, is the communication satellite of India, configured
around the ISRO’s standard I-3K bus.

61. Ans (d)

Explanation:
World Environment Day [WED] was established by the UN General Assembly in 1972 on the first day of
[United Nations Conference on the Human Environment], resulting from discussions on the integration of
human interactions and the environment. Two years later, in 1974 the first WED was held with the theme
"Only One Earth".

62. Ans (b)

63. Ans (a)

Explanation:
• The property of Centre is exempted from all taxes imposed by a state or any authority within a state like
municipalities, district boards, panchayats and so on. But, the Parliament is empowered to remove this
ban. The word ‘property’ includes lands, buildings, chattels, shares, debts, everything that has a money
value, and every kind of property— movable or immovable and tangible or intangible. Further, the
property may be used for sovereign (like armed forces) or commercial purposes.
• The corporations or the companies created by the Central government are not immune from state
taxation or local taxation. The reason is that a corporation or a company is a separate legal entity.

64. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 In a bid to bring together the Indian scientists abroad and India-based researchers for conducting joint
researches in India, the Department of Science and Technology (DST) launched a scheme named 'Visiting
Advanced Joint Research Faculty' (Vajra)
 The initiative would boost research work and lead to newer, cutting edge technologies, which was
needed in India.
 Under this scheme, scientists or senior researchers abroad - of Indian origin or otherwise - can
collaborate with faculties here

65. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 The Reserve Bank of India has widened the scope of the Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006 by enabling
a customer to lodge a complaint against the bank for non-adherance to instructions related to mobile
banking and electronic banking services.
 The banking regulator also said that the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman to pass an
award has been increased from the existing 10 lakh to 20 lakh.
 The central bank has also allowed customers to file complaints against banks for deficiencies arising out
of sale of third party products such as insurance policies and mutual fund schemes sold by banks.
 Please refer the link
 https://rbi.org.in/SCRIPTS/FAQView.aspx?Id=24
 http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/ombudsman-can-rule-on-mobile-
transactions/article19136267.ece
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
66. Ans (b)
Explanation:
The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds—one mentioned in Article 356
itself and another in Article 365:
1. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen
in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise
too (i.e., even without the governor’s report).
2. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the
Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of
the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

67. Ans (d)

68. Ans (a)

Explanation: Types and Composition of Cabinet Committees:
Standing Cabinet Committee
• These are permanent in nature with a specific job. These are specified in the First Schedule of TBR
• The Cabinet Ministers are called its ‘members’ while the people without the rank of Cabinet Committee
are called ‘special invitees’.
Ad-hoc Cabinet Committee
• These are temporary in nature and are formed time to time to deal with specific tasks.
• Cabinet committees can be headed by other cabinet ministers also.

69. Ans (d)

70. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 Eminent scientist, former Chief of ISRO and Padma Vibhushan Dr. K. Kasturirangan has been appointed
Chairman of the committee tasked with preparing the final draft of the National Education Policy.
 All these inputs, along with suggestions of the T.S.R. Subramaniam committee, will be considered by the
committee.
 The previous committee was constituted under the chairmanship of T.S.R. Subramanian, former cabinet
secretary, by the government in 2015. Due to differences between some members the committee and
the then HRD minister Smriti Irani, the recommendations submitted in 2016 were not received well.
 The Subramanian committee had advocated a new civil service cadre for the education sector, abolition
of the University Grants Commission, continuation of a no-detention policy till Class V, and the teaching
of English at the primary school level.
 Please refer the link
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/kasturirangan-to-head-education-
committee/article19152083.ece

71. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 NITI Aayog has unveiled a programme called SATH along with the state governments to kick start the
process of transforming education and health sectors.
 SATH, which stands for ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital,’ will entail the government
think tank to provide technical support to State governments in the two sectors.
 The programme aims to identify and build three future ‘role model’ states for health systems, an official
statement said.
 The Aayog will work in close collaboration with their state machinery to design a robust roadmap of
intervention, develop a program governance structure, set up monitoring and tracking mechanisms,
hand-hold state institutions through the execution stage and provide support on a range of institutional
measures to achieve the end objectives.
 The program will be implemented by the Aayog along with McKinsey & Company and IPE Global
consortium, who were selected through a competitive bidding process.
 Please refer the link
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
http://www.thehindu.com/business/niti-aayog-unveils-sath-programme/article18956584.ece

72. Ans (c)

Explanation:
• The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the
two categories of matters:
(a) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.
(b) On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad
or other similar instruments.
• In the first case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the president. But,
in the second case, the Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its opinion to the president. In both the cases, the
opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is
not binding on the president; he may follow or may not follow the opinion. However, it facilitates the
government to have an authoritative legal opinion on a matter to be decided by it.

73. Ans (d)

Explanation: In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the
assembly:
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two
2. Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
3. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor14.
4. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers
5. Including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However,
6. Irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
7. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state
8. Public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
9. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission.

74. Ans (d)

75. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 The Narmada Control Authority (NCA) has been setup under the final orders and decision of the
Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal (NWDT) as a machinery for implementation of its directions and
decision.
 The authority started functioning from 20th December, 1980. The authority is a body corporate with
representatives of the four States of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and
representatives of Govt. Of India.
 The authority is funded in equal proportions by all the four states. Secretary (Water Resources), Govt. of
India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Authority, whereas the routine administration is the responsibility
of Executive Member of the Authority.
 Please refer the link
http://www.nca.gov.in/

76. Ans (c)

Explanation:
 All other three schemes by the Ministry of Urban Development
 Twelve cities namely Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh), Gaya(Bihar), Dwaraka(Gujarat), Amritsar(Punjab),
Ajmer(Rajasthan), Kanchipuram(Tamil Nadu), Vellankani(Tamil Nadu), Puri(Odisha), Varanasi(Uttar
Prasesh), Mathura(Uttar Pradesh), Kedarnath (Uttarakhand) and Kamakhya (Assam) have been identified
for development under Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spirituality Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) by the
Ministry of Tourism.

77. Ans (a)

Explanation:
Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the
political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the
attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
particular issue. He regulates and monitors their beha-viour in the Parliament. The members are supposed
to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken.

78. Ans (c)

Explanation:
Adjournment Motion:
• It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public
importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. As it interrupts the normal business
of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an element of censure against the
government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an
adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.
• The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following
restrictions:
1. It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance;
2. It should not cover more than one matter;
3. It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in general
terms;
4. It should not raise a question of privilege;
5. It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session;
6. It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court; and
7. It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.

79. Ans (a)

Explanation:
• A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it. The
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the president to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a
specified part of India.
• The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month
from the date of its issue. Originally, the period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months,
but was reduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

80. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification in Those Countries Experiencing Serious
Drought and/or Desertification, Particularly in Africa (UNCCD) is a Convention to combat desertification
and mitigate the effects of drought through national action programs that incorporate long-term
strategies supported by international cooperation and partnership arrangements.
 The Convention, the only convention stemming from a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference's
Agenda 21, was adopted in Paris, France on 17 June 1994 and entered into force in December 1996.
 It is the only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the problem of desertification.
 The World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is a United Nations observance each June 17.
 Its purpose is to raise awareness of the presence of desertification and drought, highlighting methods of
preventing desertification and recovering from drought. Each year's global celebration has a unique,
novel emphasis that had not been developed previously.

81. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 Shri J P Nadda, Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare launched the ‘Skill for Life, Save a Life’
initiative to promote skill development in the health sector
 ‘Skills for Life, Save a Life’ Initiative’ aims to upscale the quantity and quality of trained professionals in
the healthcare system. Under this initiative various courses are planned to be initiated targeting specific
competencies for healthcare professionals as well as for general public.

82. Ans (d)

Explanation: Union Executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister and Council of
Ministers and the Attorney General.
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83. Ans (a)
Explanation: A constitutional amendment cannot be made through ordinance route.

84. Ans (c)

Explanation:
• A parliamentary committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman1
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman
3. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman
4. Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha
• Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds—Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
• The former are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis, while
the latter are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them.
• When a Bill comes up before a House for general discussion, it is open to that House to refer it to a
Select Committee of the House or a Joint Committee of the two Houses. A motion has to be moved and
adopted to this effect in the House in which the Bill comes up for consideration. In case the motion
adopted is for reference of the Bill to a Joint Committee, the decision is conveyed to the other House
requesting them to nominate members of the other House to serve on the Committee. The Select or
Joint Committee considers the Bill clause by clause just as the two Houses do. Amendments can be
moved to various clauses by members of the Committee.

85. Ans (d)

Explanation:
 There are multiple high courts in India who are entrusted with the jurisdiction of more than one state
inclusive of a union territory.
 “The decisions of high court regarding constitutional matters and matters involving territorial nexus
would be applicable beyond its jurisdiction”.

86. Ans (c)

87. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The district court has appellate jurisdiction over all subordinate courts situated in the district on both civil
and criminal matters.

88. Ans (c)

Explanation:
A Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or
before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ
Jurisdictions.

89. Ans (b)

Explanation:
 ECOSOC, one of the six main organs of the United Nations, is the principal body for coordination, policy
review, policy dialogue and recommendations on economic, social and environmental issues, as well as
for implementation of the internationally agreed development goals
 The Council has 54 member states out of the 193 UN member states, which are elected by the United
Nations General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms.
 Seats on the Council are based on geographical representation with 14 allocated to African states, 11to
Asia-Pacific states, 6 to East European states, 10 to Latin American and Caribbean states and 13 to West
European and other states.
 India has been re-elected to the UN’s principal organ on economic, social and environmental issues for
another three-year term. India was among 18 nations to win election to the Economic and Social Council
(ECOSOC). India obtained 183 votes, the second highest after Japan in the Asia Pacific category.
 India’s re-election to ECOSOC comes just a day after leading expert on international law Neeru Chadha
won a crucial election to the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS), becoming the first
Indian woman to be elected as judge to the tribunal.
 SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
90. Ans (c)
Explanation: http://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/archives/00/00/00/controversy-around-art-
35a-ii

91. Ans (c)

Explanation: The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the
case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In 1992, the
Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.

92. Ans (c)

Explanation: The Speaker decides whether a bill is a money bill or not and his decision on this question is
final. When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to the
President for assent, the Speaker endorses on the bill his certificate that it is a money bill.

93. Ans (c)

Explanation:
The Constitution does not prohibit a state from having a separate state flag. In S.R. Bommai v/s Union of
India (Supreme Court 1994) case, the Supreme Court declared that there is no prohibition in the Constitution
for the state to have its own flag. However, the manner in which the state flag is hoisted should not
dishonour the national flag. It has to be always below the national flag.

94. Ans (a)

95. Ans (a)

Explanation: The High Courts are vested the power to issue contempt of courts subordinate to them.

96. Ans (d)

Explanation:
• The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created by Parliament to regulate and represent the Indian
bar. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette
and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. It also sets standards for legal education and
grants recognition to Universities whose degree in law will serve as qualification for enrolment as an
advocate.
• In addition, it performs certain representative functions by protecting the rights, privileges and interests
of advocates and through the creation of funds for providing financial assistance to organize welfare
schemes for them.

97. Ans (c)

98. Ans (b)

Explanation:
The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly
and the minimum strength is fixed at 40.

99. Ans (c)

Explanation:
President’s Rule under Article 356 can be used for the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It has been used at least
twice, in the years 1986 and 1990.

100. Ans (a)

Explanation:
The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a
temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned
and with the previous consent of the president