INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Student ID and
Test ID carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the
OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.

3.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each
item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark
on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained
therein.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
1. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following:
1. Increase in inflation leads to decrease in 1. Transfer payments.
imports and increase in exports. 2. Value of production for self-
2. Deflation benefits the creditors and consumption.
adversely affects the debtors. 3. The income earned through the sale
3. Negative real rate of interest encourages and purchase of second-hand goods.
the depositors to deposit more money 4. Imputed value of rent of self-occupied
with the banks during inflation. houses.
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above factors is/are
correct? included in the calculation of the GDP of an
(a) Only one economy?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. Which among the following best describes
the concept of “Fiscal Drag” on the 5. Consider the following statements with
economy? reference to benefits of Urea Gold
(a) Decrease in tax collection due to introduced by the Government:
inflation.
1. It addresses the sulphur deficiency in
(b) Increase in tax collection due to the Indian soils.
inflation.
2. It ensures slow release of Nitrogen into
(c) Increase in inflation due to decrease in the soil and hence enhance fertiliser
tax collection.
efficiency.
(d) Decrease in inflation due to decrease in
3. It is more environment friendly as
tax collection.
compared to Normal Urea.
How many of the statements given above
3. Consider the following statements: is/are correct?
Statement-I: Increase in the Standing (a) Only one
Deposit Facility (SDF) by the Reserve Bank
(b) Only two
of India (RBI) would lead to decrease in
money supply in the economy. (c) All three
Statement-II: Increase in the Standing (d) None
Deposit Facility (SDF) may lead to increase
in the rate of interest on the loans given by 6. Consider the following scenario:
the banks. The US Fed Bank has adopted Fed
Which one of the following is correct in Tapering Policy to control rising Inflation in
respect of the above statements? USA. However, such a policy in USA has
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are led to adverse effect on the Indian
correct and Statement-II is the correct Economy.
explanation for Statement-I As an RBI Governor, which among the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are following steps would you not take?
correct and Statement-II is not the 1. Sell Dollars to control Rupee
correct explanation for Statement-I Depreciation.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II 2. Reduce Policy Rates such as Repo.
is incorrect
3. Adopt tools to decrease the Bond Yields
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- to reduce Government's borrowing cost.
II is correct

RAUSIAS-0561 1
 Select the correct answer using the code 9. Consider the following statements:
given below: 1. The debt raised by the Government or
(a) 1 only the corporates in rupee denomination
(b) 2 only from external sources are not
(c) 1 and 3 only considered a part of the overall external
(d) 2 and 3 only debt.
2. US dollar denominated debt forms the
7. Consider the following statements about largest component of India's external
the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR): debt.
1. The ICRR is a temporary measure Which of the statements given above is/are
employed to drain off the excess correct?
liquidity created due to sudden increase (a) 1 only
in bank deposits. (b) 2 only
2. The ICRR replaces the existing CRR for (c) Both 1 and 2
a given period.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Unlike the CRR, the ICRR balances
attract interest from the RBI.
10. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements is/are
the female labour market as per the
correct?
Periodic Labour Force Survey (2022-23):
(a) Only one
1. Female labour participation decreased
(b) Only two
over the last five years.
(c) All three
2. Service sector is the largest employer of
(d) None
female labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are
8. Consider the following statements about
correct?
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC),
(a) 1 only
2016:
Statement-1: The IBC has replaced the (b) 2 only
“debtor in possession” approach with a (c) Both 1 and 2
“creditor in control” regime in the corporate (d) Neither 1 nor 2
insolvency and resolution process.
Statement-II: Unlike the earlier regime, 11. Which of the following best describes the
the IBC allows only the creditors to initiate Cape Town Convention?
the insolvency resolution process.
(a) A treaty to promote global aviation
Which one of the following is correct in
safety.
respect of the above statements?
(b) A treaty that guarantees the rights of
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the lessors to repossess the leased
correct and Statement-II is the correct
aircrafts in case of payment defaults.
explanation for Statement-I
(c) A treaty to facilitate reducing
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
environmental footprint of the aviation
correct and Statement-II is not the
industry.
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (d) A treaty to encourage open sky
is incorrect partnerships among the member
countries.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct

RAUSIAS-0561 2
12. Which one of the following is the best 15. Which among the following best describes
description of ‘Greedflation’, that was in the the concept of "Merchanting Trade", as
news recently? provided in the Foreign Trade Policy 2023?
(a) It is a condition in which slow economic (a) Import of Goods into India for further
growth is coupled with rising exports to other countries after
unemployment. undertaking value addition.
(b) It is a rapid, excessive and out-of- (b) Export of Goods from India to a country
control general price increase in an through another intermediary country.
economy. (c) Shipment of goods from one foreign
(c) It refers to price inflation caused by the country to another foreign country
corporates keeping their profit margins without entering India's Domestic Tariff
high. Area.
(d) It refers to reformulating or reducing (d) Shipment of Goods from Special
the quality of products while keeping Economic Zones (SEZs) to Domestic
their prices same. Tariff Area.

13. Consider the following: 16. Consider the following:

1. Increased inflation 1. Signing of Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
2. Purchase of G-secs by the RBI from with another country.
banks 2. Differential Customs duty for different
3. Increased borrowings by the countries on the same product.
Government 3. Special Preference to Goods imported
How many of the above may result in yield from Developing countries.
hardening of the G-secs in the market? How many of the above are considered as
(a) Only one exceptions under the Most Favoured Nation
(b) Only two (MFN) clause under WTO?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
14. With reference to PM Vishwakarma (d) None
Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. Artisans from specified traditional 17. Consider the following statements with
trades in the unorganised sector are reference to UNDP’s The Gender Social
eligible for the Scheme. Norms Index (GSNI):
2. Benefits are restricted to only one 1. The Gender Social Norms Index
member of the family. quantifies biases against women.
3. The Scheme provides unconditional 2. Physical integrity and nutrition are
credit support to the eligible artisans. included in key dimensions of GSNI.
How many of the statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-0561 3
18. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements is/are
reference to ‘MAA’ (Mothers’ Absolute correct?
Affection): (a) Only one
1. MAA programme envisages the (b) Only two
promotion of breastfeeding in health (c) Only three
facilities as well as communities.
(d) All four
2. Carrying out of village level mothers’
meeting by ASHAs is one of the key
21. Consider the following places:
activities of MAA programme.
1. Rajula Mandagiri
3. ‘MAA’ has been launched in 2021.
2. Jatinga Rameshwar
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. Gavimath

(a) Only one 4. Lauriya Araraj

(b) Only two In how many of the above places Ashoka’s

Minor Rock Edicts have been found?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
19. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Harappan Civilization: (d) All four

1. Millets were found from sites in

Gujarat. 22. Consider the following statements:
2. The bones of wild species, like deer and 1. There is no mention of land access to
gharial, were found at the Harappan women during the Gupta period.
sites. 2. The time period of Banabhatta was the
3. The evidence of a ploughed field at eighth century CE.
Kalibangan suggests that two different 3. The term ‘Gahapati’ was used as a
crops were grown together. marker of status for the men belonging
How many of the above statements is/are to the urban elite.
correct? How many of the above statements is/are
(a) Only one incorrect?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
20. With reference to the condition of women,
as per the doctrine of Buddhism, consider 23. Consider the following:
the following statements: 1. Rasamanjari of Bhanu Datta
1. Women were allowed to join the Sangha 2. Bhagvata Purana
only after the Buddha’s 3. Ragamala
Mahaparinirvana. How many of the above was/were the
2. Women could not achieve salvation. theme(s) of the Basohli painters?
3. The Bhikkunis were subjected to more (a) Only one
laws and restrictions than the Bhikkus. (b) Only two
4. Pregnant women were not eligible to (c) All three
join the Sangha.
(d) None

RAUSIAS-0561 4
24. With reference to the Shaka rulers, 1. The Lodhi Sultans used the
consider the following statements: construction of the tombs on a raised
1. The Shakas, who came from Central platform, so that they can appear to be
Asia, were regarded as mlechchhas. lofty and huge.
2. Rudradaman, the famous Shaka ruler, 2. Some tombs of the Lodhi period were
rebuilt the Sudarshana lake. octagonal.
3. Satavahanas had marriage alliance with 3. In their buildings, they used balconies,
Shakas. caves and Mandaps in the Rajasthani
How many of the above statements is/are and Gujarati styles.
correct? 4. 'Moti ki Masjid', built by the Wazir of
(a) Only one Sikandar Lodhi, is the finest specimen
of the architecture of the Lodhis.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
25. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only three
1. Mangalesha, the Chalukya ruler,
(d) All four
patronized the excavation of the Badami
caves.
2. The paintings at the Kanchipuram 28. Consider the following pairs:
temple were patronized by the Pallava S.N. Bhakti saints Work
king, Rajsimha. 1. Madhavacharya Subodhini
3. The inscription at Mandagapattu
2. Jnanesvara Bhavartha Dipika
mentions Mahendravarman-I with titles
such as Vichitrachitta and Chaityakari. 3. Ramdas Dasabodha
How many of the above statements is/are How many of the above pairs is/are
correct? correctly matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three (c) All three pairs
(d) None (d) None of the pairs

26. ‘The stream of gold flows through the
majestic city of Delhi. However, every pearl
in the royal crown is but the crystallized
drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of
the poor peasant.’
The above excerpt, with reference to the
Delhi Sultanate’s economic condition, was
written by whom of the following?
(a) Ziauddin Barani
(b) Malik Muhammad Jaisi
(c) Ibn Batuta
(d) Amir Khusrau
27. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Lodhi architecture:
29. Recently, the Prime Minister of India
referred to the Uttaramerur inscription in
Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu), while
discussing India’s democratic history.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the working of a
Sabha according to the Uttaramerur
inscription?
1. All those who wish to become the
members of the Sabha should be the
owners of the land from which land
revenue is collected.
2. They should have the knowledge of the
Vedas.
3. There was no age criteria for being
member of Sabha.

RAUSIAS-0561 5
 4. There was no restriction on re-election
of members of Sabha.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
30. With reference to Chhatrapati Shivaji,
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. All ministers, included in the Ashta
Pradhan, were required to command
armies and lead expeditions.
2. Hazir Majlis was the final court of
appeal in the administration of justice.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. With reference to reforms in India, which of
the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Rammohun Roy established a Vedanta
College, in which courses both in Indian
learning and in Western social and
physical sciences were offered.
(b) Prasanna Kumar Tagore was the first
secretary of the Brahma Sabha.
(c) Vishnu Shastri Pundit founded the
Widow Remarriage Association.
(d) Karsondas Mulji started the Satya
Prakash to advocate widow remarriage.
32. With reference to the Lucknow Session of
Congress, 1916, consider the following
statements:
1. Ambika Charan Majumdar was the
President of the Lucknow Session.
2. The Muslim League agreed to present
joint constitutional demands with the
Congress and gave up the demand of
separate electorates.
RAUSIAS-0561
3. The Congress agreed for a fixed
proportion of seats for the Muslims in
the legislatures at all-India and
provincial levels.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
33. With reference to the proposals of the
Wavell Plan (1945), consider the following
statements:
1. All members of the Governor-General’s
Executive Council, except the
Commander-in-Chief and the Governor-
General himself, would be elected by
the political parties.
2. Caste Hindus and Muslims would be
represented in equal proportions to the
Council.
3. One Indian member of the Council
would be responsible for the portfolio of
the ‘Tribal’ and the ‘Frontier’ matters.
4. The political parties can represent any
member of any religion to the Council.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
34. In which of the following events, Mahatma
Gandhi made this statement, ‘That I have
reached here is in no small measure due to
the power of peace and non-violence: that
power is universally felt. The Government
may, if it wishes, congratulate itself on
acting as it has done, for it could have
arrested every one of us.’
(a) Champaran Satyagraha
(b) Kheda Satyagraha
(c) Dandi March
(d) Quit India Movement
6
35. With reference to the Indian national 3. ‘Gandhi marriages’ were celebrated
movement, consider the following during the Movement.
statements: How many of the above statements is/are
1. ‘Bandi Jiwan’ by Sachindranath Sanyal correct?
inspired younger revolutionaries. (a) Only one
2. ‘Hindustan Republic Association’ aimed (b) Only two
to establish ‘Federal Republic of United
(c) All three
States of India’ through armed struggle.
(d) None
3. ‘Kakori Conspiracy case’ was associated
with assassination of colonial officer
Saunders by the revolutionaries. 38. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the statements given above S.N. Place Country
is/are correct?
1. Haifa Israel
(a) Only one
2. Al Ghuwaifat Jordan
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. Piraeus Italy
(d) None 4. Haradh UAE
How many of the above pairs is/are
36. Consider the following statements: correctly matched?
Statement-I: The Congress ministries in (a) Only one
provinces formed after 1936-1937 elections
(b) Only two
could not completely eliminate the
(c) Only three
Zamindari System.
Statement-II: The constitutional structure (d) All four
of the Government of India Act, 1935,
restricted the powers and financial 39. With reference to the Organization of the
resources of the provincial ministries. Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC),
Which one of the following is correct in consider the following statements:
respect of the above statements? 1. It is a permanent and
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are intergovernmental organization created
correct and Statement-II is the correct by the Baghdad Conference.
explanation for Statement-I. 2. The approval of a new member country
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are requires agreement by three-quarters of
correct and Statement-II is not the the OPEC's existing members, including
correct explanation for Statement-I. all of the founding members.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II 3. The OPEC Fund for International
is incorrect. Development is the only globally
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- mandated development institution that
II is correct. provides financing from the member
countries to the non-member countries
37. With reference to the Quit India Movement, exclusively.
consider the following statements: How many of the above statements is/are
1. The socialist members of the Indian correct?
National Congress were active in the (a) Only one
underground resistance.
(b) Only two
2. During this Movement, Seba Dals and
(c) All three
Tufan Dals were organized in Bihar.
(d) None

RAUSIAS-0561 7
40. Consider the following statements 3. Though all the Annex 2 countries have
regarding the United Nations Relief and signed the Treaty, a few countries are
Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the yet to ratify the same.
Near East (UNRWA): How many of the above statements is/are
1. It is funded almost entirely by voluntary correct?
contributions, and serves for the cause (a) Only one
of the Palestine refugees only.
(b) Only two
2. It manages the refugee camps and
(c) All three
provides security to the refugees.
(d) None
3. The UNRWA has a mandate to resettle
the Palestine refugees.
43. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements is/are
regarding the Global Biofuel Alliance:
correct?
1. Only national governments are part of
(a) Only one
this Alliance.
(b) Only two
2. All G20 countries are members of this
(c) All three
Alliance.
(d) None
3. India is the largest producer of biofuels
in the world.
41. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements is/are
reference to the International Court of correct?
Justice (ICJ):
(a) Only one
1. It can decide on the cases involving
(b) Only two
breaches of the international law on its
(c) All three
own.
(d) None
2. For the judges, the elections are
conducted every three years, and the
retiring judges are not eligible for re- 44. Consider the following countries:
election. 1. Saudi Arabia
3. For the first time under the Genocide 2. Yemen
Convention, South Africa filed a case 3. Somalia
against Israel in the ICJ. 4. Djibouti
How many of the above statements is/are 5. Egypt
correct?
How many of the above-mentioned
(a) Only one countries share border with the Red Sea?
(b) Only two (a) Only two
(c) All three (b) Only three
(d) None (c) Only four
(d) All five
42. Consider the following statements
regarding the ‘Comprehensive Nuclear-
45. The ‘Three Brotherhood Alliance’ was in the
Test-Ban Treaty’ (CTBT):
news recently. It is associated with which of
1. It is a multilateral Treaty that bans all the following countries?
nuclear explosions, whether for military
(a) Syria
or peaceful purposes.
(b) Sudan
2. For the Treaty to enter into force, it
(c) Myanmar
must be signed and ratified by nuclear
technology holder countries, known as (d) Yemen
the Annex 2 countries.

RAUSIAS-0561 8
46. Consider the following pairs: How many of the above statements is/are
S.N. Area of conflict Country correct?
mentioned in the where it is (a) Only one
news. located. (b) Only two
1. Khan Yunis Lebanon (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. Panjgur Iran
3. Erbil Iraq
49. With reference to the Green Credit Rules,
How many of the above pairs is/are 2023, consider the following statements:
correctly matched?
1. It is an initiative within the
(a) Only one
government’s Lifestyle for the
(b) Only two
Environment, or the ‘LiFE’ Movement.
(c) All three
2. It has been notified under the
(d) None
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
3. Under it, voluntary tree plantation is
47. With reference to the Forest (Conservation)
Amendment Act, 2023, consider the envisaged on degraded land, waste
following statements: land, watershed area etc., under the
1. The Amendment Act covers only the control and management of the Forest
land that was declared or notified as a Departments.
forest under the Indian Forest Act, 4. The generation of ‘Green Credit’, under
1927. the Green Credit Rules, 2023, is
2. It exempts strategic national security independent of the ‘Carbon Credit’,
projects on the land situated within 200
under the Carbon Credit Trading
kilometres of the international borders
Scheme, 2023.
from environmental clearances.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above statements is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four

48. With reference to the outcomes of the COP-

50. With reference to the honeybees, consider
28, consider the following statements:
1. It was the first COP to officially
acknowledge that fossil fuels are the
root cause of climate change.
2. The International Monetary Fund will
administer the Loss and Damage Fund.
3. At this Conference of the Parties, the Oil
and Gas Decarbonization Charter
(OGDC) has been launched.
4. The United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Presidency at this Conference of the
Parties delivered an agreement, calling
on the countries to “phase-out” fossil
fuels.
the following statements:
1. The principal form of communication
among the honeybees is through
chemicals known as pheromones.
2. Male bees in the hive are called drones.
3. The bees have five eyes.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

RAUSIAS-0561 9
51. Consider the following countries: How many of the above statements is/are
1. Bolivia correct?
2. Uruguay (a) Only one
3. Suriname (b) Only two
4. Ecuador (c) All three
How many of the above countries is/are the (d) None
member(s) of the Amazon Cooperation
Treaty Organization (ACTO)? 54. With reference to the High Seas Treaty,
(a) Only one consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. The Treaty aims at strengthening
(c) Only three resilience, and contains provisions
(d) All four based on the ‘polluter-pays principle’.
2. Under the Treaty’s provisions, the
parties must assess potential
52. Consider the following statements:
environmental impacts of any planned
1. Ecologically, North-east India forms a
activities beyond their jurisdictions.
part of the South-Asian tropical rain
3. Treaty provisions recognize the rights
forest belt.
and traditional knowledge of the
2. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is the
indigenous people and the local
only home of the marsh-dwelling brow-
communities.
antlered deer, ‘Sangai’ of Manipur.
How many of the above statements is/are
3. Shirui Lily, a rare species of lily on the
correct?
verge of extinction, is found in
(a) Only one
Arunachal Pradesh.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? (c) All three

(a) Only one (d) None

(b) Only two

(c) All three 55. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Hoolock Gibbon:
(d) None
1. The Hoolock Gibbon prefers to live in
the canopies of the evergreen forests in
53. With reference to the Wildlife Crime Control
the Western Ghats.
Bureau, consider the following statements:
2. It is the only ape found in India.
1. It was created to deal with wildlife
3. They live together in monogamous
crimes having ramifications beyond the
pairs.
state as well as the national borders.
How many of the above statements is/are
2. The Bureau was constituted by an
correct?
amendment to the Biological Diversity
Act, 2002. (a) Only one

3. The functions of the Bureau include the (b) Only two

implementation of the obligations under (c) All three
various International Conventions and (d) None
Protocols.

RAUSIAS-0561 10
56. Consider the following statements: 2. It comes under the Energy Conservation
1. Bio-CNG’s calorific value is significantly Act, 2001.
less than that of Compressed Natural 3. It has been accredited by the Energy
Gas (CNG). Efficiency Services Limited (EESL).
2. The SATAT scheme aims at encouraging How many of the above statements is/are
entrepreneurs to set up Compressed correct?
Bio-Gas (CBG) production plant. (a) Only one
3. Press mud can be used to produce Bio- (b) Only two
CNG.
(c) All three
How many of the statements given above
(d) None
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
60. Consider the following:
(b) Only two
1. The Vienna Convention
(c) All three
2. The Montreal Protocol
(d) None
3. The Kigali Amendment

57. Consider the following species: 4. The Stockholm Convention

1. Alpacas How many of the above Conventions /

Protocol / Amendment is / are related to
2. Vicunas
the Ozone layer depletion?
3. Guanacos
(a) Only one
4. llamas
(b) Only two
How many of the above comes/come under
the species of camelids? (c) Only three

(a) Only one (d) All four

(b) Only two
(c) Only three 61. With reference to the invasive alien species,
consider the following statements:
(d) All four
1. They can drastically reduce the
resilience of the agricultural systems
58. Consider the following statements:
and the urban areas to climate change.
1. Fungi lacks chlorophyll.
2. The International Union for
2. Mushrooms are a type of fungus.
Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
3. Mushrooms contain ergosterol (a implemented the Inva'Ziles project to
precursor of vitamin D2).
protect the island ecosystems from the
How many of the above statements is/are invasive alien species.
correct?
3. Sleeper species are the naturalized
(a) Only one species that exhibit invasive
(b) Only two characteristics in response to
(c) All three environmental change.
(d) None How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
59. With reference to the Star Labelling (a) Only one
Programme, consider the following (b) Only two
statements: (c) All three
1. The Programme assesses the energy
(d) None
efficiency of the appliances on a scale of
1 to 5.

RAUSIAS-0561 11
62. The term ‘Qanat System’ is often seen in 65. Consider the following statements
the news, in the context of which of the regarding ‘Rhododendrons’:
following? 1. They are herbaceous plants with
(a) Exploration/extraction of shale gas. colourful flowers.
(b) Restoration of damaged coral reefs. 2. In India, Western Himalayas account
(c) Waste-to-energy technology. for most biodiversity of rhododendrons.
(d) Water conservation technology. 3. They are found in both evergreen and
deciduous vegetation.
63. With reference to the Convention on How many of the above statements is/are
Migratory Species (CMS), consider the correct?
following statements: (a) Only one
1. It is the only global Convention (b) Only two
specializing in the conservation of
(c) All three
migratory species, their habitats and
migration routes. (d) None

2. India has signed non-legally binding

Memoranda (Memorandums) of 66. Which of the following statements is/are
Understanding (MoUs) with the CMS for correct regarding the ‘Katabatic’ winds?
the conservation of marine turtles and 1. They flow downhill under the influence
raptors. of gravity.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. They attract the homes and orchards to
correct? be settled in the mountain valleys.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
64. Consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1: Indonesia, the Philippines
and Japan are highly vulnerable to
67. Consider the following statements
earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and
regarding the ‘Western Disturbances’:
tsunamis.
Statement 2: The world’s most subduction 1. The western disturbance is a
zones are located in the Pacific Ring of Fire. monsoonal precipitation pattern
brought by the sub-tropical jet-stream,
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? largely impacting north India.

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Arctic warming sometimes shifts the
correct and Statement-II is the correct sub-tropical westerly jet-stream
explanation for Statement-I northwards.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the above statements is/are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I (a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (b) 2 only
is incorrect (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
II is correct

RAUSIAS-0561 12
68. Consider the following statements 71. Consider the following statements about
regarding the ‘Himalayas’: Mines and Minerals (Development and
1. The Indian Himalayan Region is spread Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957:
across 13 Indian States/Union 1. Mining and exploration of minerals
Territories. listed as 'atomic minerals' in the MMDR
2. The Red Panda is a mammal species Act can be done by Private and
native to the Eastern Himalayas. government entities.
3. The forest varieties found over the 2. The Centre and State Governments can
Himalayas are tropical deciduous, award mining lease for minerals listed
temperate, as well as alpine. as 'critical minerals' in the MMDR Act
How many of the above statements is/are to both private and public sector
correct? entities.
(a) Only one 3. Minerals such as all rare earth metals,
(b) Only two lithium, potash and phosphate have
(c) All three been placed in the list of 'critical
(d) None minerals' under the MMDR Act.
4. The Central Government has launched
69. With reference to the Lakshadweep Islands, auction for lithium mining at Katghora
consider the following statements: in Chattisgarh.
1. The Islands have a total area of 52 sq How many of the statements given above
km. is/are correct?
2. The Islands have no inland lake. (a) Only one
3. The Kavaratti Island is at a distance of (b) Only two
218 nautical miles from Kochi. (c) Only three
How many of the above statements is/are (d) All four
correct?
(a) Only one
72. Which of the following processes takes
(b) Only two
place by alternate wetting and drying of
(c) All three rocks?
(d) None
(a) Slaking
(b) Sheeting
70. Consider the following statements:
(c) Slumping
1. The Equator receives more insolation
(d) Flaking
than the Tropics.
2. At the same latitude, the insolation is
more over the oceans, than over the 73. Consider the following statements:
continents. 1. During the El-Niño events, nutrient-rich
3. Maximum insolation is received over the water, off the north-west coast of South
sub-tropical deserts. America, remains very deep.
How many of the above statements is/are 2. The El-Niño years are always
correct? characterised by drought-like situations
(a) Only one in India.
(b) Only two 3. The presence of strong trade winds alter
(c) All three the thermal and pressure situation
(d) None during the El-Niño times.

RAUSIAS-0561 13
 How many of the above statements is/are 76. Which of the following statements
correct? regarding “Codified Constitution” is
(a) Only one incorrect?
(b) Only two (a) A Codified Constitution is more rigid,
and may therefore, be less responsive
(c) All three
and adaptable than an uncodified one.
(d) None (b) With a Codified Constitution, the
constitutional supremacy resides with
74. Consider the following statements: the non-elected judges, rather than with
1. The Right to Equality is available only the publicly accountable politicians.
within the territory of India. (c) Non-political judges are able to police
the Constitution to ensure that its
2. The State shall not discriminate against
provisions are upheld by other public
any person in any manner on the
bodies.
grounds of descent.
(d) Individual liberty is absolutely protected
3. The Freedom of Speech and Expression and authoritarianism is kept at bay.
is available to all the citizens, even
outside the territory of India.
77. With reference to the Preamble to the
How many of the above statements is/are Indian Constitution, consider the following
correct? statements:
(a) Only one 1. The Preamble does not grant
(b) Only two substantive rights.
(c) All three 2. The Preamble came into force on
(d) None November 26th, 1949.
3. The Constitution 42nd Amendment Act
introduced the words “Socialist Secular”
75. Consider the following statements between the words “Liberty” and
regarding ‘education’ as a Fundamental “Equality”.
Right: How many of the above statements is/are
Statement-I: The Supreme Court held the correct?
Right to Education as a part of Article 21, (a) Only one
even before it was added as a part of Article (b) Only two
21A. (c) All three
Statement-II: The Supreme Court held (d) None
that without education, the dignity of the
individual cannot be upheld.
78. Consider the following provisions of the
Which one of the following is correct in Indian Constitution:
respect of the above statements? 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The Fundamental Duties
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. The Seventh Schedule
explanation for Statement-I
4. The Ninth Schedule
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are The provisions related to ‘forests’ can be
correct and Statement-II is not the found in how many of the above provisions
correct explanation for Statement-I of the Indian Constitution?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (a) Only one
is incorrect (b) Only two
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (c) Only three
II is correct (d) All four

RAUSIAS-0561 14
79. Consider the following statements with
reference to Article 3 of the Constitution of
India:
1. No Bill for the creation of States shall be
introduced in either House of
Parliament except on the
recommendation of the President.
2. Whenever there is creation of a new
State or UT, there is a mandatory need
for the President to ascertain the view of
the State or UT legislature.
3. If the State Legislature fails to express
its views within the stipulated time,
Parliament is free to proceed with the
matter as it likes.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
80. Consider the following statements about
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
1. The word 'sedition' has explicitly been
defined as a crime against the State in
the Act.
2. 'Organised crime' has been explicitly
defined as a gang indulging in
continuing unlawful activity.
3. 'Hate speech' has been explicitly defined
as a crime under the Act.
4. 'Terrorist Act' has been explicitly
defined as a crime under the Act.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
81. Consider the following statements about
the office of the Governor:
1. The Governor is not bound by the
Constitution to reserve any Bill on any
subject for the reservation of the
Presidential assent.
RAUSIAS-0561
2. All Bills reserved for the Presidential
assent can be asked by the President to
be presented to the State Legislature for
reconsideration.
3. When a reserved Bill, which has been
asked by the President for
reconsideration by the State
Legislature, is passed again, the Bill is
presented to the Governor for his
consideration.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
82. Consider the following statements:
1. Lok Sabha Speaker's decision on
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is
final and not subject to judicial review.
2. A Money Bill can only be introduced
after the recommendation of the
President.
3. The President's recommendation is
required for moving any amendment for
making reduction or abolition of any
tax.
4. A Bill, which mandates expenditure
from the Consolidated Fund of India,
should be passed by either House only
after the recommendation of the
President for consideration of the Bill to
both the Houses.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
83. Consider the following statements about
the Armed Forces Tribunal:
1. The Armed Forces Tribunal has
jurisdiction over all persons under the
Army, Navy, Air Force and the Central
Armed Police Forces.
15
 2. The Appeal on the ruling of the Armed
Forces Tribunal lies directly with the
Supreme Court and no lower court.
3. The Armed Forces Tribunal has been
established by a Presidential
notification and has no statutory
backing.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
87. Consider the following statements about
84. Which of the following is the most
important rationale for the ‘Rule of Law’ in
modern polities?
(a) Protection of the rights of the citizens
(b) Prevention of arbitrary use of power
(c) To ensure justness of laws
(d) Protection of the minorities
85. Consider the following statements about
the Contempt of Court:
1. The Constitution defines the Contempt
of Court.
2. Criminal Contempt of Court is the wilful
disobedience of any judgement, decree
or order of a court.
3. All courts and tribunals have been
conferred the power to punish for their
contempt by the Constitution.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
2. The Lok Sabha set up its Ethics
Committee before the setting up of
Ethics Committee in the Rajya Sabha.
3. The Ethics Committee can take up only
cases of misconduct that involve MPs.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
the Election Commission of India:
1. Any person of integrity, having
experience in public life, can be
appointed as an Election Commissioner
(EC) or the Chief Election Commissioner
(CEC).
2. The Selection Committee for the
appointment of the Chief Election
Commissioner and other Election
Commissioners consists of the Prime
Minister; the Chief Justice of India; and
the Leader of Opposition in the Lok
Sabha.
3. The salaries, allowances and other
conditions of service of the CEC and
other ECs shall be the same as that of a
judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The procedure for the removal of the
CEC and other ECs is similar.
How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

86. With reference to ‘Ethics Committee’ of the 88. Consider the following statements about
Lok Sabha, consider the following the Panchayat Development Index:
statements:
1. The Panchayat Development Index will
1. It is the only committee that probes any help in assessing the progress made in
citizen's complaints against lawmakers
realization of the SDGs (Sustainable
of the Lok Sabha.
Development Goals) in the rural areas.

RAUSIAS-0561 16
 2. The Index will be based on 9 themes, 91. Consider the following statements:
which are covered under the Local 1. Genetically modified organisms may
Indicator Framework for the localization include plants, animals and micro-
of the SDGs. organisms.
3. The Index has been developed and 2. Genetically engineered crops necessarily
released by NITI Aayog. involve inter-species gene transfer.
How many of the above statements is/are 3. Commercial release of transgenic crops
correct? in India requires mandatory clearance
(a) Only one of the Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
89. Consider the following statements about (c) All three
the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act,
(d) None
2023:
1. Horizontal reservation for women has
92. Consider the following pairs:
been made for the women belonging to
the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled S.N. Terms related Description
Tribes and Other Backward Classes. to Artificial
Intelligence
2. Reservation for women has not been
(AI)
introduced in the Legislative Councils in
the States. 1. Multimodal AI AI systems
capable of
3. There will be no rotation of seats
processing and
reserved for women in the Lok Sabha
understanding
and the State Assemblies.
information from
How many of the above statements is/are multiple data
correct? sources, such as
(a) Only one text, images,
(b) Only two audio and video.
(c) All three 2. Artificial Machine learning
(d) None Neural algorithm where
Network two neural
networks compete
90. Which of the following is not a fundamental
against each
duty provided for in the Indian
other.
Constitution?
3. Generative Machine learning
(a) To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
Adversarial algorithm
unity and integrity of India.
Network consisting of
(b) To strive towards excellence in all inter-connected
spheres of individual and collective nodes organized
activity. in layers modelled
(c) To have compassion towards living on the human
creatures. brain.
(d) To abjure the practice of untouchability.

RAUSIAS-0561 17
 How many of the above pairs is/are 2. Antimicrobial resistance can be
correctly matched? acquired via horizontal gene transfer.
(a) Only one 3. Inappropriate disposal of medication
(b) Only two may trigger antimicrobial resistance.
(c) All three 4. Microplastics can act as a reservoir of
(d) None microbes resistant to antimicrobials.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
93. Consider the following statements with
reference to Cell-free DNA (cfDNA): (a) Only one
1. cfDNA are fully functional fragments of (b) Only two
DNAs found in the bodily fluids. (c) Only three
2. These fragments retain genetic (d) All four
information from their cellular origins.
3. They can be used as a biomarker in 96. Consider the following statements:
diagnosing cancer and neurological 1. A satellite placed in the halo orbit
disorders. around the L1 point of the Earth-Sun
How many of the above statements is/are system has the major advantage of
correct? continuously viewing the Sun without
(a) Only one any occultation/eclipse.
(b) Only two 2. The distance of the L1 point of the
(c) All three Earth-Sun system from the Earth is
(d) None approximately 3% of the Earth-Sun
distance.
94. Consider the following: 3. The Aditya-L1’s orbit lies in the plane of
1. Fertility preservation by freezing of eggs the solar system.
and embryos. How many of the above statements is/are
2. Targeting or eliminating unwanted or correct?
malignant tissues. (a) Only one
3. Determination of chemical structure of (b) Only two
a molecule. (c) All three
4. Preservation of dead humans with the (d) None
goal of reviving them in the future.
How many of the above is/are the potential
97. Consider the following statements:
application(s) of the cryogenic technology?
1. Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell
(a) Only one
therapy is a cellular therapy that
(b) Only two redirects a patient’s T-cells to
(c) Only three specifically target and destroy the
(d) All four tumour cells.
2. CAR T-cell therapy has been approved
95. Consider the following statements with for all cancers in India.
reference to Antimicrobial Resistance 3. NexCAR19, India’s first indigenously-
(AMR): developed CAR T-cell therapy, is
1. Microbes may develop resistance to approved by National Medical
antibiotics through natural mutation. Commission.

RAUSIAS-0561 18
 How many of the above statements is/are 99. "Phonotaxis" is best described by which of
correct? the following statements?
(a) Only one (a) A revolutionary technology for encoding
(b) Only two information, using sound-waves in
(c) All three communication devices.
(d) None (b) High-frequency sound emitted from the
supersonic missiles.
(c) A form of acoustic levitation used in
98. With reference to the Controller of
advanced transportation systems.
Certifying Authorities (CCA), consider the
following statements: (d) The movement or orientation of an
organism in response to sound stimuli.
1. The Controller of Certifying Authorities
is a non-statutory body.
2. It has established the Root Certifying 100. Consider the following statements with
Authority of India. reference to Indrajaal:
3. The CCA maintains the Repository of 1. Indrajaal is India’s first anti-drone
Digital Certificates, which contains all system, powered by Artificial
the certificates issued to the Certifying Intelligence.
Authorities in the country. 2. It can provide coverage against
How many of the above statements is/are unmanned autonomous threats in the
correct? regions upto 10,000 square kilometres.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-0561 19
 Test ID
0561

RAU’S IAS
STUDY CIRCLE
Pre Pareekshan-2024
Mock–1
GS (Paper–1)

Answers
and
Explanations
www.rauias.com | compass.rauias.com
1. Answer: (a) • If the banks have less money to give
Explanation: loans, then the rate of interest on loans
• Increase in inflation leads to would increase and hence, money
increase in the prices of the supply would reduce.
domestic goods. Hence, it leads to
increase in imports of cheaper 4. Answer: (b)
foreign goods. Explanation:
• At the same time, it leads to • The value of output is equal to the
decrease in exports, as the domestic payments made to the factors of
goods become costly. production. Hence, based on the this,
• Deflation refers to a decrease in the the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at
prices of goods and services. In case of market prices is the sums of the
deflation, the creditors benefit and compensation of the employees (wages,
the debtors lose out. This is so salaries, contribution to social security
because the debtors repay more in etc.), gross operating surplus (rent,
terms of real value. interest, royalty and profit), mixed
• Real rate of interest is calculated as: income and net indirect taxes, which
Nominal rate of interest - Inflation). If are the taxes on production and
the real rate of interest becomes imports, less the subsidies on
negative, then the borrowers are production. The income-side approach
getting less in terms of real interest shows how various factors contribute to
rate during inflation and hence, it the GDP in the production process.
would discourage the depositors from • To estimate correct national income by
depositing money with the banks. income method, the following
precautions have to be taken:
2. Answer: (b) o Transfer payments are not
Explanation: included.

Fiscal Drag refers to the situation wherein o The income earned through the
tax collection of the government sale and purchase of second-hand
increases due to increase in the rate of goods is not included.
inflation. o Imputed rent of self-occupied
houses is included.

3. Answer: (a) o Value of production for self-

consumption is included.
Explanation:
• The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is
the rate at which the Reserve Bank of 5. Answer: (c)

India (RBI) accepts deposits from the Explanation:

banks.
• If the SDF rate increases, the banks
would be encouraged to deposit more
money with the RBI, leading to less
money with the banks.
Urea Gold is a nonorganic coated urea
fertilizer that has recently been officially
launched by the Indian Prime Minister. It
was developed by Rashtriya Chemicals and
Fertilizers Ltd (RCF), a Navratna company
in India.

RAUSIAS-0561 1
 Urea Gold is made by combining urea with Reserve Ratio’ (ICRR) of 10% on the
sulphur, that is basically urea fortified with increase in the banks’ net demand and
sulphur which has been coated to modify time liabilities (NDTLs). This measure is
its release pattern and reduce nitrogen loss intended to absorb the surplus
from the field. liquidity in the banking system, which
Benefits: has been building up in the recent
• Reduction of Sulphur deficiencies in months due to several factors,
Indian soil including the return of ₹2,000 notes to
the banking system.
• Improvement of nitrogen use
efficiency • The ICRR is imposed in addition to
the existing CRR (Cash Reserve
• Reduce nutrient loss
Ratio).
• Environmentally friendly as the
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does
application of a high quantity of
nitrogenous fertilizers has resulted in not provide any interest over these

increased nitrogen loss leading to ICRR balances.

environmental pollution.
8. Answer: (c)

6. Answer: (b) Explanation:

Explanation: • The IBC (The Insolvency and

The adoption of Fed Tapering in USA would Bankruptcy Code, 2016) framework
lead to increase in yield rates in USA replaced the “debtor in possession”
leading to higher outflow of FPI from India approach with a “creditor in control”
leading to adverse effect on Indian regime.
Economy in the form of Rupee • Hence, once the resolution process
Depreciation, Fall in Forex Reserves, starts, the powers of the existing Board
Increase in Bond Yields etc. of Directors are suspended and, during
Hence, the RBI would take the following the CIRP (Corporate Insolvency and
steps: Resolution Process), a creditor-
approved IP (Insolvency professional) is
Sell Dollars to control Rupee Depreciation.
appointed to manage the CD (Corporate
Adopt tools to decrease the Bond Yields
debtor) as a going concern. The IP
to reduce Borrowing cost of the
functions under the overall control and
Government.
supervision of the Committee of
Note: The RBI would not reduce the
Creditors.
Repo rate as it would lead to increase in
• However, the insolvency resolution
Rupee supply and hence cause further
process can be initiated by either the
Rupee Depreciation.
creditor or the debtor, by filing an
application with the adjudicating
7. Answer: (a) authority (The National Company Law
Explanation: Tribunal - NCLT).
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
announced the ‘Incremental Cash

RAUSIAS-0561 2
9. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• India’s external debt may be classified into ‘sovereign external debt’ (SED) and ‘non-SED’.
• The SED comprises, inter alia, external assistance (from bilateral and multilateral sources)
on the Government Account, investment in the G-secs by the FPIs (The Foreign Portfolio
Investments/Investors), loans from the foreign central banks and international institutions,
and SDR (The Special Drawing Right) allocations by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Non-SED comprises trade credit, external commercial borrowings and NRI deposits.
• Thus, the debt raised from the external sources, even in rupee denomination (FPI in G-
secs, Masala Bonds etc.), is considered a part of the external debt.
• US dollar denominated debt remained the largest component of India's external debt, with a
share of 55.5% at end-September, 2022.

10. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
• Female labour market trends as per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) (2022-23):
Year Labour Force Participation Rate Female Labour Force
(Usual Status) Participation Rate
2017-18 36.93% 17.5%
2018-19 37.48% 18.5%
2019-20 40.11% 22.8%
2020-21 41.6% 25%
2021-22 41.3% 24.8%
2022-23 42.4% 27.8%

RAUSIAS-0561 3
 • Share of various sectors in employment:
broad industry division as per rural + urban
NIC 2008 Male Female Person
(1) (8) (9) (10)
agriculture 37.1 64.3 45.8
mining & quarrying 0.4 0.1 0.3
manufacturing 11.6 11.1 11.4
electricity, water, etc. 0.7 0.2 0.5
construction 17.3 4.0 13.0
trade, hotel & restaurant transport, 14.8 6.2 12.1
storage &
communications 7.4 1.2 5.4
other services 10.7 13.0 11.4
All 100.0 100.0 100.0

11. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
• The Cape Town Convention (CTC) is a global treaty that guarantees the rights of the
lessors to repossess the leased high-value equipment, such as aircrafts, engines and
helicopters, in case of payment defaults.
• India is a signatory to the Convention, but not yet ratified, as per which the lessors can seek
deregistration and export of the aircraft without the consent of the airlines when lease
payments are defaulted.
• However, according to Section 14 of India’s Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016,
the admission of an insolvency plea by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) results in
an immediate and complete moratorium on the recovery of the assets leased to the debtor.
This protection, given to the defaulting companies under the Code, violates the Cape Town
Convention. Hence, the Government has recently exempted the aircrafts, their engines,
airframes and helicopters from the protection given under Section 14 of the IBC.

12. Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Greedflation: In a time of extraordinary disruption, increasingly dominant corporations are
taking the opportunity to jack up the prices more than they otherwise could, which is squeezing
the consumers and supercharging inflation.

13. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Bond is a debt instrument issued by the governments and the corporates to raise capital. The
value at which the bond is issued is regarded as its face value and the value at which the bond
is traded in the secondary market is referred to as its market value.
Bond Yield: The return received by the investor on the capital invested on a particular bond.
The yield of the bond depends on the market value of the bond.

RAUSIAS-0561 4
 • If the market value increases above the face value of the bond (the price at which it was
purchased in the primary market when it was issued), then the rate of return on the
purchase of the bond in the secondary market decreases. This phenomenon is often known
as softening of bond yields.
• On the other hand, if the market value decreases below the face value of the bond, then the
rate of return on the purchase of bond in the secondary market increases. This phenomenon
is known as hardening of bond yields.

Demand for the bonds

Decreases
Market price of the bond decreases
Bond yield increases (Yield hardening)
Reasons:
• Increased inflation
• Sale of G-secs by the central bank under
the open market operations
• Increased borrowings by
government (Increased fiscal deficit)
Loss to the bond holder
Increases
Market price of the bond increases
Bond yield decreases (Yield softening)
Reasons:
• Deflationary trends in the economy
• Purchase of G-secs by the central bank
under the open market operations
the • Reduced borrowings by the government
No loss to the bond holder

14. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
• PM Vishwakarma, a Central Sector Scheme, aims to provide end-to-end support to the
artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools. The Scheme covers artisans
and craftspeople engaged in 18 trades.
• Eligibility: An artisan or a craftsperson, working with hands and tools, and engaged in one
of the specified family-based traditional trades in the unorganised or informal sector, on self-
employment basis, shall be eligible for registration under PM Vishwakarma. However, the
benefits under the Scheme shall be restricted to one member of the family.
• The Scheme provides the following benefits:
o PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card.
o Skill training.
o Credit support (The credit support is contingent upon skill training. The disbursal of
credit under the Scheme is linked with the attainment of specific milestones of training).
o Incentives for digital transactions.
o Marketing support.

RAUSIAS-0561 5
15. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In Indian Context, the trade is called Merchanting Trade when,
1. The supplier of goods will be resident in one foreign country
2. The buyer of goods will be resident in another foreign country
3. The merchant or the intermediary will be resident in India.
In simple terms, a Merchanting transaction is one which involves shipment of goods from
one foreign country to another foreign country involving an Indian Intermediary. Hence, It
is also called Intermediary Trade.
Conditions for Classification as Merchanting Trade:
For a trade to be classified as merchanting trade following conditions should be satisfied;
• Goods acquired should not enter the Domestic Tariff Area of the Importing Country
and
• The state of the goods should not undergo any transformation and is meant for transport
from the country of supplier to the country of the buyer.

16. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
According to the MFN principle, each of the WTO member countries should “treat all the other
members equally as ‘most-favored’ trading partners.” The WTO says, "Grant someone a special
favor (such as a lower customs duty rate) and you have to do the same for all other WTO
members" Hence, though MFN sounds like special treatment, in effect it means non-
discrimination.
However, some exceptions are allowed. For example, countries can set up a free trade
agreement that applies only to goods traded within the group — discriminating against goods
from outside. Or they can give poor/developing countries special access to their markets.

17. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
2023 GENDER SOCIAL NORMS INDEX (GSNI)
The Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) quantifies biases against women, capturing people’s
attitudes on women’s roles along four key dimensions: political, educational, economic and
physical integrity.
The index, covering 85 percent of the global population, reveals that close to 9 out of 10 men
and women hold fundamental biases against women.
Nearly half the world’s people believe that men make better political leaders than women do,
and two of five people believe that men make better business executives than women do.
Gender biases are pronounced in both low and high Human Development Index (HDI)
countries. These biases hold across regions, income, level of development and cultures—
making them a global issue.

18. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
• A nationwide flagship programme - ‘MAA’ (Mothers’ Absolute Affection) has been
implemented across the States/UTs since 2016.

RAUSIAS-0561 6
 • It envisages improving the breastfeeding rates and child feeding practices among the
masses. Under this, ASHAs are being incentivized for reaching all pregnant women and
nursing mothers of young children for advocating optimal IYCF practices.
• Positioning of trained ANMs (at all sub-centres) and the health-care personnel (at all delivery
points) is also being ensured for providing skilled support to nursing mothers, where
necessary.
• Carrying out of village level mothers’ meeting by ASHAs is one of the key activities of
this MAA programme which aim to increase awareness about the importance of
breastfeeding among women in India by community participation.
• MAA programme envisages the promotion of breastfeeding in health facilities as well as
communities by making women aware as well providing skilled counselling support for
appropriate breastfeeding practices.

19. Answer: (c)

Explanation:
• The grains found at the Harappan sites include wheat, barley, lentil, chickpea and sesame.
Millets were found from sites in Gujarat. Finds of rice are relatively rare.
• The animal bones found at the Harappan sites include those of cattle, sheep, goat, buffalo
and pig. The studies done by the archaeo-zoologists or the zoo-archaeologists indicate that
these animals were domesticated. Bones of wild species, such as boar, deer and gharial,
were also found.
• The archaeologists have found evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan (Rajasthan),
associated with the Early Harappan levels. The field had two sets of furrows at right angles
to each other, suggesting that two different crops were grown together.

20. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The Buddhist tradition suggests that the Buddha was not initially keen to establish a
Bhikkhuni Sangha, but ultimately gave in to the persistent pressure of his disciple
Ananda and his aunt and foster-mother Mahapajapati Gotami.
The Sangha was not open to pregnant women, mothers of unweaned children, rebellious
women, who associated with young men, and those who did not have their parents’ or
husbands’ permission to join.
The Buddha is also described as having laid down eight special rules subordinating the order of
the nuns to that of the monks.
While women could attain salvation, their capability for attaining Buddhahood directly
(without first being born as a man) was not accepted.

21. Answer: (c)

Explanation:

RAUSIAS-0561 7
22. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of
one of the most important rulers in the
early Indian history, Chandragupta-II (c.
375 CE -415 CE). She was married into
another important ruling family, that of the
Vakatakas, who were powerful in the
Deccan.
RAUSIAS-0561
According to the Sanskrit legal texts,
women were not supposed to have
independent access to resources, such
as land.
However, the inscription indicates that
Prabhavati had access to land, which
she then granted.
Harshacharita is a biography of
Harshavardhana, the ruler of Kanauj,
8
 composed in Sanskrit by his court poet,
Banabhatta (c. seventh century CE).
A Gahapati was the owner, master or head
of a household, who exercised control over
the women, children, slaves and workers,
who shared a common residence. He was
also the owner of the resources – land,
animals and other things – that belonged
to the household.
Sometimes, the term was used as a
marker of status for the men belonging
to the urban elite, including the wealthy
merchants.
23. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The first and the most dramatic example of
work from the hill states is from Basohli.
From 1678 to 1695, Kirpal Pal, an
enlightened prince, ruled the state.
Under him, Basohli developed a distinctive
and magnificent style. It is characterized
by a strong use of primary colours and
warm yellows—filling the background and
horizon, stylised treatment of vegetation
and raised white paint for imitating the
representation of pearls in ornaments.
However, the most significant
characteristic of Basohli painting is the use
of small, shiny green particles of beetle
wings to delineate jewellery and simulate
the effect of emeralds.
In their vibrant palette and elegance, they
share the aesthetics of the
Chaurpanchashika group of paintings of
Western India.
The most popular theme of the Basohli
painters was the Rasamanjari of Bhanu
Datta. During 1694–95, Devida, a Tarkhan
(carpenter–painter), did a magnificent
series for his patron Kirpal Pal. Bhagvata
Purana and Ragamala were other popular
themes. The artists also painted the
portraits of the local kings with their
consorts, courtiers, astrologers,
mendicants, courtesans and others. While
artist ateliers from Basohli, gradually,
RAUSIAS-0561
spread to other hill states, such as
Chamba and Kullu, giving rise to local
variations of the Basohli Kalam.
A new style of painting came in vogue
during 1690s to 1730s, which was referred
to as the Guler–Kangra phase. The artists
during this period indulged in
experimentation and improvisations, that
finally resulted and moulded into the
Kangra style.
24. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Shakas, who came from Central Asia,
were regarded as mlechchhas, barbarians
or outsiders by the Brahmanas.
However, one of the earliest inscriptions in
Sanskrit describes how Rudradaman, the
best-known Shaka ruler (c. second century
CE), rebuilt the Sudarshana lake. This
suggests that the powerful mlechchhas
were familiar with the Sanskritic
traditions.
It is also interesting that the best-known
ruler of the Satavahana dynasty, Gotami-
puta Siri-Satakani, claimed to be both a
unique Brahmana (Eka Bamhana) and a
destroyer of the pride of the Kshatriyas.
He also claimed to have ensured that there
was no inter-marriage amongst the
members of the four Varnas. At the same
time, he entered into a marriage alliance
with the kin of Rudradaman.
25. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Badami was the capital of the early
Chalukyan dynasty, which ruled the
region from 543 CE to 598 CE. With the
decline of the Vakataka rule, the
Chalukyas established their power in
the Deccan. The Chalukya king,
Mangalesha, patronized the excavation
of the Badami caves. He was the
younger son of the Chalukya king,
Pulakesi-I, and the brother of
Kirtivarman-I. The inscription in Cave
9
 No. 4 mentions the date 578 CE – 579
CE, describes the beauty of the cave
and includes the dedication of the
image of Vishnu. Thus, it may be
presumed that the cave was excavated
in the same era and the patron records
his Vaishnava affiliation. Therefore, the
cave is popularly known as the Vishnu
cave. Only a fragment of the painting
has survived on the vaulted roof of the
front Mandapa.
• The tradition of painting extended
further down south in Tamil Nadu in
the preceding centuries, with regional
variations during the regimes of the
Pallava, the Pandya and the Chola
dynasties.
• The Pallava kings, who succeeded the
Chalukya kings in parts of South India,
were also the patrons of arts.
Mahendravarma-I, who ruled in the
seventh century, was responsible for
building temples at Panamalai,
Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. The
inscription at Mandagapattu mentions
Mahendravarman-I with numerous
titles, such as Vichitrachitta (curious-
minded), Chitrakarapuli (tiger among
artists) and Chaityakari (temple
builder), which show his interest in art
activities. The paintings in these
temples too were done at his initiative,
though only fragments remain.
• The Panamalai figure of a female
divinity is drawn gracefully. The
paintings at the Kanchipuram temple
were patronized by the Pallava king,
Rajsimha. Only traces of the paintings
remain now, which depict Somaskanda.
The faces are round and large. The
lines are rhythmic, with increased
ornamentation, when compared with
the paintings of an earlier periods. The
depiction of torso still remains like the
earlier sculptural tradition, but is
elongated.
• When the Pandyas came to power, they
too patronized art. The Tirumalaipuram
RAUSIAS-0561
caves and the Jaina caves at
Sittanvasal are some of the surviving
examples. A few fragmented layers of
the paintings can be seen in
Tirumalaipuram. In Sittanavasal, the
paintings are visible on the ceilings of
the shrines, in the verandas and on the
brackets.
26. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In the Sultanate period, wealth was
unevenly distributed. It was concentrated
in the hands of a small minority.
Amir Khusrau wrote that, ‘The stream of
gold flows through the majestic city of
Delhi. However, the poor people suffered.
Every pearl in the royal crown is but the
crystallized drop of blood fallen from the
tearful eyes of the poor peasant.’
27. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
About the Lodhi architecture –
In their buildings, arches and beams, both
were used and also the balconies, caves
and Mandaps in the Rajasthani and
Gujarati styles.
The Lodhi Sultans used a new style as
well, e.g., the construction of the tombs on
a raised platform, so that they can appear
to be lofty and huge.
The Tomb of Sikander Lodhi was
constructed within the Lodhi Gardens.
Some tombs of the Lodhi period were
octagonal. Some of these characteristics
were adopted later on by the Mughals also.
The Tomb of Sikandar Lodhi is situated in
a big surrounding wall and its dome is
surrounded by an umbrella with eight
pillars.
‘Moti ki Masjid’, built by the Wazir of
Sikandar Lodhi, is the finest specimen of
the architecture of the Lodhis.
10
28. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Vallabhacharya was a Telegu Brahman.
He was the author of a number of scholarly
works in Sanskrit and Brajbhasa. The
important among them are ‘Subodhini’
and ‘Siddhant Rahasya’.
His philosophy came to be known as ‘the
Epicureanism of the East’.
Madhavacharya ranks with Shankar and
Ramanuja as one of the three principal
philosophers of the Vedanta system. His
view was that the final aim of man is the
direct perception of Hari, which leads to
Moksha or eternal bliss.
Jnanesvara wrote his commentary on the
‘Bhagwat Gita’, called ‘Bhavartha Dipika’.
It is the fountain-head of Maharashtrian
devotionalism.
Ramdas’ main work is ‘Dasabodha’. For
him, devotionalism and activism were
closely wedded. Shivaji was greatly
inspired by the teachings of Ramdas.
29. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Uttaramerur is situated in Kancheepuram
district, about 90 km from Chennai. The
Pallava king, Nandivarman-II, established
it around 750 AD.
The Pallavas, the Cholas, the Pandyas, the
Sambuvarayars, the Vijayanagara Rayas
and the Nayaks successively ruled it.
The village has three important temples,
the Sundara Varadaraja Perumal temple,
the Subramanya temple and the
Kailasanatha temple.
The three temples have a large number of
inscriptions, notably those from the reigns
of Raja Raja Chola (985 AD - 1014 AD), his
son Rajendra Chola and the Vijayanagar
emperor Krishnadeva Raya. Rajendra
Chola, as well as Krishnadeva Raya visited
Uttaramerur.
Uttaramerur, built on the canons of the
Agama texts, has the village assembly
RAUSIAS-0561
Mandapa at the centre. All the temples are
oriented with reference to the Mandapa.
The practice: The entire village, including
the infants, had to be present at the village
assembly, Mandapa, at Uttaramerur when
elections were held.
Only the sick, and those who had gone on
a pilgrimage, were exempt.
There were committees for the
maintenance of irrigation tanks, roads, to
provide relief during drought, to test gold,
and so forth.
There was another astonishing feature of
the elective system in the village. ‘The
village assembly of Uttaramerur,’ drafted
the constitution for the elections.
The salient features were as follows: The
village was divided into 30 wards, one
representative elected for each. Specific
qualifications were prescribed for those
who wanted to contest.
The essential criteria were age limit,
possession of immovable property and
minimum educational qualification. Those
who wanted to be elected should be
above 35 years of age and below 70
years of age.
Only those who owned land, that attracted
tax, could contest elections. Another
stipulation was that such owners should
possess a house built on a legally-owned
site.
They should have the knowledge of the
Vedas. They should be well-versed in
administrative matters and honest.
A person serving in any of the committees
could not contest again for the next three
terms.
Anyone, who has not submitted his
accounts, as well as those of his relatives,
could not contest the elections.
The elected members, who accepted bribes,
misappropriated others' property,
committed incest, or acted against the
public interest, suffered disqualification.
11
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
With exception of the Nyayadhish and
Pandit Rao, all other ministers, included
in the Ashta Pradhan, were required to
command armies and lead expeditions.
The administration of justice was of a
primitive nature. No regular courts were
set up and no regular procedure was laid
down. The Panchayats continued to decide
the disputes in the villages. Criminal cases
were tried by the Patels. Appeals in both
civil and criminal cases were heard by the
Nyayadhish, who was guided by the
Smritis. Hazir Majlis was the final court
of appeal.
31. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Rammohun Roy was one of the earliest
propagators of modern education, which he
looked upon as a major instrument for the
spread of modern ideas in the country.
In 1817, David Hare, who had come to
India in 1800 as a watchmaker, spent his
entire life in the promotion of modern
education in the country. He founded the
famous Hindu College.
Rammohun Roy gave most enthusiastic
assistance to Hare in this and his other
educational projects. In addition, he
maintained, at his own cost, an English
school in Calcutta from 1817 in which,
among other subjects, mechanics and the
philosophy of Voltaire
were taught. In 1825, he established a
Vedanta College in which courses both in
Indian learning and in Western social and
physical sciences were offered.
In the field of education, he was greatly
helped by the Dutch watchmaker David
Hare and the Scottish missionary
Alexander Duff. Dwarkanath Tagore was
the foremost of his Indian associates. His
other prominent followers were Prasanna
Kumar Tagore, Chandrashekhar Deb and
RAUSIAS-0561
Tarachand Chakravarti, the first
secretary of the Brahma Sabha.
Vishnu Shastri Pundit founded the Widow
Remarriage Association in the 1850s.
Another prominent worker in this field was
Karsondas Mulji, who started the Satya
Prakash in Gujarati in 1852 to advocate
widow remarriage.
32. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Lucknow Session of the Indian
National Congress, presided over by a
Moderate, Ambika Charan Majumdar, re-
admitted the Extremists.
Annie Besant and Tilak had made vigorous
efforts for the re-union. To allay Moderate
suspicions, Tilak had declared that he
supported a reform of administration and
also denounced the acts of violence.
Another significant development to take
place at Lucknow was the coming together
of the Muslim League and the Congress.
While the League agreed to present joint
constitutional demands with the
Congress to the government, the
Congress accepted the Muslim League’s
position on separate electorates, which
would continue till any one community
demanded joint electorates.
The Muslims were also granted a fixed
proportion of seats in the legislatures at
all-India and provincial levels.
33. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Wavell Plan, 1945:
• This Plan was prepared by the
Governor-General Lord Wavell, after his
consultation with the British
Government in London the same year.
• The Plan was proposed by Leo Amery,
the Secretary of State for India. The
major proposals of the Plan included:
• Reconstruction of the Governor-
General’s Executive Council pending
the preparation of a New
Constitution.
12
 With the exception of the Governor-
General and the Commander-in-Chief
(who would retain his position as War
Member) all other members of the
Executive Council would be nominated
(not elected) from amongst the leaders
of the Indian political life.
• This Council would have a balanced
representation of the main
communities, including equal
proportions of the Muslims and caste
Hindus.
• It would work, if formed, under the
existing Constitution.
• Though the Governor-General’s veto
would not be abolished, it would not be
used unnecessarily.
35. Answer: (b)
• The portfolio of ‘External Affairs’
(other than those of the Tribal and
the Frontier matters, which had to
be dealt with as part of the defence
of India) was to be transferred from
the Governor-General to an Indian
member of the Council.
• A conference of representatives, chosen
by the Viceroy, was to be convened with
a view to obtaining from the leaders of
various parties a joint list, or failing it,
separate lists of worthy people to
constitute the new Executive Council
(it means that any member of any
religion could be represented by any
political party). It was rejected by M.
A. Jinnah.
34. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
On 5th April, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi
spoke at Dandi: When I left Sabarmati
with my companions for this seaside
hamlet of Dandi, I was not certain in my
mind that we would be allowed to reach
this place. Even while I was at Sabarmati
there was a rumour that I might be
arrested. I had thought that the
Government might perhaps let my party
come as far as Dandi, but not me certainly.
RAUSIAS-0561
If someone says that this betrays imperfect
faith on my part, I shall not deny the
charge. That I have reached here is in no
small measure due to the power of peace
and non-violence: that power is universally
felt. The Government may, if it wishes,
congratulate itself on acting as it has done,
for it could have arrested every one of us.
In saying that it did not have the courage
to arrest this army of peace, we praise it. It
felt ashamed to arrest such an army. He is
a civilized man who feels ashamed to do
anything which his neighbours would
disapprove. The Government deserves to be
congratulated on not arresting us, even if it
desisted only from fear of world opinion.
Explanation:
The radical revolutionaries faced severe
repression during World War I, with many
leaders either imprisoned or on the run. As
an effort to foster a more conducive
environment for the Montague-Chelmsford
reforms, the government granted a general
amnesty in early 1920, releasing most of
the leaders.
Subsequently, the Non-Cooperation
Movement was launched by the National
Congress, and at the encouragement of
leaders like Gandhiji, C.R. Das, and
others, a significant number of
revolutionary terrorists either joined
the movement or halted their activities
to support the Gandhian mass
movement.
However, the abrupt suspension of the
Non-Cooperation Movement dashed the
previously high expectations. A growing
number of young individuals began
questioning the national leadership's
strategy, emphasizing non-violence, and
started exploring alternatives.
The parliamentary politics of the Swarajists
and the patient constructive work of the
no-changers failed to attract them. Many
gravitated towards the belief that only
violent methods could liberate India,
13
 reigniting interest in revolutionary
terrorism.
Notably, most major figures in the
resurgence of revolutionary terrorism,
including Jogesh Chandra Chatterjea,
Surya Sen, Jatin Das, Chandrashekhar
Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, Shiv
Varma, Bhagwati Charan Vohra, and
Jaidev Kapur, had actively participated in
the non-violent Non-Cooperation
Movement.
The frustration and disillusionment in
northern India led to the reorganization of
revolutionaries under the guidance of
veterans like Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh
Chatterjea, and Sachindranath Sanyal,
whose ‘Bandi Jiwan’ served as a
textbook to the revolutionary
movement.
In 1924, they convened in Kanpur and
established the Hindustan Republican
Association (or Army) with the aim of
establishing an armed revolution to
overthrow colonial rule and establish a
Federal Republic of the United States of
India, based on adult franchise.
Before engaging in armed struggle,
extensive propaganda, recruitment,
training, and arms procurement were
essential, all of which required financial
resources.
The Kakori Robbery became a pivotal
action for the HRA. In 1925, ten men
held up the 8-Down train at Kakori, near
Lucknow, looting its official railway
cash.
In response, the government swiftly
arrested numerous young men, leading to
the Kakori Conspiracy Case. The
consequences were severe, with Ashfaqulla
Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Roshan Singh,
and Rajendra Lahiri being executed, and
others receiving long prison sentences
or life in the Andamans.
Chandrashekhar Azad managed to evade
capture.
Although the Kakori case dealt a
significant blow to the revolutionaries in
RAUSIAS-0561
northern India, it did not prove fatal.
Younger figures such as Bejoy Kumar
Sinha, Shiv Varma, Jaidev Kapur in U.P.,
and Bhagat Singh, Bhagwati Charan
Vohra, and Sukhdev in Punjab took the
lead in reorganizing the HRA under the
overarching leadership of
Chandrashekhar Azad. Simultaneously,
they embraced socialist ideas.
Eventually in 1928, major young
revolutionaries from northern India
gathered at Ferozeshah Kotla Ground in
Delhi, establishing a new collective
leadership, adopting socialism as their
official goal, and renaming the party the
Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association (Army).
36. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Provincial elections were held in British
India in the winter of 1936-37 as
mandated by the Government of India
Act 1935. After a few months’ tussle with
the Government, the Congress Working
Committee decided to accept office
under the Act of 1935.
After that, it formed Ministries in six
provinces: Madras, Bombay, Central
Provinces, Orissa, Bihar and U.P. Later,
Congress Ministries were also formed in
the North-West Frontier Province and
Assam.
To guide and coordinate their activities and
to ensure that the British hopes of the
provincialization of the Congress did not
materialize, a central control board
known as the Parliamentary Sub-
Committee was formed, with Sardar
Patel, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and
Rajendra Prasad as members.
The Congress was now to function both as
a government in the provinces and as the
opposition vis-a-vis the Central
Government where effective state power
lay.
It was to bring about social reforms
through the legislature and administration
14
 in the provinces and at the same time
carry on the struggle for independence and
prepare the people for the next phase of
mass struggle. Thus, the Congress had to
implement its strategy of Struggle-Truce-
Struggle (S-T-S’) in a historically unique
situation.’
The Congress Ministries tried to give
economic relief to the peasants and the
workers as quickly as possible. The
Congress had succeeded, in the past, in
acquiring massive support among them by
exposing the roots of their poverty in
colonial structure and policy, appealing to
their nationalism, leading them in anti-
imperialist struggles, and organizing and
supporting their struggles around their
economic demands.
Now that the Congress had acquired some
elements of state and administrative
power, it was necessary to use these
powers to improve their economic
condition, and, thus, consolidate Congress
support. The strategy of Congress agrarian
legislation was worked out within certain
broad parameters. First, the Congress
was committed by its election manifesto
and the election campaign to a policy of
agrarian reform through reform of the
system of land tenures and the
reduction of rent, land revenue and the
burden of debt.
The Congress had asked rural voters to
vote for its candidates by making large
promises in this respect. The voters had
taken them seriously; for example,
according to government reports from
Pratapgarh in U.P., on election day ‘a very
large number of voters had brought with
them pieces of dried cow dung to the
various polling stations where these were
lighted and, according to the tenants,
“bedakhlis”, i.e., ejectment orders, were
burnt once for all.
The Congress could not attempt a
complete overhaul of the agrarian
structure by completely eliminating the
zamindari system. This, for two reasons,
RAUSIAS-0561
according to the constitutional
structure of the 1935 Act, the provincial
Ministries did not have enough powers
to do so. They also suffered from an
extreme lack of financial resources, for
the lion’s share of India’s revenues was
appropriated by the Government of
India.
The Congress Ministries could also not
touch the existing administrative
structure, whose sanctity was guarded
by the Viceroy’s and Governor’s powers.
What is more important, the strategy of
class adjustment also forbade it. A
multi-class movement could develop
only by balancing or adjusting various,
mutually clashing class interests. To
unite all the Indian people in their struggle
against colonialism, the main enemy of the
time, it was necessary to make such an
adjustment. The policy had to be that of
winning over or at least neutralizing as
large a part of the landlord classes as
possible so as to isolate the enemy and
deprive him of all social support within
India. This was even more necessary
because, in large parts of the country, the
smaller landlords were active participants
in the national movement. This was
recognized by most of the leaders of the
time.
37. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Quit India Movement: After the
failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma
Gandhi decided to launch his third major
movement against the British rule. This
was the “Quit India” campaign, which
began in August, 1942. Although Gandhiji
was jailed at once, the younger activists
organized strikes and acts of sabotage all
over the country. Particularly active in the
underground resistance were the socialist
members of the Congress, such as
Jayaprakash Narayan.
In several districts, such as Satara in the
west and Medinipur in the east,
15
 “independent” governments were
proclaimed. The British responded with
much force, yet it took more than a year to
suppress the rebellion.
Note: From the late nineteenth century, a
Non-Brahman Movement, which opposed
the caste system and landlordism, had
developed in Maharashtra. This Movement
established links with the National
Movement by the 1930s.
In 1943, some of the younger leaders in
Satara district of Maharashtra set up a
parallel government (Prati Sarkar), with
volunteer corps (Seba Dals) and village
units (Tufan Dals). They ran people’s
courts and organized constructive work.
Nyayadan Mandals or the people’s courts
were set up and justice dispensed.
Prohibition was enforced, and ‘Gandhi
marriages’ celebrated, to which the
untouchables were invited and at which no
ostentation was allowed.
Dominated by the Kunbi peasants and
supported by the Dalits, the Satara Prati
Sarkar functioned till the elections of 1946,
despite government repression and, in the
later stages, Congress disapproval.

38. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Recently, the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) was announced on the
sidelines of the G20 meeting in New Delhi, when a ‘Memorandum of Understanding’ was signed
between the European Union and seven countries, namely India, the US, Saudi Arabia, the
United Arab Emirates (UAE), France, Germany and Italy.

The Corridor will include a shipping route connecting Mumbai and Mundra (Gujarat) with the
UAE, and a rail network connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia and Jordan with the Israeli port of
Haifa to reach the shores of the Mediterranean Sea. Haifa will then be connected by sea to the
port of Piraeus in Greece, to eventually be connected to Europe.

RAUSIAS-0561 16
39. Answer: (c) of the Palestine refugees, defined as the
Explanation: “persons whose normal place of
The Organization of the Petroleum residence was Palestine during the
Exporting Countries (OPEC): period 1st June 1946 to 15th May
1948, and who lost both home and
• It is an organization enabling the co-
means of livelihood as a result of the
operation of leading oil-producing
1948 War.” The descendants of the
countries, in order to collectively
Palestine refugee males, including the
influence the global oil market and
legally adopted children, are also
maximize profit.
eligible for registration.
• It was founded in 1960 in Baghdad by
• In addition to the Palestine refugees,
the first five members (Iran, Iraq,
the UN General Assembly has also
Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela).
mandated the UNRWA to offer
• The OPEC Fund for International
services to certain other persons who
Development (The OPEC Fund) is the
require humanitarian assistance, on
only globally mandated development
an emergency basis, as and when
institution that provides financing from
required.
the member countries to the non-
• The Agency’s responsibility is limited to
member countries exclusively.
running education, health, relief and
• Its headquarter is in Vienna (Austria).
social services, micro-finance and
• The OPEC has 12 member countries: emergency assistance programmes,
Five in the Middle East (West Asia); Six which are located inside and outside
in Africa; and One in South America. the camps. The UNRWA does not
• The approval of a new member country manage refugee camps and is not
requires agreement by three-quarters of responsible for protecting the
the OPEC's existing members, physical safety or security of the
including all five of the founders. Palestine refugees, or maintaining
law and order in the five fields of the
40. Answer: (d) UNRWA operations. The Agency
cannot guarantee any individual's
Explanation:
physical security. Ensuring the
• The United Nations Relief and Works
physical security of the Palestine
Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA)
refugees, residing in any of the
is funded almost entirely by voluntary
UNRWA's five fields, is the
contributions from the UN Member
responsibility of the respective host
States. The UNRWA also receives
state or authority.
some funding from the Regular
• The United Nations High Commissioner
Budget of the United Nations, which
for Refugees (UNHCR) does not have a
is used mostly for international
mandate over the Palestine refugees
staffing costs.
within the UNRWA fields of operations
• The Agency’s services encompass
(Lebanon, Jordan, Syria, the West
education, health care, relief and social
Bank, including East Jerusalem, and
services, camp infrastructure and
the Gaza Strip). This is not a decision
improvement, micro-finance and
on the part of either the UNRWA or the
emergency assistance, including in the
UNHCR, but rather the result of the
times of armed conflict.
decisions of the international
• It has contributed to the welfare and community enshrined in the 1951
human development of four generations

RAUSIAS-0561 17
 Refugee Convention and the UNHCR
Statute.
• The UNRWA does not have a mandate
to resettle the Palestine refugees and
has no authority to seek lasting
durable solutions for the refugees.
• The UNRWA is a humanitarian
organization and, unlike the UNHCR,
has no authority to seek durable
solutions for the refugees that fall
under its mandate (i.e., the Palestine
refugees), including return to the
country of origin.
41. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• The International Court of Justice
(ICJ) cannot automatically decide all
the cases involving breaches of the
international law. It can only decide
the cases that are brought before it
by the States that consent to its
jurisdiction.
• The Court is composed of 15 judges,
all of whom are elected to nine-year
terms of office by the UN General
Assembly and the Security Council.
The elections are held every three
years for one third of the seats, and
the retiring judges may be re-elected.
• The Court can rule on two types of
cases: “contentious cases” are the legal
disputes between the States; and
“advisory proceedings” are the requests
for advisory opinions on legal questions
referred to it by the United Nations
organs and certain specialized agencies.
• The Genocide Convention was the first
human rights treaty adopted by the UN
General Assembly in 1948, and has
been in effect since 1951.
• The Convention defines genocide as five
acts:
(i) Killing the members of a group;
(ii) Causing serious bodily or mental
harm;
RAUSIAS-0561
(iii) Inflicting on the group conditions
of life calculated to bring about
their physical destruction;
(iv) Imposing measures intended to
prevent births within a group; and
(v) Forcibly transferring the children of
the group to another group —
committed with the intent to
destroy, in whole or in part, a
national, ethnic, racial or religious
group.
• This is not the first case the Court
will hear under the Genocide
Convention. In 2022, Ukraine filed a
case against Russia, and in 2019, the
Gambia filed a case against Myanmar
with respect to the Rohingya.
• The Myanmar case was the first time
that a State invoked the Court’s
jurisdiction to seek redress for
genocidal acts committed against the
citizens of another State. The Court
agreed that the Gambia had standing to
bring the case.
42. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(CTBT) is a multilateral Treaty that
bans all nuclear explosions, whether for
military or peaceful purposes.
• Notably, for the Treaty to enter into
force, it must be signed and ratified by
44 specific nuclear technology holder
countries, eight of which have yet to
ratify the agreement. These are: China,
Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea,
Pakistan and the United States,
according to the UN.
• The Preparatory Commission for the
Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban
Treaty Organization (CTBTO) was set
up in 1996, with its headquarters
in Vienna (Austria).
• The aforementioned States are the
members of the Conference on
18
 Disarmament (CD) with nuclear power (iv) Twelve international
and/or research reactors. organizations: The Asian
• Of the 44 States included in Annex 2 Development Bank, the World
required for entry into force of the Economic Forum, the World LP
CTBT, all have signed with the Gas Association, the UN Energy
exceptions of the Democratic for All, the United Nations
People’s Republic of Korea (DPRK), Industrial Development
India and Pakistan. Organization (UNIDO), the
Biofutures Platform, the
• Five of the 44 Annex 2 States have
International Civil Aviation
signed, but not ratified the CTBT. These
Organization, the International
are: China, Egypt, Iran, Israel and the
United States. The United States and Energy Agency, the International
Energy Forum, the International
China are the only remaining NPT
Renewable Energy Agency, the
(Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty)
Nuclear Weapon States that have not World Biogas Association and the
World Bank.
ratified the CTBT.
• Brazil, the US and India together
account for 85 per cent of ethanol
43. Answer: (d)
(common biofuel) production.
Explanation:
• The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is a
44. Answer: (c)
multi-stake holder alliance of
Explanation:
governments, international
organizations and industries, an The bordering countries of the Red Sea are
initiative by India as the G20 Chair, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan,
bringing together the biggest Eritrea and Djibouti.
consumers and producers of biofuels to
drive development and deployment of 45. Answer: (c)
biofuels. Explanation:
• The initiative aims to position biofuels • The Three Brotherhood Alliance
as a key to energy transition, and comprises the Myanmar National
contribute to jobs and economic Democratic Alliance Army; the Arakan
growth. Army; and the Ta’ang National
• There are 22 countries and 12 Liberation Army.
international organizations which have • The Alliance is fighting against the
already agreed to join the Alliance: military regime in Myanmar.
(i) Eight G20 countries: Argentina,
Brazil, Canada, India, Italy, 46. Answer: (a)
Japan, South Africa and the USA.
Explanation:
(ii) Four G20 invitee
• Khan Yunis is a city in the southern
countries: Bangladesh,
Gaza Strip; it is the capital of the
Singapore, Mauritius and the
Khan Yunis Governorate in the Gaza
UAE.
Strip, Palestine.
(iii) Ten non-G20 countries: Iceland,
• Iran carried out a surprise attack in
Kenya, Guyana, Paraguay,
Panjgur, a border town in Pakistan’s
Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Uganda,
Baluchistan.
Finland, Tanzania and the
Philippines.

RAUSIAS-0561 19
 • Syria’s Daesh Terrorist Group’s suicide
bombers struck the crowds gathered
near the tomb of the revered IRGC (The
Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps)
general Qasem Soleimani in Kerman
(Iran) in January, 2024. In response,
Iran launched ballistic missiles into
Syria’s Idlib region.
• In Iraq, the IRGC claimed responsibility
for targeting an alleged Israeli facility.
Iran launched a missile strike, into
Erbil, resulting in the destruction of
Mossad's (Israel's external security
agency) spy headquarters in the
Kurdistan region.
47. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act,
2023, amended the parent legislation,
known as the Forest (Conservation) Act of
1980.
A key factor of this law was that the State
Governments were prohibited from
diverting any forest land for non-forest
purposes, except with the nod of the
Centre.
Additionally, anyone who sought to oppose
the State’s order on this could file an
appeal before the National Green Tribunal.
The new Act will apply only to the lands
notified as a forest under the Indian
Forest Act, 1927, or those that have
been officially recorded as a forest on or
after October 25, 1980.
Under the amended Act, forest clearance is
no longer required within 100 kilometres of
the international borders or the Line of
Control or the Line of Actual Control, for
strategic linear projects of national
significance.
The 2023 Amendment Act also permits the
Central Government not to treat surveys
and explorations in forest lands as non-
forest uses and, thus, exempt from
scrutiny.
RAUSIAS-0561
The Act states that the following categories
of forest land will no longer enjoy legal
protection:
(i) Land, upto 0.10 hectare, alongside a
rail track or a public road.
(ii) Land within 100 kilometres of the
international border, the Line of
Control or the Line of Actual
Control. Such land must be proposed
to be used for the “construction of
strategic linear projects of national
importance and concerning national
security”.
(iii) Upto 10 hectares of land that is
proposed to be used for setting up
security-related infrastructure.
(iv) Upto five hectares of land in an area
affected by left-wing extremism. This
land needs to be earmarked to set up a
defence-related project, a camp for
paramilitary forces or a public utility
project, as may be specified by the
Centre.
The legislation clearly states that these
types of land can be exempt on the
condition that trees are planted elsewhere
to make up for the felling of the trees in
these areas.
48. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Conference of the Parties-28 (COP-28)
was the first COP to officially acknowledge
that fossil fuels are the root cause of
climate change. And it is worth
remembering that fossil fuels were only
first mentioned in an international climate
agreement in 2021, at COP-26 in Glasgow.
Over 50 national and international oil
companies, representing about 40% of
global production, signed an Oil and Gas
Decarbonization Charter (OGDC).
The initiative sets three main aims:
(i) To achieve net zero emissions in each
company’s direct operations (as
opposed to the use of their products)
by or before 2050;
20
 (ii) To achieve near-zero methane leakage
from the production of oil and gas by
2030; and
(iii) To achieve zero routine flaring
(burning excess gas) by 2030.
The United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Presidency at this Conference of Parties
(COP-28) delivered an agreement, calling
on the countries to “transition away”
from fossil fuels and limit global
warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius, making
it the first ever to mention the phrase
in 28 years of climate talks.
Note: This language, a “transition away”,
rather than a full “phase-out”, is not as
strong as many wanted. As a statement
made by Samoa on behalf of the Alliance of
Small Island States put it, these decisions
are “an incremental advancement over
business as usual”, when what is needed is
“exponential step-change” to keep 1.5°C
alive.
The World Bank will administer the Loss
and Damage Fund.
49. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Green Credit Programme (GCP): The
Green Credit Initiative was launched by the
Prime Minister of India on the side-lines of
COP-28. It is an initiative within the
government’s Lifestyle for the Environment,
or the ‘LiFE’ Movement. The Green Credit
Rules, 2023, have been notified under the
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
These Rules put in place a mechanism to
encourage voluntary environmental
positive actions, resulting in issuance of
Green Credits. In its initial phase,
voluntary tree plantation is envisaged on
degraded land, waste land, watershed area
etc., under the control and management of
the Forest Departments.
The generation of ‘Green Credit’, under
Green Credit Rules, 2023, is independent
of the ‘Carbon Credit’, under Carbon Credit
Trading Scheme, 2023.
RAUSIAS-0561
The governance structure of the GCP
includes the steering committee members
from the concerned ministries /
departments, experts and institutions. The
Indian Council of Forestry Research and
Education (ICFRE) is designated as the
GCP administrator, and is responsible for
the implementation and management of
the GCP.
The digital process of the GCP includes
dedicated web platform and the Green
Credit (GC) registry for streamlining the
operations. In addition to these
methodologies and guidelines, including
registration, accounting and GC issuance
monitoring ensures the transparency and
accountability of the GCP.
50. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Facts about the honeybees:
• The bees have 5 eyes.
• The bees are insects, so they have 6
legs.
• Male bees in the hive are called drones.
• The bees fly about 20 mph.
• Female bees in the hive (except the
queen) are called worker bees.
• Number of eggs laid by the queen:
2,000 per day.
• Losing its stinger will cause a bee to
die.
• The bees have been here about 30
million years!
• The bees carry pollen on their hind legs
in a pollen basket or corbicula.
• An average beehive can hold around
50,000 bees.
• The foragers must collect nectar from
about 2 million flowers to make 1
pound of honey.
• An average forager makes about 1/12th
of a teaspoon of honey in her lifetime.
• Average per capita honey consumption
in the US is 1.3 pounds.
• The bees have 2 pairs of wings.
21
 • The principal form of communication
among the honeybees is through
chemicals called pheromones.
• The bees are important because they
pollinate approximately 130
agricultural crops in the US, including
fruit, fibre, nut and vegetable crops.
Bee pollination adds approximately 14
billion dollars annually to improved
crop yield and quality.
51. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Recently, Brazil’s Amazon Summit came
with a roadmap to protect the tropical
rainforests that was welcomed as an
important step in countering climate
change.
Leaders and Ministers from eight Amazon
nations signed a declaration during the
Summit in Belem (Brazil), that laid out the
plans to drive economic development in
their countries, while preventing the
Amazon’s ongoing demise “from reaching a
point of no return.”
The eight nations attending— Bolivia,
Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru,
Suriname and Venezuela — are the
members of the newly revived Amazon
Cooperation Treaty Organization, or ACTO,
who hope that a united front will give them
a major voice in the global environment
talks, ahead of the COP-28 Climate
Conference.
52. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Ecologically, North-east India forms a part
of the South-Asian tropical rain forest belt,
which is known for its infinite variety of
wild plants and animals. The forests in
Manipur have the distinction of having a
wide range of types, comparatively in a
small geographical area. Teak, pine, oak,
uningthou, leihao, bamboo and cane are
the important plants and trees grown in
the hill areas. In addition, rubber, tea,
RAUSIAS-0561
coffee, orange and cardamom are grown in
the hilly areas. These forests, and the
numerous swamps and valleys in the state,
are home to wide ranges of flora and fauna.
The Keibul Lamjao National Park, situated
in the south-eastern fringes of the Loktak
Lake, is the only home of the marsh-
dwelling brow-antlered deer, ‘Sangai’ of
Manipur. A variety of migratory birds from
places, as far as Siberia, visit the Loktak
Lake and other lakes in the valley every
year. The state is also a home to
approximately 500 varieties of orchids.
Shirui Lily, a rare species of lily found
on the Shiroi peak of Ukhrul district
(Manipur), is on the verge of extinction.
53. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau was
created to complement the existing state
machinery to deal with the wildlife crimes
having ramifications beyond the state and
the national borders.
It is not intended to perform the normal
and routine functions falling within the
domain of the States/Union Territories, as
crime including the implementation of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the
mandate of the State Governments.
The Bureau was constituted by an
amendment to the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972. It has been envisaged as a
multi- disciplinary statutory body that will
have officials from forests, police, customs
and other similar agencies.
What are the powers and functions of
the Bureau?
The powers and functions of the Bureau
are specified under Section 38(Z) of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which are
as under:
(i) Collect and collate intelligence related
to organized wildlife crime activities and
to disseminate the same to the State
and other enforcement agencies for
immediate action, so as to apprehend
the criminals and to establish a
centralized wildlife crime data bank;
22
 (ii) Coordination of actions by various The Treaty aims at strengthening
officers, State Governments and other resilience, and contains provisions based
authorities, in connection with the on the ‘polluter-pays principle’, as well as
enforcement of the provisions of this mechanisms for disputes.
Act, either directly or through regional Under the Treaty’s provisions, the parties
and border units set up by the Bureau; must assess potential environmental
(iii) Implementation of obligations under impacts of any planned activities beyond
various International Conventions and their jurisdictions.
Protocols that are in force at present, or Sustainably managing fish stocks.
which may be ratified or acceded to in More than one third of global fish stocks
future; are over-exploited, according to the UN.
(iv) Assistance to concerned authorities in The Treaty underlines the importance of
the foreign countries and concerned capacity building and the transfer of
international organizations to facilitate marine technology, including the
coordination and universal action for development and strengthening of
wildlife crime control; institutional capacity and national
regulatory frameworks or mechanisms.
(v) Develop infrastructure and capacity
building for scientific and professional This includes increasing collaboration
investigation into wildlife crimes and among the regional seas organizations and
regional fisheries management
assist the State Governments to ensure
organizations.
success in prosecutions related to
wildlife crimes; and Lowering temperatures.

(vi) Advice the Government of India on the Global heating is pushing the ocean
temperatures to new heights, fuelling more
issues relating to wildlife crimes having
frequent and intense storms, rising sea
national and international
levels, and the salinization of coastal lands
ramifications, and suggest changes
and aquifers.
required in relevant policy and laws
Addressing these urgent concerns, the
from time to time.
Treaty offers guidance, including through
an integrated approach to ocean
54. Answer: (c) management, that builds ecosystem
Explanation: resilience to tackle the adverse effects of
Recently, the United Nation’s 193 Member climate change and ocean acidification,
States adopted a landmark legally binding and maintains and restores ecosystem
Marine Biodiversity Agreement, following integrity, including carbon cycling services.
nearly two decades of fierce negotiations Treaty provisions also recognize the rights
over forging a common wave of and traditional knowledge of the
conservation and sustainability in the high indigenous people and the local
seas beyond the national boundaries – communities, the freedom of scientific
covering two thirds of the planet’s oceans. research, and need for the fair and
equitable sharing of benefits.
Adopted by the Intergovernmental
Conference on Marine Biodiversity of Areas
Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ), the 55. Answer: (b)
“High Seas” Treaty aims at taking Explanation:
stewardship of the ocean on behalf of The Hoolock Gibbon is a primate like the
present and future generations, in line with monkey, langur and chimpanzee. It is also
the Convention on the Law of the Sea. an ape, which is the primate, which is
evolutionarily closest to the humans.

RAUSIAS-0561 23
 And it is the only ape found in India,
confined to the seven states of north-east
India, with Brahmaputra as the
distribution boundary. They form an
arboreal species and prefer to live in the
canopies of the evergreen forests in
north-east India.
The Hoolock Gibbons traverse across the
canopy using their very long forelimbs,
hanging and jumping from branch to
branch. Along with this, they are famous
for their loud ‘Holou’ calls (that inspires
their name “Hoolock”) and duets which
both male and female of a group indulge
in. They are thought to be territorial calls,
to make their position known to other
conspecific groups.
North-east India is home to two, not one,
species of Hoolock Gibbons: The Western
Hoolock Gibbons and the Eastern Hoolock
Gibbons.
A large majority of population of gibbons
in India belong to the Western species.
The Eastern species is primarily found in
Myanmar and southern China.
But few individuals were observed to
possess the morphological characteristics
akin to the Eastern species. They are called
the Mishmi Hills Gibbons.
They live together in monogamous pairs,
which stake out a territory. Their calls
serve to locate family members and ward
off other gibbons from their territory.
56. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Bio-CNG is an advanced version of biogas
produced from organic sources such as
animal manure (farm yard manure) and
food waste, which have been traditionally
used in India’s rural landscape. Its
calorific value is similar to that of
Compressed Natural Gas.
Bio-CNG is also a decentralised clean
energy form that can be produced at the
point of consumption right through the
year and at all times of the day, which sets
RAUSIAS-0561
it apart from other renewable sources such
as solar or wind energy, which are subject
to climatic fluctuations.
"Sustainable Alternative Towards
Affordable Transportation" (SATAT)
initiative has been launched in 2018 to
extract economic value from bio-mass
waste in the form of Compressed Bio Gas
(CBG) and bio-manure.
Municipal solid waste, sugar industry
waste (press mud) and agricultural
residue have significant potential for
production of the same.
It aims at encouraging entrepreneurs to set
up Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) production
plant.
In order to facilitate financing and access
to funds to the entrepreneurs, CBG plants
have been included under priority sector
lending by the Reserve Bank of India.
57. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Explanation
Camelids are a group of even-toed
ungulate mammals. They are known for
their remarkable adaptations to arid and
high-altitude environments. Camelids are
characterized by their long, slender necks
and legs with padded feet.
Camelids are modified ruminants or
“pseudoruminants.” Like ruminants, they
use foregut fermentation to break down
cellulose in fibrous plant species. But in
contrast to ruminants, their forestomaches
are made up of three compartments rather
than the true ruminants' (sheep, goats,
cattle, deer) four.
The United Nations has declared 2024 the
International Year of Camelids. The
decision has been taken to highlight the
significant importance of camelids in the
lives of people across the world.
There are six living species of
camelids: dromedary camels, Bactrian
camels, wild Bactrian camels, llamas,
alpacas, vicunas, and guanacos.
24
58. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Difference(s) between plants, animals
and mushrooms:
• The plants have chlorophyll and make
their own food through photosynthesis.
• The animals ingest their food.
• Fungi, lacking chlorophyll, exist on
decaying material in nature and on
substrate of various compositions when
commercially grown.
Note: Although considered a vegetable,
mushrooms are neither a plant nor an
animal food. They are a type of fungus that
contains a substance called ergosterol,
similar in structure to cholesterol in the
animals.
Mushrooms are notable for being rich in
ergosterol (a precursor of vitamin D2).
59. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Star Labelling Programme,
established under the Energy Conservation
Act of 2001, is a voluntary initiative led
by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(BEE). It evaluates the energy efficiency of
appliances on a scale of 1-5.
The objective of this programme is to help
the consumers make an informed choice
about various energy-consuming
appliances, in terms of energy savings, that
would result based on each appliance’s
energy efficiency performance. This scheme
also helps the consumer determine the
cost-saving potential of the marketed
household and other equipment.
The Programme was launched in 2006 and
is presently invoked for 34
equipment/appliance. The first 11
appliances have been notified under
‘mandatory labelling’, while the others are
presently under the ‘voluntary labelling’
phase.
RAUSIAS-0561
60. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Vienna Convention for the
Protection of the Ozone Layer is a
multilateral environmental agreement that
was established during the 1985 Vienna
Conference. It officially came into force in
1988. The Convention aims to foster
cooperation among the nations by
facilitating the exchange of information on
the effects of human activities on the ozone
layer.
The Montreal Protocol is an international
treaty designed to protect the Ozone layer
by phasing out the production of
numerous Ozone-Depleting Substances
(ODSs), responsible for Ozone depletion.
ODSs, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs),
halons and other chemicals, were identified
as the major contributors to Ozone layer
depletion. The Montreal Protocol led to the
phase-out of the chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs) with hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
The Kigali Amendment is an extension of
the Montreal Protocol, specifically
addressing the phase-down of the
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). It was
negotiated and adopted in 2016, in Kigali
(Rwanda). The goal is to achieve a
reduction of over 80% in the consumption
of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year
2047.
The Stockholm Convention is on the
Persistent Organic Pollutants.
61. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Invasive alien species (IAS) are the
animals, plants or other organisms that
are introduced into the places outside their
natural range, negatively impacting native
biodiversity, ecosystem services or human
well-being. Climate change facilitates the
spread and establishment of many alien
species and creates new opportunities for
them to become invasive. The IAS can
reduce the resilience of the natural
25
 habitats, agricultural systems and urban
areas to climate change.
Island ecosystems are especially vulnerable
to the impacts of the invasive alien species.
In response to the urgent need for action,
the International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) implemented the Inva'Ziles
project, with input by the IUCN SSC ISSG
network, regional networks, including the
Western Indian Ocean Network on Invasive
Species (WIONIS) and the Caribbean
Invasive Alien Species Network (CIASNET).
Sleeper species are innocuous native or
naturalized species that exhibit invasive
characteristics and become pests in
response to environmental change.
62. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Qanat system, an ancient and
ingenious method of water management,
has played a pivotal role in sustaining
agriculture and settlements in the arid and
semi-arid regions for centuries.
There are the bodies of water underground,
64. Answer: (a)
known as aquifers, some of which can be
found at the tops of the valleys or near the
mountains. A Qanat system taps these
aquifers and, using underground tunnels,
moves the water, using gravity, over many
kilometres. The tunnel then exits at a
lower-lying area.
When the water exits the tunnel, the
farmers can use it to irrigate their crops.
The people can also access the water along
the stretch of the tunnel using wells.
The Qanats have been used for centuries in
the arid and semi-arid parts of north
Africa, the Middle East and Asia, where
water supplies are limited. It is known by a
variety of names, “foggara” in north Africa,
“falaj” in Oman and “qarez” in parts of
Asia.
63. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals, also
known as the Convention on Migratory
RAUSIAS-0561
Species (CMS), or the Bonn Convention, is
an environmental treaty of the UN that
provides a global platform for the
conservation and sustainable use of
migratory animals and their habitats. It is
the only global Convention specializing in
the conservation of migratory species, their
habitats and migration routes. The pact
was signed in 1979 in Germany and is
known as the Bonn Convention.
India has been a party to the CMS since
1983. As of 2019, India had non-legally
binding Memoranda (Memorandums) of
Understanding (MoUs) with the CMS on
the conservation and management of the
Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles
(2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors
(2016).
The CMS brings together the States
through which the migratory animals pass,
the Range States, and lays the legal
foundation for internationally coordinated
conservation measures throughout a
migratory range.
Explanation:
The Ring of Fire dominates the Pacific
Ocean. It is a string of at least 450 active
and dormant volcanoes that form a semi-
circle, or a horse shoe, around the
Philippine Sea Plate, the Pacific Plate, Juan
de Fuca and Cocos Plates, and the Nazca
Plate. There is a lot of seismic activity in
the area.
About 90 percent of all earthquakes strike
within the Ring of Fire. This means that
the people's lives are under almost
constant threat in Indonesia, the
Philippines, Malaysia, Japan, Australia
and New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, and
other island nations, like the Solomon
Islands, Fiji, and many more in Melanesia,
Micronesia and Polynesia, all the way east
to the western seaboard of the North and
the South Americas.
Many volcanoes in the Ring of Fire were
created through a process of subduction.
And most of the planet's subduction zones
happen to be located in the Ring of Fire.
26
65. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Darjeeling and the Sikkim Himalayas are
home to more than one-third of all types of
rhododendrons found in India, reveals the
latest publication of the Botanical Survey
of India (BSI).
Rhododendron is a diverse genus of about
1,000 species of woody flowering plants,
notable for their attractive flowers and
handsome foliage.
These are indicator species for climate
change. Rhododendron, meaning “red
tree,” refers to the red flowers and woody
growth of some species, but
rhododendrons range in habit from
evergreen to deciduous and from low-
growing ground covers to tall trees.
Rhododendrons are native chiefly in the
north temperate zone, especially in the
moist acidic soil of the Himalayas and
into South-east Asia to the mountains of
New Guinea. A number of species are
cultivated as ornamentals.
66. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The katabatic winds flow downhill. Also
known as ‘fall winds’, the katabatic winds
are usually caused by gravity pulling
higher density air downslope to lower
density air. It occurs at night, when the
highlands radiate heat and are cooled. The
air in contact with these highlands is,
thus, also cooled, and it becomes denser
than the air at the same elevation, but
away from the slope; it therefore begins to
flow downhill. This process is most
pronounced in calm air, because winds
mix the air and prevent cold pockets from
forming.
When a katabatic wind is warmed by
compression, during its descent into the
denser air, it is called a foehn. A large-
scale katabatic wind, that descends too
rapidly to warm up, is called a fall wind. In
the areas where fall winds occur, homes
and orchards are situated on the
hillslopes above the lowlands, where the
cold air accumulates.
RAUSIAS-0561
67. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The western disturbances are the extra-
tropical cyclones. They originate in the
Mediterranean region and travel eastwards
to northern Bangladesh, south-eastern
Nepal and northern India. It is a non-
monsoonal precipitation pattern that
induces low pressure systems in the
lower layers of the atmosphere. Arctic
warming makes the polar jet-stream wavier
and increases the chance of merging with
the sub-tropical westerly jet-stream in
winters. This causes the jet-stream to shift
northwards and reduce precipitation.
68. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Indian Himalayan Region is spread
across 13 Indian States/Union Territories
(namely Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh,
Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh,
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura,
Assam and West Bengal), stretching across
2,500 km.
Earlier this year, the scientists from the
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have
concluded that India is home to both the
species of Red Panda – the Himalayan Red
Panda (Ailurus fulgens) and the Chinese
Red Panda. The Red Panda is a mammal
species native to the Eastern Himalayas
and south-western China.
The forest consists of tropical deciduous
forests in the foothills, temperate forests in
the middle altitudes, coniferous, sub-
alpine and alpine forests in the higher
altitudes. These finally give way to alpine
grasslands and high-altitude meadows,
followed by scrublands.
69. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
India’s smallest Union Territory (UT), the
Lakshadweep Islands, is an archipelago
consisting of 36 islands with an area of 32
sq km.
27
 The name ‘Lakshadweep’ in Malayalam and
Sanskrit means ‘a hundred thousand
islands’.
It is a uni-district Union Territory, and
comprises 12 atolls, three reefs, five
submerged banks and ten inhabited
islands. The Islands have a total area of
32 sq km.
Kavaratti is the capital of the Union
Territory of Lakshadweep in India, and it is
also the principal town of the UT. All
islands are 220 km to 440 km away from
the coastal city of Kochi (Kerala), in the
emerald Arabian Sea.
The Island of Kavaratti lies 360 km off the
coast of the state of Kerala at 10.57°N
72.64°E. It is the closest major city on the
Indian mainland at a distance of 404 km
(218 nautical miles). It has a lagoon area of
3.46 sq mi. It has been selected as one of
the hundred Indian cities to be developed
as a ‘Smart City’ under PM Narendra
Modi’s flagship ‘Smart Cities Mission’.
The Kavaratti Island is the headquarter of
the Union Territory of Lakshadweep. This
island is at a distance of 404 km (218
nautical miles) from Kochi, and is located
between the Agatti Island on the west and
the Andrott Island on the east.
The island is 2 to 5 m above the mean sea
level on the western side and 2 to 3 m on
the eastern side. It is located in the centre
of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
Strangely, Kavaratti has a small inland
lake at its northern end.
70. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Spatial Distribution of Insolation at
the Earth’s Surface: The insolation
received at the surface varies from about
320 Watt/m2 in the Tropics to about 70
Watt/m2 in the Poles. Maximum insolation
is received over the sub-tropical deserts,
where the cloudiness is the least. The
Equator receives comparatively less
insolation than the Tropics.
RAUSIAS-0561
Generally, at the same latitude, the
insolation is more over the continents,
than over the oceans. In winter, the
middle and the higher latitudes receive less
radiation than in summer.
71. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Salient Features of Mines and Minerals
(Development & Regulation) Amendment
Act, 2023:
1. Omission of 6 minerals from the list
of 12 atomic minerals specified in
Part B of First Schedule of MMDR
Act: Earlier, mining and exploration of
atomic minerals specified in Part B of
the First Schedule of MMDR Act was
only done through PSUs leading to
limited exploration and mining of these
minerals. The Act has thus removed
certain minerals from the list of atomic
minerals like lithium, beryllium,
titanium, niobium, tantalum and
zirconium. Upon removal of these
minerals from the list of atomic
minerals, exploration and mining of
these minerals will be open to private
sector.
2. Empowering Central Government to
exclusively auction mineral
concessions of certain critical
minerals: The Amendment Act
empowers the Central Government to
exclusively auction mining lease and
composite licence for certain critical
minerals - molybdenum, rhenium,
tungsten, cadmium, indium, gallium,
graphite, vanadium, tellurium,
selenium, nickel, cobalt, tin, platinum
group of elements, minerals of “rare
earth” group (not containing Uranium
and Thorium); fertilizer minerals such
as potash, glauconite and phosphate
(without uranium) and minerals being
removed from the list of atomic
minerals.
3. Even though auction would be
conducted by the Central Government,
28
 the mining lease or composite licence
for these minerals to the successful
bidders will be granted by the State
Government only and the auction
premium and other statutory payments
shall continue to be received by the
State Government.
4. Notification of Royalty rates: For
enabling mining of Lithium, Niobium
and Rare Earth Metals (not containing
Uranium and Thorium), Union Ministry
of Mines has notified has notified rate
of royalty to auction blocks of these
critical minerals.
Mineral Rate of
royalty
Lithium 3%
Niobium 3%
Rare Earth Metals 1%
(produced from ores
other than Monazite
occurring in beach sand
minerals) (not
containing uranium and
thorium)
5. Auction of mines for critical
minerals: Under the provisions of the
MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, Central
Government has invited auctions for 20
blocks given below. Among these, two
blocks are for lithium. They are:
(a) Salal-Haimna Lithium, Titanium
and Bauxite in Reasi District of
Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Katghora Lithium and REE block in
the Korba district of Chhattisgarh.
Additional Information: KABIL (PSU
under the Union Ministry of Mines) has
entered into an agreement with state-
owned mining company of Argentina for
exploration followed by exploration of five
lithium blocks in Catamarca Province of
Argentina. This was the first ever
agreement for lithium exploration and
mining project by a Government company
of India.
RAUSIAS-0561
72. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Slaking weathering refers to the
disintegration of the rocks due to
alternate wetting and drying of rocks,
wherein consequent expansion and
contraction of rock shells result in the
disaggregation of the rocks.
Sheeting: It refers to the development of
cracks and fractures parallel to the ground
surface, caused by the removal of the
super-incumbent load, resulting into the
reduction of confining pressure. Such
parallel cracks and fractures are developed
in massive rocks, such as granites and
other igneous intrusives, quartzites and
thickly-bedded sandstones because of
expansion of the rocks consequent upon
unloading of the super-incumbent load.
Flaking: Differential heating of the outer
and the lower shells of a rock mass causes
flaking. The solar radiation penetrates upto
a few centimetres only in the rocks having
low thermal conductivity. Thus, the outer
shells of such rocks expand more than the
shells lying just below. This differential
expansion of rock shells causes flaking,
wherein the thin rock sheets are detached
from the rock mass.
Slumping: It is the slipping of one or
several units of rock debris under the
influence of gravity, with a backward
rotation with respect to the slope over
which the movement takes place.
73. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
El-Niño is one of the naturally occurring
phenomenon. It marks a time with the
weakening of the trade winds over the
Pacific and poor fishing conditions, as the
nutrient-rich water, off the north-west
coast of South America, remains very deep.
However, over land, this ocean current
brings heavy rains in very dry regions,
which produce luxurious vegetation.
29
 Further research found that El-Niño is
actually a part of a much larger global
variation in the atmosphere, called ENSO
(El-Niño-Southern Oscillation). The
Southern Oscillation refers to the changes
in the sea level air pressure patterns in the
Southern Pacific Ocean between Tahiti and
Darwin, Australia. During the El-Niño
events, generally, India faces drought-
like situations, but it can be countered
by the presence of a positive IOD (The
Indian Ocean Dipole).
74. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 14: Equality before Law: The
State shall not deny to any person equality
before the law or equal protection of the
laws within the territory of India.
Article 16: Equality of opportunity in
matters of public employment:
1. There shall be equality of opportunity
for all citizens in the matters relating to
employment or appointment to any
office under the State.
2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place
of birth, residence or any of them, be
ineligible for, or discriminated against
in respect of, any employment or office
under the State.
76. Answer: (d)
3. The provision of not discriminating
against any person in any manner on
the ground of decent is applicable only
in case of public employment.
Article 19: Protection of certain rights
regarding freedom of speech, etc.:
(1) All citizens shall have the right — (a) to
freedom of speech and expression. (This is
even beyond the territory of India).
75. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In the ‘Mohini Jain v/s the State of
Karnataka (1992 AIR 1858)’ case, the
Supreme Court held that although the
Right to Education, as such, has not been
RAUSIAS-0561
guaranteed as a Fundamental Right under
the Constitution, it becomes clear from the
Preamble to the Constitution and its
Directive Principles of State Policy,
contained in Section IV, that the framers of
the Constitution intended the State to
provide education for its citizens.
The Court reasoned that this principle
creates a constitutional Right to Education
because education is essential to the
fulfilment of the Fundamental Rights of
Dignity and Life.
The Court linked the Right to Education to
the Right to Life by reasoning that to
sustain life, a human being requires the
fulfilment of all the enabling rights which
create a life of dignity.
In doing this, the Court pointed to
numerous cases which held that the Right
to Life encompassed more than life and
limb, but also dignity and the necessities of
life, such as nutrition, clothing shelter and
literacy. Without dignity, the court
explains, the Right to Life is not fulfilled. It
was the Court's opinion that one is only
able to obtain a dignified life in India
through education, making education
fundamental to the Right to Life, and
therefore, an obligation of the State to
fulfil.
Explanation:
The strengths of a ‘Codified’ or ‘Written
Constitution’ include the following:
(i) Major principles and key
constitutional provisions are
entrenched, safeguarding them from
interference by the Government of the
day.
(ii) The power of the legislature is
constrained, cutting its sovereignty
down to size.
(iii) Non-political judges are able to police
the Constitution to ensure that its
provisions are upheld by other public
bodies.
30
 (iv) Generally, (not always), individual
liberty is more securely protected
and authoritarianism is kept at bay.
The drawbacks or the weaknesses of
codification include the following:
(i) A Codified Constitution is more rigid,
and may therefore, be less responsive
and adaptable than an uncodified one.
(ii) The Government’s power may be more
effectively constrained by regular
elections, than by a constitutional
document.
(iii) With a Codified Constitution, the
constitutional supremacy resides with
the non-elected judges, rather than
with the publicly accountable
politicians.
(iv) Constitutional provisions enshrined in
custom and convention may be more
widely respected, because they have
been endorsed by history and not
‘invented’.
77. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Constitution is a
reflection of the core constitutional values
that embody the Constitution. It declares
India to be a Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic committed to Justice,
Equality and Liberty for the people.
The Preamble does not grant substantive
rights and is not enforceable in the courts,
but various Indian courts have engaged
with the Preamble and have treated it as a
guiding light in the interpretation of the
Constitution.
The opening and the last sentences of the
Preamble: “We, the people…adopt enact
and give to ourselves this Constitution”,
signify the power that is vested in the
hands of the people.
The Constitution 42nd Amendment Act
(1976) introduced the words “Socialist
Secular” between the words “Sovereign”
and “Democratic Republic”, which “the
RAUSIAS-0561
people of India solemnly resolved to
constitute India into”.
The Preamble is based on the Objectives
Resolution, which was moved in the
Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal
Nehru, and was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly on 26th
November, 1949, coming into force on
26th January, 1950, celebrated as the
Republic Day of India.
78. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 48A (Directive Principles of State
Policy): Protection and improvement of
environment and safeguarding of forests
and wild life.
Article 51A (g) (Fundamental Duties): To
protect and improve the natural
environment, including forests, lakes,
rivers and wild life, and to have
compassion for living creatures.
The Seventh Schedule: List III: 17A:
Forests.
The Ninth Schedule: Contains various
laws regarding forests, like:
136: The Gujarat Private Forests
(Acquisition) Act, 1972.
146: The Kerala Private Forests (Vesting
and Assignment) Act, 1971.
79. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution
Formation of new States and alteration of
areas, boundaries or names of existing
States. — Parliament may by law —
(a) form a new State by separation of
territory from any State or by uniting
two or more States or parts of States or
by uniting any territory to a part of any
State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;
(e) alter the name of any State
31
 Provided that no Bill for the purpose shall
be introduced in either House of
Parliament except on the recommendation
of the President and unless, where the
proposal contained in the Bill affects the
area, boundaries or name of any of the
States , the Bill has been referred by the
President to the Legislature of that State
for expressing its views thereon within
such period as may be specified in the
reference or within such further period as
the President may allow and the period so
specified or allowed has expired.
(Introduced by 18th Constitution
Amendment Act).
Explanation I. — In this article, in clauses
(a) to (e), “State” includes a Union territory,
but in the proviso, “State” does not include
a Union territory.
Explanation II. — The power conferred on
Parliament by clause (a) includes the power
to form a new State or Union territory by
uniting a part of any State or Union
territory to any other State or Union
territory.
The term "State" in Art. 3 includes a 'Union
Territory', but in case of a 'Union Territory',
no reference need be made to the
concerned Legislature to ascertain its views
and Parliament can itself take any action it
likes in the matter.
The purpose of the provision is to give an
opportunity to the State Legislature
concerned to express its views on the
proposals contained in the Bill. Parliament
is in no way bound by these views. All that
is contemplated is that Parliament should
have before it the views of the State
Legislature affected by the proposals
contained in the Bill, but the Parliament is
free to deal with the matter in any manner
it thinks fit and may accept or reject what
the State Legislature says. Parliament is
not bound to accept or act upon the views
of the State Legislature.
If the State Legislature fails to express its
views within the stipulated time,
Parliament is free to proceed with the
RAUSIAS-0561
matter as it likes. If once a Bill has been
referred to the State Legislature, it can
later be amended by Parliament and no
fresh reference to the State Legislature is
required to ascertain its views on the
proposed amendments.
80. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS),
2023:
1. Sedition under the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023:
• The phrase 'sedition' is no longer
part of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita, 2023.
• In its place, the BNS, 2023, has
introduced Section 152, which deals
with the Acts endangering
sovereignty, unity and integrity of
India.
• Section 152 of the BNS, 2023, reads
as, 'Whoever, purposely or
knowingly, by words (spoken or
written) or by signs or visible
representation or electronic
communication or by use of
financial means excites secession,
armed rebellion, subversive
activities or encourages feelings of
separatist activities or endangers
sovereignty or unity and integrity of
India shall be punished with
imprisonment for life or with
imprisonment which may extend to
7 years, and shall also be liable for
fine.
• The comments expressing
disapprobation of the measures, or
administrative or other action of the
Government with a view to obtain
their alteration by lawful means
without exciting or attempting to
excite the activities referred to in
this Section do not constitute an
offence under this Section.
32
 2. Organised Crime under the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
• The phrase 'organised crime' has
been explicitly defined under the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. Earlier,
organised crime was not defined
under the Indian Penal Code and
dealt with under special laws, such
as ‘MCOCA’ (Maharashtra Control of
Organised Crime Act, 1999).
• Organised crime has been defined
as any continuing unlawful activity
by any person or a group of persons
acting in concert, singly or jointly,
either as a member of an organised
crime syndicate or on behalf of such
syndicate by any unlawful means to
obtain direct or indirect material
benefit including a financial benefit
shall constitute organised crime.
• ‘Organised Crime Syndicate’ means
a group of two or more persons who
acting either singly or jointly, as a
syndicate or gang indulge in any
continuing unlawful activity.
3. Hate Speech under the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
• The phrase 'hate speech' has not
been explicitly defined under the
BNS, 2023.
4. Terrorist Act under the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
• Section 113 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita has explicitly defined
'terrorist act' and the punishment
for indulging in such acts.
81. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 200 of the Constitution: Assent
to the Bills: When a Bill has been passed
by the Legislative Assembly of a State or, in
the case of a State having a Legislative
Council, has been passed by both the
Houses of the Legislature of the State, it
shall be presented to the Governor and the
Governor shall declare either that he
RAUSIAS-0561
assents to the Bill or that he withholds
assent therefrom or that he reserves the
Bill for the consideration of the President:
Provided that the Governor may, as soon
as possible after the presentation to him of
the Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not
a Money Bill together with a message
requesting that the House or the Houses
will reconsider the Bill or any specified
provisions thereof and, in particular, will
consider the desirability of introducing any
such amendments as he may recommend
in his message and,
when a Bill is so returned, the House or
the Houses shall reconsider the Bill
accordingly, and if the Bill is passed again
by the House or the Houses with or
without amendment and presented to the
Governor for assent, the Governor shall not
withhold assent therefrom:
Provided further that the Governor shall
not assent to, but shall reserve for the
consideration of the President, any Bill
which in the opinion of the Governor
would, if it became law, so derogate from
the powers of the High Court as to
endanger the position which that Court is
by this Constitution designed to fill.
Article 201 of the Constitution: When a
Bill is reserved by the Governor for the
consideration of the President, the
President shall declare either that he
assents to the Bill or that he withholds
assent therefrom:
Provided that, where the Bill is not a
Money Bill, the President may direct the
Governor to return the Bill to the House or,
as the case may be, the Houses of the
Legislature of the State together with such
a message as is mentioned in the first
proviso to Article 200 and, when a Bill is so
returned, the House or the Houses shall
reconsider it accordingly within a period of
six months from the date of receipt of such
message and, if it is again passed by the
House or the Houses with or without
amendment, it shall be presented again to
the President for his consideration.
33
82. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 110 (3): If any question arises
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the
decision of the Speaker of the House of the
People thereon shall be final.
However, in the Aadhaar Judgement,
the Supreme Court opined that the
decision of the Speaker to label a Bill as
a Money Bill is subject to judicial
review.
Article 117: Special provisions as to the
Financial Bills:
1. A Bill or amendment making provision
for any of the matters specified in Sub-
Clauses a to (f) of Clause (1) of Article
110 shall not be introduced or moved
except on the recommendation of
the President and a Bill making such
provision shall not be introduced in the
Council of States:
Provided that no recommendation shall
be required under this Clause for the
moving of an amendment making
provision for the reduction or
abolition of any tax.
2. A Bill or amendment shall not be
deemed to make provision for any of the
matters aforesaid by reason only that it
provides for the imposition of fines or
other pecuniary penalties, or for the
demand or payment of fees for licences
or fees for services rendered, or by
reason that it provides for the
imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration or regulation of any tax by
any local authority or body for local
purposes.
3. A Bill which, if enacted and brought
into operation, would involve
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India shall not be passed by
either House of the Parliament unless
the President has recommended to that
House the consideration of the Bill.
RAUSIAS-0561
83. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007:
• The Armed Forces Tribunal has been
established by the Central
Government under the provisions of
the Armed Forces Tribunal Act,
2007.
• The Armed Forces Tribunal has
jurisdiction over all serving under
the Army Act, the Navy Act and the
Air Force Act. It is also applicable on
retired personnel and their dependants
in the matters relating to service
matters of the Army, Navy and Air
Force.
• In the Union of India v. Parashotam
Dass case, the Supreme Court
observed that the High Court, under
Article 226 of the Constitution, has
the power of judicial review against
the judgements of the Armed Forces
Tribunal.
84. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Rule of Law: The Rule of Law is a
durable system of laws, institutions, norms
and community commitment that delivers
four universal principles: accountability,
just law, open government, and accessible
and impartial justice.
• Accountability: The Government, as
well as the private actors are
accountable under the law.
• Just Law: The law is clear, publicized
and stable, and is applied evenly. It
ensures human rights, as well as
property, contract and procedural
rights.
• Open Government: The processes by
which the law is adopted, administered,
adjudicated and enforced are
accessible, fair and efficient.
• Accessible and Impartial Justice:
Justice is delivered timely by
competent, ethical and independent
34
 representatives and neutrals who are
accessible, have adequate resources
and reflect the make-up of the
communities they serve.
At its core, the Rule of Law ensures that all
citizens are accountable to the same laws
and no-one is above the law.
The Rule of Law is defined in
the Encyclopædia Britannica as "the
mechanism, process, institution,
practice, or norm that supports the
equality of all citizens before the law,
secures a non-arbitrary form of
government, and more generally
prevents the arbitrary use of power.”
85. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
According to Section 2(a) of the Contempt
of Courts Act, 1971, Contempt of Court
means civil contempt or criminal contempt.
Section 2(b) of the Act, defines “Civil
Contempt” as wilful disobedience to any
judgment, decree, direction, order, writ
or other process of a court or wilful
breach of an undertaking given to a
court.
Section 2(c) of the Act, defines “Criminal
Contempt” as the publication (whether by
words spoken or written or by signs or by
visible representations or otherwise) of any
matter or the doing of any act whatsoever
which –
(i) Scandalizes or tends to scandalize or
lower or tends to lower, the authority of
any court, or
(ii) Prejudices or interferes or tends to
interfere with, the due course of any
judicial proceeding; or
(iii) Interferes or tends to interfere with or
obstructs or tends to obstruct, the
administration of justice in any other
manner.
The Constitution does not define the
Contempt of Court. But the Contempt of
Court has been listed as a ground for
RAUSIAS-0561
limiting the Right to Speech and
Expression. [Article 19 (2)].
Only the High Court and the Supreme
Court have been given the power to
punish for their contempt by the
Constitution.
86. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A Presiding Officers’ Conference held
in Delhi in 1996 first mooted the idea of
ethics panels for the two Houses.
Then Vice President (and Rajya
Sabha Chairman) K R Narayanan
constituted the Ethics Committee of the
Upper House in 1997, and it was
inaugurated that May to oversee the moral
and ethical conduct of members and
examine cases of misconduct referred to it.
The Rules applicable to the Committee of
Privileges also apply to the ethics panel.
Any person can complain against a
Member through another Lok Sabha MP,
along with evidence of the alleged
misconduct, and an affidavit stating that
the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or
vexatious”. If the Member himself
complains, the affidavit is not needed.
The Speaker can refer to the Committee
any complaint against an MP.
The Committee does not entertain
complaints based only on media reports or
on matters that are sub judice. The
Committee makes a prima facie inquiry
before deciding to examine a complaint. It
makes its recommendations after
evaluating the complaint.
The Committee presents its report to the
Speaker, who asks the House if the report
should be taken up for consideration.
There is also a provision for a half-hour
discussion on the report.
The work of the Ethics Committee and the
Privileges Committee often overlap. An
allegation of corruption against an MP can
be sent to either body, but usually more
35
 serious accusations go to the Privileges
Committee.
The mandate of the Privileges Committee is
to safeguard the “freedom, authority, and
dignity of Parliament”. These privileges are
enjoyed by individual Members as well as
the House as a whole. An MP can be
examined for breach of privilege; a non-MP
too can be accused of breach of privilege
for actions that attack the authority and
dignity of the House.
The Ethics Committee can take up only
cases of misconduct that involve MPs.
87. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Chief Election Commissioner and
Other Election Commissioners
(Appointment, Conditions of Service and
Term of Office) Act, 2023:
Article 324 (2) of the Constitution
empowers the Parliament to frame a law to
regulate the procedure and terms of service
of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
3. Term of office:
and other Election Commissioners (ECs).
To operationalize this provision, the
Parliament has enacted the Chief Election
Commissioner and Other Election
Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of
Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023:
1. The Election Commission of India
shall consist of:
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner;
and
(b) Such number of other Election
Commissioners as the President
may fix from time to time.
2. Appointment procedure for the CEC
and other ECs:
(a) The CEC and other ECs are to be
appointed by the President by
warrant under his hand and seal.
(b) The CEC and other ECs to be
appointed should be amongst the
persons who are holding and have
held a post equivalent to the rank of
a Secretary to the Government of
RAUSIAS-0561
India. They should be persons of
integrity, who have knowledge of
and experience in management and
conduct of elections.
(c) A Search Committee, headed by the
Cabinet Secretary, and consisting of
two other officers, not below the
rank of Secretary to the Government
of India, shall prepare a panel of five
persons for the consideration of the
Selection Committee for
appointment as the CEC and other
ECs.
(d) The CEC and other ECs will be
appointed by the President on the
recommendation of a Selection
Committee, consisting of:
(i) The Prime Minister –
Chairperson;
(ii) The Leader of Opposition in
the House of People – Member;
and
(iii) A Union Cabinet Minister to be
nominated by the Prime
Minister – Member.
(a) The term of office of the CEC and
other ECs will be 6 years, or till
he/they attains/attain the age of
65, whichever is earlier. The CEC
and other ECs are not eligible for re-
appointment.
(b) When an EC is appointed as the
CEC, his term of office shall not be
more than 6 years in aggregate as
the EC and the CEC.
(c) Provided that the Chief Election
Commissioner shall not be removed
from his office except in like manner
and on the like grounds as a Judge
of the Supreme Court and the
conditions of service of the Chief
Election Commissioner shall not be
varied to his disadvantage after his
appointment: Provided further that
any other Election Commissioner or
a Regional Commissioner shall not
be removed from office except on the
recommendation of the Chief
Election Commissioner.
36
 4. The salaries, allowances and other
conditions of service: The salaries,
allowances and other conditions of
service of the CEC and other ECs
shall be same as those of the Cabinet
Secretary.
5. Disposal of business: The Election
Commission may regulate its business
by unanimous decision, as also the
allocation of business amongst the CEC
and other ECs. However, if there is any
difference of opinion, such matter shall
be decided according to the majority
decision between the CEC and other
ECs.

88. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has been anchoring the process of the localization of the
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to achieve the Agenda of Sustainable Development by
2030, adopting 9 themes. To assess and measure the progress made by the ‘Grassroot-level
Institutions’ in achieving the localized SDGs and thereby attaining the SDGs by 2030, the
Ministry has released a report on the Panchayat Development Index (PDI). The Panchayat
Development Index would play a significant role for performance evaluation and progress
assessment in achieving the localized SDGs in the rural areas.
The Panchayat Development Index (PDI) is a multi-domain and multi-sectoral Index, that is
intended to be used to assess the overall holistic development, performance and progress of the
Panchayats. The Panchayat Development Index takes into account various socio-economic
indicators and parameters to gauge the well-being and development status of the local
communities within the jurisdiction of a Panchayat. The Index has been developed by the
Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has adopted 9 thematic approach for the localization of
the Sustainable Development Goals. The Panchayat Development Index (PDI) will be based on
these 9 themes:

89. Answer: (a) • Provision of reservation has not been

Explanation: introduced in the Rajya Sabha and
The Constitution (106th Amendment) the Legislative Councils.
Act, 2023: • Horizontal reservation for 1/3rd of
• Reservation of one-third of total seats in the Legislative Assemblies;
number of seats to be filled by direct the Lok Sabha; and the Legislative
election in the Legislative Assembly of Assembly of Delhi, among the seats
Delhi; the Lok Sabha; and the State reserved for the SCs (Scheduled
Legislative Assemblies. Castes) and the STs (Scheduled
Tribes). No reservation is provided
RAUSIAS-0561 37
 for the OBCs (Other Backward which the genetic material (DNA) has
Classes). been altered.
Other Provisions: ● Genetically engineered crops
• Reservation of seats for women in the encompass a broader category, that
Lok Sabha; the Legislative Assemblies; include:
and the Legislative Assembly for the ○ GMOs (which involve the insertion
NCT of Delhi shall come into effect after of genes from other species or even
an exercise of delimitation is the same species).
undertaken for this purpose after the ○ Crops created through genome
relevant figures for the first census editing techniques (such as
taken after the commencement of the CRISPR-Cas9) without the need to
Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth introduce foreign genes altogether.
Amendment) Act, 2023, have been Hence, not all genetically
published and shall cease to have effect engineered crops involve transfer
on the expiration of a period of fifteen of genes from another species.
years from such commencement. ● Transgenic crops are subjected to
• Rotation of seats reserved for women stringent “environmental release”
in the House of the People; the regulations in India, not just for
Legislative Assembly of a State; and commercial cultivation, but even for
the Legislative Assembly of the field trials and seed production. Such
National Capital Territory of Delhi release requires clearance from the
shall take effect after each Genetic Engineering Appraisal
subsequent exercise of delimitation, Committee, under the Ministry of
as the Parliament may, by law, Environment, Forest and Climate
determine. Change.

90. Answer: (d) 92. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
According to Article 51 A, it shall be the ● Multimodal AI: It refers to the artificial
duty of every citizen of India: intelligence systems that can
• to abide by the Constitution and understand and process information
respect its ideals and institutions, the from multiple sources, such as text,
National Flag and the National Anthem; images, audio, video, etc. This
• to cherish and follow the noble ideals integration and analysis of data from
that inspired the national Struggle for diverse formats allows for richer
freedom; understanding and more accurate
results.
• to uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India; ● Generative Adversarial Network
(GAN): It is a class of artificial
• to defend the country and render
intelligence algorithms that consist
national service when called upon to do
of two neural networks: generator
so;
and discriminator, that compete
against each other. The generator
91. Answer: (b) network generates synthetic data (e.g.,
Explanation: images) that is indistinguishable from
● Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) the real data, while the discriminator
can be defined as the organisms (i.e., network distinguishes between real and
plants, animals or micro-organisms) in generated data. This adversarial
RAUSIAS-0561 38
 training process leads to the ○ It aids in the diagnosis of infectious
improvement of both networks over diseases and forensics.
time, resulting in the generation of ○ It is used as a biomarker for
realistic synthetic data, e.g., deepfakes. neurological disorders, like the
● Artificial Neural Network: It is a ‘Alzheimer’s disease’ etc.
computational model inspired by the ○ It provides an early indication of
structure and functioning of biological graft rejection in the patients who
neural networks. It consists of inter- underwent organ transplants.
connected nodes, called artificial
neurons or units, which are 94. Answer: (d)
organized in layers. Each neuron Explanation:
takes input from the previous layer, ● Cryogenics is the study of the
performs a computation, and passes production and behaviour of the
the output to the next layer. Artificial materials at extremely low
Neural Networks (ANNs) are used for temperatures (below -150 degrees
various tasks, like pattern recognition, Celsius).
classification, regression and decision- ● Cryogenics can have various
making. applications, including:
○ Cryosurgery: Cryogenic
temperatures are used to kill
93. Answer: (b) unwanted or malignant tissues,
Explanation: such as cancer cells or moles.
● Cell-free DNA (cfDNA) refers to the ○ Cryopreservation: Preservation of
fragments of DNA found in bodily organisms, tissues and genetic
fluids, such as blood, urine, saliva and material using cryopreservation,
cerebrospinal fluid. They are released e.g., freezing of eggs and embryos
into the bloodstream by the cells that for fertility preservation and
underwent programmed cell death or research purposes, storage of
an unplanned cell death due to any vaccines, blood banking, food
preservation.
injury or disease. These degraded
(non-functional) fragments of nucleic ○ Cryonics: Cryopreservation of
animals and humans with the goal
acids do not possess the ability to
of reviving them in the future.
replicate or carry out cellular
○ Cryoelectronics: Study of
processes.
superconductivity, variable-range
● cfDNA can carry genetic information
hopping and other electronic
from the cells they originated from, phenomena at low temperature.
making them a valuable source for
○ Cryoengines: Rocket engine using
various applications. cryogenic fuels, including liquid
● Important applications of cfDNA: hydrogen and liquid oxygen.
○ Non-invasive pre-natal testing to ○ Research: The cryogenic technology
screen for chromosomal is used in ‘nuclear magnetic
abnormalities in a developing resonance’ (NMR) to determine the
foetus, like ‘Down syndrome’, chemical structure of a molecule.
‘Edwards syndrome’, etc.
○ It can provide information about 95. Answer: (d)
genetic mutations and alterations Explanation:
present in the tumour cells and ● Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is the
early cancer detection. resistance acquired by any micro-

RAUSIAS-0561 39
 organism (bacteria, viruses, fungi,
parasite) against antimicrobial drugs or
treatments to which they were
previously susceptible.
● Sources of development of AMR:
○ Many microbes develop resistance
to antibiotics over time through
natural mutation.
○ AMR can be acquired from vertical
gene transfer, i.e., during the
process of bacterial division, the
drug resistance gene is transmitted
from the parent to the offspring.
○ AMR can also be acquired by a
microbe from other microbes
through swapping genes via
horizontal gene transfer, i.e., genetic
sequences associated with
antimicrobial resistance may pass
on from one microbe to another in
the community.
○ Incomplete doses of medication and
self-medication can contribute to
the development of AMR.
○ Using antibiotics in farm animals
and herbicide use to control weeds
may enrich ‘Antimicrobial resistance
genes’ (ARGs) and ‘Mobile genetic
elements’ (MGEs) by altering soil
microbiomes and may contribute
AMR development in agricultural
environments.
○ Inappropriate disposal of unused or
expired medication can expose
microbes in the environment to
antibiotics and trigger the evolution
of resistance.
○ Microplastics, and untreated solid
and liquid waste can act as a
reservoir of microbes resistant to
antimicrobials.
96. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
For a two-body gravitational system, the
Lagrange Points are the positions in the
space where a small object tends to stay, if
RAUSIAS-0561
put there. These points in the space for a
two-body system, such as the Sun and the
Earth, can be used by the spacecraft to
remain at these positions with reduced fuel
consumption. For two-body gravitational
systems, there are total five Lagrange
Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5.
L1 lies between the Sun-Earth line, which
is about 1.5 million km from the Earth.
The distance of L1 from the Earth is
approximately 1% of the Earth-Sun
distance. A satellite placed in the halo
orbit around the L1 point has the major
advantage of continuously viewing the Sun
without any occultation/eclipse. This will
provide a greater advantage of observing
the solar activities continuously.
The Aditya-L1 spacecraft, launched by
the PSLV (The Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle) from Sriharikota, was placed
into an elliptical orbit of 235x19500 km
around the Earth.
Aditya-L1 has a mission life of five years,
during which its payloads are expected to
provide the most crucial information to
understand the problem of coronal
heating; coronal mass ejection; pre-flare
and flare activities and their
characteristics; dynamics of space
weather; and propagation of particles and
fields.
The orbit of Aditya-L1 spacecraft is a
periodic halo orbit which is located roughly
1.5 million km from the Earth on the
continuously moving Sun–Earth line, with
an orbital period of about 177.86 Earth
days. This halo orbit is a periodic, three-
dimensional orbit at L1, involving the
Sun, the Earth and a spacecraft. This
specific halo orbit is selected to ensure a
mission lifetime of 5 years, minimising
station-keeping manoeuvres and thus, fuel
consumption and ensuring a continuous,
unobstructed view of the Sun.
There are currently four operational
spacecrafts at L1, which are WIND; Solar
and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO);
Advanced Composition Explorer (ACE); and
Deep Space Climate Observatory
(DSCOVER).
40
97. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Recently, the Central Drugs Standard
Control Organization (CDSCO) granted
market authorization for NexCAR19,
India’s first indigenously-developed CAR T-
cell therapy, to ImmunoACT, a company
incubated by IIT, Bombay.
In CAR T-cell therapy, the patient’s blood is
drawn to harvest the T-cells – the immune
cells that play a major role in destroying
the tumour cells. The researchers modify
RAUSIAS-0561
these cells in the laboratory, so that they
express specific proteins on their surface,
known as the chimeric antigen receptors
(CAR). They have an affinity for proteins on
the surface of the tumour cells. This
modification in the cellular structure
allows the CAR T-cells to effectively bind to
the tumour and destroy it.
As of today, CAR T-cell therapy has been
approved for leukaemias (cancers arising
from the cells that produce white blood
cells) and lymphomas (arising from the
41
 lymphatic system). These cancers occur
through unregulated reproduction of a
single clone of cells: following the
cancerous transformation of a single type
of cell, it produces millions of identical
copies. As a result, the target for CAR T-
cells is consistent and reliable.
98. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000,
provides the required legal sanctity to the
digital signatures based on asymmetric
cryptosystems. The digital signatures are
now accepted at par with the handwritten
signatures and the electronic documents
that have been digitally signed are treated
at par with the paper documents.
The IT Act provides for the Controller of
Certifying Authorities (CCA) to license
and regulate the working of the
Certifying Authorities. The Certifying
Authorities (CAs) issue digital signature
certificates for electronic authentication of
100. Answer: (a)
the users.
The CCA has been appointed by the
Central Government. The Office of the CCA
came into existence in 2000. It aims at
promoting the growth of e-Commerce and
e-Governance through the wide use of
digital signatures.
The CCA has established the Root
Certifying Authority of India (RCAI) under
the IT Act to digitally sign the public keys
of Certifying Authorities (CAs) in the
country. The RCAI is operated as per the
standards laid down under the Act.
The CCA certifies the public keys of the
CAs using its own private key, which
enables the users in the cyberspace to
verify that a given certificate is issued by a
licensed CA. For this purpose, it operates,
the Root Certifying Authority of India
(RCAI).
The CCA also maintains the Repository of
Digital Certificates, which contains all the
certificates issued to the CAs in the
country.
RAUSIAS-0561
99. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Phonotaxis is a behaviour exhibited by
certain organisms in response to sound
stimuli. It refers to their capacity to detect
and move towards or away from a specific
sound or a signal.
There are two types of phonotaxis:
Positive and Negative.
Positive Phonotaxis: Its purpose is
attraction, and it usually happens when
the females of a particular species
(crickets, moths, frogs etc.) are attracted to
the sounds made by the males, for mating
purposes.
Negative Phonotaxis: It serves to repel or
warn. It is a survival mechanism that helps
the organisms avoid potentially dangerous
situations or stimuli in their environment.
For example, if a particular frequency or
pattern of sound is associated with a
predator, the prey animals might exhibit
negative phonotaxis by moving away from
the source of the sound to seek safety.
Explanation:
● Hyderabad-based Grene Robotics has
launched Indrajaal, India's first Al
(Artificial Intelligence)-powered anti-
drone system.
● It provides a 360-degree coverage /
defence against all types and
intensities of unmanned autonomous
threats across regions upto 4,000
square kilometres. It can quickly and
accurately identify, categorise, track
and eliminate threats in real time.
● It offers protection from all kinds of
autonomous drones, including low
‘radar cross section’ (RCS) threats,
‘medium-altitude long-endurance’
(MALE) and high-altitude long-
endurance (HALE) UAVs (Unmanned
Aerial Vehicles). ⁠It can also be used for
loitering munitions, smart bombs,
rocket showers, nano and micro
drones, and even swarm drones.
42