IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

s
r
e
p TEST FORM NUMBER Maximum Marks : 100
a
P Total Questions : 100
l Time Allowed : 60 Min.
e
d
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
o
M
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to attempt the questions.
This booklet contains 100 Questions in all comprising the following three parts.
Part-(I) : English Language (30 Questions)
Maximum Marks :
Part-(II) : Quantitative Aptitude (35 Questions) 100
s
b Part-(III) : Reasoning Aptitude (35 Questions)
o Total Questions :
j
All the questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 100
t Before you start to attempt the questions, you must explore this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages and find
v
o that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any flaw in this booklet, you must get it replaced
Time immediately.
Allowed : 90 Min.
G Each question carries negative marking also as 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll number,
Test name/Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start attempting the
u questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be
r
u fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
g Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant
m question number by pencil or Black/Blue ball pen only.
at
xs A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely/ different
E
e from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as cancelled.
t
The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
e Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will make a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be
n
i deemed fit.
l
n Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not
o spend too much time on any question.
e Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates
e
r are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their
f own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action
will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.
No candidate can leave the examination hall before completion of the exam.

NAME OF CANDIDATE:...........................................
DATE :......................... CENTRE CODE :.................
ROLL No ..................................................................

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

required to read the given parts carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
English
Maximum Marks Language
: 100 1. those who were seriously injured; and Rs.25,000
Direction (1 – 5): The following questions below contain to (A)/ compensation of Rs.1 lakh for the kin of (B)/ those who
sentences thatTotal
haveQuestions :
been divided into100
five parts out of died in the blasts; Rs.50,000 to (C)/ the court also
which the last part is fixed at its correct position. You are awarded (D)/ those who received minor injuries (E).
Time Allowed : 90 Min.
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(A) ACDBE (B) DCBAE 6. Which of the given statements is not true as per the
(C) BDABE (D) DBCAE passage?
(E) None of the above (A) Getting education is a challenge for girls in many countries
(B) Lack of education encourages unemployment
2. senior advocate Garima Prashad, said the (A)/ the Uttar (C) The students in the villages do not wish to study
Pradesh Additional Advocate General, (B)/ set up under the (D) Many students do not have access to internet
newly enacted Uttar Pradesh Recovery of Damages (E) All are true
to (C)/ cases would now be referred to a claims
t tribunal (D)/ Public and Private Property Act of 2020 for fresh 7. Which of the given reason/(s) make/(s) it difficult for the
s adjudication (E). students to pursue their education?
e (A) ADCBE (B) BADCE (A) Lack of trained teachers
t (C) BDCAE (D) CDABE (B) Poor infrastructure
e (E) None of the above (C) Students coming to school exhausted
n (D) All of the above
i 3. an art gallery located on Nungambakkam (A)/ from (E) Other than the given options
l
n Cottage Industries Exposition Pvt. Ltd, (B)/ the police seized five
o antique idols (C)/ High Road and its departmental store from 8. What is the theme of the passage?
Thanjavur (D)/ on charges of illegal possession (E). (A) Reasons making education difficult around the world
e (A) ADCBE (B) DABCE (B) Poverty: the main cause of poor education
e
r (C) CBADE (D) DCABE (C) Unemployment being induced due to education
f (E) None of the above (D) The great digital divide
(E) Schooling is different from learning
4. True to its title, the book (A)/ explains how he, a
rebel, (B)/ student leader, Communist, labour (C)/ lawyer and 9. What is the cause of worry as per UNICEF given in the
fierce critic of the judiciary, (D)/ was able to rise from the Bar to first paragraph?
the Bench (E). (A) Most students do not get basic meals which impacts their
(A) ADCBE (B) BDCAE learning
(C) CDABE (D) DABCE (B) 60% of the students have no access to schooling in various
t (E) ABCDE countries
s (C) Many countries have imposed restrictions on girls which do
e
T 5. forthcoming from Karnataka for the past 14 not allow them to study
years (A)/ submitting that there was no information (B)/ verbal (D) There is a huge gap between the learning needed and the
e battles among the States, with Telangana (C)/ the Supreme same being given in schools
n
i Court hearing had seen (D)/ about how much Krishna River (E) Most children across the world face acute shortage of food
l water it had diverted (E). which stops their learning
n (A) ABCDE (B) CDBAE
O (C) DCBAE (D) BDCAE 10. What does ‘economic fragility’ refer to in the passage?
(E) None of the above (A) The vulnerability of people who need to depend on credit for
their needs
Direction (6 – 15): Read the passage given below carefully (B) The students not being able to afford their education
and choose the appropriate options as answers for the expenses due to their economic condition
s questions that follow: (C) Countries being financially dependant on other countries for
b their sustenance
o A child’s right to education entails the right to learn. Yet, for too (D) The incompetency of the students from the economically
j many children across the globe, schooling does not lead to weaker backgrounds
t learning. Over 600 million children and adolescents worldwide (E) Both (a) and (d)
v are unable to attain minimum proficiency levels in reading and
o mathematics, even if two thirds of them are in school. For out-of- 11. Which of the given words would best fill the blank given
G
school children, foundational skills in literacy and numeracy are in the passage?
further from grasp, UNICEF said. This learning crisis – the rift
between the levels of learning children receive and those they, (A) Positive (B) Beneficial
their communities and entire economies need – hit a global scale (C) Adverse (D) Negligence
u even before the COVID-19 pandemic brought education systems (E) Productive
r
u to a halt.
g Around the world, children are deprived of education and 12. Which of the following is the most prominent reason
learning for various reasons. Poverty remains one of the most behind the deprivation of education?
m
a obstinate barriers. Children living through economic fragility, (A) Natural disaster (B) Political instability
x political instability, conflict, or natural disaster are more likely to (C) Difficulty in learning (D) Poor infrastructure
E be cut off from schooling – as are those with disabilities, or from (E) Poverty
ethnic minorities. In some countries, education opportunities for
girls remain severely limited. 13. Which of the given options carries an error in it?
Even in schools, a lack of trained teachers, inadequate education (A) Over 600 million children and adolescents
materials and poor infrastructure make learning difficult for many (B) worldwide are unable to attain minimum
students. Others come to class too hungry, ill or exhausted from (C) proficiency levels in reading and mathematics,
work or household tasks to benefit from their lessons. (D) even if two thirds of them are in school.
Compounding these inequities is a digital divide of growing (E) The sentence is correct
concern: Some two thirds of the world’s school-aged children do
not have internet connection in their homes, restricting their 14. Which of the given options is the correct synonym to the
opportunities to further their learning and skills development. word halt?
Without quality education, children face considerable barriers to (A) Continuity (B) Start
employment and earning potential later in life. They are more (C) Standstill (D) Off
likely to suffer ________ health outcomes and less likely to (E) Progress
participate in decisions that affect them – threatening their ability
to shape a better future for themselves and their societies. 15. Choose the antonym to the word ‘barriers’ from the
given options.

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(A) obstacle (B) difficulty 25. There’s been cases (A)/ of chain snatching (B)/
(C) problem (D) assistance because of the proximity (C)/ from residential layouts (D)/ to
(E) forward transportation hubs (E).
(A) B and C (B) A and D
s Direction (16 – 20): The given questions carry lanks in which (C) C and E (D) D and E
r words from options given below need to be filled. You must (E) A and E
i read the same carefully and choose the most appropriate
a option for each question as your answer. Direction (26 – 30): In the questions given below, four words
f
f have been highlighted as these might need to be rearranged
A 16. The ball was hit ______ the bat. for the sentence to make sense. The correct order of the
(A) From (B) By highlighted words as your answer.
t (C) With (D) Of
n
e (E) On 26. From eating them (A) important to adding them to (B)
r meals and making pickles, green chillies have an (C) raw part in
r 17. At his peak, he was __________ over Rs. 2,00,000 a our (D) curries.
u
c year. (A) ADCB (B) BCAD
(A) Brought in (B) Bringing out (C) CDAB (D) ABCD
y (C) Brought to (D) Bringing in (E) No rearrangement needed
l (E) Brought forth
i
a 27. We are all (A) health of the (B) damage that extreme
d 18. She differed ______ him in her analysis of the (C) pollution may do to our respiratory and cardiac (D) aware.
economy. (A) DBCA (B) CDAB
(A) From (B) With (C) ABDC (D) CBDA
(C) About (D) At (E) BDCA
(E) In
28. The purpose of (A) develop World Philosophy Day is
19. If you are looking _______ your watch, you will not find to (B) inspire individuals to learn about philosophy and (C)
it here. celebrating their philosophical (D) discourse.
(A) At (B) In (A) DBCA (B) ABCD
s (C) To (D) By (C) BDAC (D) CBAD
r
i (E) For (E) ACBD
a
f 20. He is on leave preparatory _____ retirement. 29. The (A) popularised taste of the (B) drink comes with
f
A (A) Of (B) To a (C) tinge of vinegar, yes, the (D) apple cider vinegar.
(C) From (D) In (A) ABDC (B) BDAC
t (E) Since (C) CDAB (D) ACDB
n (E) No rearrangement required
e
r Direction (21 – 25): In each sentence given below, out of the
r five parts given two contain an error. You are required to 30. Nothing can beat a (A) authentic breakfast and tea that
u read the same carefully and choose the option that contains too if you get an (B) delicious filter coffee (C) southern from
c
the parts with an error in them. the (D) straight part of India.

21. Surely the IPL has come a (A)/ long way since Adam
Gilchrist (B)/ admitted to feel like a cow (C)/ after the maiden (A) BADC (B) ACBD
auction around (D)/ of the inaugural edition in 2008 (E). (C) CBDA (D) ABDC
(E) No rearrangement needed
s (A) A and E (B) B and C
r (C) C and D (D) A and C Quantitative Aptitude
e
p (E) No error
a 31. A boat covers 120 km downstream and 80 km upstream
P 22. The Quad Ministerial meeting in Melbourne, in 10 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is 125% of the
meant (A)/ to set the stage for a meeting for the leaders upstream speed of the boat, then find the time taken by the boat
l to cover 140 km in still water?
e of (B)/ Australia, India, Japan and the U.S. later this year (C)/ in
d Tokyo, ended with outcomes which showcased its (A) 4 hours (B) 10 hours
o “positive (D)/ agenda” in the Indo-Pacific region (E). (C) 5 hours (D) 7 hours
M (E) None of these
(A) B and D (B) A and B
t
s (C) A and E (D) C and D
e (E) No error 32. A train crosses ‘d’ m platform in 8 seconds and the
t same train crosses ‘3d’ m bridge in 14 seconds. If the speed of
23. Now, the CBI, after completing (A)/ the investigation, the train is 72 km/hr, then find the time taken by the train to cross
k a man running in the opposite direction at the speed of 5 m/sec.
c have filed a (B)/ final report containing (C)/ 2,000 pages in a
o special court (D)/ for the CBI cases recent (E). (A) 4 seconds (B) 7 seconds
m (A) A and C (B) B and E (C) 10 seconds (D) 6 seconds
(C) C and D (D) B and D (E) None of these
e
n (E) No error
i 33. 5 years hence, the ratio of the age of A and B is 7:6. 5
l 24. There are barely (A)/ any good pavements (B)/ in years ago, the ratio of age of A and B is 5:4. If the present age of
n A is 50% more than that of C, then find the present age of C?
o Mylapore junction that has (C)/ so many senior
citizens (D)/ walking to the temples or shops (E). (A) 45 years (B) 18 years
(A) A and C (B) B and E (C) 32 years (D) 20 years
(C) A and D (D) C and B (E) None of these
(E) No error
34. The average weight of A, B, C and D is 54 kg and the
average weight of A and B is 16% more than the average weight
of C and D. If the ratio of the weight of C to D is 3:2, then find the
weight of C?

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(A) 60 kg (B) 54 kg
(C) 72 kg (D) 45 kg 38. If the number of volleyball matches won by twisters is
(E) None of these increased by 50% in next year and the number of volleyball
matches lost by twisters remains same, find the difference
35. The ratio of the simple interest for 4 years at the rate of between the number of volleyball matches won and lost by
25% per annum for Rs.P to the simple interest for 6 years at the twisters.
rate of 10% per annum for (P+2500) is 10/9. Find the value of P. (A) 33 (B) 23
(A) 4500 (B) 7000 (C) 25 (D) 10
(C) 5000 (D) 6500 (E) None of these
s (E) None of these
r 39. What is the difference between the average number of
i Direction (36 – 40): Study the following information carefully volleyball matches won by all teams except eclipse and average
a
f and answer the following questions given below. number of volleyball matches lost by all teams except
f southwind?
A The given pie chart shows the total number of volleyball matches (A) 3.35 (B) 2.35
t participated and the number of volleyball matches won by five (C) 3.75 (D) 2.25
n different teams in 2021. (E) None of these
e
r Total number of volleyball 40. The number of volleyball matches won by elite is
r
u participated by five different approximately how much percentage more/less than the number
c of volleyball matches lost by eclipse?
q teams (A) 333 3/2% less (B) 223 2/3% less
c (C) 356 2/5% more (D) 266 2/3% more
m
(E) None of these
s
r Crossfir 41. The total surface area of the cube is 2400 m 2 and the
i Southwi
a nd, 20 es, 20 side of the cube is equal to the height of the cuboid. If the length,
f breadth and height of the cuboid is (x+10) m, (x-10) m and x m
f respectively, then find the volume of the cuboid.
A (A) 7000 m3 (B) 3520 m3
Eclipse,
t (C) 6000 m3 (D) 4800 m3
n 8 Elite, 18 (E) None of these
e 42. The marked price of the tablet is 60% more than its cost
r
r price. If the profit earned by selling the tablet is Rs.9600 is equal
u Twisters to the loss incurred by selling the same tablet for Rs.5400, then
c , 22 find the sum of the cost and marked price of the tablet.
(A) Rs.14300 (B) Rs.19500
The second pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the (C) Rs.13000 (D) Rs.18200
number of volleyball matches won by each teams out of total (E) None of these
number of matches won by all the teams together.
43. A and B started a business with an investment of
Rs.840 and Rs.1080 respectively. After x months, C joined the
Percentage of number of volleyball business with an investment of Rs.1920. At the end of the year,
match won by each team the profit share of C is equal to the average profit share of A and
s Total number of Matches won = 50 B. Find the value of x?
r (A) 6 (B) 4
e (C) 8 (D) 2
p (E) 5
a
P Crossfir
Southwi 44. A shopkeeper mixed two varieties of rice at the cost
l es price of Rs.90 per kg and Rs.120 per kg in the ratio of 8:7. If the
e nd
20% mixture is sold at Rs.x per kg, then he gets a profit of 25%. Find
d 24%
o the selling price of the mixture per kg?
M (A) Rs.150 (B) Rs.144
t Eclipse (C) Rs.178 (D) Rs.130
s Elite (E) None of these
e 10%
t 22%
45. The efficiency of A is 60% of the efficiency of B and the
k ratio of the efficiency of B to C is 5:2. If A, B and C together can
c Twisters complete the work in 10.5 days, then find the sum of the time
o 24%
m taken by A and B alone to complete the work.
(A) 70 days (B) 56 days
e (C) 63 days (D) 42 days
n
i (E) None of these
l 36. What is the ratio of the number of volleyball matches
n lost by crossfires to south wind? Direction (46 – 50): What value should come in the place of
o (?) in the following number series?
(A) 5 : 3 (B) 4 : 5
(C) 3 : 5 (D) 5 : 4
(E) None of these 46. 246, 247, 249, 253, 261, ?
(A) 277 (B) 273
37. What is the total number of volleyball matches lost by all (C) 271 (D) 279
the teams together? (E) 275
(A) 38 (B) 45
(C) 35 (D) 54 47. 4, 12, 48, 240, ?, 10080
(E) None of these (A) 480 (B) 960

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(C) 840 (D) 1440 Note: Total number of bangles =Total number of gold bangles +
(E) 720 Total number of diamond bangles

48. 171, ?, 210, 249, 301, 366 Number of Gold and Diamond Bangles
(A) 196 (B) 184 sold by five different shopkeepers
s
r (C) 179 (D) 204
i (E) 192 500 450
a 450
f 400
f 49. ?, 44, 90, 182, 366, 734
A (A) 25 (B) 34 350 300 320
(C) 21 (D) 19 300 250
t (E) 32 250
n 200
e 200 150 150
r 50. 457, 426, 384, 329, 259, ?, 66 150 120 110
r (A) 154 (B) 196 80
u 100
c (C) 180 (D) 148 50
(E) 172 0
y
l Emily Tom Eric Tabitha Hooper
i Direction (51 – 55): Read the following information carefully
nook
a and answer the questions. Number of Gold bangles sold
d
There are 1440 students in institute A and they like three
Number of diamond bangles sold
different subjects namely English, Science and Mathematics and 56. Which shopkeeper sold most number of bangles in that
each student like any of these subjects. The number of students month?
who like Science is 50% of the total number of students in (A) Eric (B) Tabitha
institute A. The number of students who like only English is equal (C) Emily (D) Tom nook
to the number of students who like only Mathematics. The (E) None of these
number of students who like both Science and Mathematics is
240 and the number of students who like both English and 57. In Eric’s shop, If the sale of number of gold bangles is
Mathematics but not Science is 160.The number of students who increased by 20% and the sale of number of diamond bangles
like both Science and Mathematics is 20 more than the number reduced by 18% in next month, find the total number of bangles
of students who like both English and Science. The number of sold by Eric in next month?
students who like exactly one subject is 860. (A) 507 (B) 410
ss (C) 500 (D) 384
rb 51. If the number of girls who like only English, only (E) None of these
io
aj Science and only Mathematics is 190, 250 and 200 respectively,
f then find the number of boys who like at most one subject? 58. Number of gold bangles sold by Emily is what percent
ft (A) 540 (B) 220 more/less than the total number of diamond bangles sold by Eric
A and Tabitha?
v (C) 450 (D) 310
to (E) None of these (A) 13.52% more (B) 15.38% more
G
n (C) 14.25% less (D) 16.28% less
e (E) None of these
r 52. Find the difference between the number of students
r who like both English and Science but not Mathematics and the
u number of students who like only Mathematics? 59. If the 24 gold bangles and 8 diamond bangles sold by
c (A) 150 (B) 210 Hooper are returned by its customer due to damage, find the
y (C) 70 (D) 100 new ratio between the number of gold and number of diamond
l (E) None of these bangles sold by Hooper.
h (A) 11 : 20 (B) 4 : 7
t (C) 7 : 4 (D) 12 : 10
n 53. Find the ratio of the number of students who like
o English to the number of students who like exactly two subjects? (E) None of these
M (A) 5:2 (B) 4:3
(C) 11:9 (D) 7:4 60. On the whole, Eric sold all bangles at Rs.20,791,600
(E) 3:1 and diamond bangles for Rs.15,750,000. What is the selling
price of single gold bangle?
54. The number of students who like only English is what (A) 13,250 (B) 15,275
percentage more than the number of students who like both (C) 14,555 (D) 15,755
English and Mathematics? (E) None of these
(A) 40% (B) 70%
s (C) 25% (D) 30% Direction (61 – 65): What approximate value should come in
e (E) None of these the place of (?) in the following questions?
i
r
e 55. If the number of students who like at least two subjects 61. 17.98% of 1199.50 - √675.87 = ? + 110.18
s in institute A is 4/5th of the number of students who like English in (A) 80 (B) 50
institute B, then find the number of students who like English in (C) 90 (D) 70
t
s institute B. (E) 40
e (A) 475 (B) 725
t (C) 450 (D) 850 62. √900.05 × 9.99 + 349.90 ÷ √3.8 = ?2 – 150.03
e (E) None of these (A) 21 (B) 16
n (C) 32 (D) 25
i Direction (56 – 60): Study the following information carefully (E) 10
l
n and answer the questions given below.
o The given bar graph shows the number of Gold bangles and the 63. 14.84 × 29.94 - √8100.10 = ? × 11.68
number of diamond bangles sold by five different shopkeepers in (A) 40 (B) 20
a month. (C) 50 (D) 10
(E) 30

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
64. ?% of 700.07 + 45.20% of 200.02 = 229.70 (C) Telegram (D) Mail
(A) 35 (B) 20 (E) Duo
(C) 44 (D) 60
(E) 28 71. Which of the following combination is true?
(A) K-Telegram (B) M-Twitter
65. (41.78 ÷ 10.54 × 330.30 ÷ 6.66) ÷ ? = 35.80 (C) L-Skype (D) N-Duo
(A) 7 (B) 20 (E) I-Mail
(C) 5 (D) 12
(E) 8 72. Who lives immediately above the flat of the one who
uses Viber?
Reasoning Aptitude (A) The one who uses duo
(B) The one who uses Skype
Direction (66 – 69): Study the following information carefully (C) I
and answer the questions given below. (D) The one who uses mail
s (E) Both B and C
b
o In a certain code language,
j People connected with online chat coded as “qa zx er op jk” 73. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
Phone helps to study online coded as “jk hy rf dc bh” based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which
t People addicted to mobile phone coded as “zx bm hy fd rf” one of the following does not belong to the group?
v
to
sG Mobile helps in staying connected coded as “fd op ub fr dc” (A) K and M (B) M and L
e (Note: All codes are two letter codes only) (C) N and I (D) J and N
t (E) L and N
66. What is the code for the phrase “staying online” in the
k
c given code language? 74. Which of the following statement is false with respect to
o (A) ub jk (B) jk fr the final arrangement?
m (C) er ub (D) Either A or B (A) The one who uses mail and L live in the same flat
e (E) Either A or C (B) N lives below J’s flat
n (C) The one who uses Twitter and K lives on different floors and
i 67. What is the phrase for the code “hy bm fd” in the given flats.
l code language? (D) All the given statement is true
n
o (A) Mobile to addicted (E) All the given statement is false
(B) Addicted mobile phone
(C) Phone connected people Direction (75 – 76): Study the following information carefully
(D) Addicted to phone and answer the questions given below.
(E) Can’t be determined
D is the son-in-law of C, who is the grandfather of F. C has only
68. If “chat in instagram” is coded as “mb er ub” and one child. E is the maternal aunt of H, whose niece is F. G is the
“instagram to twitter” is coded as “rf kl mb”, then what is the code brother-in-law of E. H is the sister-in-law of A, who is the
t for the phrase “twitter with phone” in the given code language? daughter-in-law of G. B is the grandmother of F and has two
s (A) kl qa ub (B) hy qa mb children.
e (C) qa hy kl (D) mb kl fr
T (E) Can’t be determined 75. How is E related to A’s spouse?
es (A) Niece (B) Nephew
n
ri 69. What is the phrase for the given code “bh op zx” in the (C) Maternal aunt (D) Paternal aunt
il given coded language? (E) None of these
an (A) People connected study
fO
f (B) Mobile helps study 76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
A (C) Study connected phone based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which
(D) Helps people online one of the following does not belong to the group?
t (E) Mobile to addicted (A) GD (B) EF
n
e (C) BH (D) DC
r Direction (70 – 74): Study the following information carefully (E) AG
r and answer the questions given below.
u
c Direction (77 – 81): Study the following information carefully
Six persons viz., I, J, K, L, M and N are living in a three storey and answer the questions given below.
y building such that the lowermost floor is numbered as one and
l the floor immediately above it is numbered as two and so on.
i Six persons are sitting in a row of the train and facing the north.
a Each of them uses different applications to communicate- Skype, Each of them is eating different foods – Noodles, Pasta, Biryani,
d Twitter, Duo, Viber, Mail and Telegram. Burger, Pizza and sandwich, but not necessarily in the same
Note-I: Each floor has two flats viz., Flat-A and Flat-B, where order.
Flat A is to the west of flat B. N is not sitting at the extreme ends. I sits second to the left of the
Note-II: Flat B of floor 2 is immediately above Flat B of floor 1 one who eats Pasta. As many persons sit to the left of I as to the
and immediately below Flat B of floor 3 and so on. right of the one who eats Burger. Two persons sit between the
J lives two floors above the one who uses Telegram. The one who eats Burger and L. As many persons sit between L and
number of floors below J is one more than the number of floors the one who eats pizza as between the one who eats pizza and
above the one who uses Skype and both live in different flats. N M. Only one person sits between K and the one who eats
lives immediate south-east of the one who uses Skype. Only one Noodles, who sits adjacent to the one who eats Biryani. J neither
floor is between N and the one who uses mail, who lives eats Noodles nor Burger.
immediately above I in the same flat. The one who uses Viber
lives immediately below I but not in the same flat. The one who 77. Who among the following person sits second to the right
uses duo lives two floors above K. M uses neither Skype nor of N?
Twitter. Neither J nor L uses duo and Twitter. (A) The one who eats Pasta
(B) L
70. J uses which of the following application? (C) N
(A) Skype (B) Viber (D) The one who sits immediate left of M

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(E) The one who eats Sandwich (E) Either B or C

78. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order 86. Which of the following statements is true with respect to
from the right end along with the foods they eat, then who sits the final arrangement?
third to the right of the one who has Biryani? (A) Q participates in the dance competition only with W
(A) K (B) M and P
(C) I (D) L (B) U and V participate in the same competition
(E) N (C) T and Y participate in different competitions
(D) All the given statement is true
79. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as (E) All the given statement is false
per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one
which does not belong to the group. 87. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
(A) NI (B) MJ “SMOTHERING” each of which has as many letters between
(C) KM (D) NL them in the word as in the English alphabetical series (both
s (E) LK forward and backward directions)?
b
so (A) One (B) Two
rj
i 80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with (C) Three (D) More than three
at respect to the final arrangement? (E) None
fv (A) Only two persons sit between I and the one who eats
fo Sandwich 88. If the even positioned digits(from left) of the number
A
G (B) No one sits to the left of the one who eats Biryani “915837968274” are increased by one and the odd positioned
t (C) K sits third to the right of L digits(from left) are decreased by two, then what is the difference
n (D) All the given statements are true between the sum of the digits in first half of the number and sum
e
r (E) All the given statements are false. of the digits in second half of the number?
r (A) 5 (B) 7
u 81. Who among the following person is eating Pizza? (C) 2 (D) 3
c (A) The one who sits immediate left of K. (E) 8
y (B) L
l (C) The one who sits immediate left of M Direction (89 – 91): Study the following information carefully
i (D) M and answer the questions given below.
a
d (E) J
Seven children are saving different amounts in their piggy banks.
Direction (82 – 86): Study the following information carefully G saves more than E but not as much as F and A. D saves more
and answer the questions given below. than B but less than C. As many persons save more than F as
less than E. D saves the fourth highest amount. C, who doesn’t
Ten persons viz., P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y participate in save the highest amount but saves more than A. The person
q three different competitions in the school– Dance, singing and who saves the third highest amount saved Rs.4730
c poetry. At least three persons but not more than four persons
m
participate in the same competition. 89. If the sum of the amount saved by A and F is Rs.9540
s T and V participate in the same competition, but not participate in and the difference between the amount saved by F and D is
r poetry. U and S participate in different competitions but not Rs.210, then what is the amount saved by D?
i
a participate with T. R neither participates in the same competition (A) Rs.4810 (B) Rs.4800
f as V and S nor participates in singing competition. Y and P (C) Rs.4630 (D) Rs.4600
f participate in the same competition, but neither participates with (E) Can’t be determined
A R nor participates in the dance competition. The number of
t persons participates in poetry competition is one less than the 90. How many persons saved more amount than G?
n number of persons participates in singing competition. Q and W (A) Three (B) Four
e participate in the same competition. X does not participate in (C) Five (D) Two
r
r dance competition. (E) Can’t be determined
u
c 82. Who among the following persons participates in poetry 91. If the difference between the savings of the adjacent
competition? persons is Rs.250, then what is the sum of the amount saved by
(A) Q, X, U (B) S, U, R G, B and C?
(C) U, X, R (D) T, U, R (A) Rs.13290 (B) Rs.12190
(E) P, V, T (C) Rs.13190 (D) Rs.12290
s (E) Can’t be determined
e
i 83. If each person participates in dancing, singing and
r poetry get Rs.500, Rs.600 and Rs.700 respectively as the prize Direction (92 – 96) : Study the following information
e amount. Then, what is the sum of the prize amount received by carefully and answer the questions given below on your
s R, V, Q and U? own.
t (A) Rs.2300 (B) Rs.2500
s (C) Rs.2400 (D) Rs.2600 Eight people are sitting around each other, some of whom are
e (E) Rs.2700 facing the center and some are facing outside the center. Four
t
persons are sitting on the mattress and the remaining persons
e 84. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way are sitting in the middle of the saddles.
n based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which V, who is neither on the hinges nor appears on the side of P, sits
i one of the following does not belong to the group? third to the left of U. V and U both point in opposite directions.
l
n (A) TP (B) UX Two people sit between U and W. The neighbor of W faces the
o (C) SW (D) QR same direction. R is on the immediate right of W. There is a
(E) VY sequence of persons sitting between R and S, the same number
of persons sit between S and T, who sits opposite to Q, who is
85. S participates in which of the following competition? not the neighbor of W. Both P and R face opposite direction to
(A) Dance (B) Singing W. The immediate neighbors of S face opposite directions to
both S and T.
(C) Poetry (D) Either A or B

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
92. Who sits third to the left of P? III. Some cars are not bus is a possibility.
(A) The one who sits immediate left of S (A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) W (B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) Q (C) If only conclusion III follows
(D) The one who faces U (D) Only conclusions I and III follow
(E) The one who sits second to the left of Q. (E) None follows

93. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order 98. Study the following statements and then decide which
from the position of Q in an anti-clockwise direction, then how of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
many of them remain in the same position? statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
(A) One (B) Two Statements: Only a few cities are town
(C) Three (D) More than three Only a few towns are village
(E) No one All villages are panchayat
No village is district
s 94. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as Conclusions: I. All towns cannot be panchayat
b
o per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one II. Some cities are not districts
j who does not belong to the group. III. All cities are districts
(A) The one who sits immediate left of P (A) If only conclusion I follows
t (B) R (B) If only conclusion II follows
v
to
sG (C) The one who sits immediate right of Q (C) If only conclusion III follows
e (D) The one who sits opposite to R (D) Either conclusions II or III follows
t (E) P (E) Only Conclusions I and II follow
k
c 95. If all the persons are made to face the opposite 99. In the given questions, the relationship between
o direction from their actual direction, then who sits second to the different elements is shown in the statements followed by some
m right of the one who sits immediate left of W? conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
e (A) U (B) S Statements: P > Q ≤ R < S; T = Q ≥ U > V < W; X < Y = V ≥ Z
n (C) P (D) Q Conclusions: I. Z < Q II. S > Y
i (E) V III. P ≥ X
l (A) Only conclusion II is true
n
o 96. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true with (B) Only conclusion III is true
respect to the final arrangement? (C) Only conclusions I and II are true
(A) U faces the one who sits immediate left of V (D) Only conclusion I is true
(B) T sits third to the left of S (E) Only conclusions II and III are true
(C) U and P are sitting together and facing the same direction.
(D) Both A and B 100. In the given questions, the relationship between
(E) Both A and C different elements is shown in the statements followed by some
conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
97. Study the following statements and then decide which Statements: I ≤ H < F = J > K; A ≤ B < C > D; G < F ≥ E
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given ≥C
u statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Conclusions: I. J > B II. I < D
r
u Statements: All cars are scooty III. D ≥ I
g Only a few cars are bikes (A) Only conclusion II is true
sm Some scooty is train (B) Only conclusion I is true
ea Only bike is bus (C) Either conclusions II or III are true
ix Conclusions: I. All bikes can be Scooty (D) Only conclusions I and III are true
rE
e II. some trains can be cars (E) All Conclusions I, II and III are true
s
t Space for rough work
s
e
t
e
n
i
l
n
o

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

English Language
1. Answer: D
The last part is fixed which means E should always be at the
end. Now, three amounts have been given in decreasing order
and it is very clear that the least will come before part E. So, AE
forms a clear link. This helps us eliminate options (a) and (c).
Now, B comes before C as otherwise C after D makes the
sentence a bit ambiguous.
Therefore, we can easily figure out that the correct answer
should be option (d).
2. Answer: B
No other part but B can only start the given sentence so, options
(a) and (d) can be ruled out.
u A follows B as A names the advocate general being mentioned in
r
u A.
g Option (b) has the correct sequence and hence should be
sm marked the answer.
ea 3. Answer: C
ix Other parts than C simply tell us what the whole activity is all
rE
e about. But part D tells us that the police has seized idols.
s So, C should start and on checking the single option that starts
with C we find that the given sequence makes a completely
t
s coherent sentence.
e So, the correct answer is option (c).
t 4. Answer: E
e The given parts are already in their correct sequence and hence
n need no rearrangement.
i Therefore, the correct answer is option (e).
l 5. Answer: C
n
D can start the sentence as it describes the issue by introducing
so
r the Supreme Court’s hearing and then C continues telling us the
i reason behind the hearings. DC forms a pair.
a Checking the third option further we realise that this is the correct
f order of the parts.
f
A Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).
6. Answer: C
t The third statement has nowhere been given in the passage and
n
e the entire passage is about the challenges that makes pursuing
r education difficult for the students. The third sentence mentions
r that, people do not want to study which does not resonate with
u
c the context of the passage.
The other statements have been given in the passage so can be
y taken as true.
l Thus, the best would be to go with option (c) as the answer.
h
t 7. Answer: D
n The reasons given the options find their mention in the third
o paragraph in the initial lines.
M
Thus, the best would be to mark option (d) as the answer.
8. Answer: A
Of the options given above, the second one talks about just one
aspect that is poverty which is not the overall theme of the
passage. So, (b) can be ruled out. The third option is also
specific as it simply talks about unemployment only. (d) is
vague and incomplete. (e) resonates with just the first few lines
of the passage.
This makes option (a) the most logical answer.
t 9. Answer: D
s The first paragraph talks about the condition of learning of the
e students who go to school and those who do not get to go to
t
school. It says that UNICEF has found that in both the cases,
e there is huge gap in the learning of the students as, what is
n needed as per the economies is not being fulfilled through the
i
l level of education being received by the students.
n Looking at the options, we can eliminate (a) and (e) for being
o similar. (b) and (c) have not been discussed in the first
e paragraph.
e Thus, the best would be to mark option (d) as the answer.
r 10. Answer: B
f The paragraph where this phrase is being mentioned talks about
the challenges being faced by the students to carry their
education forward. It says it becomes too difficult for students
especially the ones coming from politically unstable and
economically weaker areas/backgrounds. This tells us that the
term relates the ability of the students to be able to afford their
education expenses.
Out of the given options, only the second option goes in line with
the given content.
Therefore, the best would be to go with option (b).
11. Answer: C
The last paragraph talks about students who do not have proper
access to education due to which they suffer unemployment.
This directly impacts their health. The word that would fit the
given blank correctly should be a negative word. So, (a), (b) and
(e) can be ruled out.
The word negligible in (d) is out of context.
Thus, the word adverse given in option (c) is the correct answer.
12. Answer: E
The second paragraph carries the following lines given below
that help us understand the answer to the question above:
Around the world, children are deprived of education and
learning for various reasons. Poverty remains one of the most
obstinate barriers.
The other options have also been given as reasons but, poverty
still remains the main reason.
13. Answer: D
The correct phrase that should be used in the sentence is ‘even
though.’ Even though is used to express a “fact, something that
is real or true.” 'Even though' precedes a statement of fact. It
means 'despite/in spite of' the fact. It is more emphatic or
stronger than 'though' or 'although'.
Even if is used to stress that something will happen despite
something else that might prevent it.
The correction is hence, needed in option (d).
14. Answer: C
Standstill means “a situation when there is no movement,
progress or activity.” It is same in meaning as the word halt.
The options (a), (b) and (e) are antonyms of the given word. The
word off is not completely appropriate and we have a better
option in (c). So, option (c) should be correct.
15. Answer: D
The word barrier means a “circumstance or obstacle that keeps
people or things apart or prevents communication or progress.”
The words in options (a), (b) and (c) are synonymous with the
given word so these can be eliminated. The word forward is
ambiguous.
The best opposite to the word is assistance which means
“helping someone move ahead or overcome hurdles.”
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
16. Answer: C
The given sentence states that the bat was used to hit the ball.
That means the bat is an instrument here not an agent who
might have hit the ball.
In prepositions, we use ‘with’ for instrument and ‘by’ for an agent.
This means that the correct usage in the above question should
be with the bat.
Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
17. Answer: D
The meanings of the various phrasal verbs in general can be
understood as:
Bring in→ to produce, yield or earn
Bring out→ to reveal; to publish; to nurture or develop
Bring to→ to come to a stop; to recover consciousness
Bring forth→ to give rise to or introduce; to give birth to
The one that is grammatically appropriate is the gerund form of
bring which can be found in two options (b) and (d). Out of these
two, only the one in the fourth option fits contextually.
Thus, the best would be to mark option (d).
18. Answer: B
One may differ with a person in an opinion etc., but differ
from a person in appearance.
In the given sentence, the analysis of the economy is being
stated which means that the preposition with should be preferred
to all other options.
Thus, the best answer would be option (b).
19. Answer: E
The phrase looking for (something) means “the act of searching
visually.” Like, in the sentence, the person is searching the
watch.

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
Of the given options, only for makes sense so all the other given 20/a + 20/a = 10
options can be eliminated. a = 40/10
Thus, the best would be to go with option (e). a=4
20. Answer: B The speed of the boat in still water = 5 × 4 = 20 km/hr
The phrase preparatory to means “done in order to get ready Required time = 140/20 = 7 hours
for something.” Like in the given sentence a person is on a leave 32. Answer: A
preparing for his retirement. The word prepare in the above form The speed of the train = 72 × 5/18 = 20m/sec
(preparatory) is always followed by ‘to’ Let the length of the train = x
t Therefore, the best would be to go with option (b). x + d = 20 × 8
s 21. Answer: C x + d = 160 ---(1)
e In part C, admitted to feeling should be correct. As a rule, when x + 3d = 20 × 14
t ‘to’ is used as a preposition, the verb that follows it should be in x + 3d = 280 ---(2)
e the ‘ing’ form. From (1) and (2),
n In D, ‘around’ should be replaced with ‘ahead’ as the auction 160 – d + 3d = 280
i takes place before the game starts and not around the same. 2d = 120
l
n Therefore, the correct answer is (c). d = 60
o 22. Answer: A The length of the train = 160 – 60 = 100 m
In B → meeting of the leaders and not for. Required time = 100/(20 + 5) = 100/25 = 4 seconds
e In D → which should be replaced by that. 33. Answer: D
e
r Therefore, the correct answer is option (a). (7x – 5 - 5)/(6x – 5 – 5) = 5/4
f 23. Answer: B (7x – 10)/(6x – 10) = 5/4
So, who has filed a final report? The CBI which is a singular 28x – 40 = 30x – 50
q subject and hence should be followed by a singular verb. So, the 2x = 10
c
m verb ‘have’ in part B should be changed to ‘has’. x=5
In E, the word ‘recent’ is grammatically incorrect and hence The present age of A = 7 × 5 – 5 = 35 – 5 = 30 years
s should be changed to ‘recently’. The present age of C = 30 × 100/150 = 20 years
r Therefore, the best answer is option (b). 34. Answer: A
i
a 24. Answer: E Let the average weight of C and D = 100x
f The given sentence is correct as it is and does not need any And the average weight of A and B = 100x × 116/100 = 116x
f improvements. Therefore, the correct answer is option (e). 100x × 2 + 116x × 2 = 54 × 4
A
25. Answer: B 200x + 232x = 216
t In the first part, ie; A → There’s has been used which means x = 216/432
n ‘there is’ and that is grammatically wrong. We must use ‘there’ve’ x = 0.5
e
r or ‘there have’ to precede ‘been’ correctly. The total weight of C and D together = 100 × 0.5 × 2 = 100 kg
r In D → the preposition ‘from’ is wrong. We generally use ‘to’ after The weight of C = 100 × 3/(3 + 2) = 100 × 3/5 = 60 kg
u proximity but here even ‘to’ will not be used because it is used 35. Answer: C
c further in part E. We need something that connects part C with (P × 4 × 25/100)/((P + 2500) × 10 × 6/100) = 10/9
part E so, ‘of’ will be good. “Proximity of this to that” P = 10/9 × (P + 2500) × 6/10
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b). P = 2P/3 + 5000/3
26. Answer: C 3P – 2P = 5000
The first place would take the word raw as it discusses eating P = 5000
chillies without cooking or adding to curries. This also tells us 36. Answer: D
that the word curries should come in place of B. Crossfires:
This makes CDAB the correct sequence of the given words. Total number of volleyball matches participated = 20
Thus, option (c) is correct. Number of volleyball matches won = 50 × 20/100 = 10
s 27. Answer: A Number of volleyball matches lost = 20 – 10 = 10
r The sequence of the words given in the first option is correct and Elite:
e can be marked as the correct answer. Total number of volleyball matches participated = 18
p
a 28. Answer: D Number of volleyball matches won = 50 × 22/100 = 11
P
s The given words are not in their proper positions and need to be Number of volleyball matches lost = 18 – 11 = 7
rl rearranged. So, we celebrate a day which means that the Twisters:
ie word celebrating should come in place of A. This means the Total number of volleyball matches participated = 22
ad rearrangement should start with C. There is just one option with Number of volleyball matches won = 50 × 24/100 = 12
fo
fM the same and hence, option (d) is the right answer. Number of volleyball matches lost = 22 – 12 = 10
A 29. Answer: E Eclipse:
The given words are already in their correct positions and need Total number of volleyball matches participated = 8
t
n no arrangement. Number of volleyball matches won = 50 × 10/100 = 5
e So, the correct answer is option (e). Number of volleyball matches lost = 8 – 5 = 3
r 30. Answer: A Southwind:
r The words authentic and delicious are still okay in the places Total number of volleyball matches participated = 20
u
c they have been put contextually but grammatically these need a Number of volleyball matches won = 50 × 24/100 = 12
change as, an delicious and a authentic are both wrong Number of volleyball matches lost = 20 – 12 = 8
y usages. Number of volleyball matches lost by crossfires = 10
l
h We can see that; BA should be the first two words. Also, DC is a Number of volleyball matches lost by southwind = 8
t more appropriate arrangement. Required ratio = 10 : 8 => 5 : 4
n This makes the arrangement BADC in option (a) the most 37. Answer: A
o appropriate one. Total number of volleyball matches lost = 10 + 7+ 10 + 3 + 8 =
M
38
Quantitative Aptitude 38. Answer: E
Number of volleyball matches won by twisters in next year= 12 ×
31. Answer: D 150/100 = 18
Let the upstream speed of the boat = 4a Number of volleyball matches lost by twisters in next year = 10
The speed of the boat in still water = 4a × 125/100 = 5a The difference between the number of volleyball matches won
The speed of the stream = 5a – 4a = 1a and lost= 18 – 10 = 8
120/(5a + 1a) + 80/(5a – 1a) = 10 39. Answer: C
120/6a + 80/4a = 10

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
Average number of volleyball matches won = (10 + 11 + 12 +
12)/4 = 11.25
Average number of volleyball matches lost = (10 + 7 + 10 + 3/4 =
7.5
s Required difference = 11.25 – 7.5 = 3.75
r 40. Answer: D
i 51. Answer: B
Required percentage = [(11 – 3)/3] × 100 = 266 2/3% more
a The number of students who like Science = 1440 × 50/100 = 720
41. Answer: C
f Let the number of students who like only English = x
f The side of the cube = √(2400/6) = √400 = 20 m
The number of students who like only Mathematics = x
A The height of the cuboid = 20 m
The number of students who like all three subjects = a
The length of the cuboid = 20 + 10 = 30 m
t The breadth of the cuboid = 20 – 10 = 10 m
1440 = 720 + x + x + 160
n 560 = 2x
e The volume of the cuboid = 20 × 30 × 10 = 6000 m3
r x = 280
42. Answer: B
r The number of students who like only English = 280
u Let the profit or loss incurred by selling the tablets = x
The number of students who like only Mathematics = 280
c 9600 – x = 5400 + x
The number of students who like Mathematics = 280 + 160 + 240
2x = 4200
y = 680
x = 2100
l The cost price of the tablet = 9600 – 2100 = Rs.7500
The number of students who like both English and Science = 240
i – 20 = 220
a The marked price of the tablet = 7500 × 8/5 = Rs.12000
The number of students who like English = 280 + 160 + 220 =
d Required sum = 7500 + 12000 = Rs.19500
660
43. Answer: A
The number of students who like only Science = 860 – (280 +
Let the investment period of C = a
280) = 860 – 560 = 300
The ratio of the profit share A, B and C = 1:1:(1 + 1)/2 = 1:1:1
300 + (240 – a) + (220 – a) + a = 720
(840 × 12 + 1080 × 12)/(1920 × a) = (1 + 1)/1
760 – a = 720
(10080 + 12960)/(1920 × a) = 2/1
a = 40
s 23040/1920 = 2a
The number of students who like all three subjects = 40
e a = 12/2
The number of students who like both English and Science but
i a=6
r not Mathematics = 220 – 40 = 180
e x = 12 – 6 = 6
The number of students who like both Science and Mathematics
s 44. Answer: D
but not English = 240 – 40 = 200
The cost price of mixture per kg = (8y × 90 + 120 × 7y)/(8y + 7y)
t = (720y + 840y)/15y
s
e = 1560x/15x
t = Rs.104
The selling price of the mixture per kg = 104 × 125/100 = Rs.130
e 45. Answer: B
n
i Let A alone complete the work = 5x
l B alone complete the work = 5x × 60/100 = 3x
n C alone complete the work = 3x × 5/2 = 15x/2
o
1/5x + 1/3x + 1/(15x/2) = 1/10.5
3/15x + 5/15x + 2/15x = 2/21
10 × 21/2 = 15x
x=7
The number of students who like at most one subject = 280 +
A alone complete the work = 5 × 7 = 35 days
280 + 300 = 860
t B alone complete the work = 3 × 7 = 21 days
s The number of boys who like at most one subject = 860 – (190 +
Required sum = 35 + 21 = 56 days
e 250 + 200) = 220
46. Answer: A
t 52. Answer: D
246 + 20 = 247
Required difference = 280 – 180 = 100
e 247 + 21 = 249
n 53. Answer: C
249 + 22 = 253
i 253 + 23 = 261
The number of students who like exactly two subjects = 160 +
l 180 + 200 = 540
n 261 + 24 = 277
o Required ratio = 660:540 = 11:9
47. Answer: D
54. Answer: A
e 4 × 3 = 12
The number of students who like both English and Mathematics
e 12 × 4 = 48
r = 160 + 40 = 200
48 × 5 = 240
f Required percentage = (280 – 200)/200 × 100 = 80/2 = 40%
240 × 6 = 1440
55. Answer: B
1440 × 7 = 10080
The number of students who like at least two subjects in institute
48. Answer: B
A = 160 + 180 + 40 + 200 = 580
171 + 13 × 1 = 184
The number of students who like English in institute B = 580 ×
184 + 13 × 2 = 210
5/4 = 725
210 + 13 × 3 = 249
56. Answer: D
249 + 13 × 4 = 301
Number of bangles sold by Emily = 300 + 120 = 420
s 301 + 13 × 5 = 366
r Number of bangles sold by Tom nook = 450 + 200 = 650
49. Answer: C
e 21 × 2 + 2 = 44
Number of bangles sold by Eric = 320 + 150 = 470
p Number of bangles sold by Tabitha = 250 + 110 = 360
a 44 × 2 + 2 = 90
Number of bangles sold by Hooper = 150 + 80 = 230
P 90 × 2 + 2 = 182
182 × 2 + 2 = 366 57. Answer: A
l Number of gold bangles increased by 20% => 320 × (120/100) =
e 366 × 2 + 2 = 734
d 384
50. Answer: E
o Number of diamond bangles reduced by 18% => 150 × (82/100)
M = 123
Total = 384 + 123 = 507
58. Answer: B

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
Required percentage = (300 – 260) / 260 × 100 = 15.38% more 73. Answer: E
59. Answer: C In the given options, the pair of persons are living in the same
Number of gold bangles returned, 24 => 150 – 24 = 126 flat, except in option E.
Number of diamond bangles returned, 8 => 80 – 8 = 72 74. Answer: A
Required Ratio = 126 : 72 => 21 : 12 = 7:4 The one who uses mail and L live in the same flat
60. Answer: D 75. Answer: C
Cost of gold bangles = 20791600 – 15750000 = 5041600 Final arrangement:
Number of gold bangles sold by Eric = 320
Selling price of single gold bangle = 5041600 / 320 = 15755
61. Answer: A
17.98% of 1199.50 - √675.87 = ? + 110.18
18 × 1200/100 - √676 = ? + 110
t 216 – 26 = ? + 110
s ? = 80
e 62. Answer: D
T 76. Answer: E
√900.05 × 9.99 + 349.90 ÷ √3.8 = ?2 – 150.03
e √900 × 10 + 350 ÷√4 = ?2 – 150 In the given options, the pair of persons are of the same gender,
n 30 × 10 + 350 ÷ 2 = ?2 – 150 except in option e.
iq 300 + 175 + 150 = ?2 77. Answer: D
lc
n ?2 = 625 Final arrangement:
m
O ?2 = 252
s ?= 25
r 63. Answer: E
i
a 14.84 × 29.94 - √8100.10 = ? × 11.68
f 15 × 30 - √8100 = ? × 12 78. Answer: C
f 450 – 90 = ? × 12 79. Answer: E
A 360 = ? × 12 In the given options, the pair of persons are sitting adjacent to
t ? = 30 each other, except in option e.
n 64. Answer: B 80. Answer: D
e ?% of 700.07 + 45.20% of 200.02 = 229.70 81. Answer: A
r
r ? × 700/100 + 45 × 200/100 = 230 82. Answer: C
u ? × 7 = 230 – 90 Final arrangement:
c ? = 140/7
s ? = 20
r 65. Answer: C
i
a (41.78 ÷ 10.54 × 330.30 ÷ 6.66) ÷ ? = 35.80
f 42 ÷ 11 × 330 ÷ 7 = ? × 36
f 6 × 30 = ? × 36 U, X, R participates in poetry competition.
A
? = 180 ÷ 36 83. Answer: B
t ?=5 Rs.2500
n 84. Answer: D
e Reasoning Aptitude
r In the given options, the pair of persons participates in the same
r competition, except in option D.
u 66. Answer: D 85. Answer: A
c
Dance
y 86. Answer: E
ld All the given statement is false
h
at 87. Answer: B
o
n
lo
n
M
w
o 88. Answer: D
d
915837968274 --> 723918776355 --> 3
s 89. Answer: D
r Either a or b
i
a 67. Answer: E
f Can’t be determined
f 68. Answer: C 90. Answer: E
A
qa hy kl
t 69. Answer: A
n 70. Answer: D
e 91. Answer: C
r Final arrangement:
r
u
c
(C -4980, B/G-4230/3980, C+B+G=13190)
x
i 92. Answer: E
s Final arrangement:
t
s
a
l 71. Answer: C
L-Skype
72. Answer: B
The one who uses Skype

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

s
r
i
a
f
f
A
t
n
e
r 93. Answer: A
r Since they given from the position of Q, so we have to arrange
u
c the persons in alphabetical order from P (from Q’s position) -->
Only T remains unchanged
y 94. Answer: D
l In the given option, all the people face outside, except in option
h
t d.
n 95. Answer: D
o 96. Answer: E
M
97. Answer: B

t
s
e 98. Answer: D
t
d
ak
o
cl
o
n
m
w
o
ed
n
sil
rn
io 99. Answer: C
a I. Z < Q (Q ≥ U > V ≥ Z) --> True
f
f II. S > Y (Y = V < U ≤ Q ≤ R < S) --> True
A III. P ≥ X (P > Q ≥ U > V = Y > X) --> False
100. Answer: B
t
n I. J > B (B < C ≤ E ≤ F = J) --> True
e II. I < D (I ≤ H < F ≥ E ≥ C > D) --> False
r III. D ≥ I (I ≤ H < F ≥ E ≥ C > D) --> False
r
u
c
x
i
s
t
s
a
l

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