IBPS RRB PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper

IBPS RRB PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper
Direction:
Eight persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting on the square table but not necessarily in the same order.
Four persons are sitting at the corner of the table and facing away from the center. Four persons are sitting at the
middle of the table and facing towards the center. The persons are sitting at the corner of the table likes different
cars among Audi, BMW, Scorpio and Brezza. The persons are sitting at middle of the table likes different bikes
among Splendor, Pulsar, Shine and KTM. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.
M sits third to the right of Q. One person sits between M and S. One who likes Shine sits third to the left of S. One
who sits second to the right of the one who likes Shine is facing P. One who likes KTM sits second to the right of
the one who likes Splendor. The person L is the immediate neighbor of the one who like Pulsar and Q. There are as
many persons sit between R and O as between R and N. One who likes Brezza sits third to the right of O. One who
likes Shine and one who likes Brezza are not immediate neighbors. L likes Audi. N and one who like BMW are not
immediate neighbors.
Question No. 1
Who among the following likes Scorpio?
Options :
1. O
2. S
3. M
4. P
5. None of these
Answer : M
Direction:
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given beside:
Question No. 2
Who among the following person sit opposite to Q?
Options :
1. The one who like Brezza
2. The one who like Scorpio
3. The one who like Splendor
4. The one who like KTM
5. None of these
Answer : The one who like Splendor
Direction:
Question No. 3
Which among the following combination is true?
Options :
1. M – Brezza
2. O – BMW
3. P – Audi
4. N – Scorpio
5. None is true
Answer : None is true
Direction:
Question No. 4
What is the position of P with respect to the one who likes Audi?
Options :
1. Third to the right
2. Second to the left
3. Second to the right
4. Immediate left
5. None of these
Answer : Third to the right
Direction:
Question No. 5
Who among the following likes KTM?
Options :
1. P
2. M
3. Q
4. N
5. None of these
Answer : P
Direction:
Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Eight persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W attend seminar in February, March, April and May of the same year.
They plan to attend seminar on 7th or 28th of these months. These persons works four different companies viz.
Infosys, Reliance, Apple and Samsung. Only three persons works one of the companies while at least one but at
most two persons works each of the other three companies. P attends seminar on 7th of a month which doesn’t
have least number of days. Three persons attend between P and W who works in Samsung. Only one person
attends seminar between W and S who doesn’t attend on 7th February. The person who attends seminar
immediately after S is V who works in the same company as P. The second person attending seminar before V and
second person attending seminar after V works in the same company. Q works in Infosys attends seminar
immediately after U in the same month. Two persons attend between U and one of the persons who works in
Reliance. S doesn’t work in Samsung and Apple. One of the persons who went in the month of February works in
Reliance. R who went after S didn’t go immediately after P.
Question No. 6
Who attends Seminar at the last?
Options :
1. W
2. V
3. R
4. T
5. None of these
Answer : R
Direction:
Question No. 7
Who attends Seminar on 28th April?
Options :
1. T
2. V
3. R
4. Q
5. None of these
Answer : V
Direction:
Question No. 8
Four of the following are similar in a certain way and forms a group. Find out the one who does not works that
group.
Options :
1. T
2. U
3. P
4. W
5. S
Answer : T
Direction:
Question No. 9
Which among the following statement is true?

Options :
1. T works in Infosys
2. V attends Seminar on 7th April
3. P works Reliance
4. P and S attend Seminar in the same month
5. None is true
Answer : None is true
Direction:
Question No. 10
T works in which of the following company?
Options :
1. Reliance
2. Infosys
3. Apple
4. Samsung
5. None of these
Answer : Reliance
Direction:
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in
each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388
Step I: 63 44 36 28 51 40 63 57
Step II: 732 824 810 490 542 619 795 331
Step III: 330 489 541 618 731 794 809 823
Step IV: 6 21 10 15 11 20 17 13
Step V: 20 10 6 21 27 15 13 11
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the given questions the appropriate step for
the input given.
Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925
Question No. 11
Which of the following is the fourth number from the left side in step IV?
Options :
1. 21
2. 15
3. 20
4. 12
5. None of the above
Answer : 15
Direction:
Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388
Step I: 63 44 36 28 51 40 63 57
Step II: 732 824 810 490 542 619 795 331
Step III: 330 489 541 618 731 794 809 823
Step IV: 6 21 10 15 11 20 17 13
Step V: 20 10 6 21 27 15 13 11
the input given.
Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925
Question No. 12
th
Which of the following is the 6 number from the right side in step II?
Options :
1. 849
2. 814
3. 799
4. 531
Answer : 814
Direction:

Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388
Step I: 63 44 36 28 51 40 63 57
Step II: 732 824 810 490 542 619 795 331
Step III: 330 489 541 618 731 794 809 823
Step IV: 6 21 10 15 11 20 17 13
Step V: 20 10 6 21 27 15 13 11
the input given.
Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925
Question No. 13
What is the sum of the numbers which is fourth from the right side in step III and third number from the left side in
step IV?
Options :
1. 810
2. 899
3. 808
4. 893
5. 866
Answer : 866
Direction:
Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388

Step I: 63 44 36 28 51 40 63 57
Step II: 732 824 810 490 542 619 795 331
Step III: 330 489 541 618 731 794 809 823
Step IV: 6 21 10 15 11 20 17 13
Step V: 20 10 6 21 27 15 13 11
the input given.
Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925
Question No. 14
What is the product of the number which is second from the left in step IV and the number which is third from the
right side of step V?
Options :
1. 144
2. 140
3. 146
4. 142
Answer : 140
Direction:
Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388
Step I: 63 44 36 28 51 40 63 57
Step II: 732 824 810 490 542 619 795 331
Step III: 330 489 541 618 731 794 809 823
Step IV: 6 21 10 15 11 20 17 13
Step V: 20 10 6 21 27 15 13 11
the input given.
Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925
Question No. 15
Which of the following is the step IV?
Options :
1. 25 13 15 21 9 15 20 11
2. 9 15 15 21 20 11 25 13
3. 9 15 21 20 11 15 25 13
4. 8 14 24 12 14 20 19 10
5. 9 13 15 15 25 21 20 11
Answer : 8 14 24 12 14 20 19 10
Direction:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north direction. Each of them owns different
number of cities among 11, 16, 21, 24, 25, 33, 38 and 75. C sits third to the left of one, who owns 38 cities. One person
sits between F and C. G sits to the immediate right of A, who owns 21 cities. B owns 5 cities lesser than that of G.
The person having 38 cities is second from right end. F does not sit at any end. E owns 24 cities and does not sit
adjacent to F or G. The person sitting third to the left of C owns 33 cities. C sits second to the right of F and owns 25
cities. A and C are not adjacent to each other. F owns highest number of cities. B sits to the left of H, who does not
sit at any end. E owns more cities than that of H, who does not own lowest number of cities. A doesn’t sit at any
extreme end.
Question No. 16
How many cities does E owns?
Options :
1. 75
2. 24
3. 38
4. 11
5. None of these
Answer : 24
Direction:
extreme end.
Question No. 17
Which among the following owns 25 cities?
Options :
1. C
2. G
3. E
4. H
5. A
Answer : C
Direction:
extreme end.
Question No. 18
How many cities does G owns?
Options :
1. 11
2. 38
3. 16
4. 21
5. 24
Answer : 38
Direction:
extreme end.
Question No. 19
How many cities does B owns?
Options :
1. 25
2. 24
3. 21
4. 33
5. 16
Answer : 33
Direction:
extreme end.
Question No. 20
Who among the following sits fourth to the left of A?
Options :
1. H
2. F
3. G
4. D
5. None of these
Answer : F
Direction:
In the question below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Question No. 21
Statements:
Only a few Portions are Cakes.
Only a few Cakes are Lights.
All Lights are Candle.
Some Lights are not Knife.
Conclusions:
I. All Portions can be Cake.
II. All Candle can be Knife.
III. Some Cakes are not Lights.
Options :
1. Only III follows
2. Only I and II follows
3. Only I and III follow
4. Only II and III follows
5. None follows
Answer : Only III follows
Direction:
Question No. 22
Statements:
Only a few Balloon are String.
All Balloon are Colour.
Only a few Strings are Scales.
All Scales are Toffee.
Conclusions:
I. Some Colours are String.
II. All Strings can be Toffee.
III. Some Toffees are Balloon.
Options :
1. Only III follows
5. None follows
Answer : Only I and II follows
Direction:
Question No. 23
Statements:
Only a few School are Station.
Only a few Stations are Hospital.
All Station are Police.
All Police are Apartment.
Conclusions:
I. Some Apartment are not School.
II. Some Stations are not Hospital.
III. All Apartment can be School.
Options :
1. Only III follows
5. None follows
Answer : Only II and III follows
Question No. 24
Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘L ≥ M
Options :
1. O < M
2. L ≥ N
3. M < O
4. N = L
5. None is true
Answer : M < O
Question No. 25
In which of these expression ‘N > G’ is definitely True?
Options :
1. R < G ≥ J ≥ K < L> M ≥ N > O
2. L > W > N = S ≥ Q = M > G = D
3. O ≤ M > N > R ≥ Y ≤ Q = G < J
4. J > N = D ≥ E = I ≥ G ≤ K = U
5. Q > N ≤ M = O < K ≤ U = G < P
Answer : L > W > N = S ≥ Q = M > G = D
Direction:
Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Seven persons lives in three cities i.e. Rampur, Haridwar and Lucknow and also likes different fruits. At least two
persons lives in one city. L doesn’t likes Apple. I and K lives in same city but not in Haridwar. M and the person who
likes Orange lives in same city. H likes Pear. J likes Papaya but does not lives in Lucknow. Only L and the person who
likes Pear lives in Haridwar. M doesn’t like Orange. M and N lives in different cities. Persons who like Banana and
Kiwi lives in same city. K neither likes Orange nor likes Banana. N doesn’t like Mango.
Question No. 26
Who among the following person likes Apple?
Options :
1. N
2. M
3. K
4. I
5. None of these
Answer : N
Direction:
Question No. 27
L likes which of the following fruit?
Options :
1. Banana
2. Kiwi
3. Orange
4. Mango
5. None of these
Answer : Mango
Direction:
Question No. 28
Which of the following is true?
Options :
1. L – Mango – Rampur
2. K – Kiwi – Lucknow
3. J – Papaya – Haridwar
4. I – Kiwi – Lucknow
5. None of these
Answer : K – Kiwi – Lucknow
Direction:
Question No. 29
If L is related to Mango, I is related to Orange, then in the same manner N is related to ____?
Options :
1. Banana
2. Kiwi
3. Pear
4. Apple
5. None of these
Answer : Apple
Direction:
Question No. 30
Who among the following pair of persons lives in Lucknow city?
Options :
1. J, K, L
2. H, I, N
3. H, J, K
4. I, K, M
5. L, N, O
Answer : I, K, M
Direction:
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider
the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
Question No. 31
Statement: The government has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs. 1 lakh to the family members of
those who are killed in railway accidents.
Assumptions: I. The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
II. There may be reduction in incidents of railway accidents in near future.
Options :
1. If only I is implicit
2. It only II is implicit
3. If either assumption I or II is implicit
4. If neither assumption I nor II is implicit
5. If both are implicit
Answer : If only I is implicit
Direction:
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider
the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
Question No. 32
Statement : The government has decided to import pulses from various countries which will start arriving at
various ports in the country from October
Assumptions: I. Imported pulses are rich in protein compared with domestic products
II. The retail price of pulses is quite high in the local market
Options :
1. If only I is implicit
2. It only II is implicit
3. If either assumption I or II is implicit
4. If neither assumption I nor II is implicit
5. If both are implicit
Answer : If either assumption I or II is implicit
Direction:
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.’
‘Strong’ arguments are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are
of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to trivial aspects of the
question.
Question No. 33
Statement: Should police officers wear body cameras?
Arguments:
I. Yes, the Police body cameras improve police accountability and protect officers from false misconduct
accusations.
II. No, instead of spending money on body cameras, the same fund should be diverted to their better training and
salaries so that they are not so overwhelmed and overworked.
Options :
1. If only argument I is strong
2. If only argument II is strong
3. If either I or II is strong
4. If neither I nor II is strong and
5. If both I and II are strong
Answer : If both I and II are strong
Direction:
Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II.
These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.
Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements.
Question No. 34
Statements:
I) There was one week strike by the employees of company ABC.
II)Annual production of company ABC may go down this year.
Options :
1. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

2. If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
3. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
4. If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
5. If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Answer : If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
Direction:
Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II.
These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.
Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements.
Question No. 35
Statements:
I) Many students left the College hostel because of its shabby conditions.
II)The College authorities have decided to temporarily close the hostel and shift the students to nearby
arrangements.
Options :
1. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
2. If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
3. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
4. If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
5. If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Answer : If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
Question No. 36
In which of these expression ‘O ≤ F’ is definitely true?

Options :
1. E < F ≥ G ≥ J < K > O ≥ P > Q
2. K > O > N = E ≥ R = S > F = P
3. N ≤ O > S > E ≥ Q ≤ R = F < G
4. G > O = D ≤ I = F ≤ J = U = T
5. R > S ≤ O > N ≥ J < U > F < H
Answer : G > O = D ≤ I = F ≤ J = U = T
Question No. 37
I is the mother-in-law of J who is the sister-in-law of H. G is the father of H who is the only brother of K. G is married
to I. How is I related to K?
Options :
1. Wife
2. Mother
3. Aunt
4. Mother-in-law
5. None of these
Answer : Mother
Direction:
In certain code,
M % N means M is 6m north of N.
M & N means M is 9m south of N.
M + N means M is 6m west of N.
M @ N means M is 12m east of N.
Statement: T + U; V + W & Z @ X % S; V % U; T & S

Question No. 38
In which direction is point S with respect to point U?
Options :
1. South
2. North-East
3. North-West
4. North
5. East
Answer : North-West
Direction:
In certain code,
M %N means M is 6m north of N.
M&N means M is 9m south of N.
M+ N means M is 6m west of N.
M@ N means M is 12m east of N.
Statement: T + U; V + W & Z @ X % Y; V % U; T & S
Question No. 39
What is the shortest distance between X and W?
Options :
1. 12m
2. 15m
3. 18m
4. 10m
Answer : 15m
Direction:
In certain code,
M %N means M is 6m north of N.
M&N means M is 9m south of N.
M+ N means M is 6m west of N.
M@ N means M is 12m east of N.
Statement: T + U; V + W & Z @ X % Y; V % U; T & S
Question No. 40
What is the shortest distance between S and U?
Options :
1. √109m
2. √115m
3. √110m
4. √117m
5. √120m
Answer : √117m
Question No. 41
A man bought 5 articles K, L, M, N, O at Rs. 620 each. Selling prices of K,L, M,N and O were x, x+ 20, x +25, x +75, x
+80 respectively. Overall profit percent by selling all the articles was 25 %. Find the approximate profit percent by
selling article O.
Options :
1. 21.45%
2. 41.55%
3. 11.65%
4. 48.49%
5. 31.45%
Answer : 31.45%
Question No. 42
Out of his monthly salary a person spend x% on rent, (x+10)% on EMI and 36% of the rest on transport and 32% of
the monthly salary is saved. Find the value of x?
Options :
1. 25
2. 20
3. 30
4. 35
5. 22
Answer : 20
Question No. 43
Time taken by a boat to cover 253 km upstream is 49.99 % more than the time taken by the boat to cover 340 km
downstream. Total time taken in covering both these distances was 5 hours 42 seconds. Find the approximate
distance covered in upstream in 3 hrs 10 sec.
Options :
1. 242 km
2. 232 km
3. 222 km
4. 272 km
5. 252 km
Answer : 252 km
Question No. 44
Rs. (X+500) is invested in scheme A for 5 years at 10 % simple interest. The received amount is then invested in
another scheme B offering 10% interest for 2 years at compound interest. Interest received from scheme B was
Rs.3780. Find the value of X.
Options :
1. Rs. 10500
2. Rs. 11000
3. Rs. 11550
4. Rs. 10000
5. Rs. 11500
Answer : Rs. 11500
Question No. 45
A and B invests Rs. (X-1200) and (X+1800) in a business respectively. Investment period of both of them was same. If
the total profit is Rs. Y and profit share of B is 8Y/11, then find the value of X.
Options :
1. 3500
2. 3200
3. 3000
4. 3550
5. 3320
Answer : 3000
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Conditions ::
(1) z+d = e-100
(2) z = d-500
(3) b = y-100
Note :: (i) The number of students in each school is more than the number of teachers.
Question No. 46
What is the value of ‘c’?
Options :
1. 800
2. 900
3. 850
4. 700
5. Cannot be determined
Answer : Cannot be determined
Direction:
Conditions ::
(1) z+d = e-100
(2) z = d-500
(3) b = y-100
Question No. 47
Find out the average of the number of students from school P, Q, S and T together.
Options :
1. 2100
2. 2400
3. 2300
4. 2500
Answer : 2300
Direction:
Conditions ::
(1) z+d = e-100
(2) z = d-500
(3) b = y-100
Question No. 48
The value of ‘z’ is what percentage of the value of ‘a’?
Options :
1. 40%
2. 50%
3. 45%
4. 30%
Answer : 50%
Direction:
Conditions ::
(1) z+d = e-100
(2) z = d-500
(3) b = y-100
Question No. 49
If the ratio between the number of students in school T and U is 2:5 respectively and the total number of students
and teachers in school U is 435% more than the number of students and teachers in school S, then find out the
number of teachers in school U.
Options :
1. 4860
2. 4270
3. 4650
4. 4225
5. 4575
Answer : 4270
Direction:
Conditions ::
(1) z+d = e-100
(2) z = d-500
(3) b = y-100
Question No. 50
What is the ratio of the number of teachers from school P, Q, S and T together to the total number of students and
teachers in school T?
Options :
1. 5 : 9
2. 7 : 11
3. 6 : 13
4. 4 : 7
5. 3 : 10
Answer : 5 : 9
Question No. 51
Four persons ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ have different amounts with them. ‘D’ has twice amount than that of ‘A’. The amount
‘B’ has is 12.5% more than that of ‘D’. The amount ‘C’ has is equal to the average amount all four persons have. If the
sum of the average amount all four have and the amount ‘A’ has is Rs. 3300, then find the amount ‘B’ has.
Options :
1. 2890
2. 2700
3. 2310
4. 2960
5. 2540
Answer : 2700
Question No. 52
Q goes out to shop on a rainy day. He travels at a speed of n km/hr when it’s raining and at a speed of (n – 1) km/hr
when it stops raining. If his average speed for the journey is 6.2 km/hr. Find the fraction of the distance which he
covered while it was raining. Given, that n is an integer.
Options :
1. 1/4
2. 7/31
3. 3/13
4. 2/13
5. None of these
Answer : 7/31
Question No. 53
Amit can do certain work alone in 'w' days. Arjit can do the same work alone in (w + 12) days.Gaurav started working
and did (1/2) the work at the efficiency of Amit and rest work at efficiency of Arjit, and finished the work in 24 days.
2
Then, find the value of (w + 5w -40)
Options :
1. 450
2. 650
3. 370
4. 374
5. none of these
Answer : 374
Question No. 54
Twelve years hence, the ratio between the ages of C and E is 5:7 respectively. The present age of A is 25% less than
that of D. Four years ago, the average age of B and D was 18 years. B is six years younger than E. Three years hence,
the age of E is three years less than double the age of A. After 7 years, how many people’s age will be a prime
number.
Options :
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Answer : Two
Question No. 55
Some cubes, each of the same side have been kept in a cuboidal empty box of breadth and height of 12m and 7m
2 2
respectively. The total surface area of the box is 776 m . If the total surface area of each cube is 21600cm , then find
the number of cubes kept in the box to occupy the whole space.(approx)
Options :
1. 6624
2. 6128
3. 6546
4. 6222
5. None of these
Answer : 6222
Direction:
There are a certain number of people in the group. Each of them like Samosa, Kachori and Burger. Some of them can
like more than one food item (Samosa, Kachori, Burger).
The ratio between the number of people who like Samosa and Kachori but not Burger to the number of people
who like Burger and Kachori but not Samosa is 2:3 respectively. The number of people who like Kachori is 25% less
than the number of people who like Samosa. The number of people who like only Burger is (3P-800). The number of
people who like all three food items (Samosa, Kachori, Burger) is (1/9) of the number of people who like Burger and
Samosa but not Kachori. (Q-600) people like only Kachori. The number of people who like only Samosa is (2P-200).
The number of people who like Burger is 8000. The number of people who like Burger is 1000 less than double the
number of people who like Kachori. The number of people who like Samosa is 50% more than the value of ‘Q’.
Question No. 56
Find out the sum of the people who like only Samosa, only Kachori and only Burger in the group.
Options :
1. 12800
2. 15400
3. 16800
4. 14400
Answer : 14400
Direction:
Question No. 57
Find out the total number of people in the group.
Options :
1. 18800
2. 16400
3. 20200
4. 19400
5. 21000
Answer : 16400
Direction:
Question No. 58
What is the value of ‘P’?
Options :
1. 2800
2. 3200
3. 3000
4. 2400
Answer : 2400
Direction:
Question No. 59
How many people who like Samosa and Kachori but not Burger in the group?
Options :
1. 400
2. 500
3. 600
4. 300
Answer : 400
Direction:
Study the pie chart carefully and answer the following questions.
The following pie chart show the number of the students appearing for Railways Examination from different states.
2017
2018
Question No. 60
Number of students appearing from Delhi in 2018 was, what percent of that from Madhya Pradesh in 2017?
Options :
1. 80%
2. 75%
3. 55%
4. 60%
5. None of these
Answer : 80%
Direction:
2017
2018
Question No. 61
The total number of students appearing from Delhi and Maharashtra together in 2017 is nearly equal to that from
which of the following pairs of states in 2018?
Options :
1. Delhi and Uttar Pradesh
2. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

3. Haryana and Maharashtra
4. Haryana and Delhi
5. Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
Answer : Haryana and Maharashtra
Direction:
2017
2018
Question No. 62
If there were 45000 students appearing in the examination from General category in 2018 and 52500 students
appearing from OBC category 2018, find the percentage of students not from the General and OBC in 2018?
Options :
1. 52%
2. 64%
3. 30%
4. 73%
5. None of these
Answer : 73%
Direction:
2017
2018
Question No. 63
What is the difference between the student appearing from Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh from
states in 2018 and from same states in 2017?
Options :
1. 42400
2. 46200
3. 34780
4. 38200
5. None of these
Answer : 46200
Direction:
2017
2018
Question No. 64
If number of students appearing examinations in 2016 is 20% more than students appearing in 2017, Find the
number of students appearing examination from Delhi in 2016?
Options :
1. 54%
2. 46%
3. 62%
4. Data Inadequate
5. None of these
Answer : Data Inadequate
Direction:
2
Eq. (i) P - (y+4)P - (z-64) = 0
2
Eq. (ii) Q - (y-1)Q - (z+50) = 0
Conditions :: (1) (z+20)/y = (a+35)
(2) a/(y+13) = 20
(3) (z/a) = 12.8
(4) The value of ‘y’ cannot be negative.
Question No. 65
What is the difference between the largest roots of Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii)?
Options :
1. 5
2. 6
3. 4
4. 3
Answer : None of the above
Direction:
2
Eq. (i) P - (y+4)P - (z-64) = 0
2
Eq. (ii) Q - (y-1)Q - (z+50) = 0
Conditions :: (1) (z+20)/y = (a+35)

(2) a/(y+13) = 20
(3) (z/a) = 12.8
(4) The value of ‘y’ cannot be negative.
Question No. 66
Find out the value of [(z+a)/y].
Options :
1. 595
2. 655
3. 620
4. 525
Direction:
Observe the below given four equations carefully and answer the questions.
2
(b-4)y - ay + b = 0
2
5z – (a+8)z + 44.8 = 0
a+b = 34
2b-a = 2
Question No. 67
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(1) The value of ‘b’ is the multiple of 3.
(2) The value of ‘a’ is an odd number.
(3) One of the possible value of ‘z’ is 4.2.

Options :
1. Only (ii)
2. Only (i)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. Only (i) and (iii)
5. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer : Only (i)
Question No. 68
4 4 1/2
I: √(100 x + 125x ) + 7x + 4 = -4x
3 3 2
II: √(64y ) x 2y + 19y + 7 = -3y + √1600
If the smallest root of equation II is multiplied with 2, then which among the following/s is / are true?
i. Resultant > - 4
ii. Resultant + 21 (1/2) = Multiple of 5
iii. Resultant is less than the smallest root of equation I
Options :
1. All are true
2. Only i and iii
3. Only i and ii
4. Only iii
5. Only ii and iii
Answer : Only iii
Question No. 69
In this problem, you are presented with two quantities, Quantity I and Quantity II.calculate both quantities and
determine the correct relationship between them.
Quantity I: Determine the number of factors of the number 20.
Quantity II: If 'a%' of 200 is 8 more than 'b%' of 400, then find the value of (a - 2b).
Now, compare Quantity I and Quantity II to establish the correct relationship between them and choose the
appropriate option.
Options :
1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity-II or No relation
Answer : Quantity I > Quantity II
Question No. 70
In this problem, you are provided with two quantities, Quantity A and Quantity B.Evaluate both quantities and
establish the correct relationship between them.
Quantity A: Lisa invested 40% of her savings of Rs. 10,000 at a simple interest rate of 12% per year and the
remainder at a simple interest rate of 18% per year. Calculate the total interest she earned after 3 years.
Quantity B: Determine the interest accrued when David invests Rs. 3,600 at a simple interest rate of 15% per year
for 104 months.
Now, you should compare Quantity A and Quantity B to determine their relationship.
Options :
1. Quantity-I > Quantity-II
2. Quantity-I < Quantity-II
3. Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
4. Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
5.
Answer : Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation

Question No. 71
In this problem, you have two quantities, Quantity I and Quantity II. Your task is to solve both quantities and
establish the correct relationship between them.
Quantity I: Determine the present age of Sam, given that 8 years ago, Alex's age was 42 years. Additionally, five
years from now, the ratio of Liam's and Alex's ages will be 9:11, and Sam's age, ten years from now, will be 30% less
than Liam's age at that time.
Quantity II: If Ethan's age will be 40% more than his current age ten years from now, and the present ratio of
Ethan's and Benjamin's ages is 5:7, find Benjamin's current age.
Now, your task is to compare Quantity I and Quantity II to establish the correct relationship between them.
Options :
1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
4. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
5. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Answer : Quantity I < Quantity II
Question No. 72
In this problem, you're provided with two quantities, Quantity I and Quantity II, and your task is to solve both
quantities and determine the correct relationship between them.
Quantity I: The speeds of two cars, 'A' and 'B,' are in the ratio 3:4. If car 'B' takes 5 hours to travel 240 kilometers,
calculate the speed of car 'A.'
Quantity II: A train requires 15 seconds to pass a pole. Given that the length of the train is 180 meters, determine
the speed of the train.
Now, compare Quantity I and Quantity II to establish the correct relationship between them and choose the
appropriate option.
Options :
1. Quantity I < Quantity II
4. Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II
Answer : Quantity I < Quantity II
Question No. 73
Quantity I: Two pipes, X and Y, have different filling rates for a tank. Pipe X can fill the tank in 20 minutes, while
pipe Y can do it in 30 minutes. They are both activated simultaneously, but after 6 minutes, pipe Y is shut off.
Calculate the total time it takes to completely fill the tank.
Quantity II: There are two taps, A and B, with distinct filling rates for a cistern. Tap A can fill the cistern in 24
minutes, and tap B can do it in 16 minutes. Vijay initiates both taps at precisely 11:00 a.m. and leaves. Upon his
return, he notices that an outlet pipe has been opened, so he promptly closes it. Interestingly, the cistern is
completely filled by 11:15 a.m. Can you determine the duration required for the outlet pipe, operating
independently, to empty the entire cistern?
Options :
2. Quantity-I < Quantity-II
5. Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II
Answer : Quantity-I < Quantity-II
Direction:
Observe the Series I carefully to identify the logic and obtain the value of ‘A’. In both of the series, the same logic is
applied.
Series I : 38, (A), 60, 108, 208, 388, 682

Series II : (A+28), B, C, D, E
Question No. 74
What is the value (A+C)/2?
Options :
1. 75
2. 79
3. 63
4. 71
5. 67
Answer : 67
Direction:
Observe the Series I carefully to identify the logic and obtain the value of ‘A’. In both of the series, the same logic is
applied.
Series I : 38, (A), 60, 108, 208, 388, 682
Series II : (A+28), B, C, D, E
Question No. 75
What is the value [(D-B)/E]?
Options :
1. 0.275
2. 0.325
3. 0.225
4. 0.350

Answer : 0.275
Question No. 76
Given below are two number series I and II where each series has a wrong (odd one out) number. The number that
will actually come in place of the wrong number in series I and II are 'P' and 'Q' respectively. Find which among the
given options gives the correct sum of 'P' and 'Q'.
I: -20, -57, -68, -53, -10, 49
II: 30, 55, 120, 240, 436, 725
Options :
1. 100
2. 120
3. 107
4. 140
5. None of these
Answer : 107
Question No. 77
The following numbers form a series followed by a (?). Find the odd one out first and then find that what will come
in place of the question mark (?) according to the corrected series?
14, 51, 222, 1125, 6786, ?
Options :
1. 222, 47551
2. 222, 47521
3. 51, 47531
4. 1125, 47541
5. 51, 47551
Answer : 222, 47551

Question No. 78
In each of the following questions the number series is given. One term of the series is denoted by x. You have to
calculate of value of x and by using the value of x, you have to solve the following questions.
If 4 10 16 26 x 50
Then find the value of (x² - 1) + (x² + 1).
Options :
1. 2582
2. 2592
3. 2492
4. 2952
5. 2855
Answer : 2592
Question No. 79
Radius of a cylindrical vessel is 3cm less than breadth of rectangle, while height of cylindrical vessel is equal to
length of rectangle, whose area is 720 cm². If ratio between length & breadth of rectangle is 5:4, then find the
thickness of 1 disc, if these discs are kept one above another in cylindrical vessel and 15 discs get completely fit in
cylindrical vessel.(Let radius of discs equal to radius of cylindrical vessel)?
Options :
1. 2 cm
2. 1.5 cm
3. 3 cm
4. 4 cm
5. None of these
Answer : 2 cm
Question No. 80
A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 9 : 2. 44 ltr of mixture is taken out and 12 lit of water is added to it,
such that ratio of milk to water becomes 3:1. Now another mixture of 64 lit having milk and water in ratio of 3:5 is
added to it. Find ratio of milk to water in the final mixture?
Options :
1. 35 : 17
2. 33 : 19
3. 31 : 18
4. 32 : 15
5. None of these
Answer : 33 : 19
Question No. 81
What is the total balance in the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) accounts as per the RBI's 2023 data?
Options :
1. ₹ 1.5 lakh crore
3. ₹ 2 lakh crore
Answer : ₹ 2 lakh crore
Question No. 82
Which of the following initiatives falls under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance?
Options :
1. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana

2. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana
4. Both A & B
5. All the above
Answer : All the above
Question No. 83
Mahila Samman Savings Certificate is a one-time programme that runs from April 2023 to March 2025. Which of the
following banks is not Offering the Certificate?
Options :
1. Bank of Baroda
2. Union Bank
3. Canara Bank
4. State Bank of India
5. Bank of India
Answer : State Bank of India
Question No. 84
Which committee's recommendations led to the creation of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme in India?
Options :
1. M. S. Swaminathan Committee
2. R. V. Gupta Committee
3. V. Kurien Committee
4. K. V. Kamath Committee
5. A. Dalwai committee
Answer : R. V. Gupta Committee

Question No. 85
Which of the earlier agricultural insurance schemes in India was replaced by the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
(PMFBY) in 2016?
Options :
1. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS)
2. Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS)
3. National Crop Insurance Scheme (NCIS)
4. Both A & B
5. All the above
Answer : Both A & B
Question No. 86
Who is the Chairman of the Vedanta Group, one of the largest and diversified natural resources groups globally?
Options :
1. Prahlad Rai Agarwala
2. Binod Sethi
3. Anil Agarwal
4. Ravi Inder Singh
5. Ranvir Shah
Answer : Anil Agarwal
Question No. 87
What is the primary objective of the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) '100 Days 100 Pays' campaign?
Options :
1. To promote digital payments in rural areas
2. To settle top 100 unclaimed deposits

3. To provide financial assistance to distressed banks
4. To encourage foreign investment in Indian banks
5. To provide financial assistance to 100 rural people within 100 days
Answer : To settle top 100 unclaimed deposits
Question No. 88
Indian origin Laxman Narasimhan has assumed the role of CEO and will join the board of directors of which of the
following Companies?
Options :
1. IBM
2. Starbucks
3. Microsoft
4. Alphabet
5. Meta
Answer : Starbucks
Question No. 89
ChatGPT is a large language model-based chatbot, which is related to _______________ .
Options :
1. Productivity
2. Marketing
3. Open source
4. Alphabet
5. All the above
Answer : Open source
Question No. 90
By which year does the Green Hydrogen Mission in India aim to achieve self-reliance in energy?
Options :
1. 2030
2. 2035
3. 2040
4. 2047
5. 2070
Answer : 2047
Question No. 91
What is the primary aim of the RBI's centralised web portal, UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access
Information)?
Options :
1. To facilitate online banking services in rural areas
2. To provide investment advice to the street vendors
3. Help people search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks
4. To promote digital payments in Rural areas.
5. To provide investment to the street vendors
Answer : Help people search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks
Question No. 92
PACS deals directly with the rural (agricultural) borrowers, give those loans and collect repayments of loans. What
does PAC stand for?
Options :
1. Primary Agricultural Credit Service
2. Primary Agricultural Cooperative Society
3. Primary Agricultural Credit Society

4. Private Agricultural Credit Society.
5. Primary Agro-chemical Credit Society
Answer : Primary Agricultural Credit Society
Question No. 93
ESG is a set of practices used to evaluate a company's operational performance as it relates to social and
environmental impact. What does ESG stand for?
Options :
1. Environmental, Social and Goodwill
2. Environmental, Social and Governance
3. Environment, Society and Governance
4. Environment, Society and Government
5. Environmental, Society and Governance
Answer : Environmental, Social and Governance
Question No. 94
Which of the following statements is not true in regards to the PM Vishwakarma scheme?
Options :
1. To enable the recognition of artisans and craftspeople as Vishwakarma making them eligible to avail all
the benefits under the Scheme.
2. To provide skill upgradation to hone their skills and make relevant and suitable training opportunities
available to them.
3. To provide support for better and modern tools to enhance their capability, productivity, and quality of
products.
4. To provide the intended beneficiaries an easy access to credit with limited documents and provide a
platform to reduce the credit with ease.
5. To provide incentives for digital transactions to encourage the digital empowerment of these
Vishwakarmas.
Answer : To provide the intended beneficiaries an easy access to credit with limited documents and provide a
platform to reduce the credit with ease.
Question No. 95
SDGs are a collection of seventeen interlinked objectives designed to serve as a shared blueprint for peace and
prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future. What does SDG stand for?
Options :
1. Sustainable Development Globe
2. Substitutional Development Goals
3. Suitable Development Goals
4. Sustained Development Goals
5. Sustainable Development Goals
Answer : Sustainable Development Goals
Question No. 96
According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023, which states experienced the fastest reduction in
the proportion of multidimensional poor?
Options :
1. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Maharashtra
2. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan
3. Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha and Tamil Nadu
4. West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha and Assam
5. Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan
Answer : Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan
Question No. 97
India is a part of which among the following given below?

Options :
1. G20
2. UN Heritage Committee
3. East Asia Summit
4. Both A & B
5. All of the above
Answer : All of the above
Question No. 98
Till 1993, which department in the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was responsible for both regulatory and supervisory
functions over commercial banks?
Options :
1. Department of Banking Supervision (DBS)
2. Department of Banking Operations and Development (DBOD)
3. Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
4. Department of Financial Institutions (DFI)
5. Both A & B
Answer : Department of Banking Operations and Development (DBOD)
Question No. 99
Agricultural Acceleration fund to provide the financial support is entrepreneurs in the field of agriculture & allied
sector was set up in which FY Budget?
Options :
1. 2019-20
2. 2020-21
3. 2021-22
4. 2022-23
5. 2023-24
Answer : 2022-23
Question No. 100
Which was the first payment bank in India to launch an eco-friendly debit card for its customers with a savings
bank account?
Options :
1. Paytm Payments Bank
2. Jio Payments Bank
3. Airtel Payments Bank
4. Fino Payments Bank
5. Aditya Birla Payments Bank
Answer : Airtel Payments Bank
Question No. 101
The first pilot for CBDC-Retail was announced on December 1, 2022, also known as retail Digital Rupee. Which bank
is not included in CBDC retail?
Options :
1. Bank of Baroda
2. Union Bank of India
3. HDFC Bank
4. Kotak Mahindra Bank
5. Bank of India
Answer : Bank of India
Question No. 102
Who presided over the Monsoon Session 2023 of Rajya Sabha ?

Options :
1. Venkaiah Naidu
2. Harivansh Narayan Singh
3. Jagdeep Dhankhar
4. Pramod Chandra Mody
5. Om Birla
Answer : Jagdeep Dhankhar
Question No. 103
Who is the publisher of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI Index) in India, which assesses the level of financial
inclusion across the nation?
Options :
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
4. Indian Banking Association (IBA)
5. NITI Ayog
Answer : Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Question No. 104
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) & UN has recognized and proposed 2023 as ___________________
Options :
1. International Year of Millets
2. International Year of Yoga
3. International Year for Peace and Trust
4. International Year for Glass

5. International Year of Camelids
Answer : International Year of Millets
Question No. 105
The NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. Which of the
following comes under NPCI?
Options :
1. Aadhaar Enabled Payment System
2. Bharat Bill Payment System
3. BharatQR
4. Both A & B
5. All of the above
Answer : All of the above
Question No. 106
Which of the following statements is/are correct in regards to the GOBARdhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro
Resources Dhan) scheme and budget 2023-2024?
1.500 new ‘waste to wealth’ plants under GOBARdhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan) scheme to be
established.
2.It is for promoting the circular economy at a total investment of Rs 10,000 crore.
3.5 per cent compressed biogas mandate to be introduced for all organizations marketing natural and biogas.
Options :
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 & 2
5. All
Answer : All
Question No. 107
Consider the following statements in regards to the Economic Survey of India 2022-23:
1.India became the largest mobile phone manufacturer globally
2.Foreign Direct Investment flows into the pharma industry in India have increased by nearly four times.
3.India became the 3rd largest automobile market (in Dec 2022), in terms of sales
Which of the above given statements is/are not correct?
Options :
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 & 2
5. All
Answer : 1 only
Question No. 108
On which date does the nation celebrate National Panchayati Raj Day, commemorating the institutionalization of
Panchayati Raj?
Options :
1. 15th August
2. 24th April
3. 2nd October
4. 25th January
5. 21 august
Answer : 24th April
Question No. 109
At present, Justice DY Chandrachud is the Chief Justice of India, who is currently holding the position as the
Options :
1. 48th Chief Justice
Answer : 50th Chief Justice
Question No. 110
Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to the service sector in Economic Survey 2022-23?
1.India is the world’s 7th largest services exporter
2.The services sector has also been the largest recipient of foreign direct investment
3.India ranked 10th in the Medical Tourism Index 2021.
Options :
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 & 2
5. None
Answer : None
Question No. 111

Which is the new MSME scheme announced in the Union Budget 2023?
Options :
1. New sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana
2. Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs
3. PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana
4. Mahila Samman Bachat Patra
5. PM VIKAS
Answer : Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs
Question No. 112
States have been asked to ensure that their share of funds is transferred to the Single Nodal Agency(SNA) for the
Centrally Sponsored Scheme within ____ days of receiving central funding.
Options :
1. 16
2. 20
3. 25
4. 30
5. 35
Answer : 30
Question No. 113
According to the Budget 2023-24, what is the rate of tax for Income tax slab between the income of Rs 6 Lakh to Rs
9 Lakh?
Options :
1. 5 percent
2. 7 percent
3. 10 percent
4. 12 percent
5. 15 percent
Answer : 10 percent
Question No. 114
In which year was the Rural Postal Life Insurance (RPLI) scheme introduced to provide insurance coverage to people
residing in rural areas of India?
Options :
1. 1993
2. 1994
3. 1995
4. 1996
5. 1997
Answer : 1995
Question No. 115
The 5th round of the National Family Health Survey was conducted in which of the following year?
Options :
1. 2017-18
2. 2018-19
3. 2019-20
4. 2021-22
5. 2022-23
Answer : 2018-19
Question No. 116

Who inaugurated the indigenous Differential Global Navigation Satellite System (DGNSS) 'SAGAR SAMPARK' as part
of the digital initiative in the maritime sector?
Options :
1. Narendra Modi
2. Dr. S. Jaishankar
3. Sarbananda Sonowal
4. Nirmala Sitharaman
5. Piyush Goyal
Answer : Sarbananda Sonowal
Question No. 117
On which date is National Science Day celebrated in India to commemorate the discovery of the Raman effect by
Indian physicist Sir C. V. Raman?
Options :
1. 11th August
2. 2nd October
3. 28th February
4. 26th January
5. 7th June
Answer : 28th February
Question No. 118
Which of the following statements is/are correct in regards to budget 2023-24?
1.MISHTI, to be taken up for mangrove plantation along the coastline and on salt pan lands
2.Green Credit Programme to be notified under the Environment (Protection) Act
3.Amrit Dharohar scheme to be implemented over the next three years

Options :
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. All
5. None
Answer : All
Question No. 119
Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to Fiscal management?
1.50 years interest free loans to states
2.Fiscal deficit to 3.5 GSDP allowed to states
3.Fiscal deficit for 2023-24 is estimated at 5.9%
Options :
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. All
5. None
Answer : None
Question No. 120
By what year does the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 aim to increase India's goods and services exports to $2
trillion?
Options :
1. 2025
2. 2028
3. 2030
4. 2035
5. 2040
Answer : 2030
Direction:
Rearrange the following sentences in a correct sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
following questions.
A. In recent years, debates about trade policies, minimum wage, and healthcare reform have been at the
forefront of discussions, reflecting the complex interplay of economic factors and public policy decisions.
B. Government policies, including tax regulations and monetary policy, play a pivotal role in shaping economic
conditions.
C. With a diverse range of industries, including technology, finance, manufacturing, and agriculture, the United
States has maintained its position as the world's largest economy.
D. The American economy is a complex and dynamic system that plays a central role on the global stage.
E. The country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) consistently ranks at the top, driven by consumer spending,
business investments, and international trade.
F. However, like any economy, it faces its share of challenges, such as income inequality and the impact of
economic downturns.
Question No. 121
Which should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. B
3. F
4. D
5. A
Answer : D
Direction:
conditions.
economic downturns.
Question No. 122
Which should be the last sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. B
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. C
Answer : A
Direction:
conditions.
economic downturns.
Question No. 123
Which should be the third sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. E
5. B
Answer : E
Direction:
conditions.
economic downturns.
Question No. 124
Which should be the second sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. D
3. E
4. A
5. B
Answer : C
Direction:
conditions.
economic downturns.
Question No. 125
Which should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. F
2. D
3. E
4. A
5. B
Answer : F
Direction:
Read the passage and answer the following question given below.
AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, has been one of the most challenging global health crises of our
time. Since the early days of the epidemic, scientists and researchers have dedicated themselves to understanding
the virus, developing treatments, and working towards a vaccine that could halt its devastating impact. The pursuit
of a cure for AIDS has been marked by decades of rigorous experimentation. Early on, the identification of the
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as the causative agent of AIDS was a monumental discovery. Scientists like Dr.
Robert Gallo and Dr. Luc Montagnier made pioneering contributions to this understanding in the 1980s.
The search for effective treatments for AIDS has been a relentless endeavor. The development of antiretroviral
therapy (ART) in the mid-1990s was a turning point. ART effectively suppresses the replication of the virus in the
body, transforming AIDS from a death sentence into a manageable chronic condition. These treatments have saved
countless lives and continue to be refined through ongoing research and clinical trials. However, the ultimate goal
has always been the development of a preventive vaccine for HIV/AIDS. Creating an HIV vaccine has proven to be
an intricate challenge due to the virus's ability to mutate rapidly and evade the immune system. Over the years,
various experimental vaccines have been tested, but success has remained elusive.
Nonetheless, recent advancements have rekindled hope. Experimental vaccines like RV144 showed modest efficacy,
prompting further research and refinements. Innovative approaches, including mRNA-based vaccine technology,
have shown promise in stimulating strong immune responses against HIV. Scientists are also investigating broadly
neutralizing antibodies, which have the potential to protect against a wide range of HIV strains. In the ongoing
battle against AIDS, research and experimentation continue to drive progress. The global scientific community
remains committed to the pursuit of a safe and effective HIV vaccine, understanding that such a breakthrough
would be a transformative moment in the fight against this devastating disease. Each experiment and discovery
brings us closer to a world where AIDS is preventable and ultimately curable, offering hope to the millions affected
by HIV worldwide.
Question No. 126
What was/were the significance of the discovery of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in the fight against AIDS?
i. ART successfully eliminated the HIV virus from infected individuals.
ii. ART transformed AIDS from a terminal illness to a manageable condition.
iii. ART effectively prevented HIV infection in individuals at high risk.
iv. ART was primarily used as a diagnostic tool for AIDS.
v. ART had limited impact on the treatment of AIDS.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. Only i & ii
5. All of the above

Answer : Only ii
Direction:
by HIV worldwide.
Question No. 127
What challenges have made the development of an HIV vaccine particularly difficult?
i. The rapid mutation of the HIV virus.
ii. A lack of skilled researchers and scientists.
iii. A surplus of available funding for research.
iv. The absence of any previous research on HIV.
v. The virus's inability to evade the immune system.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. Only i & ii
5. All of the above
Answer : Only i
Direction:
by HIV worldwide.
Question No. 128
What is the current status of HIV vaccine development based on the passage?
i. An HIV vaccine has been successfully developed and widely distributed.
ii. Experimental vaccines have shown high levels of efficacy in clinical trials.
iii. HIV vaccine development has reached a dead end with no recent progress.
iv. Recent advancements have reignited hope and research efforts.
v. There is no mention of the current status of HIV vaccine development.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iv
4. Only i & ii
5. All of the above
Answer : Only iv
Direction:
by HIV worldwide.
Question No. 129
How has the perception of AIDS changed over the years due to scientific advancements?
i. AIDS is now considered a curable disease.
ii. AIDS remains a death sentence despite scientific progress.
iii. AIDS has become a manageable chronic condition.

iv. AIDS is no longer considered a global health crisis.
v. The perception of AIDS has not been affected by scientific advancements.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only iii
3. Only iv
4. Only i & ii
5. All of the above
Answer : Only iii
Direction:
by HIV worldwide.
Question No. 130
What is the primary focus of the scientific community's efforts in the fight against AIDS according to the passage?
a) Developing treatments for AIDS-related symptoms.
b) Identifying more effective diagnostic tools for AIDS.
c) Finding a preventive vaccine for HIV/AIDS.
d) Promoting awareness and education about AIDS.
e) Addressing the social stigma associated with AIDS
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. Only i & ii
5. All of the above
Answer : Only iii
Direction:
Fill in the blank with correct option from the options given below.
Question No. 131
Despite the challenging circumstances, the team managed to ____________ a breakthrough in their research,
surprising even their harshest critics.

Options :
1. pull through
2. bring up
3. carry out
4. come across
5. look into
Answer : come across
Direction:
Question No. 132
The company's CEO decided to ____________ the new marketing campaign due to budget constraints, even
though it showed promising results in initial testing.
Options :
1. put off
2. put up
3. put forward
4. put on
5. put in
Answer : put off
Direction:
Question No. 133
As the storm approached, residents were urged to ____________ their homes and take shelter to ensure their
safety.
Options :
1. break down
2. break up
3. break in
4. break through
5. break out
Answer : break out
Direction:
Question No. 134
After months of negotiations, the two parties finally agreed to ____________ a compromise that satisfied both
sides.
Options :
1. work out
2. work on
3. work through
4. work up
5. work in
Answer : work out
Direction:
Question No. 135
The young entrepreneur was determined to ____________ her business idea, despite facing numerous setbacks
and challenges along the way.
Options :
1. carry out
2. carry on
3. carry forward
4. carry off
5. carry in
Answer : carry on
Direction:
Given below is a sentence divided into five parts. One of the parts is emboldened and the part is erroneous i.e it
contains a grammatical error. You need to find one more part from the options given below that contains the error.
Question No. 136
The intricate interplay of fiscally and monetary policy A. tools within a dual mandate framework often
necessitates B. a delicate balancing act to achieve both C. price stability and full employment D. in a dynamics
economic environment E.
Options :
1. tools within a dual mandate framework often necessitates
2. a delicate balancing act to achieve both
3. price stability and full employment
4. in a dynamics economic environment
5. All are incorrect
Answer : in a dynamics economic environment
Direction:
Question No. 137
The Keynesian multiplier effect posits that A. an initial increase of government B. spending can lead to a
disproportionate larger increase in C. aggregate demand, provided certain assumptions regarding D. leakages and
marginal propensities hold true E.
Options :
1. The Keynesian multiplier effect posits that

2. spending can lead to a disproportionate larger increase in
3. aggregate demand, provided certain assumptions regarding
4. leakages and marginal propensities hold true
5. All are incorrect
Answer : spending can lead to a disproportionate larger increase in
Direction:
Question No. 138
The Laffer curve, though a subject of ingoing debate A. , suggests that there exists an optimal tax rate at which B.
tax revenue is maximized, beyond which C. higher tax rates may lead to diminishing D. returns due disincentives for
economic activity E.
Options :
1. suggests that there exists an optimal tax rate at which
2. tax revenue is maximized, beyond which
3. higher tax rates may lead to diminishing
4. returns due disincentives for economic activity
5. All are correct
Answer : returns due disincentives for economic activity
Direction:
Question No. 139
In the context of international trade, A. the concept of comparative advantage underscore B. the efficiency gains
achievable when countries especialize C. in the production of goods and services D. in which they possess a lower
opportunity cost E.
Options :
1. In the context of international trade,
2. the efficiency gains achievable when countries especialize
3. in the production of goods and services
4. in which they possess a lower opportunity cost
5. All are correct
Answer : the efficiency gains achievable when countries especialize
Direction:
Question No. 140
The Phillips curve, while historically indicative of an inverse relationship A. between inflation and unemployment B.,
has been subject of the critique of the natural rate hypothesis C., challenging the sustainability of trade-offs D.
between these two macroeconomic variables on the long run E.
Options :
1. The Phillips curve, while historically indicative of an inverse relationship
2. between inflation and unemployment
3. has been subject of the critique of the natural rate hypothesis,
4. challenging the sustainability of trade-offs
5. All are correct
Answer : has been subject of the critique of the natural rate hypothesis,
Direction:
In the modern business landscape, a well-crafted marketing strategy is indispensable. It serves as the cornerstone
of a company's success, facilitating connections with the target audience, driving sales, and establishing a strong
brand presence. In this discussion, we'll explore the core components of an effective marketing strategy and its
critical role for businesses, regardless of their size. Developing a successful marketing strategy begins with a deep
understanding of the specific market in which a company operates. This entails comprehensive market research to
uncover valuable insights into customer needs, preferences, and behaviors. Analyzing competitors and industry
trends is also essential to identify opportunities and challenges. This knowledge forms the foundation for tailoring
marketing efforts effectively.
Defining the target audience is a fundamental aspect of any effective marketing strategy. Businesses must identify
their ideal customers and create detailed buyer personas that mirror these individuals. These personas encompass
demographic data, such as age, gender, location, and income, as well as psychographic factors like interests, values,
and pain points. This comprehensive understanding allows companies to craft messaging that addresses the
specific needs and desires of their audience. A successful marketing strategy is inherently goal-oriented. Clear and
measurable objectives must be established, aligning with overarching business goals. Whether the goal is to
enhance brand awareness, increase website traffic, generate leads, or boost sales, these objectives provide
direction for the marketing team and enable the evaluation of campaign effectiveness and return on investment.
Selecting the appropriate marketing channels is crucial in today's digital age, where numerous options are available,
ranging from social media and content marketing to email campaigns and paid advertising. A comprehensive
marketing strategy may encompass a blend of both online and offline channels, depending on the business's nature
and its audience's preferences. Content creation and distribution are at the core of modern marketing. Valuable,
relevant, and engaging content allows companies to establish authentic connections with their audience. Content
can take various forms, including blog posts, videos, infographics, or podcasts, and must align with the audience's
interests and needs. Effective distribution strategies ensure that content reaches the right individuals at the right
time.
Continuous measurement and analysis are vital. Tracking key performance indicators (KPIs) allows companies to
assess the impact of their efforts. If certain tactics are not delivering the desired results, adjustments can be made
promptly. This data-driven approach allows for adaptability and optimization to maximize return on investment.
Beyond acquiring new customers, a thriving marketing strategy encompasses customer retention. Building brand
loyalty involves delivering exceptional customer experiences, providing ongoing value, and maintaining open
communication. Loyal customers not only make repeat purchases but also evolve into brand advocates, expanding
a company's reach and influence.
Question No. 141
What is the primary purpose of a well-crafted marketing strategy in the modern business landscape?
Options :
1. Enhancing employee satisfaction
2. Reducing operational costs
3. Establishing brand presence
4. Improving product quality
5. Managing financial resources
Answer : Establishing brand presence
Direction:
time.
Question No. 142
Why is comprehensive market research essential in developing a successful marketing strategy?
Options :
1. To increase employee morale
2. To identify competitors' weaknesses
3. To uncover customer needs and preferences
4. To reduce marketing expenses
5. To streamline production processes
Answer : To uncover customer needs and preferences
Direction:

time.
Question No. 143
What information should be included when defining buyer personas in a marketing strategy?
Options :
1. Information on the CEO's background
2. Detailed demographic data

3. Number of products in the company's catalog
4. The company's stock market performance
5. Historical sales data
Answer : Detailed demographic data
Direction:
time.
Question No. 144
What role do clear and measurable objectives play in a successful marketing strategy?
Options :
1. They provide direction for the IT department.
2. They help assess employee satisfaction
3. They allow for the evaluation of campaign effectiveness
4. They determine the company's tax liabilities
5. They regulate inventory levels.
Answer : They allow for the evaluation of campaign effectiveness
Direction:
time.
Question No. 145
Why is continuous measurement and analysis important in modern marketing strategies?
Options :
1. To increase office productivity
2. To maximize employee engagement
3. To track customer birthdays
4. To assess the impact of marketing efforts

5. To monitor competitor pricing strategies
Answer : To assess the impact of marketing efforts
Direction:
Following is given a paragraph with six emboldened words. The words are not in their correct positions. The
paragraph is followed by six questions which contain five options in each. Choose the correct options that can
replace the present words to form a meaningful paragraph.
Antarctica, the southernmost continent on Earth, hovering 26. one of the most extreme and unforgiving climates
known to humanity. It is characterized by its frigid temperatures, with the continent holding the record for the
coldest temperature ever recorded on Earth at minus 128.6 degrees Fahrenheit (minus 89.2 degrees Celsius). These
bone-chilling temperatures are largely due to the fact that Antarctica is primarily covered by ice, formingcoastal 27.
ice sheets that hold about 60% of the world's fresh water. The continent's climate is characterized by its extreme
seasonal variations, with long, dark winters and relatively short, cool summers. During the winter months,
Antarctica milder 28. nearly total darkness and bitterly cold temperatures that plunge far below freezing. In
contrast, summer brings slightly colossal 29. conditions, with temperatures boasts 30. around freezing, and nearly
continuous daylight. Antarctica's icy expanse has a profound impact on global climate systems. The massive ice
sheets reflect sunlight back into space, playing a crucial role in regulating the Earth's temperature. Moreover, the
continent's frigid waters and endures 31. ice shelves influence ocean currents, which, in turn, impact climate
patterns worldwide.
Question No. 146
Replace the word against number 26 with the correct option from the given options below:
Options :
1. Coastal
2. Hovering
3. boasts
4. Endures
5. Milder
Answer : boasts
Direction:
patterns worldwide.
Question No. 147
Options :
1. Endures
2. Milder
3. Colossal
4. Coastal
5. Hovering
Answer : Colossal
Direction:
patterns worldwide.
Question No. 148
Options :
1. Endures
2. Milder
3. Colossal
4. Coastal
5. Hovering
Answer : Endures
Direction:
patterns worldwide.
Question No. 149
Options :
1. Coastal
2. Hovering
3. Colossal
4. Endures
5. Milder
Answer : Milder
Direction:
patterns worldwide.
Question No. 150
Options :
1. Endures
2. Milder
3. Colossal
4. Coastal
5. Hovering
Answer : Hovering
Direction:
patterns worldwide.
Question No. 151

Options :
1. Coastal
2. Hovering
3. Colossal
4. Endures
5. Milder
Answer : Coastal
Direction:
Below are given three sentences with one common word in each. Choose the sentence that incorrectly uses the word.
Question No. 152
Effect
i. The Prime Minister effected the schemes for farmers and local businessmen in the Northeast states.
ii. Customers whose loan accounts were found to be under ‘Non-performing assets’ had to let theireffects be
confiscated.
iii. The climate changes had a bad effect on global temperature and agriculture production.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. Only ii & iii
Direction:
Question No. 153
Complement
i. The red wine was a perfect complement to the steak dinner last night.
ii. She received a complement of flowers on her birthday following which she felt exhilarated.
iii. The chef decided to complement the recipe with salt to make it even more palatable.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. Only i & iii
Answer : Only iii
Direction:
Question No. 154
Principal
i. The school principal announced a new policy for student uniforms.
ii. He invested a large sum of money in the principal amount.
iii. The principal dancer in the ballet troupe received a standing ovation.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. Only ii & iii

Answer : Only ii
Direction:
Given below is a sentence with four parts marked. The parts of the sentence are in a random order. Rearrange the
parts of the sentence to form a meaningful sentence.
Question No. 155
Several tumultuous years, was marked by a complex and multifaceted series of events A. transformations that
resulted in the overthrow of the Bourbon monarchy B. the French Revolution, which began in 1789 and extended
through C. encompassing the radical political D.
Options :
1. ABCD
2. CBDA
3. ADCE
4. ABDC
5. CADB
Answer : CADB
Direction:
Given below are two sentences with three words emboldened in each. The words may not be in a proper order.
Rearrange the words in a proper sequence to form meaningful sentences. You may even require to exchange the
words between sentence I to sentence II. Choose the correct option from the given possible exchange in the options.
Question No. 156
I. The Indian population A. is one of the significant –B. growing major economies in the world, with a
robust C. GDP growth rate.
II. Agriculture plays a fastest P role in the Indian economy, employing Q a large percentage of the economy R.
Options :
1. A-R & B-P
2. A-B & C-Q
3. A-C & P-Q

4. A-Q & B-R
5. No exchange required
Answer : A-R & B-P
Direction:
Question No. 157
I. India's economic A. sector, including IT and software services, has witnessed manufacturing B. growth and
is a major C. contributor to GDP.
II. Substantial P. and industrial sectors are crucial for India's service Q. development, with initiatives R. like
"Make in India" promoting manufacturing.
Options :
1. A-R & B-P
2. A-Q & B-P
3. A-C & P-Q
4. A-Q & B-R
Answer : A-Q & B-P
Direction:
Question No. 158
I. The Indian government A. has implemented sector B. reforms such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST) to
simplify C. taxation.
II. India's informal economic, P. including small businesses and street vendors, Q. is a vital part of the
economy, contributing significantly R. to employment.
Options :
1. A-R & B-P
2. B-P
3. A-C & P-Q
4. A-Q
Answer : B-P
Direction:
Question No. 159
I. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has been on the rise, A. with foreign companies investing B. in various C.
sectors of the Indian economy.
II. India faces economic challenges P. such as income inequality, unemployment, and access Q. to basic
services for a large R. population.
Options :
1. A-R & B-P
2. B-P
3. A-C & P-Q
4. A-Q
Answer : No exchange required
Direction:
Question No. 160
I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) invest A. a central role in monetary B. policy and banking innovation C.,
influencing economic stability.
II. India's economic future holds potential as it continues to plays P in infrastructure, education, and
regulation Q. to drive sustainable R. growth.
Options :
1. A-R & B-P
2. B-P
3. A-P & C-Q
4. A-Q
Answer : A-P & C-Q
Question No. 161
To default view in EXCEL is ______view:
Options :
1. work
2. auto
3. normal
4. roman
5. None of The Above
Answer : normal
Question No. 162
Segmentation and reassembly is the responsibility of
Options :
1. 7th Layer
2. 6th Layer
3. 5th Layer
4. 4th layer
5. None of these
Answer : 4th layer
Question No. 163
In ribbon Tab to type a search term for Help content, open "Tell me" box on ribbon press
Options :
1. ALT +H
2. Ctrl + H
3. Alt + Q
4. Ctrl + T
5. Alt + Ctrl + H
Answer : Alt + Q
Question No. 164
Shift, Control, Alt are examples of ____ category.
Options :
1. Modifier Keys
2. Primary Keys
3. Secondary Keys
4. Function Keys
5. None of these
Answer : Modifier Keys

Question No. 165
_____ converts and executes one statement at a time
Options :
1. compiler
2. interpreter
3. converter
4. instructions
5. None of these
Answer : interpreter
Question No. 166
What is the shortcut key for ‘Close Current Tab’?
Options :
1. Ctrl + E
2. Ctrl + O
3. Ctrl + S
4. Ctrl + W
5. Ctrl + L
Answer : Ctrl + W
Question No. 167
Which among the following is used for removing a software bug / defect which is available for free of cost from the
software provider?
Options :
1. Version
2. Update
3. Help
4. Patch
5. Upgrade
Answer : Patch
Question No. 168
Corel Draw is a popular :
Options :
1. Illustration programme
2. Programming language
3. Text programme
5.
Answer : Illustration programme
Question No. 169
Which of the following is a base of hexadecimal number?
Options :
1. 8
2. 16
3. 2
4. 10
5. None of these
Answer : 16
Question No. 170
What does the "I'm Feeling Lucky" button on Google's homepage do?
Options :
1. Takes you to the first search result
2. Opens a random website
3. Initiates a voice search
4. Refreshes the page
5. Displays a random quote
Answer : Takes you to the first search result
Question No. 171
What is the range of IP addresses for Class A networks?
Options :
1. 0 to 127
2. 128 to 191
3. 192 to 223
4. 224 to 239
5. 240 to 255
Answer : 0 to 127
Question No. 172
Which Function key is commonly used to access the Help menu in many software applications?
Options :
1. F2
2. F4
3. F7
4. F9
5. F1
Answer : F1
Question No. 173
What is the shortcut key for inserting a page break in Microsoft Word?
Options :
1. Ctrl+Enter
2. Ctrl+P
3. Ctrl+B
4. Ctrl+PageDown
5. Ctrl+Shift+P
Answer : Ctrl+Enter
Question No. 174
In the hexadecimal number system, which symbols are used to represent values greater than 9?
Options :
1. A, B, C, D, E, F
2. X, Y, Z
3. 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15
4. H, I, J, K, L, M
5. Q, R, S, T, U, V
Answer : A, B, C, D, E, F
Question No. 175
Which of the following is an example of an impact printer?
Options :
1. Laser printer
2. Dot matrix printer
3. Inkjet printer
4. Thermal printer
5. Dye-sublimation printer
Answer : Dot matrix printer
Question No. 176
In Microsoft Excel, what does the "$" symbol represent when used in cell referencing?
Options :
1. It indicates a relative reference.
2. It creates an absolute reference.
3. It designates a mixed reference.
4. It signifies a circular reference.
5. It denotes a conditional reference.
Answer : It creates an absolute reference.
Question No. 177
First row in MS Excel is written as?
Options :
1. A1
2. B1
3. A0
4. B0
5. None of these
Answer : A1
Question No. 178
What is the primary significance of a MAC address on a NIC (Network Interface Card)?
Options :
1. It identifies the IP address of the device.
2. It uniquely identifies the NIC within a network.
3. It encrypts data for secure communication.
4. It determines the physical location of the device.
5. It manages network traffic routing.
Answer : It uniquely identifies the NIC within a network.
Question No. 179
Which shortcut key is used to center-align text in Microsoft Word?
Options :
1. Ctrl + L
2. Ctrl + R
3. Ctrl + E
4. Ctrl + C
5. Ctrl + J
Answer : Ctrl + E
Question No. 180
What does GPT stand for in Chat GPT?
Options :
1. General Purpose Transformer
2. Generative Pretrained Transformer
3. Global Predictive Text
4. Gigantic Pattern Transformer
5. None of these
Answer : Generative Pretrained Transformer

Question No. 181
What is the keyboard shortcut to start a presentation from the beginning in PowerPoint?
Options :
1. Ctrl + P
2. Ctrl + S
3. F5
4. Shift + F5
5. Alt + F4
Answer : F5
Question No. 182
Which generation of computer systems typically employs Real-Time Operating Systems (RTOS)?
Options :
1. First Generation
2. Second Generation
3. Third Generation
4. Fourth Generation
5. Fifth Generation
Answer : Third Generation
Question No. 183
What is the total number of bits in an IPv4 address?
Options :
1. 8 bits
2. 16 bits
3. 32 bits
4. 64 bits
5. 128 bits
Answer : 32 bits
Question No. 184
What is the primary purpose of using a watermark on a digital document or image?
Options :
1. To enhance the visual appeal
2. To protect against unauthorized copying
3. To improve printing quality
4. To reduce file size
5. To add metadata
Answer : To protect against unauthorized copying
Question No. 185
What is Solaris?
Options :
1. A programming language
2. An open-source web browser
3. An operating system
4. A solar energy harvesting device
5. A type of telescope
Answer : An operating system
Question No. 186
What is the primary purpose of firmware stored in ROM?

Options :
1. To store user-generated data
2. To facilitate data transfer between devices
3. To provide essential instructions to the computer's hardware
4. To act as a high-speed cache for frequently used programs
5. To enable wireless communication
Answer : To provide essential instructions to the computer's hardware
Question No. 187
What is the primary function of an AND gate in digital logic?
Options :
1. Performs addition
2. Generates a logical OR operation
3. Generates a logical AND operation
4. Inverts the input
5. Performs subtraction
Answer : Generates a logical AND operation
Question No. 188
Which of the following formulas correctly calculates the sum of values in cells A1 to A5 in Excel?
Options :
1. =SUM(A1+A2+A3+A4+A5)
2. =ADD(A1:A5)
3. =SUM(A1:A5)
4. =TOTAL(A1,A2,A3,A4,A5)
5. =SUM(A1-A5)
Answer : =SUM(A1:A5)
Question No. 189
Which keyboard shortcut is commonly used to access macros in Microsoft Office applications?
Options :
1. Ctrl + M
2. Alt + F4
3. Alt + F8
4. Shift + Enter
5. Ctrl + S
Answer : Alt + F8
Question No. 190
Which type of memory is typically used as cache memory in modern computer systems?
Options :
1. SRAM
2. DRAM
3. Flash Memory
4. ROM
5. EEPROM
Answer : SRAM
Question No. 191
What is the name of the protocol used by search engines to crawl and index web pages?
Options :
1. HTTP
2. FTP
3. SMTP
4. HTTPS
5. POP3
Answer : HTTP
Question No. 192
In which part of a URL is the case sensitivity applicable?
Options :
1. Protocol
2. Authority
3. Directory
4. Type
5. None of these
Answer : Directory
Question No. 193
What process involves converting a message into a secret code to ensure confidentiality?
Options :
1. Encryption
2. Audits
3. UPS
4. Firewalls
5. None of these
Answer : Encryption
Question No. 194
In CSMA/CD, what is the term for the fixed unit of data that a computer sends?
Options :
1. Node
2. Packet
3. Override
4. Token
5. None of these
Answer : Packet
Question No. 195
The initial stages of the Internet's development were associated with which project?
Options :
1. USENET
2. ARPANET
3. Ethernet
4. Intranet
5. None of these
Answer : ARPANET
Question No. 196
In an operating system, which memory management technique swaps out entire processes to free up memory
space?
Options :
1. Paging
2. Segmentation
3. Swapping
4. Thrashing
5. None of these
Answer : Swapping
Question No. 197
Which cybersecurity concept is focused on verifying the identity of users and systems?
Options :
1. Data integrity
2. Confidentiality
3. Authentication
4. Authorization
5. None of these
Answer : Authentication
Question No. 198
What is the purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network) in cybersecurity?
Options :
1. To protect physical access to computers
2. To encrypt data during transmission
3. To block unauthorized network traffic
4. To protect against malware attacks
5. None of these
Answer : To encrypt data during transmission
Question No. 199
The language used to program first-generation computers was primarily:
Options :
1. Machine language
2. Assembly language
3. High-level language
4. Procedural language
5. None of these
Answer : Machine language
Question No. 200
Which of the following components is responsible for temporarily storing data and instructions directly accessible
to the CPU?
Options :
1. Registers
2. Program Counters
3. Controllers
4. Internal chips
5. None of these
Answer : Registers
Attempt Mock Test Now
All ixamBee Mock Test are FREE @ www.ixamBee.com

IBPS RRB PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

IBPS RRB PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

IBPS RRB PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper

Who among the following likes Scorpio?

Who among the following person sit opposite to Q?

1. The one who like Brezza

2. The one who like Scorpio

3. The one who like Splendor

4. The one who like KTM

Answer : The one who like Splendor

Which among the following combination is true?

Answer : None is true

1. Third to the right

2. Second to the left

3. Second to the right

Answer : Third to the right

Who among the following likes KTM?

Reliance. R who went after S didn’t go immediately after P.

Who attends Seminar at the last?

Reliance. R who went after S didn’t go immediately after P.

Who attends Seminar on 28th April?

Reliance. R who went after S didn’t go immediately after P.

Reliance. R who went after S didn’t go immediately after P.

Which among the following statement is true?

2. V attends Seminar on 7th April

4. P and S attend Seminar in the same month

Answer : None is true

Reliance. R who went after S didn’t go immediately after P.

T works in which of the following company?

each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388

the input given.

Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925

5. None of the above

each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388

the input given.

Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925

5. None of the above

each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388

the input given.

Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925

each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388

the input given.

Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925

right side of step V?

5. None of the above

each step. The given is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 795 868 846 518 593 659 858 388

the input given.

Input: 567 839 842 953 885 897 753 925

Which of the following is the step IV?

How many cities does E owns?

Which among the following owns 25 cities?

How many cities does G owns?

How many cities does B owns?

Who among the following sits fourth to the left of A?

Only a few Portions are Cakes.

Only a few Cakes are Lights.

All Lights are Candle.

Some Lights are not Knife.

I. All Portions can be Cake.

II. All Candle can be Knife.

Answer : L > W > N = S ≥ Q = M > G = D