Psychological Testing: Principles, Applications, and Issues, International Edition, 7th Edition (Tutorial Quiz)

CHAPTER 1 CHAPTER 2 CHAPTER 3

1. Psychological tests: 1. Statistical procedures that allow one to make 1. The correlation equals +1 for which of the
a. always have right or wrong answers. inferences about large groups by examining a following four pairs of numbers?
b. do not attempt to measure traits. smaller sample are called: a. (4, -9), (2, -1), (-2, -2), (0, -5)
c. pertain only to overt behavior. a. descriptive statistics. b. (0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9)
d. measure characteristics of human b. inferential statistics. c. (2, 4), (4, 8), (0, 0), (-2, -4)
behavior. c. ratios. d. (4, 3), (2, -1), (-2, -9), (0,-5)
2. Previous learning can best be described as: d. populations. 2. What is the point of least squares for the
a. ability. 2. A scale that allows one to determine if there is numbers 4, 6, 8, and 10?
b. intelligence. more, less, or an equal amount of the attribute in a. 4
c. achievement. comparison to another observation is called a(n) b. 7
d. aptitude. ________ scale. c. 10
3. One's general potential, independent of prior a. nominal d. indeterminate
learning, can best be described as: b. ratio 3. Supposed X is used to predict Y and both are
a. ability. c. ordinal in z-score form. Which of the following is always
b. aptitude. d. interval true regarding the predicted Y score?
c. achievement. 3. Many feel that the different between an IQ of a. It is closer to 0 than the obtained Y
d. intelligence. 100 and 105 is not the same as the difference score.
4. The main purpose of psychological testing is between an IQ of 70 and 75. These people feel b. It is larger than the obtained X score.
to evaluate: that IQ tests lack ________. c. It is closer to 0 than the X score.
a. covert behavior. a. equal intervals d. It is smaller than the X score.
b. individual differences. b. magnitudes 4. The intercept is the:
c. personality traits. c. ratios a. slope of the regression line.
d. overt behavior. d. absolute zeroes b. standard deviation of a test score.
5. Personality tests in which the test stimulus 4. A percentile rank is a measure of: c. value obtained using the equation to
and/or required response are ambiguous are a. relative performance. predict scores.
called: b. absolute performance. d. value of Y when X is zero.
a. projective personality tests. c. peak performance. 5. The difference between correlation and
b. achievement personality tests. d. actual performance. regression is:
c. structured personality tests. 5. The Roman letter S refers to: a. regression requires standardized
d. unstructured personality tests. a. the standard deviation of a population. units while correlation does not.
6. A test that is accurate, dependable, and b. the standard deviation of a sample. b. in correlation, scores on the Y axis
consistent is: c. the variance of a population. regress toward the mean while in regression
a. meaningful. d. the variance of a sample. they do not.
b. valid. 6. A measure of how much scores within a c. in regression, scores on the Y axis
c. reliable. distribution differ among themselves is the: regress toward the mean while in correlation
d. objective. a. mean. they do not.
7. The validity of a psychological test refers to its: b. variance. d. correlation is the same thing as
a. objectivity. c. standard deviation. regression except scores are in standardized
b. meaning. d. frequency. units.
c. dependability. 7. A Z score of 3 is approximately how many 6. An appropriate correlation coefficient
d. fairness. standard deviations above the mean? describing the relationship between two
8. Which of the following scientists is credited a. 6 artificially dichotomous variables is:
with founding the science of psychology? b. 99 a. biserial correlation.
a. Weber c. 3 b. phi coefficient.
b. Herbart d. 0 c. point biserial correlation.
c. Wundt 8. Approximately what percentage of scores falls d. tetrachoric correlation.
d. Cattell below the mean in a standard normal 7. The type of correlation coefficient used to
9. The first intelligence tests were developed for distribution? correlate a dichotomous variable (two
the purpose of: a. 1% categories) and a continuous variable is called:
a. measuring emotional stability. b. 16% a. phi coefficient.
b. identifying gifted children. c. 34% b. Spearman's Rho.
c. finding the most suitable candidates d. 50% c. point biserial correlation.
for the U.S. Army. 9. Distribution of scores can be divided into how d. multivariate analysis.
d. identifying intellectually many equal deciles? 8. X and Y correlate .6. What is the coefficient of
subnormal individuals. a. 9 alienation of this relation?
10. In order to establish norms, a large group of b. 4 a. .36
people is being given a test under the same c. 10 b. 0
conditions in which the test will actually be used. d. 25 c. .80
This group is called a(an) ________ group. 10. Comparing an individual's test score only d. .60
a. random with members of his/her own racial group is an 9. Assume that X and Y correlate .6, are in z-
b. experimental example of: score form, and that a particular value of X is 1.
c. standardization a. norm monitoring. What is the predicted value of Y?
d. reliability b. criterion monitoring. a. .4
c. within-group norming. b. .6
d. tracking. c. 0
 d. 1 9. The Spearman Brown formula corrects for c. face validity and content validity
10. Assume that X and Y correlate .4, are in z- deflated reliability due to: d. discriminant validity and
score form, and that a particular value of X is 1. a. poor test item construction. convergent validity
What is the predicted value of Y? b. half-length tests. 9. If a variable has a "restricted range," it is
a. 0 c. small sample size. difficult to estimate a validity coefficient due to a
b. 1 d. systematic error. lack of:
c. .4 10. Correction for attenuation is used: a. variability.
d. .6 a. to correct for tests that are short. b. criterion validity.
CHAPTER 4 b. to estimate the true correlation c. cross validation.
1. When talking about errors in terms of between variables that have been measured d. adequate sample size.
psychology testing, we are referring to the fact with error. 10. Discriminant and convergent evidence
that: c. to correct for tests that are long. provide evidence for what type of validity?
a. the test was inappropriate for that d. to estimate the validity of a test. a. criterion
particular group. CHAPTER 5 b. content
b. the score is too subjective to be 1. The agreement between a test score and the c. predictive
accurate. construct it is resumed to measure is referred to d. construct
c. there is always some inaccuracy in as its: CHAPTER 6
the measurement. a. alpha level. 1. The tendency for test takers to agree on most
d. someone got an answer incorrect. b. stability. of the items is called a(n):
2. Who developed methods for evaluating c. validity. a. miss rate.
sources of error in behavioral research? d. face validity. b. item difficulty.
a. Charles Spearman 2. "Face validity" is: c. guessing threshold.
b. Edward Thorndike a. the correlation between a test score d. acquiescence response set.
c. Kuder and Richardson and some poorly established criterion. 2. True-false examinations use:
d. Cronbach b. not really a form of validity because a. a dichotomous format.
3. Classic Test Theory assumes: it offers no evidence to support conclusions. b. a poltomous format.
a. the length of a test has no bearing on c. acceptable for research studies but c. a Likert format.
its reliability. not for tests used in clinical practice. d. a category format.
b. errors are systematic. d. the best evidence for validity. 3. The expected level of chance performance, for
c. errors are random. 3. Concurrent and predictive validity are both a 200-item multiple-choice exam with four choice
d. true scores cannot be estimated. subcategories of: alternatives, is:
4. An observed score is composed of: a. criterion validity. a. 25 correct.
a. measurement error and predictor. b. face validity. b. 75 correct.
b. residual and true score. c. convergent validity. c. 50 correct.
c. true score and measurement error. d. empirical validity. d. 100 correct.
d. criterion and predictor. 4. If a test of intelligence is influenced by eye 4. Which item format can best be factor analyzed
5. When creating a test, one generally uses a color, this is an example of: to find which ones group together?
subset of items to represent a larger construct. a. face validity. a. dichotomous
This is known as: b. aggregate validity. b. Likert
a. descriptive statistics. c. construct-irrelevant variance. c. forced-choice
b. a domain sampling. d. construct underrepresentation. d. multiple-choice
c. a population parameter. 5. If the test score forecasts some criterion, the 5. A test format which is typically used for
d. a sampling error. test has: attitude measurement is the:
6. A reliability coefficient of .60 suggests that: a. content validity. a. checklist format.
a. 40% of the variance on the test is b. concurrent validity. b. Likert format.
error. c. predictive validity. c. dichotomous format.
b. 64% of the variance on the test is d. face validity. d. category format.
error. 6. The extent to which a test is valid for making 6. The optimal item difficulty of a 6-alternative
c. 78% of the variance on the test is statements about the criterion is represented by test is:
error. its: a. .50.
d. the test can be used for clinical a. construct-irrelevant variance. b. .585.
purposes, but not for research. b. squared validity coefficient. c. .6.
7. The difference between David's two typing c. content validity. d. .625.
tests, one at the beginning of the semester and d. validity coefficient. 7. For most tests, the maximum amount of
one at the end, reflects the fact that he typed 7. Hypothetically, 9% of the variation of skill information about differences between
quite a few term papers during the semester. among dentists is accounted for by the test that individuals can be obtained from items in the
This reflects: they took in order to pass the dental board difficulty range of:
a. random error. examination. What is the validity coefficient of a. .30 to .70.
b. practice effects. the test? b. .40 to .80.
c. attenuation. a. .81 c. between .55 and .85.
d. domain sampling. b. 3% d. above .90.
8. Sources of error associated with time c. .03 8. When test items are evaluated against total
sampling are measured using: d. .3 test score, we use a(n):
a. the split half method. 8. To develop a test with construct validity, what a. criterion referenced test.
b. the test-retest method. types of validity evidence are needed? b. multivariate analysis.
c. KR20. a. discriminant validity and predictive c. external criterion.
d. the Alphia method. validity d. internal criterion.
b. face validity and predictive validity
9. The average of a series of item characteristic
curves is known as:
a. the average characteristic curve.
b. a test characteristic curve.
c. the standard error of the item
characteristic.
d. the variance ratio curve.
10. The extreme group method and the point
biserial method are both used to estimate:
a. reliability.
b. validity.
c. difficulty.
d. discriminability.
CHAPTER 7
1. In general, studies have indicated that the
race of the examiner:
a. is unrelated to test performance.
b. should be the same as that of the
subject.
c. is not as important as sex of the
examiner.
d. should be different than that of the
subject.
2. Studies have demonstrated that:
a. disapproving comments by an
examiner can hinder test performance.
b. too much approval by the examiner
can hinder performance.
c. there is no relationship between the
examiner's comments and test performance.
d. disapproving comments by the
examiner can actually motivate children and
enhance their performance.
3. Rosenthal asserted that expectancy effects
are likely to result from subtle uses of:
a. nonverbal communication.
b. disapproving comments.
c. gender and racial bias.
d. reinforcement.
4. If a test administrator gave reinforcement to
the test-taker on a random schedule, we might
NOT expect:
a. depression.
b. learned helplessness.
c. decreased motivation.
d. increased motivation.
5. Because situational variables can affect test
scores, testing requires:
a. standardized conditions.
b. at least two test administrators.
c. a test administrator and an observer.
d. test administrators with similar
backgrounds and characteristics.
6. As sample size increases, expectancy effects
tend to:
a. remain stable.
b. increase.
c. become more important.
d. decrease.
7. Test scores of paper and pencil tests
compared to computer assisted tests indicate:
a. better scores are achieved by paper
and pencil tests.
b. poorer control with computer assisted
tests.
c. the scores are about equivalent.
d. better scores are achieved by
computer assisted tests.
8. Once observers have been trained in 6. Within Carkhuff and Berenson's 5-point
behavioral studies, they have a tendency to go system, what is the minimum level of responding
back to their own personal rating system when necessary to keep the interaction flowing?
they are not under supervision. This a. I
phenomenon is known as: b. III
a. experiences. c. V
b. statistical control of rating errors. d. II
c. reactivity. 7. Thordike (1920), called the tendency to judge
d. drift. specific traits on the basis of general impression
9. Which approach is used to remove the effect the:
of uncontrolled variability? a. experimenter bias effect.
a. expectancies b. testing effect.
b. standardized reactivity c. general "standoutishness."
c. partial correlation d. halo effect.
d. statistical drift I 8. Attempts to measure understanding began
10. Test anxiety is an example of a(n): with the work of:
a. expectancy variable. a. Saccuzzo.
b. subject variable. b. Carkhuff.
c. test variable. c. Berenson.
d. reactivity variable. d. Rogers.
CHAPTER 8 9. A(n) ________ was developed in order to help
Which of the following is NOT a similarity overcome the low reliability in psychiatric
between an interview and psychological tests in diagnosis.
general? a. mental status
a. Both may involve an individual or a b. evaluation
group procedure. c. case history
b. Both can be evaluated in terms of d. structured clinical interview
standard psychometric qualities. 10. Structured clinical interviews have been
c. Both can be administered in a criticized because:
standard format. a. reliability is very low.
d. They are equally important for b. it is difficult to define a specific group.
gathering information in clinical settings. c. they rely completely on self-report
2. Criminal interrogations can result in data.
misleading information if an interrogator is highly d. they are very brief.
active because: CHAPTER 9
a. the suspect's activity level 1. The oldest approach to investigating human
increases, which increases the interrogator's intelligence is:
suspiciousness. a. psychometric.
b. active interrogators tend to cause the b. cognitive.
suspect to clam up and refuse to make a c. information-processing.
statement. d. psychophysics.
c. hyperactive interrogators tend to miss 2. Binet believed that human intelligence was
important cues given by the suspect. expressed through:
d. they make the suspect nervous and a. judgment, attention, and
prone to make misleading statements. reasoning.
3. Social facilitation refers to: b. ethnicity and socioeconomic status.
a. a method of interviewing. c. socioeconomic status and level of
b. a method of enhancing human education.
relationships. d. positive self-concept and gender.
c. the phenomenon that we tend to 3. With the principle of age differentiation:
act like the models around us. a. one can find the equivalent age
d. the best method of psychotherapy. capabilities of a child independently of
4. According to Carkhuff and Berenson, a level chronological age.
one response: b. Binet freed himself from the burden of
a. bears little relationship to the identifying each independent aspect of
interviewee's response. intelligence.
b. goes beyond the statement given. c. one can find the equivalent age
c. is interchangeable with the capabilities of a child if their chronological age is
interviewee's statement. known.
d. communicates some awareness of d. the deviation IQ can be ascertained.
the meaning of a statement. 4. To support the notion of g, Spearman
5. Which type of statement points out a developed a statistical technique called:
discrepancy or inconsistency? a. analysis of variance.
a. confrontation b. factor analysis.
b. summarizing c. correlation.
c. level 3 d. principle components.
d. probing
5. According to Spearman, what percentage of
the variance in a set of mental ability tests is
represented by the g factor?
a. 50%
b. between 66.67% and 75%
c. 75%
d. 100%
6. Those abilities that allow us to learn and
acquire information can be referred to as:
a. fluid intelligence.
b. positive manifold.
c. 'g.'
d. crystallized intelligence.
7. The age scale concept was introduced in:
a. the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale.
b. the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale.
c. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale.
d. the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale.
8. Which version of the Binet scale was the first
one to utilize a large, geographically diverse
standardization sample?
a. 1916
b. 1905
c. 1937
d. 1908
9. As used in the Stanford-Binet Scale, the
deviation IQ is a standard score with a:
a. mean of 100 and standard
deviation of 16.
b. mean of 50 and standard deviation of
8.
c. mean of 100 and standard deviation
of 15.
d. mean of 100 and standard deviation
of 10.
10. How many factors are present in the Fifth
Edition of the Binet scale?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
CHAPTER 10
1. Among his motivations for the development of
the Wechsler scales of intelligence, was David
Wechsler's belief that:
a. a single intelligence score was the
most appropriate measure of human
intelligence.
b. existing intelligence scales were
adequate to measure the intelligence of all age
groups.
c. one underlying mental ability was
solely responsible for the concept of intelligence.
d. human intelligence was
significantly influenced by nonintellective
factors.
2. The Wechsler tests employs a(n):
a. point scale concept.
b. criterion IQ concept.
c. self-reference point concept.
d. age scale concept.
3. The main reason for including a performance
scale in a measure of intelligence is to:
a. improve examiner-examinee rapport.
b. overcome language, cultural, and
educational factors.
c. increase ease of administration.
d. facilitate scoring.
4. Which WAIS-III subtest asks questions such
as, "What should you do if you see an injured
person lying on the street?"
a. Information
b. Similarities
c. Picture Arrangement
d. Comprehension
5. Scaled scores on the WAIS-III have a mean of
________ and a standard deviation of
________.
a. 50; 10
b. 100; 15
c. 100; 16
d. 10; 3
6. In the WAIS-III, an index is created when:
a. a criterion number of correct
responses is obtained.
b. two or more subtests are related to
a basic underlying skill.
c. a specified number of items is missed.
d. at least one subtest is related to an
underlying skill.
7. The best single measure of intelligence that is
also the most stable is:
a. information processing speed.
b. concentration.
c. quantitative ability.
d. the ability to define words.
8. Which subtest of the WAIS-III is specifically
related to working memory and attention?
a. vocabulary
b. similarity
c. letter-number sequencing
d. comprehension
9. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of
Intelligence-III:
a. is designed for the 4 to 6 1/2 year age
group.
b. is designed for the 3 1/2 to 6 1/2 year
age group.
c. is designed for the 3 to 7 year age
group.
d. is designed for the 2 1/2 to 6 year
age group.
10. An improvement in the WISC-IV is its
emphasis on:
a. the VIQ-PIQ dichotomy.
b. the mazes subtest.
c. fluid reasoning.
d. working memory.
CHAPTER 11
1. One way to overcome the limitations of a
particular alternative ability test is to:
a. There is no way to overcome these
limitations.
b. compare the results at two different
administrations.
c. use several such tests in
conjunction.
d. compare the results to one of the
major scales.
2. The Developmental Quotient (DQ) is
employed in the:
a. Brazelton Neonatal Assesment Scale.
b. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale.
c. Gesell Developmental Schedules.
d. Bayley Scales of Infant Development.
3. The Bayley II produces two main scores:
a. mental and motor.
b. mental and verbal.
c. social and motor.
d. mental and performance.
4. This is the most psychometrically sound test
of infant ability available to date.
a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment
Scale
b. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale
c. Gesell Developmental Schedules
d. Bayley Scales of Infant
Development II
5. The McCarthy Scales for Children's Abilities:
a. produces a score known as the
general cognitive index.
b. produces only a single score.
c. is psychometrically unsound.
d. measures abilities in children between
4.5 and 10.5 years of age.
6. When used with adults, the ________ scale
tends to underestimate IQ.
a. K-ABC
b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary
c. Binet
d. Wechsler
7. Which scale purports to measure general
intelligence by sampling from a variety of
functions such as memory and nonverbal
reasoning, in a completely nonverbal fashion?
a. Peabody Picture Vocabulary
b. K-ABC
c. CMMS
d. Letter International Performance
Scale-Revised
8. Currently, in order to be eligible for special
education on the basis of a specific learning
disability under federal and most state laws,
children must:
a. obtain a low score on an achievement
test.
b. obtain a low score on an IQ test.
c. exhibit signs of slow performance for
at least one semester of school.
d. exhibit a severe discrepancy
between potential and actual school
achievement.
9. According to the Individuals with Disabilities
Education Act (IDEA), parents who believe their
child is in need of assessment should:
a. take their child to their family
physician in order to obtain a referral.
b. submit a written, dated request that
the school must respond to within 15 days.
c. make an appointment with the school
counselor to request an assessment.
d. call and make a verbal request for an
assessment.
10. Which of the following is a procedure with
relevance for assessing brain damage?
a. Leiter International Performance
Scale-Revised
b. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
c. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic
Abilities
d. Porteus Maze Test
CHAPTER 12 10. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude
1. A final examination in a school course is a type Battery:
of ________ test. a. has poor psychometric
a. aptitude characteristics.
b. intelligence b. does not have adequate norming
c. achievement information.
d. performance c. now has a computerized adaptive
2. Which of the following types of tests typically version.
predicts general ability? d. is not a valid predictor of training
a. achievement performance.
b. aptitude CHAPTER 13
c. group 1. Personality is defined as an individual's
d. intelligence patterns of behavior that:
3. Which test is especially useful if nonverbal a. are relatively stable and enduring
items are needed? and characterize a person's reactions to the
a. the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test environment.
b. the Henmon-Nelson Test b. indicate relatively enduring
c. the Cognitive Abilities Test tendencies to act, think, or feel in a certain
d. the Millers Analogies Test manner.
4. Which test is likely to take two or three days to c. indicate emotional states that vary
complete? from one situation to another.
a. KAT d. change over time and characterize a
b. COGAT person's reactions to the environment.
c. Henmon-Nelson 2. At the broadest level, strategies for the
d. SAT development of personality tests can be divided
5. The stability of the GRE has been evaluated into what two types?
by: a. deductive and empirical
a. correlating scores to a number of b. factor analytic and criterion group
students who completed graduate school. c. logical content and theory
b. Kuder-Richardson. d. external and empirical
c. extensive test-retest reliability 3. The purpose of the MMPI and MMPI-2 is to:
coefficients. a. evaluate vocational aptitude.
d. interrater reliability coefficients. b. assist in distinguishing normal
6. A score of 600 on the verbal section of the from abnormal groups.
GRE would indicate that the individual scored: c. evaluate job satisfaction.
a. two standard deviations above the d. evaluate normal personality.
mean. 4. The FB scale of the MMPI-2 measures:
b. at the mean. a. random responding.
c. one standard deviation below the b. cooperation throughout the test.
mean. c. family problems.
d. one standard deviation above the d. health concerns.
mean. 5. The result of Meehl's two-point code was:
7. A major advantage of the Raven Progressive a. new criterion groups were created
Matrices Test is that it: based on MMPI configural patterns.
a. minimizes the effects of language b. psychiatric diagnosis became even
and culture. more important to the definition of criterion
b. predicts creativity. group.
c. does not correlate with traditional c. clinical groups were identified on the
tests such as the Wechsler or Binet Scales. basis of patterns on MMPI scores.
d. has better validity documentation than d. that clinical scales were shown were
most group tests. shown to be appropriately and correctly named.
8. The IPAT Culture Fair Test was designed to: 6. The approach used in construction of the
a. be used with children 3 years old and MMPI is referred to as the:
younger. a. criterion-keyed method.
b. estimate the intelligence of language b. content approach.
impaired children. c. criterion-group strategy.
c. estimate the intelligence of language d. empirical strategy.
impaired adults. 7. The reading ability required for the MMPI-2 is
d. eliminate cultural influences in an at least:
ability test. a. 5th grade.
9. Which of the following was developed by the b. 6th grade.
U.S. Employment Service to measure c. 12th grade.
occupational aptitude? d. 8th grade.
a. Wonderlic Personnel Test 8. The restandardization of the MMPI has
b. Raven Progressive Matrices eliminated the most serious drawback of the
c. General Aptitude Test Battery original version, namely:
d. IPAT Cultural Fair Intelligence Test a. an inadequate control group.
b. lack of validity documentation.
c. inter-item correlations.
d. poor reliability.
9. Carl Rogers had people sort sets of cards into
groups that described the real self and the ideal
self. This method is called:
a. the Q-sort technique.
b. the rational approach.
c. self-efficacy.
d. the self-report.
10. According to a study by Saccuzzo, Kewley,
Johnson, and colleagues (2003):
a. various measures of positive affect
are best conceptualized as a single
construct.
b. each measure of positive affect has a
high level of unique variance.
c. a large number of items is required to
reliably and validly measure positive affect.
d. the various measures of positive
affect are completely independent.
CHAPTER 14
1. The most controversial and misunderstood
psychological tests are:
a. objective personality tests.
b. group tests.
c. achievement tests.
d. projective personality tests.
2. The two phases of Rorschach administration
are called:
a. phase I and phase II.
b. free association and inquiry.
c. associational and inquiry.
d. free response and determinant.
3. The DW response on the Rorschach is a(n):
a. human movement.
b. animal movement.
c. confabulatory response.
d. unusual detail.
4. The Comprehensive System for scoring the
Rorschach was developed by:
a. Beck.
b. Exner.
c. Levy.
d. Hertz.
5. Sines found that for assessment, the addition
of the Rorschach resulted in:
a. increases in incremental validity.
b. findings that did not change.
c. more accurate findings.
d. less accurate findings.
6. The Holtzman Test:
a. has proven to be more useful than the
Rorschach in clinical settings.
b. is an alternative to the TAT.
c. has proven to be more useful than the
alternatives to the traditional procedures.
d. is an alternative to the Rorschach.
7. Compared to the Rorschach the TAT has
________ interpretive and scoring systems.
a. about as many
b. fewer
c. far fewer
d. more
8. Which test provides more rigorous scoring
procedures while preserving many of the
advantages associated with thematic
apperception?
a. Southern Mississippi-TAT
 b. Draw-a-Man Test
c. Word Association Test
d. Incomplete Sentences Task
9. One problem with word association
techniques is:
a. they do not adequately predict
clinical syndromes.
b. scoring systems are generally
subjective.
c. interpretation is objective.
d. no norms exist.
10. Despite findings that indicate it is perhaps the
most psychometrically sound projective test, the
________ is rarely used in clinical settings.
a. Washington University Sentence
Completion Test
b. Draw-A-Person Test
c. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank
d. Children's Appreciation Test
CHAPTER 15
1. All of the cognitive-behavioral assessment
procedures:
a. can be collectively categorized as
observational assessment.
b. are based on learning principles.
c. employ sophisticated hardware such
as electronic beepers.
d. are more direct than traditional
psychological tests.
2. Tests based on behavior modification and
used as an alternative to traditional tests are
known as:
a. personality tests.
b. cognitive-behavioral assessments.
c. projective assessments.
d. psychoanalytic assessments.
3. Cognitive-behavioral assessments focus on
________ as the main problem in a disorder.
a. previous trauma
b. repressed memory
c. the behavior
d. personality
4. Cognitive-behavioral and traditional
procedures differ in that:
a. traditional procedures have fewer
inferential assumptions.
b. traditional procedures measure the
overt manifestations of psychological disorders.
c. cognitive-behavioral procedures tend
to be based on the medical model.
d. cognitive-behavioral procedures
are more direct and remain closer to
observable behaviors.
5. The evaluation of the frequency, intensity, and
duration of a behavior is known as:
a. operant conditioning.
b. a critical response.
c. establishing a baseline.
d. behavioral assessment.
6. Which procedure is designed to minimize the
effect that the presence of an observer has on
the behavior that is being observed?
a. extinction
b. operant
c. self-report
d. psychophysical
7. Procedures and tools that are intended to
increase a subject's awareness of a particular
behavior by providing feedback are known as:
a. projective tests.
b. structured tests.
c. personal profiles.
d. self monitoring devices.
8. Which of the following researchers is
associated with cognitive functional analysis?
a. Kanfer
b. Ax
c. Meichenbaum
d. Azrin
9. Indicators such as heart rate, blood pressure,
and GSR are used in:
a. psychophysiological procedures.
b. cognitive-behavioral assessment.
c. signal detection procedures.
d. cognitive functional analysis.
10. A problem encountered in computer adaptive
testing is:
a. they generally require more time to
administer.
b. test takers cannot go back and
change their answers.
c. expense usually increases.
d. it takes a long time to find out your
score.
CHAPTER 16
1. The first interest inventory was the:
a. Kuder Preference Survey.
b. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory.
c. Carnegie Interest Inventory.
d. Strong Vocational Interest Blank.
2. The criterion-group approach to test
construction:
a. defines a criterion or cut-off score
associated with high interest levels.
b. allows the test-taker to identify his or
her criterion for success.
c. is seldom used for vocational tests.
d. matches a test-taker's responses
to those of a defined group.
3. David is very active politically and generally
likes to be the leader of any group he joins.
According to Holland's six personality factors,
David is likely to fall on the ________ factor.
a. social
b. enterprising
c. realistic
d. investigative
4. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most
widely used interest inventory is the:
a. Minnesota Vocational Interest
Inventory.
b. Kuder Occupational Interest
Survey.
c. Carnegie Interest Inventory.
d. Career Assessment Inventory.
5. The report that is generated for the KOIS
presents ________ in the first section.
a. matches with different college majors
b. dependability of the results
c. rank-ordered interest patterns
d. ranks of different occupations
6. The expectation that a person has about their
ability to perform the tasks associated with a
particular occupation is known as:
a. social desirability.
b. self-efficacy.
c. egocentrism.
d. attribution bias.
7. Which of the following tests may help college
students choose a major?
a. Minnesota Vocational Interest
Inventory
b. Kuder Occupational Interest
Survey
c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
d. Strong Vocational Interest Blank
8. Which of the following tests has become the
"working person's" SCII?
a. KOIS
b. SDS
c. CAI
d. JVIS
9. Which of the following approaches to
assessment is used in Osipow's approach to
occupational assessment?
a. Assessing career preferences.
b. Using interview data exclusively.
c. Assessing career maturity.
d. Matching traits to occupations.
10. Scales like the SCII and the KIOS are based
on:
a. an assessment of crystallized
intelligence.
b. similar interests between test
takers and persons in a particular
occupation.
c. measures that assess an individual's
aptitude for a particular occupation.
d. measures that predict how successful
a person is likely to be in an occupation.
CHAPTER 17
1. Most of the work in neuropsychology is
directed toward the assessment of:
a. mood.
b. motor movements.
c. brain dysfunction.
d. sensations/perceptions.
2. Wernicke's aphasia involves damage to the:
a. amygdala.
b. corpus collosum.
c. hippocampus.
d. isuperior temporal gyrus.
3. The factor proposed by Mirsky related to a
child's ability to scan information and respond in
a meaningful way is called:
a. shift.
b. scanning.
c. encode.
d. focus execute.
4. The concussion resolution index:
a. can assess neuropsychological
problems when other reports are normal.
b. does not correlate well with other
neuropsychological tests.
c. is a paper and pencil test.
d. performs poorly in comparison to the
grooved pegboard test.
5. Which researcher introduced the concept of
pluripotentiality?
a. Luria
b. Lezak
c. Reitan
 d. Halstead
6. The California Verbal Learning Test (CVLT):
a. identifies different strategies,
processes, and errors associated with
specific deficits.
b. is exclusively a paper and pencil
instrument.
c. is an example of a fixed quantitative
assessment approach.
d. is one of the subscales of the Luria-
Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery.
7. Stress is a response to situations that involve:
a. frustration, constraints, or
opportunities.
b. fear, frustration, or demands.
c. demands, constraints, or
opportunities.
d. demands, constrains, or deadlines.
8. The focus of the TAS is on:
a. the particular situation.
b. measurement of social support.
c. the person rather than the
situation.
d. the same as in the TAQ.
9. The best known example of a psychometric
approach to quality-of-life assessment is the:
a. SIP.
b. WHO.
c. TAS.
d. MMPI.
10. An important characteristic that specifically
identifies the decision theory approach to quality
of life assessment is that it:
a. is based upon subjective ratings by
physicians.
b. attempts to weight different
dimensions of health.
c. provides separate measures for
different dimensions of quality of life.
d. asks respondents to choose from
alternatives to determine what their quality of life
is.
CHAPTER 18
1. On the basis of a psychological test, an
individual is identified as schizophrenic. An
interview reveals schizophrenic thinking and a
history of psychiatric hospitalization. This case
best illustrates a:
a. negative.
b. false negative.
c. miss.
d. hit.
2. Studies of the base rates in the use of
mammography have clearly indicated that:
a. women aged 20-30 should have
annual screenings.
b. women of all ages benefit from annual
mammography.
c. early detection of breast cancer in
young women increases survival chances.
d. it is unclear if mammography is
beneficial in the 40-50 age groups.
3. Even if a test is reliable and valid, it should not
be used unless it has:
a. utility.
b. content validity.
c. incremental validity.
d. a high cutting score.
4. The predictive validity of most selections tests:
a. is never less than .9.
b. is very low.
c. is between .7 and .8.
d. is only modest.
5. The purpose of the Myers-Briggs test is to
determine:
a. whether people are clinically
depressed.
b. where people fall on the
introversion-extroversion dimension.
c. the IQ of older employees compared
to younger employees.
d. if a potential employee will be
successful in a particular job.
6. Ecological psychology:
a. focuses on events that occur in a
behavioral setting.
b. focuses on a person's behavior.
c. has a subfield known as social
psychology.
d. is not actually a valid field of
psychology.
7. A work situation is described as follows: hot,
high pressure for production, little reinforcement
for production, low pay. This description employs
which approach to assessment?
a. environmental classification
b. personality
c. job stress
d. persons-situation interaction
8. A(n) ________ is used by job analysts to
describe the activities and working conditions
associated with a job title.
a. checklist
b. base rate
c. incident report
d. interview
9. Analysis of success for employees in the
Phillips Rubber Band Company has shown that
the successful employees always arrive at work
on time, volunteer to help other employees, and
always attend the company picnic. The form of
job analysis used to arrive at this conclusion was
most likely:
a. the critical incident technique.
b. checklists.
c. attribution theory.
d. the template matching technique.
CHAPTER 19
1. The finding that intelligence scores have
changed significantly over time lends support to
the argument that:
a. culture does not affect intelligence.
b. socioeconomic status does not affect
intelligence.
c. nature is the most important
determinant of IQ.
d. intelligence is not completely
determined by genetics.
2. The Equal Employment Opportunity
Commission was created by:
a. the Office of Federal Contract
Compliance.
b. the 1970 EEOC guidelines.
c. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act.
d. a 1978 amendment to Title VII.
3. The 1978 Uniform Guidelines on Employee
Selection Procedures provides:
a. ambiguous guidelines regarding racial
discrimination in hiring practices.
b. rules employers must follow to inform
current employees of a newly available position.
c. employers with the option to use any
available testing procedure.
d. guidelines for the use of
psychological tests in education and
industry.
4. A test has adverse impact if it:
a. systematically rejects higher
proportions of minority than non-minority
individuals.
b. decreases an individual's self-
esteem.
c. is used by an untrained administrator.
d. prevents non-minority applicants from
being hired.
5. The main type of validity evidence that exists
for the Chitling Test is:
a. content validity.
b. concurrent validity.
c. face validity.
d. predictive validity.
6. Inner city children who take the WISC-R may
obtain lower scores because:
a. the city pollution has had a negative
developmental impact.
b. they are not given credit for
responses that are appropriate to their
environment.
c. they have less fluid intelligence.
d. the scoring procedures of the WISC-
R are loose and ambiguous.
7. The BITCH is predominantly a test of:
a. personality states.
b. intelligence.
c. reasoning abilities.
d. word association.
8. A limitation of the BITCH is:
a. too few items.
b. lack of normative data.
c. poor content validity.
d. undocumented criterion validity.
9. The SOMPA system:
a. considers each child relative to
others from the same social and cultural
group.
b. considers each child relative to all
other children.
c. views each child as independent of all
other children.
d. assumes that all individual children
should have the same score on a test.
10. An estimated learning potential is:
a. a score on the WISC-R intelligence
test.
b. an estimation of a child's potential to
learn based on a combination of teacher and
parent predictions.
c. the estimated ability of a child to learn
based on the average performance of siblings.
d. an intelligence test score normed
against individuals with the same social and
cultural background as the test-taker.