1. What is the underlying cause of seizures?

A) Excessive blood flow to the brain

B) Sudden increase in cerebral glucose levels

C) Electrical disturbance in nerve cells

D) Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid

**Correct Answer: C) Electrical disturbance in nerve cells**

2. Which type of seizure involves a localized area of the brain?

A) Focal onset

B) Generalized onset

C) Unknown onset

D) Absent onset

**Correct Answer: A) Focal onset**

3. What is another name for a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?

A) Absent seizure

B) Petit mal seizure

C) Grand mal seizure

D) Myoclonic seizure

**Correct Answer: C) Grand mal seizure**

4. Which seizure type is characterized by a blank stare that lasts only a few seconds?

A) Tonic-clonic seizure

B) Myoclonic seizure

C) Absent seizure

D) Atonic seizure

**Correct Answer: C) Absent seizure**

5. What is the main clinical manifestation of a myoclonic seizure?

 A) Intense rigidity of the entire body

B) Sudden loss of muscle strength

C) Involuntary muscle jerks

D) Brief loss of postural tone

**Correct Answer: C) Involuntary muscle jerks**

6. Which seizure type involves sudden loss of muscle strength, causing the legs to collapse?

A) Myoclonic seizure

B) Atonic seizure

C) Simple partial seizure

D) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure

**Correct Answer: B) Atonic seizure**

7. What is another name for a simple partial seizure?

A) Absent seizure

B) Jacksonian seizure

C) Drop attack

D) Focal seizure

**Correct Answer: D) Focal seizure**

8. Which seizure classification produces sensory symptoms accompanied by motor symptoms?

A) Generalized onset seizure

B) Simple partial seizure

C) Atonic seizure

D) Unknown onset seizure

**Correct Answer: B) Simple partial seizure**

9. What might a patient with atonic seizure be mistaken for during the seizure event?

A) Daydreaming
 B) Having a myocardial infarction

C) Clumsiness

D) Poor coordination

**Correct Answer: C) Clumsiness**

10. What precipitates a myoclonic seizure?

A) Loud noises

B) Tactile or visual sensations

C) Bright lights

D) Sudden temperature changes

**Correct Answer: B) Tactile or visual sensations**

11. Which seizure type is characterized by alternating muscle rigidity and jerking?

A) Absent seizure

B) Tonic-clonic seizure

C) Myoclonic seizure

D) Atonic seizure

**Correct Answer: B) Tonic-clonic seizure**

12. What might a patient with generalized absence seizure be mistaken for during the seizure event?

A) Daydreaming

B) Having a stroke

C) Poor coordination

D) Experiencing a migraine

**Correct Answer: A) Daydreaming**

13. Which seizure type involves sudden brief spasms of the flexor muscles?

A) Atonic seizure

B) Myoclonic seizure
 C) Simple partial seizure

D) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure

**Correct Answer: B) Myoclonic seizure**

14. What is the main difference between focal onset seizures and generalized onset seizures?

A) Focal seizures affect the entire brain, while generalized seizures affect only one hemisphere.

B) Focal seizures begin in one localized area of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the entire
brain.

C) Focal seizures only cause unconsciousness, while generalized seizures cause unconsciousness and
convulsions.

D) Focal seizures are always preceded by an aura, while generalized seizures are not.

**Correct Answer: B) Focal seizures begin in one localized area of the brain, while generalized seizures
involve the entire brain.**

15. What might be a possible cause of seizures?

A) Excessive sleep

B) Elevated blood pressure

C) Hyperventilation

D) Brain tumor

**Correct Answer: D) Brain tumor**

16. What is the typical duration of convulsions in a tonic-clonic seizure?

A) 5-10 seconds

B) 30-60 seconds

C) 1-2 minutes

D) 5-10 minutes

**Correct Answer: C) 1-2 minutes**

17. How might a patient with a focal onset seizure be perceived during the event?

A) Fainting
 B) Daydreaming

C) Aggressiveness

D) Panic attack

**Correct Answer: B) Daydreaming**

18. Which seizure type is often related to organic brain damage?

A) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure

B) Simple partial seizure

C) Myoclonic seizure

D) Atonic seizure

**Correct Answer: C) Myoclonic seizure**

19. What might a patient experience during an absence seizure?

A) Intense muscle rigidity

B) Loss of muscle strength

C) Sudden brief loss of consciousness

D) Persistent muscle spasms

**Correct Answer: C) Sudden brief loss of consciousness**

20. What is the main difference between a generalized tonic-clonic seizure and an atonic seizure?

A) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures involve intense muscle rigidity, while atonic seizures involve
sudden loss of muscle strength.

B) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures cause daydreaming, while atonic seizures cause panic attacks.

C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures affect only one hemisphere of the brain, while atonic seizures
involve the entire brain.

D) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are always preceded by an aura, while atonic seizures are not.

**Correct Answer: A) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures involve intense muscle rigidity, while atonic
seizures involve sudden loss of muscle strength.**

21. What might a patient with a simple partial seizure experience?

 A) Intense muscle rigidity

B) Brief loss of consciousness

C) Sudden loss of muscle strength

D) Loss of postural tone

**Correct Answer: B) Brief loss of consciousness**

22. Which seizure type is characterized by sudden jerking of muscles involving a part or all of the body?

A) Atonic seizure

B) Myoclonic seizure

C) Absent seizure

D) Simple partial seizure

**Correct Answer: B) Myoclonic seizure**

23. What might precipitate an atonic seizure?

A) Loud noises

B) Visual sensations

C) Sudden increase in temperature

D) Sudden decrease in temperature

**Correct Answer: C) Sudden increase in temperature**

24. How might a patient with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure be

perceived during the event?

A) Experiencing a migraine

B) Having a stroke

C) Daydreaming

D) Having a panic attack

**Correct Answer: B) Having a stroke**

25. What is the characteristic feature of an atonic seizure?

A) Intense muscle rigidity

B) Loss of muscle strength leading to collapse

C) Sudden onset of repetitive muscle jerks

D) Brief loss of consciousness followed by confusion

**Correct Answer: B) Loss of muscle strength leading to collapse**

26. What might a patient with a myoclonic seizure be mistaken for during the event?

A) Having a stroke

B) Experiencing clumsiness

C) Daydreaming

D) Having a panic attack

**Correct Answer: B) Experiencing clumsiness**

27. What is the duration of an absence seizure typically?

A) 1-2 minutes

B) Few seconds

C) 5-10 minutes

D) 30-60 seconds

**Correct Answer: B) Few seconds**

28. What might a patient with a tonic-clonic seizure experience after the convulsive movements
subside?

A) Persistent muscle spasms

B) Altered level of consciousness followed by relaxation

C) Daydreaming

D) Brief loss of muscle strength

**Correct Answer: B) Altered level of consciousness followed by relaxation**

29. Which seizure type involves sudden, brief loss of postural tone?

A) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure

B) Simple partial seizure

C) Atonic seizure

D) Myoclonic seizure

**Correct Answer: C) Atonic seizure**

30. How might a patient with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure be perceived during the event?

A) Experiencing clumsiness

B) Having a panic attack

C) Daydreaming

D) Having a stroke

**Correct Answer: D) Having a stroke**

1. What is a characteristic feature of complex partial seizures?

A) Sudden loss of muscle strength

B) Continuous muscle rigidity

C) Random activity with altered behavior

D) Intense rigidity of the entire body

**Correct Answer: C) Random activity with altered behavior**

2. Which area of the brain is primarily involved in complex partial seizures?

A) Frontal lobe

B) Occipital lobe

C) Temporal lobe

D) Parietal lobe

**Correct Answer: C) Temporal lobe**

3. What might a patient report experiencing before a grand mal seizure?

A) Sudden loss of consciousness

 B) Extreme muscle rigidity

C) Peculiar sensation known as an aura

D) Continuous contraction of muscles

**Correct Answer: C) Peculiar sensation known as an aura**

4. What is the characteristic feature of the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

A) Continuous muscle contraction

B) Rapid motor activity

C) Sudden loss of muscle strength

D) Jerking movements

**Correct Answer: A) Continuous muscle contraction**

5. What follows the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

A) Hypertonic phase

B) Chronic phase

C) Post-ictal phase

D) Aura

**Correct Answer: A) Hypertonic phase**

6. What characterizes the hypertonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

A) Extreme muscle rigidity and hypertension

B) Jerking movements and rapid motor activity

C) Continuous muscle contraction

D) Cessation of tonic-lonic movements

**Correct Answer: A) Extreme muscle rigidity and hypertension**

7. What phase signals the end of continuous muscle contraction in a grand mal seizure?

A) Tonic phase

B) Chronic phase
 C) Hypertonic phase

D) Aura

**Correct Answer: C) Hypertonic phase**

8. What characterizes the chronic phase of a grand mal seizure?

A) Continuous muscle contraction

B) Extreme muscle rigidity and hypertension

C) Jerking movements and rapid motor activity

D) Changes in autonomic discharge

**Correct Answer: C) Jerking movements and rapid motor activity**

9. What symptoms may be observed during the autonomic discharge phase of a grand mal seizure?

A) Loss of muscle strength

B) Excessive salivation and tachycardia

C) Continuous muscle contraction

D) Peculiar sensations known as aura

**Correct Answer: B) Excessive salivation and tachycardia**

10. What is the last phase of a grand mal seizure?

A) Tonic phase

B) Hypertonic phase

C) Chronic phase

D) Post-ictal phase

**Correct Answer: D) Post-ictal phase**

11. What is the major responsibility of the nurse during and after a seizure?

A) Administering medication

B) Observing and recording the sequence of signs

C) Providing privacy to the patient

 D) Restraint of the patient during seizure

**Correct Answer: B) Observing and recording the sequence of signs**

12. What is considered as a warning sign before a seizure?

A) Peculiar sensation known as aura

B) Continuous muscle contraction

C) Extreme muscle rigidity

D) Loss of muscle strength

**Correct Answer: A) Peculiar sensation known as aura**

13. What should the nurse observe during a seizure regarding the patient's head position?

A) Position of the head at the beginning of the seizure

B) Size of the pupils

C) Eye and head movement during seizure

D) Presence of incontinence

**Correct Answer: A) Position of the head at the beginning of the seizure**

14. Why should the nurse avoid attempting to open the patient's clenched mouth during a seizure?

A) To prevent broken teeth, lips, and tongue

B) To facilitate drainage of saliva and mucus

C) To maintain airway patency

D) To prevent aspiration

**Correct Answer: A) To prevent broken teeth, lips, and tongue**

15. What should the nurse assess for immediately after a seizure?

A) Speaking ability

B) Movement at the end of the seizure

C) Cognitive status

D) Obvious paralysis or weakness

 **Correct Answer: D) Obvious paralysis or weakness**

16. What position should the nurse place the patient in immediately after a seizure to prevent
aspiration?

A) Supine position

B) Prone position

C) Side lying position

D) Sitting position

**Correct Answer: C) Side lying position**

17. What is the major complication associated with status epilepticus?

A) Broken teeth and tongue injury

B) Vigorous muscular contractions interfering with respiration

C) Changes in autonomic discharge

D) Peculiar sensations known as aura

**Correct Answer: B) Vigorous muscular contractions interfering with respiration**

18. What is the primary classification of epilepsy where the cause is unknown?

A) Secondary epilepsy

B) Status epilepticus

C) Primary epilepsy

D) Idiopathic epilepsy

**Correct Answer: D) Idiopathic epilepsy**

19. What is the classification of epilepsy where the cause is known and is a symptom of an underlying
condition?

A) Primary epilepsy

B) Secondary epilepsy

C) Status epilepticus
 D) Idiopathic epilepsy

**Correct Answer: B) Secondary epilepsy**

20. What is the duration of activity that defines status epilepticus?

A) 1-2 minutes

B) 5 minutes or longer

C) 30-60 seconds

D) Few seconds

**Correct Answer: B) 5 minutes or longer**

21. What is the primary nursing responsibility during and after a seizure?

A) Provide medication

B) Restrain the patient

C) Observe and record the sequence of signs

D) Ensure privacy to the patient

**Correct Answer: C) Observe and record the sequence of signs**

22. What is an aura in the context of epilepsy?

A) Continuous muscle contraction

B) Warning sign before a seizure

C) Extreme muscle rigidity

D) Loss of consciousness

**Correct Answer: B) Warning sign before a seizure**

23. Why should the nurse avoid restraining the patient during a seizure?

A) To prevent broken teeth, lips, and tongue

B) To maintain airway patency

C) To facilitate drainage of saliva and mucus

D) To prevent aspiration
 **Correct Answer: A) To prevent broken teeth, lips, and tongue**

24. What should the nurse assess for immediately after a seizure to prevent complications?

A) Cognitive status

B) Movement at the end of the seizure

C) Obvious paralysis or weakness

D) Speaking ability

**Correct Answer: C) Obvious paralysis or weakness

**

25. What is the classification of epilepsy considered a medical emergency?

A) Primary epilepsy

B) Secondary epilepsy

C) Status epilepticus

D) Idiopathic epilepsy

**Correct Answer: C) Status epilepticus**

26. What is the consequence of severe muscular contractions during status epilepticus?

A) Broken teeth and tongue injury

B) Changes in autonomic discharge

C) Interference with respiration

D) Peculiar sensations known as aura

**Correct Answer: C) Interference with respiration**

27. Why is the management of epilepsy individualized?

A) Due to the primary classification of epilepsy

B) Due to the duration of status epilepticus

C) Due to the secondary classification of epilepsy

 D) Due to the diverse causes and manifestations of epilepsy

**Correct Answer: D) Due to the diverse causes and manifestations of epilepsy**

28. What should the nurse provide during and after a seizure to ensure patient comfort and safety?

A) Administering medication

B) Restraint of the patient

C) Privacy to the patient

D) Ensuring a safe environment and observation

**Correct Answer: D) Ensuring a safe environment and observation**

29. What is the nature of an aura in epilepsy?

A) Continuous muscle contraction

B) Extreme muscle rigidity

C) Peculiar sensation serving as a warning sign

D) Loss of consciousness

**Correct Answer: C) Peculiar sensation serving as a warning sign**

30. What is the primary nursing responsibility during a seizure to prevent injury?

A) Administering medication

B) Restraint of the patient

C) Providing privacy to the patient

D) Ensuring a safe environment and observation

**Correct Answer: D) Ensuring a safe environment and observation**

1. What is the primary objective of medication therapy for seizures?

A) Cure the underlying cause

B) Control seizures with minimal side effects

C) Prevent head injuries

D) Induce unconsciousness

**Correct Answer: B) Control seizures with minimal side effects**

2. Which anti-seizure medication may cause diplopia as a mild side effect?

A) Carbamazepine

B) Clonazepam

C) Gabapentin

D) Leviteracetam

**Correct Answer: A) Carbamazepine**

3. What is a toxic side effect of carbamazepine?

A) Mild locopinia

B) Diplopia

C) Severe skin rash

D) Weight gain

**Correct Answer: C) Severe skin rash**

4. Which anti-seizure medication may cause hepatotoxicity as a toxic side effect?

A) Clonazepam

B) Gabapentin

C) Leviteracetam

D) Valkyruvate

**Correct Answer: A) Clonazepam**

5. What is a mild side effect of gabapentin?

A) Hepatotoxicity

B) Somnolence

C) Thrombocytopenia

D) Bone marrow failure

**Correct Answer: B) Somnolence**

6. Which anti-seizure medication's toxic side effects are unknown?

A) Carbamazepine

B) Leviteracetam

C) Gabapentin

D) Clonazepam

**Correct Answer: B) Leviteracetam**

7. What is a mild side effect of phenobarbital?

A) Visual problems

B) Hepatotoxicity

C) Sedation

D) Hair loss

**Correct Answer: C) Sedation**

8. What is a toxic side effect of phenytoin?

A) Gingival hyperplasia

B) Difficulty in speaking

C) Peripheral neuropathy

D) Dysarthria

**Correct Answer: C) Peripheral neuropathy**

9. Which medication is indicated for epilepsy resulting from brain tumors?

A) Carbamazepine

B) Clonazepam

C) Gabapentin

D) Surgical management

**Correct Answer: D) Surgical management**

10. What is the primary nursing goal in managing head injuries?

 A) Controlling seizures

B) Establishing and maintaining adequate oxygenation

C) Providing pain relief

D) Preventing further trauma

**Correct Answer: B) Establishing and maintaining adequate oxygenation**

11. How is elevation of the head of the bed beneficial in managing head injuries?

A) Promotes venous outflow and facilitates drainage of oral secretions

B) Increases intracranial pressure

C) Decreases venous outflow

D) Facilitates intracranial hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: A) Promotes venous outflow and facilitates drainage of oral secretions**

12. What is the earliest sign of lapse in neurologic functioning in traumatic brain injuries?

A) Changes in intracranial pressure

B) Level of consciousness

C) Glasgow Coma Scale

D) Hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: B) Level of consciousness**

13. What is the most sensitive indicator of lapse in neurologic functioning?

A) Changes in intracranial pressure

B) Level of consciousness

C) Glasgow Coma Scale

D) Hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: C) Glasgow Coma Scale**

14. What is the primary mechanism of injury in concussion?

A) Penetration of skull by foreign object

 B) Blunt trauma causing acceleration and deceleration forces

C) Direct blow to the head

D) Blast injury

**Correct Answer: B) Blunt trauma causing acceleration and deceleration forces**

15. What is characterized by bruising and damage to a specific area of the brain?

A) Concussion

B) Contusion

C) Diffused axonal injury

D) Intracranial hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: B) Contusion**

16. What type of injury results from widespread shearing and rotational forces causing damage
throughout the brain?

A) Concussion

B) Contusion

C) Diffused axonal injury

D) Intracranial hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: C) Diffused axonal injury**

17. What is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the dura and the brain?

A) Epidural hematoma

B) Subdural hematoma

C) Intracerebral hemorrhage

D) Diffused axonal injury

**Correct Answer: B) Subdural hematoma**

18. What is a manifestation of basal skull fracture characterized by bruising over the mastoid process?

A) CSF rhinorrhea
 B) Raccoon eyes

C) CSF otorrhea

D) Battle sign

**Correct Answer: D) Battle sign**

19. What is the primary nursing consideration in managing head injuries?

A) Controlling seizures

B) Establishing and maintaining adequate oxygenation

C) Providing pain relief

D) Preventing further trauma

**Correct Answer: B) Establishing and maintaining adequate oxygenation**

20. What is a common manifestation of fracture occurring at the anterior base of the skull?

A) Battle sign

B) Raccoon eyes

C) CSF otorrhea

D) Halo sign

**Correct Answer: B) Raccoon eyes**

21. Which type of skull fracture may result in CSF rhinorrhea?

A) Anterior basal fracture

B) Middle basal fracture

C) Posterior basal fracture

D) Comminuted fracture

**Correct Answer: A) Anterior basal fracture**

22. What nursing intervention is recommended to prevent injury in a patient with a head injury?

A) Administering opioids for pain relief

B) Using padded side rails and mitts

C) Keeping the room brightly lit

 D) Allowing frequent visitors for stimulation

**Correct Answer: B) Using padded side rails and mitts**

23. Why is ABG monitoring important in managing head injuries?

A) To assess adequacy of ventilation and maintain cerebral blood flow

B) To monitor electrolyte balance

C) To evaluate liver function

D) To assess for metabolic acidosis

**Correct Answer: A) To assess adequacy of ventilation and maintain cerebral blood flow**

24. Which type of traumatic brain injury is characterized by temporary loss of neurologic function with
no apparent structural damage?

A) Concussion

B) Contusion

C) Diffused axonal injury

D) Intracranial hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: A) Concussion**

25. What is the primary mechanism of injury in a concussion?

A) Blunt trauma causing acceleration and deceleration forces

B) Penetration of skull by foreign object

C) Direct blow to the head

D) Blast injury

**Correct Answer: A) Blunt trauma causing acceleration and deceleration forces**

26. Which nursing intervention is recommended to maintain cerebral blood flow in a patient with a head
injury?

A) Administering sedatives

B) Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance

 C) Providing bright lighting

D) Elevating the head of the bed

**Correct Answer: D) Elevating the head of the bed**

27. What is the primary goal of elevating the head of the bed in managing head injuries?

A) Facilitate intracranial hemorrhage

B) Increase intracranial pressure

C) Promote venous outflow and drainage of oral secretions

D) Decrease venous outflow

**Correct Answer: C) Promote venous outflow and drainage of oral secretions**

28. Which type of skull fracture may result in CSF otorrhea?

A) Anterior basal fracture

B) Middle basal fracture

C) Posterior basal fracture

D) Comminuted fracture

**Correct Answer: B) Middle basal fracture**

29. What is the primary mechanism of injury in diffused axonal injury?

A) Blunt trauma causing acceleration and deceleration forces

B) Penetration of skull by foreign object

C) Direct blow to the head

D) Blast injury

**Correct Answer: A) Blunt trauma causing acceleration and deceleration forces**

30. Which type of hematoma is characterized by accumulation of blood within the brain parenchyma?

A) Epidural hematoma

B) Subdural hematoma

C) Intracerebral hemorrhage
 D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage

**Correct Answer: C) Intracerebral hemorrhage**

31. Why is it important for nurses to maintain body temperature in patients with traumatic brain injury?

A) To prevent dehydration

B) To prevent hypothermia

C) To control fever and reduce intracranial pressure

D) To increase metabolism

**Correct Answer: C) To control fever and reduce intracranial pressure**

32. What is a potential cause of fever in patients with traumatic brain injury?

A) Hypothalamic damage

B) Increased fluid intake

C) Hyperglycemia

D) Low blood pressure

**Correct Answer: A) Hypothalamic damage**

33. Why is it important for nurses to maintain integrity in patients with traumatic brain injury?

A) To prevent hypotension

B) To prevent tissue necrosis and pressure ulcers

C) To improve cognitive function

D) To promote sleep pattern disturbance

**Correct Answer: B) To prevent tissue necrosis and pressure ulcers**

34. What is the recommended frequency for turning a patient with traumatic brain injury to prevent
pressure ulcers?

A) Every 4 hours

B) Every 6 hours

C) Every 2 hours

D) Once a day
 **Correct Answer: C) Every 2 hours**

35. How might traumatic brain injury affect a patient's cognitive function?

A) By increasing memory retention

B) By improving attention span

C) By causing memory deficits and decreased ability to focus

D) By reducing impulsivity

**Correct Answer: C) By causing memory deficits and decreased ability to focus**

36. What intervention can help improve cognitive function in patients with traumatic brain injury?

A) Administering sedatives

B) Encouraging video game play

C) Restricting social interactions

D) Increasing environmental stimuli

**Correct Answer: B) Encouraging video game play**

37. How can nurses prevent sleep pattern disturbance in patients with traumatic brain injury?

A) Increasing environmental stimuli

B) Providing bright lighting

C) Grouping nursing activities to minimize disruptions

D) Administering sedatives

**Correct Answer: C) Grouping nursing activities to minimize disruptions**

38. Which area of the spinal cord injury would likely result in quadriplegia and respiratory muscle
paralysis?

A) Lumbar

B) Sacral

C) Thoracic

D) Cervical (C2 and C3)

 **Correct Answer: D) Cervical (C2 and C3)**

39. What is autonomic dysreflexia, a potential complication of spinal cord injury?

A) Abrupt and severe blood pressure elevation

B) Decreased heart rate

C) Hypotension

D) Increased sweating below the level of injury

**Correct Answer: A) Abrupt and severe blood pressure elevation**

40. How can nurses prevent further damage in a patient suspected of spinal cord injury at the scene of
the accident?

A) Immediately attempt to realign body parts

B) Minimize movement and maintain body in an extended position

C) Apply traction to the spinal cord

D) Avoid immobilization

**Correct Answer: B) Minimize movement and maintain body in an extended position**

41. Why is rapid assessment important for patients suspected of spinal cord injury?

A) To determine the patient's age

B) To assess for skin color changes

C) To evaluate neurological function

D) To measure blood pressure

**Correct Answer: C) To evaluate neurological function**

42. What is the immediate management priority for suspected spinal cord injury patients?

A) Administering pain medication

B) Immobilization and stabilization

C) Applying warm compresses

D) Providing emotional support

**Correct Answer: B) Immobilization and stabilization**

43. What should nurses do to maintain spinal alignment while applying a cervical collar?

A) Move the head from side to side

B) Apply traction to the neck

C) Place hands on both sides of the patient's head

D) Rotate the neck

**Correct Answer: C) Place hands on both sides of the patient's head**

44. How should nurses transport a patient suspected of spinal cord injury?

A) Move the patient's body in separate parts

B) Lift the patient using the arms only

C) Transport the patient as a unit

D) Allow the patient to walk to the ambulance

**Correct Answer: C) Transport the patient as a unit**

45. What is the purpose of skeletal traction in managing cervical fractures?

A) To increase movement of the cervical spine

B) To decrease blood flow to the cervical region

C) To align the cervical spine

D) To induce muscle spasms

**Correct Answer: C) To align the cervical spine**

46. What is a potential complication of spinal cord injury due to immobility?

A) Increased muscle strength

B) Decreased risk of deep vein thrombosis

C) Pulmonary embolism

D) Improved respiratory function

**Correct Answer: C) Pulmonary embolism**

47. How can nurses minimize the risk of deep vein thrombosis in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Encouraging bed rest

B) Administering anticoagulants

C) Promoting frequent ambulation

D) Avoiding compression stockings

**Correct Answer: C) Promoting frequent ambulation**

48. Which vertebrae are most frequently involved in spinal cord injury due to their greater range of
mobility?

A) Cervical 2 to 3

B) Lumbar 1

C) Sacral 2 to 4

D) Thoracic 12

**Correct Answer: A) Cervical 2 to 3**

49. What is the immediate cause of autonomic dysreflexia in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Hypertension

B) Increased intracranial pressure

C) Overstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

D) Respiratory muscle paralysis

**Correct Answer: C) Overstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system**

50. What is the primary goal of initial care for patients with suspected spinal cord injury?

A) Provide emotional support

B) Stabilize the cervical spine

C) Administer pain medication

D) Assess skin integrity

**Correct Answer: B) Stabilize the cervical spine**

51. What intervention is crucial to prevent further damage during the immediate management of
suspected spinal cord injury?

A) Rotating the neck to relieve tension

B) Realignment of body parts

C) Application of warm compresses to the spine

D) Limiting movement and maintaining alignment

**Correct Answer: D) Limiting movement and maintaining alignment**

52. Which complication is associated with spinal shock in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Hyperreflexia

B) Profuse sweating

C) Hypertension

D) Absence of sweating below the level of injury

**Correct Answer: D) Absence of sweating below the level of injury**

53. What is the primary purpose of applying a cervical collar in suspected spinal cord injury?

A) To allow free movement of the neck

B) To provide warmth to the neck area

C) To limit movement and maintain alignment

D) To relieve pressure on the cervical vertebrae

**Correct Answer: C) To limit movement and maintain alignment**

54. Why should patients suspected of spinal cord injury be transported to a medical facility
immediately?

A) To perform cosmetic procedures

B) To initiate rehabilitation

C) To undergo elective surgery

D) To receive timely medical evaluation and management

**Correct Answer: D) To receive timely medical evaluation and management**

55. What is the term for paralysis of all four extremities following a spinal cord injury?

A) Hemiplegia

B) Paraplegia

C) Quadriplegia

D) Monoplegia

**Correct Answer: C) Quadriplegia**

56. Which type of spinal injury is most likely to result in respiratory muscle paralysis?

A) Thoracic vertebrae injury

B) Lumbar vertebrae injury

C) Sacral vertebrae injury

D) Cervical vertebrae injury

**Correct Answer: D) Cervical vertebrae injury**

57. How can nurses help prevent pressure ulcers in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Encouraging prolonged bed rest

B) Repositioning the patient every two hours

C) Applying direct pressure to bony prominences

D) Ignoring signs of skin breakdown

**Correct Answer: B) Repositioning the patient every two hours**

58. What is a potential complication of autonomic dysreflexia in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Hypotension

B) Bradycardia

C) Hyperglycemia

D) Hypertension

**Correct Answer: D) Hypertension**

59. Which region of the spinal cord is most commonly involved in spinal cord injury due to its mobility?

A) Lumbar

B) Sacral

C) Thoracic

D) Cervical

**Correct Answer: D) Cervical**

60. What is the purpose of immobilization during the immediate management of suspected spinal cord
injury?

A) To promote movement

B) To prevent further damage

C) To facilitate stretching exercises

D) To encourage weight-bearing

**Correct Answer: B) To prevent further damage**

1. What is a potential complication of spinal cord injury characterized by contractures and muscle
atrophy due to immobility?

A) Autonomic dysreflexia

B) Deep vein thrombosis

C) Disuse syndrome

D) Pulmonary embolism

**Correct Answer: C) Disuse syndrome**

2. Which intervention is aimed at preventing blood clots in the deep veins of the legs in patients with
spinal cord injury?

A) Administration of hydralazine

B) Application of warm compresses

C) Use of pneumatic compression device

D) Regular range of motion exercises

**Correct Answer: C) Use of pneumatic compression device**

3. What is the most common triggering factor for autonomic dysreflexia in individuals with spinal cord
injury?

A) Skin stimulation

B) Distended bladder

C) Bowel distension

D) Pressure injury

**Correct Answer: B) Distended bladder**

4. How can autonomic dysreflexia be managed if the triggering factor is not resolved?

A) Administering anticoagulant therapy

B) Providing warmth to the affected area

C) Slow IV push of a ganglionic blocking agent

D) Encouraging deep breathing exercises

**Correct Answer: C) Slow IV push of a ganglionic blocking agent**

5. What is the purpose of permanent indwelling filters placed in the inferior vena cava for patients with
spinal cord injury?

A) To promote skin integrity

B) To prevent autonomic dysreflexia

C) To prevent deep vein thrombosis

D) To facilitate range of motion exercises

**Correct Answer: C) To prevent deep vein thrombosis**

6. Which medication is an example of anticoagulation therapy used in the management of spinal cord
injury?

A) Ibuprofen

B) Warfarin

C) Acetaminophen

D) Aspirin

**Correct Answer: B) Warfarin**

7. What is the acute life-threatening emergency characterized by exaggerated autonomic responses in
individuals with spinal cord injury?

A) Pulmonary embolism

B) Disuse syndrome

C) Autonomic dysreflexia

D) Deep vein thrombosis

**Correct Answer: C) Autonomic dysreflexia**

8. How can skin integrity be promoted in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Limiting movement to prevent friction

B) Providing warmth to prevent skin breakdown

C) Encouraging frequent position changes

D) Applying pressure to bony prominences

**Correct Answer: C) Encouraging frequent position changes**

9. What is the primary objective of management for autonomic dysreflexia?

A) Administering pain relief medications

B) Removing the triggering factor

C) Providing warmth to the affected area

D) Encouraging deep breathing exercises

**Correct Answer: B) Removing the triggering factor**

10. Which complication of spinal cord injury involves sudden or abrupt severe hypertension?

A) Disuse syndrome

B) Autonomic dysreflexia

C) Deep vein thrombosis

D) Pulmonary embolism

**Correct Answer: B) Autonomic dysreflexia**

11. What is the purpose of anti-embolic stockings or compression stockings in the management of spinal
cord injury?

A) To improve cognitive function

B) To prevent autonomic dysreflexia

C) To promote skin integrity

D) To prevent blood clots in the legs

**Correct Answer: D) To prevent blood clots in the legs**

12. Which potential complication of spinal cord injury is characterized by loss of autonomic innervation
below the level of injury?

A) Disuse syndrome

B) Autonomic dysreflexia

C) Deep vein thrombosis

D) Pulmonary embolism

**Correct Answer: B) Autonomic dysreflexia**

13. What is the purpose of promoting skin integrity in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) To prevent autonomic dysreflexia

B) To improve cognitive function

C) To prevent contractures and muscle atrophy

D) To avoid tissue necrosis

**Correct Answer: D) To avoid tissue necrosis**

14. Which intervention is aimed at preventing autonomic dysreflexia in individuals with spinal cord
injury?

A) Encouraging deep breathing exercises

B) Administering anticoagulant therapy

C) Removing the triggering factor

D) Providing warmth to the affected area

**Correct Answer: C) Removing the triggering factor**

15. What is the long-term complication of spinal cord injury characterized by contractures and muscle
atrophy?

A) Autonomic dysreflexia

B) Disuse syndrome

C) Deep vein thrombosis

D) Pulmonary embolism

**Correct Answer: B) Disuse syndrome**

16. Which medication may be used as a low-dose anticoagulation therapy in the management of spinal
cord injury?

A) Warfarin

B) Heparin

C) Ibuprofen

D) Acetaminophen

**Correct Answer: B) Heparin**

17. How can autonomic dysreflexia be managed if the triggering factor cannot be resolved?

A) Providing warmth to the affected area

B) Administering pain relief medications

C) Encouraging deep breathing exercises

D) Slow IV push of a ganglionic blocking agent

**Correct Answer: D) Slow IV push of a ganglionic blocking agent**

18. What is the primary purpose of permanent indwelling filters placed in the inferior vena cava for
patients with spinal cord injury?

A) To prevent autonomic dysreflexia

B) To promote skin integrity

C) To prevent deep vein thrombosis

D) To facilitate range of motion exercises

 **Correct Answer: C) To prevent deep vein thrombosis**

19. How can disuse syndrome be prevented in patients with spinal cord injury?

A) Limiting movement to prevent friction

B) Providing warmth to prevent skin breakdown

C) Encouraging frequent position changes

D) Applying pressure to bony prominences

**Correct Answer: C) Encouraging frequent position changes**

20. Which complication of spinal cord injury is characterized by sudden or abrupt severe hypertension?

A) Autonomic dysreflexia

B) Disuse syndrome

C) Deep vein thrombosis

D) Pulmonary embolism

**Correct Answer: A) Autonomic dysreflexia**