IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

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c TEST FORM NUMBER Maximum Marks : 100
y Total Questions : 100
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h Time Allowed : 60 Min.
t INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
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M Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to attempt the questions.
This booklet contains 100 Questions in all comprising the following three parts.
Part-(I) : English Language Maximum Marks
(30 Questions) :
Part-(II) : Quantitative Aptitude (35 Questions) 100
Part-(III) : Reasoning Aptitude (35 Questions)Total Questions :
All the questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 100
Before you start to attempt the questions, you must explore this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages and find
Time
that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any flaw in this booklet, you must get it replaced Allowed : 90
immediately.
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r Each question carries negative marking also as 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. Min.
e You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll number,
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a Test name/Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start attempting the
P questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be
l fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
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d Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant
o question number by pencil or Black/Blue ball pen only.
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A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely/ different
from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as cancelled.
The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
t Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will make a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be deemed
s fit.
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T Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not
es spend too much time on any question.
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ri Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates
il are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their
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fO own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action
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A will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
t No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.
n No candidate can leave the examination hall before completion of the exam.
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u NAME OF CANDIDATE:...........................................
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y DATE :......................... CENTRE CODE :.................
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i ROLL No ..................................................................
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
word is contextually or grammatically correct on its positions or
not, if not, mark it as your answerS
English Language It will be interesting (A) to see how speculators (B) respond
Maximum Marks : 100 to the sale of beer being (C) banned (D) at the Fifa World Cup
1. In the following questions, a sentence is given with 2022 being hosted by Qatar
Totalwords,
four highlighted Questions
you have to :identify the
100highlighted (A) Interesting (B) Speculators
(C) Being (D) Banned
Time Allowed : 90 Min.
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(E) All are correct (A) Cover approximate (B) Above 50 tourist
(C) Which will put India (D) Upon the river cruise
2. In the following questions, a sentence is given with (E) All are correct
four highlighted words, you have to identify the highlighted
word is contextually or grammatically correct on its positions or 8. In the following questions, a sentence is given with
not, if not, mark it as your answer four highlighted parts, in which only one highlighted part of the
While 68% of citizens flagging (A) the issue of overcrowding sentence is incorrect. In the given options the correct part of
(B) in buses as a reason for shunning (C) them, 59% the sentence is mentioned, you have to identify, which of the
expressed concern about delays owing to (D) traffic jams and part need improvement
parking. The reality is that there are about a dozen (A) or so close
(A) Flagging (B) Overcrowding interrelated (B) environmental problems that have the
(C) Shunning (D) Owing to potential (C) to endanger the life-nurturing conditions of our
(E) All are correct planet (D)
(A) Is about a dozen (B) So closely interrelated
s 3. In the following questions, a sentence is given with (C) Has the potential (D) Of us planet
b
o four highlighted words, you have to identify the highlighted (E) All are correct
j word is contextually or grammatically correct on its positions or
not, if not, mark it as your answer 9. In the following questions, a sentence is given with
t
v Despite (A) governmental initiatives to modernise four highlighted parts, in which only one highlighted part of the
to urban mobility (B), such as digital payment, 53% of the sentence is incorrect. In the given options the correct part of
sG
e respondents (C) and most drivers, it was founded (D), favour the sentence is mentioned, you have to identify, which of the
t cash payments part need improvement
e (A) Despite (B) Mobility The concept of one earth informs and reminds (A) us that
n (C) Respondents (D) Founded there is only one planet that is inhabited (B) by people of all
i (E) All are correct nations, ethnicities, and faiths; we all will be (C) endangered
l badly if its life-nurturing capacity begin to be disrupted (D)
n 4. In the following questions, a sentence is given with (A) Inform and remind (B) That is inhabiting
o
four highlighted words, you have to identify the highlighted (C) We all was (D) Begins to be disrupted
e word is contextually or grammatically correct on its positions or (E) All are correct
e not, if not, mark it as your answer
r
f In Bengaluru, there has been(A) a discernible (B) preference 10. In the following questions, a sentence is divided into
for two-wheelers, contributing (C) to its infamous five parts, only one part of the sentence contains error, you
q traffic congregation (D) have to mark that part of the sentence which contains error
c (A) Been (B) Discernible Halloween has become (A)/ an occasion for celebrities (B)/
m (C) Contributing (D) Congregation and common people alike (C)/ to dress up strange (D)/ in a bid
s (E) All are correct to outdo one another (E)
r (A) A (B) B
i 5. In the following questions, a sentence is given with (C) C (D) D
a
f four highlighted parts, in which only one highlighted part of the (E) E
f sentence is incorrect. In the given options the correct part of
A the sentence is mentioned, you have to identify, which of the 11. In the following questions, a sentence is divided into
t part need improvement five parts, only one part of the sentence contains error, you
n Recently, the idea of promoting (A) gender considerations in have to mark that part of the sentence which contains error
e the foreign policy discourse has gained traction (B), this is The economic slowdown and (A)/ a steady decline in online
r pertinent, taking into consideration (C) the growing influence advertising, (B)/ the biggest source of (C)/ Meta's revenue,
r
u of the global South in refurbishment (D) the pathways to has (D)/ contributed to its woes (E)
c sustainable development. (A) A (B) B
(A) Idea in promotion (C) C (D) D
(B) Have gained traction (E) E
(C) Taking consideration 12. In the following questions, a sentence is divided into
(D) Global south in refurbishing five parts, only one part of the sentence contains error, you
s (E) All are correct have to mark that part of the sentence which contains error
e Unethical practices such as plagiarism (A)/ and pay-to-publish
i
r 6. In the following questions, a sentence is given with have (B)/ become causes of concern; (C)/ these have
e four highlighted parts, in which only one highlighted part of the reduced (D)/ the quality of research work (E)
s sentence is incorrect. In the given options the correct part of (A) A (B) B
t the sentence is mentioned, you have to identify, which of the (C) C (D) D
s part need improvement (E) E
e For instance (A), it has observed(B) that the potential
t contribution of the female population towards triggering 13. In the following questions, a sentence is divided into
e (C) the economic growth engine remains undervalued (D) five parts, only one part of the sentence contains error, you
n (A) In instance (B) Has been observed have to mark that part of the sentence which contains error
i (C) Toward triggering (D) Remain undervalued Students apparently seek (A)/ a career with more money (B)/
l
n (E) All are correct and prestige which, (C)/ he feel, (D)/ the general practitioner
o lacks (E)
7. In the following questions, a sentence is given with (A) A (B) B
four highlighted parts, in which only one highlighted part of the (C) C (D) D
sentence is incorrect. In the given options the correct part of (E) E
the sentence is mentioned, you have to identify, which of the
part need improvement 14. In the following questions, a sentence is given with a
The leisure journey will cover approximately (A) 4,000 blank, which is followed by some options. You have to choose
kilometres and stop at Kolkata and Dhaka too; the cruise will the correct option so that a meaningful sentence can be
cover 27 river systems and over 50 tourist (B) destinations formed
including World Heritage Sites, which put India (C) and
Bangladesh on the river cruise (D) map of the world

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
The supermodel, Heidi Klum, wore an ___________ costume
for Halloween; she arrived at the star-studded annual party
that she hosts dressed like a worm
(A) Valorous (B) Circumspect
(C) Outrageous (D) Downbeat
(E) None of these
15. In the following questions, a sentence is given with a
t blank, which is followed by some options. You have to choose
s the correct option so that a meaningful sentence can be
e formed
t India’s colonial history is ___________ with examples of the
k State weaponising laws to legitimize the oppression of a
c subjugated people
o (A) Replete (B) Abandoned
m
(C) Pack (D) Overload
e (E) None of these
n resources, universalise primary education, and implement
i
l 16. In the following questions, a sentence is given with a
n blank, which is followed by some options. You have to choose
o the correct option so that a meaningful sentence can be
formed
The responsibility of ensuring that law does not __________
on rights and liberties, be they collective or individual, does not
lie with the courts alone
(A) Aid (B) Impede
(C) Rationalize (D) Embroil
s (E) None of these
r and economic freedom. Unfortunately, it transpires that many
e 17. In the following questions, a sentence is given with a
p
a blank, which is followed by some options. You have to choose
P the correct option so that a meaningful sentence can be
formed
l
e Without such difficult questions, these interviews make
d journalists appear like __________ law interns rather than
o interrogators tasked with speaking truth to power.
M (A) Intrepid (B) Decrepit
(C) Doughty (D) Awestruck
(E) None of these
Direction(18-25): Read the passage carefully and answer
the following questions.
su
rr
iu The horrendous picture of the population explosion of planet
ag Earth, projected recently by the United Nations to reach 8
f billion people is a matter of grave concern. According to the
fm
A UN’s estimate, India would surpass China as the world’s most
a populous country during 2023.The global population is likely to
xt
E go up to about 8.5 billion in 2030, 9.7 billion in 2050, and 10.4
n
e billion in 2100. In 2022, the two most populous regions were
r both in Asia ~ Eastern and South-Eastern Asia with 2.3 billion
r people and Central and Southern Asia with 2.1 billion.
u The world population is also increasing with incredible speed,
c
about 100 million a year and it is estimated that mother earth
y would embrace close to ten billion people by 2050. While
l population growth in India has assumed the proportion of
h
t escape velocity like a rocket, the picture of Pakistan is more
n dismal.
o The number of children per woman is 5.6. The situation
M prevailing in Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and China are also far
from satisfactory. According to the UN Commission on
Population and Development, India, Pakistan, and China are
among five countries that account for half the annual growth of
the world’s population. Indonesia and Nigeria are the other two
countries. However, it must be admitted that China has
launched some commendable family planning programs and
has been able to control population growth to a great extent. It
is estimated that China’s population will increase from the
present 1336 million to approximately 1500 million in 2025.
__________________________________________________
_. Obviously, India’s population will cross China’s within the
first quarter of this millennium, if not controlled.
India’s population was 363 million in 1951-52, with estimated
food production of 52 million tons. Individual calorie
consumption per day was about 1580. During 1985-86, India
www.todaysprint.com
had a population of 725 million. (consumption of 2500 calories
(P)/ 165 million tons (Q)/ Food production (R)/ to provide an
individual (S)/ should have increased to (T))
The estimated enhanced food production as envisaged was
not achieved. In fact, the green revolution in no way is able to
feed the most populous country of the world because of topsoil
erosion and other reasons. Food surplus is nothing but an
illusion in the face of population growth. For the first time since
the green revolution, the food grain output growth has lost the
race against population increase.
The developing countries, particularly the economically
backward states of the third world are succumbing in a
vicious cycle of poverty, population explosion, and
environmental degradation.
If the explosion of the population remains uncontrolled and
pragmatic strategic actions are not taken immediately, how will
India foster its public health program, manage water
overall development programs with a holistic approach? What
will happen to India’s headway towards industrialization? It is
argued that for rapid industrial growth, the developing poor
countries need to cross three steps.
The first step includes the population being stabilized when
death rates are high. Second, because of the improvement of
public health engineering and medical science, the death rate
may be low, but the birth rate increases rapidly, so also the
entire population. Third, both birth and death rates decline, and
the country stabilizes its population, ensuring social security
poor developing countries including India are not in a position
to bring in a conductive environment for reaching the third
step. India has remained blindly static in the second step that
is repeatedly impeding our development programs.
18. What do you infer from the last paragraph of the
passage?
a) India needs to stabilize its birth and death rate, in order to
ensure the social security and economic freedom of the people
b) Instead of maintaining the population growth, India's entire
population is increasing rapidly with low death rate
c) India is unable to stabilize its population; a family planning
program would yield better results if it is reinforced with proper
education programs
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b)
(E) Both (b) and (c)
19. For the first time since the green revolution, the food
grain output growth has lost the race against population
increase.
What do you understand by the above highlighted statement?
a) The way population is growing food production is unable to
meet its demand
b) The population growth unable to beat the race against the
production of the food grains
c) Food Industry done its best to meet the demand of its
population
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b)
(E) Both (a) and (c)
20. In context to UN's estimation of population, which of
the following option is correct?
a) By 2050, the world's population will reach to 10 billion
people
b) The most populous reasons in the world are present in Asia
c) India will cross China, in terms of population, by the first
quarter of 2023
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b)
(E) Both (b) and (c)
21. What is/are the effect (s) of increased population
discussed in the passage?
3
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
a) Because of high population growth, people will be affected (E) Both (b) and (d)
by limited access to education and other social services
b) It will affect the implementation of state development 27. Which of the following options is appropriate for blank
programs that will increase the instances of crime (B)?
s c) Poor distribution of food resulting to hunger and death and a) Derisory b) Acute
r shortage of medical facilities c) Parlous d) Astute
i (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c)
a (C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b) (C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (c)
f
f (E) None of these (E) Both (b) and (d)
A
22. In context to the passage, which of the following 28. Which of the following options is appropriate for blank
t options is the synonym of ‘succumbing’? (C)?
n
e a) Withstanding b) Yielding a) Dawn b) Bounds
r c) Resisting d) Giving in c) Verge d) Brink
r (A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c) (A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c)
u
c (C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (c) (C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (c)
(E) Both (b) and (d) (E) Both (b) and (d)
y 29. Which of the following options is appropriate for blank
l
i 23. In the passage, a sentence is divided into five parts (D)?
a and jumbled into a random order. You have to rearrange the a) Accumulation b) Accretion
d jumbled parts of the sentence c) Stockpile d) Scattering
(A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c)
(A) TPRQS (B) RSPTQ (C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (c)
(C) RTQSP (D) QSRTP (E) Both (b) and (d)
(E) No arrangement required
30. Which of the following options is appropriate for blank
24. In the passage, a blank is given; you have to fill the (E)?
blank with the appropriate option (s), so that a meaningful a) Zilch b) Existing
paragraph can be formed c) Subsistence d) Live
a) The control of the population depends on people’s (A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c)
participation in the family planning program and spreading (C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (c)
s basic education meaningfully (E) Both (b) and (d)
r b) India and many other developing countries are lagging far
e Quantitative Aptitude
p behind so far as the implementation of effective family planning
a programs are concerned
P c) The unprecedented population pressure requires to be 31. The curved surface area of the sphere is 4/9th of the
controlled to strengthen the existing human resources and to area of the circle and the radius of the circle is 14 cm more
l than the radius of the sphere. Find the circumference of the
e improve lifestyles
d
d (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) circle?
ao (A) 132 cm (B) 154 cm
o
M (C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (c)
l (E) None of these (C) 176 cm (D) 88 cm
n (E) None of these
w 25. In context to the passage, which of the following
o 32. The ratio of the income of Ram to Sam is 8:5 and the
d options is antonym of ‘commendable’?
a) Reprehensible ratio of the expenditure to savings of Ram is 5:1. If the savings
s b) Sterling of Ram is doubled the actual savings , then the expenditure of
rs Ram becomes Rs.7200. Find the income of Sam?
ib c) Meritorious
ao d) Opprobrious (A) Rs.6200 (B) Rs.8700
fj (A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c) (C) Rs.6750 (D) Rs.7500
f (E) None of these
A (C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (d)
t (E) Both (a) and (c)
v
to 33. The following question contains two equations as I
n and II. You have to solve both equations and determine the
G
e Direction (26-30): A passage is given with some blanks, fill
r the blanks with appropriate words. relationship between them and give the answer as,
r I) x2 – 19x + 78 = 0 II) y2 + 4y – 60 = 0
u Discrimination on the basis of various social identities still (A) x > y
c (B) x ≥ y
remains high and sometimes takes new, more
x ___________ (A) but nevertheless serious forms. About one- (C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
i third of the world’s people are unable to meet their basic (D) x < y
s needs, and this number is much higher in places where the (E) x ≤ y
t environmental crisis and conflicts are more _________ (B),
s with millions on the _________ (C) of starvation. Conflict and 34. The following question contains two equations as I
a war are in fact the biggest threat to the concept of One Earth. and II. You have to solve both equations and determine the
l relationship between them and give the answer as,
The worst and most dangerous aspect of this threat relates to
the ___________ (D) of highly dangerous weapons, including I) x2 + 13x + 40 = 0 II) y3 = 343
weapons of mass destruction (nuclear weapons and others) (A) x > y
whose __________ (E) stocks can destroy most life forms (B) x ≥ y
several times over. (C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
(D) x < y
26. Which of the following options is appropriate for blank (E) x ≤ y
(A)?
a) Subtle b) Improvised 35. The following question contains two equations as I
c) Indistinct d) Crude and II. You have to solve both equations and determine the
(A) Both (a) and (b) (B) Both (b) and (c) relationship between them and give the answer as,
(C) Both (c) and (d) (D) Both (a) and (c) I) x2 – 22x + 112 = 0 II) y2 – y – 42 = 0
(A) x > y

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(B) x ≥ y 41. Following questions contain two statements as
(C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. statement I and statement II. You have to determine which
(D) x < y statement/s is/are necessary to answer the question and give
s (E) x ≤ y answer as,
r The ratio of the speed of train A to B is 10:7. Find the sum of
i
a Direction(36-40): Study the following information carefully the length of trains A and B together?
f and answer the questions. Statement I: Train A overtakes train B running at the speed of
f 21 m/sec in 30 seconds.
A
The given line graph shows the number of Kurtas Statement II: The length of train A is 30 m more than that of
t manufactured in four different months i.e. March, April, May train B and trains A crosses a pole in 5 seconds
n and June and also given the difference between the number of (A) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
e Kurtas and Shirts (Kurtas – Shirts) manufactured in four question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to
r
r different months. answer the question
u Note: The total number of dresses manufactured = The (B) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
c number of Kurtas manufactured + The number of Shirts question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to
y manufactured answer the question
l (C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
h is sufficient to answer the question
t
n (D) The data given in both statements I and II together are not
o sufficient to answer the question
M (E) The data given in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.

42. Following questions contain two statements as

statement I and statement II. You have to determine which
statement/s is/are necessary to answer the question and give
answer as,
Find the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to speed of
the stream?
Statement I: A boat covers 240 km downstream in 5 hours and
the speed of the stream is 12 km/hr.
Statement II: The boat covers a certain distance downstream
in 8 hours and the same boat covers the same distance
upstream in 16 hours.
(A) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
u question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to
sru 36. If the total number of Shirts manufactured in May and answer the question
rg July together is 90 more than the total number of dresses (B) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
i manufactured in April, then the number of Shirts manufactured
am question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to
fa in July is how much more than the number of Kurtas answer the question
fx manufactured in June? (C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
A (A) 70 (B) 50
E is sufficient to answer the question
t (C) 90 (D) 110 (D) The data given in both statements I and II together are not
n (E) None of these sufficient to answer the question
e (E) The data given in both statements I and II together are
r 37. Find the difference between the total number of
r necessary to answer the question.
u dresses manufactured in March and the number of Shirts
c manufactured in June? 43. Following questions contain two statements as
(A) 370 (B) 350 statement I and statement II. You have to determine which
y (C) 310 (D) 380
l statement/s is/are necessary to answer the question and give
i (E) None of these answer as,
a Find the ratio of the number of males to females in company X
d 38. Out of the total number of dresses manufactured in if the total number of employees in company Y is 1200.
May, 28.57% of the dress are unsold and the number of Shirts Statement I: The ratio of the total number of employees in
sold in May is 80 less than the number of Kurtas sold in that company X to Y is 6:5 and the ratio of the number of males in
month, then find the number of Shirts unsold in May? company X to Y is 8:5.
(A) 80 (B) 60 Statement II: The number of male employees in company Y is
q (C) 40 (D) 70 300 more than that of females.
c (E) None of these (A) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
m question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to
s 39. If the ratio of the number of Shirts manufactured in answer the question
r January to March is 7:4 and the number of Kurtas (B) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
i manufactured in January is 2/3rd of the number of Kurtas question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to
a manufactured in May, then find the total number of dresses
f answer the question
f manufactured in January? (C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
A (A) 410 (B) 530 is sufficient to answer the question
(C) 370 (D) 620 (D) The data given in both statements I and II together are not
t (E) None of these
n sufficient to answer the question
e (E) The data given in both statements I and II together are
r 40. The number of Shirts manufactured in April is what necessary to answer the question.
r percentage of the total number of Kurtas manufactured in
u
c March and April together? 44. Following questions contain two statements as
(A) 28% (B) 16% statement I and statement II. You have to determine which
(C) 45% (D) 31% statement/s is/are necessary to answer the question and give
(E) None of these answer as,

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
The average present age of A, B and C is 10 years. Find the (C) 260 (D) 309
present age of C? (E) 390
Statement I: The age of A 2 years ago is equal to the present
age of B and C is 3 years younger than D. Direction (51-55): Study the following information carefully
Statement II: The present age of A and C is 25% and 50% and answer the questions.
more than the present age of B.
(A) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the The given bar graph shows the average number of males and
question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to females watching movie in theatre X on five different days i.e.
t answer the question Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday and also
s (B) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given the number of males watching movie in theatre X on five
e question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to different days.
t answer the question
e (C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
n is sufficient to answer the question
i (D) The data given in both statements I and II together are not
l
n sufficient to answer the question
o (E) The data given in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
e
es
rr 45. Following questions contain two statements as
fi statement I and statement II. You have to determine which
a statement/s is/are necessary to answer the question and give
f answer as,
f
A Find the time taken by pipe Q alone to fill the tank?
Statement I: Pipes P, Q and S together can fill 1/3rd of the tank
t in 6 minutes.
n Statement II: Pipes P and Q together can fill half of the tank in
e
r 12 minutes and pipes Q and R together can fill the tank in 28.8
r minutes.
u (A) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
c
question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to
y answer the question
l (B) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
h 51. If the total number of persons watching movie in
t question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to
n answer the question theatre Y on Monday is 75% of the total number of persons
o (C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone watching movie in theatre X on Friday and the number of
M is sufficient to answer the question males watching movie theatre Y on Monday is 170 less than
(D) The data given in both statements I and II together are not that of theatre X on Monday, then find the number of females
sufficient to answer the question watching movie in theatre Y on Monday?
(E) The data given in both statements I and II together are (A) 220 (B) 140
necessary to answer the question. (C) 300 (D) 270
(E) None of these
d 46. Find out the wrong number in the following number
a series. 52. Find the ratio of the total number of males watching
o 853, 878, 905, 932, 959, 986 movie on Thursday and Friday together to the number of
l (A) 853 (B) 878 females watching movie on Wednesday?
n (A) 4:3 (B) 11:8
w (C) 905 (D) 959
o (E) 986 (C) 7:9 (D) 6:5
d (E) None of these
s 47. Find out the wrong number in the following number
ru series. 53. If the number of males and females watching movie
ir 800, 1200, 1800, 2700, 4500, 6075 on Sunday is 50% and 10% more than the number of males
au (A) 800 (B) 1200 watching movie on Tuesday, then find the total number of
fg persons watching movie on Sunday?
f (C) 1800 (D) 4500
A (E) 6075 (A) 510 (B) 780
m (C) 450 (D) 820
at
xn 48. Find out the wrong number in the following number (E) None of these
E
e series.
r 70, 82, 103, 134, 175, 226 54. The number of females watching movie on Thursday
r (A) 226 (B) 70 and Friday together is what percentage of the total number of
u persons watching movie on Monday?
c (C) 134 (D) 82
(E) 175 (A) 90% (B) 50%
x (C) 100% (D) 70%
i (E) None of these
s 49. Find out the wrong number in the following number
series.
t 28, 15, 16, 25, 51, 127.5 55. If the total number of persons watching movie on
s Saturday is equal to the number of males watching movie on
a (A) 15 (B) 25
l (C) 127.5 (D) 51 Monday and Wednesday together and the ratio of the number
(E) 16 of males to females watching movie on Saturday is 11:9, then
find the number of females watching movie on Saturday?
50. Find out the wrong number in the following number (A) 450 (B) 630
series. (C) 900 (D) 720
125, 126, 135, 260, 309, 390 (E) None of these
(A) 125 (B) 135
Direction (56-60): Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions.

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(E) None of these
The given table chart shows the number of wired mouse sold
by five different stores i.e. A, B, C, D and E and also given the 63. In a journey of D km, a bus travels 150 km at the
total number of mouse (wired and wireless mouse) sold by five speed of 50 km/hr, 200 km at the speed of 40 km/hr and the
different stores. remaining distance at the speed of 25 km/hr. If the average
speed of the bus is 37.5 km/hr, then find the value of D?
Stores The number The total number of (A) 540 (B) 720
of wired mouse sold (C) 450 (D) 480
t mouse sold (E) 600
s A 360 The number of wired
e mouse sold is 50% more 64. A box contains a mixture of brown and white sugar
t and the quantity of brown sugar is 60 kg more than that of
than that of wireless
e mouse sold white sugar. If 100 kg of brown sugar and 120 kg of white
n B 250 Three times the number sugar is added to the mixture, then the ratio of brown to white
i sugar becomes 6:5. Find the ratio of the initial quantity of
l of wired mouse sold
n C 160 The number of wireless brown to white sugar in the mixture?
o mouse sold is 60% of the (A) 2:1 (B) 9:8
total number of mouse (C) 5:2 (D) 7:4
e
e sold (E) None of these
r D 440 7/4th of the number of
f wired mouse sold 65. Jaya invested Rs.P in compound interest at the rate
E 300 The ratio of the number of 10% per annum for 2 years and received an amount of
s of wired to wireless Rs.8470. If she invested Rs.(P–1500) in simple interest at the
e mouse sold is 5:7 rate of 20% per annum for 3 years, then find the simple
i interest received by Jaya?
r (A) Rs.3300 (B) Rs.5400
e 56. If the total number of mouse sold by store F is 40%
s more than that of store C and the ratio of the number of (C) Rs.2700 (D) Rs.4500
wireless mouse sold by store C to F is 4:5, then find the (E) None of these
t
s number of wired mouse sold by store F?
e (A) 260 (B) 180 Reasoning Aptitude
t (C) 150 (D) 320
(E) None of these 66. Study the following information carefully and answer
e the below questions
n Six persons- A, B, C, D, E, and F are of different heights. A is
i 57. Out of the total number of wireless mouse
l manufactured by stores A and D, 20% and 25% of the mouse taller than C. D is taller than the one whose height is 175cm. B
n is taller than E who is shorter than D. D is not the tallest
are unsold. Find the difference between the total number of
so person. A is shorter than E. C is taller than the one whose
r wireless mouse manufactured by stores A and D?
height is 150cm. Neither A nor C’s height is 175cm
i (A) 180 (B) 140
a (C) 160 (D) 120 If the sum of the height of D and E is 352 cm and the sum of
f (E) None of these the height of B and D is 357 cm then what is the difference
f between the height of B and D?
A (A) 6cm (B) 5cm
58. Find the ratio of the total number of mouse sold by
t store A to the total number of mouse sold by store E? (C) 4cm (D) 2cm
n (E) 3cm
e (A) 3:2 (B) 9:4
r (C) 8:7 (D) 5:6
r (E) None of these 67. Study the following information carefully and answer
u the below questions
c Six persons- A, B, C, D, E, and F are of different heights. A is
59. If the number of wired and wireless mouse sold by
y store C increased by 37.5% and 25% respectively, then find taller than C. D is taller than the one whose height is 175cm. B
ld the total number of mouse sold by store C after the increase? is taller than E who is shorter than D. D is not the tallest
h
at person. A is shorter than E. C is taller than the one whose
(A) 380 (B) 640
o height is 150cm. Neither A nor C’s height is 175cm
n
lo (C) 520 (D) 440
n (E) None of these As many persons taller than E is the same as shorter than
M
w ____?
o 60. The total number of mouse sold by store D is what
d (A) F (B) C
percentage more than the number of wireless mouse sold by
s store B? (C) A (D) E
r (A) 48% more (B) 60% more (E) D
i
a (C) 72% more (D) 25% more
f (E) 54% more Direction(68-72): Study the following information carefully
f and answer the questions given below.
A 61. A person bought 8 mobiles for Rs.36000 and he also
Six schemes - PMJDY, PMKVY, PMVY, PMUY, PMGSY and
t spends Rs.X each for its transportation. If he sold 8 mobiles for
n Rs.45600, then he gets a profit of 20%. Find the value of X? PMMSY were launched either 12th or 17th of three different
e (A) 250 (B) 160 months - May, June and July of the same year, but not
r necessarily in the same order. Each scheme has different
r (C) 320 (D) 400
u (E) None of these number of beneficiaries’ viz. 15cr, 20cr, 25cr, 30cr, 36cr and
c 45cr.
62. A, B and C started a business with an investment of PMUY, which has 21cr more beneficiaries than PMKVY, was
x launched on an even-numbered date. Only two schemes were
i Rs.7200, Rs.6000 and Rs.12000 respectively. After 6 months,
s A and B invested Rs.1800 and Rs.2000 more but C withdraw launched between PMUY and the scheme which has 30cr
Rs.4000. At the end of the year, the total profit of the business beneficiaries. PMVY was not launched in the month which has
t an odd number of days. Both PMKVY and PMVY were
s is Rs.5020. Find the profit share of C?
a (A) Rs.1400 (B) Rs.2000 launched consecutively but not in the same month. The
l (C) Rs.3100 (D) Rs.2050 number of schemes launched before PMKVY is one more than

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
the number of schemes launched after PMMSY. PMJDY has 75. Study the following statements and then decide which
beneficiaries which is a perfect square. The scheme which has of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
the highest number of beneficiaries was launched in May. statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: I. Only a few cakes are bread.
68. Which of the following scheme was launched on May II. No bread is cream.
17th? III. All creams are ice.
q (A) PMMSY IV. Some ices are milk.
c (B) The scheme which was launched immediately before Conclusions: I. Some cakes are not cream.
m
PMGSY II. All milk can be bread.
s (C) The scheme which was launched in the same month as (A) Only conclusion I follows
r PMJDY (B) Only conclusion II follows
i (D) PMVY (C) Either conclusion I or II follows
a
f (E) The scheme which was launched immediately after PMUY (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
f (E) Both conclusions I and II follow
A 69. Which of the following is the number of beneficiaries
t of PMUY scheme? 76. Study the following statements and then decide which
n (A) 30cr (B) 45cr of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
e (C) 15cr (D) 36cr statements disregarding commonly known facts.
r
r (E) 25cr Statements: I. All bags are wool.
u II. Some bags are Silk.
c 70. How many schemes were launched after the scheme III. No silk is dress.
s which has 15cr beneficiaries? IV. Only a few dresses are costly.
r (A) Two Conclusions: I. Some wools are costly.
i
a (B) As many schemes launched between PMMSY and PMUY II. No costly is wool.
f (C) As many schemes launched before PMJDY (A) Only conclusion I follows
f (D) As many schemes launched between PMGSY and PMJDY (B) Only conclusion II follows
A (E) None (C) Either conclusion I or II follows
t (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
n 71. PMMSY was launched in which of the following (E) Both conclusions I and II follow
e month and date?
r
r (A) May 17 (B) June 12 77. If in the number ‘278524962187’, the position of every
u (C) July 17 (D) May 12 two digits are interchanged from left to right, then which of the
c (E) June 17 following digit is sixth from the right end in the number thus
y formed?
l
d 72. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are true with (A) 4 (B) 2
ah respect to the final arrangement? (C) 6 (D) 9
t
o (A) PMJDY scheme has 36cr beneficiaries (E) None of these
ln
o
n (B) PMGSY scheme was launched on May 12
M
w (C) PMUY scheme was launched immediately after PMMSY Direction(78-82): Study the following information carefully
o scheme and answer the given below.
d (D) No scheme was launched before PMUY scheme
s (E) PMKVY scheme has 25cr beneficiaries Eight persons H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting on a square
r table in such a way that four of them sit in the corners of the
i 73. Study the following statements and then decide which table facing the centre while the other four sit in the middle of
a of the given conclusions logically follows from the given the sides of the table facing away from the centre, but not
f
f statements disregarding commonly known facts. necessarily in the same order.
A O sits second to the right of H. Two persons sit between J and
Statements: I. Only a few chemicals are toxic. M where none of them sits adjacent to H. K sits immediate
t
n II. All toxics are radiation. right of M. The number of persons sitting between K and J is
e III. Some radiations are chronic. the same as the number of persons sitting between L and I. N
r IV. No chronic is severe. doesn’t sit adjacent to L. I doesn’t face the centre.
r Conclusions: I. Some radiations are not severe.
u
c II. No chemical being chronic is a possibility. 78. Who among the following person sits second to the
(A) Only conclusion I follows left of N?
x (B) Only conclusion II follows (A) O (B) K
i
s (C) Either conclusion I or II follows (C) M (D) L
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (E) None of these
t (E) Both conclusions I and II follow
s
a 79. What is the position of M with respect to J?
l 74. Study the following statements and then decide which (A) Second to the right (B) Third to the left
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given (C) Immediate right (D) Fourth to the left
statements disregarding commonly known facts. (E) Fourth to the right
Statements: I. All electrics are mechanical.
II. Some mechanicals are current. 80. If K and H are interchanged in their position, then who
III. No current is magnetic. among the following person sits second to the right of K?
IV. Only a few magnetic are kinetic. (A) The one who sits opposite to N
Conclusions: I. Some electrics are current. (B) The one who sits second to the right of I
II. No mechanical is kinetic. (C) M
(A) Only conclusion I follows (D) O
(B) Only conclusion II follows (E) None of these
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 81. If all the persons are made to sit in the alphabetical
(E) Both conclusions I and II follow order in a clockwise direction with respect to H, then how many
persons remain unchanged in their position (excluding H)?
(A) One (B) Two

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(C) Three (D) More than three (A) As many persons live between P and R
(E) No one (B) One
(C) As many persons live between V and P
82. How many persons sit between N and K when (D) Four
counted from the left of N? (E) None of these
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) More than three 89. If all persons are arranged in alphabetical order from
(E) None top to bottom, then how many persons remain unchanged in
their positions?
Direction(83-86): Study the following information carefully (A) One (B) Two
and answer the questions given below. (C) None (D) Three
(E) More than three
In a certain code language,
“Memorandum of understanding concern” is coded as “krj pfn 90. Who among the following person lives three floors
s tod bto” below T?
b
o “System understanding delivers knowledge” is coded as “sot (A) The one who lives immediately above R
jq otb itb pfn” (B) W
ct “Educational knowledge studies concern” is coded as “dju tod (C) V
m sot cjy” (D) The one who lives immediately below V
v
o
sG “Online delivers studies registered” is coded as “gku itb vrh (E) None of these
r dju”
i 91. As many floors above U is same as below ____?
a 83. What is the code for the word “Educational” in the (A) V
f
f given code language? (B) The one who lives two floors above Q
A (A) tod (B) dju (C) W
(C) cjy (D) sot (D) The one who lives immediately above P
t (E) None of these (E) None of these
n
e
r 84. If the code for the phrase “statistics online data” is 92. On which of the following floor does S live?
r “ode nsf vrh”, then what is the code for the word “registered” in (A) Fifth (B) First
u
c the given code language? (C) Eighth (D) Seventh
(A) gku (B) itb (E) Fourth
(C) dju (D) vrh
s (E) None of these Direction(93-95): Study the following information carefully
r and answer the questions given below.
i
a 85. Which of the following phrase denotes the code “pfn
f otb” in the given code language? A family with three generations consists of eight members and
f (A) Knowledge system three married couples. Q is the sister-in-law of S, who is the
A
(B) Concern delivers only daughter of P. J is the brother-in-law of Q, who is the
t (C) Understanding delivers mother of R. Neither L nor Q has siblings. L is the daughter-in-
n (D) System understanding law of V, who is the mother of I. J has a brother. L is not the
e
r (E) None of these spouse of I. Both J and R are of the same gender. No single
r parent has a child. P has only three children.
u 86. What is the code for the phrase “Studies of” in the
c given code language? 93. How is J related to R?
y (A) krj dju (B) itb krj (A) Mother (B) Father
l (C) dju bto (D) Either (A) or (C) (C) Aunty (D) Can’t be determined
i (E) Either (A) or (B) (E) Uncle
a
d
87. If all the vowels in the word ‘IBPSGUIDE' are written 94. Which of the following statement is true?
first followed by the consonants as per the English alphabetical (A) J is the husband of L
order, then how many letters are there between the (B) I is the mother of S’s nephew
fourth letter from the right end and third letter from the left end (C) S is the brother of I
as per the English alphabetical order in the word thus formed? (D) P is the mother of Q
(A) Four (B) Five (E) All are true
(C) Three (D) Six
t (E) None of these 95. If A is the son of L, then how is S related to A?
s (A) Father in law (B) Aunt
e Direction(88-92): Study the following information carefully (C) Brother (D) Sister
t and answer the questions given below: (E) Uncle
e
n Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are living in an eight- Direction(96-100): Study the following information
i storey building but not necessarily in the same order. The carefully and answer the below questions.
l
n lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and the floor immediately
o above it is numbered as 2 and so on. Not more than one A certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row facing
person lives on the same floor. towards north. M sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons
e
e P lives three floors above R, who lives on a prime numbered sit between O and R. Four persons sit between R and G.G sits
r floor. Only three persons live between P and V. T lives two to the right of O. The number of persons sitting between M and
f floors above V. As many floors below T is same as above W. U R is two more than the number of persons sitting between T
lives above W but does not live immediately above. The and M. More than three persons sit between T and R.N sits
number of persons living between U and Q is one more than third to the left of T and sits at one of the ends. As many
the number of persons living between R and S. S lives above persons sit between T and M is same as between G and V.U
Q. sits second to the left of V. As many persons sit to the left of N
as to the right of V.
88. How many persons live between T and S?

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
96. How many persons are sitting in a linear row?
(A) 25 (B) 26 99. Who among the following person sits fourth to the
(C) 24 (D) 23 right of R?
(E) 27 (A) The one who sits second to the left of V
(B) T
97. What is the position of N with respect to M? (C) The one who sits third to the right of N
(A) Ninth to the right (B) Eighth to the right (D) O
(C) Ninth to the left (D) Eighth to the left (E) Unknown person
(E) Tenth to the left

98. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as 100. Who among the following persons sits to the right of
per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the O?
t one that doesn't belong to that group I. N II. T
s (A) The one who sits fifth to the right of T III. R IV. U
e (B) O (A) Only I and II (B) Only III and IV
T
(C) V (C) Only I and III (D) Only II and IV
e (D) R (E) All I, II, III and IV
n (E) The one who sits third to the left of U
iq
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

English Language 13. Answer: D

‘He’ will be replaced by ‘they’; the pronoun is used for the noun
1. Answer: B ‘students’ which is plural, so the pronoun will be used
‘Speculators’ means – investor or traded who purchase assets according to its noun. So, ‘he’ is incorrect here
for short period of time, it doesn’t support the context of the 14. Answer: C
sentence, ‘spectators’ is the correct word, which means – The context of the sentence says that the model dressed like a
people who watch a show, game or other events worm, so we can say that her costume would be shocking or
2. Answer: A horrible
t ‘Flagging’ will be changed to ‘flagged’; the structure of the Option (A) – ‘valorous’ doesn’t make any sense here, the
s sentence is in past tense, so the verb will be used according to context of the sentence is not talking about courage to face
e the tense danger, but its talks about the quality of the costume. So, the
t ‘Flagging’ – mark for attention option is eliminated
k ‘Shunning’ – ignore or reject ‘Valorous’ – showing great courage in the face of danger (like
c ‘Owing to’ – because of in battle)
o 3. Answer: D Option (B) – ‘circumspect’ doesn’t support the context of the
m
‘Founded’ will be changed to ‘found’ sentence; the context of the sentence is not talking about
e ‘Found’ means – establish or originate, it doesn’t support the vigilance or attentiveness. So, the option is eliminated
n context of the sentence ‘Circumspect’ – wary and unwilling to take risks
i
l (Found (V1) – founded (V2) – founded (V3)) Option (D) – ‘downbeat’ is opposite to the context of the
n ‘Find’ is the correct word, which means – having being sentence, from the context of the sentence we understand that
o discovered by chance her dress would not be easy-going, because she dressed like
d (Find (V1) – found (V2) – found (V3)) a worm. So, the option is eliminated
a ‘Mobility’ – the ability to move or be moved freely or easily ‘Downbeat’ – relaxed; easy-going
o 4. Answer: D Option (C) – ‘outrageous’ supports the context of the sentence.
l
n ‘Congregation’ means – a group of people assemble for So, this is the correct option
w religious worship, it doesn’t support the context of the ‘Outrageous’ – shockingly bad or monstrous
o sentence, ‘congestion’ is the correct word, which means – 15. Answer: A
d overcrowding, severe traffic jam The context of the sentence says that India's colonial history is
s ‘Discernible’ – able to be perceived by sense (such as sight or filled with the examples where state used weapons to
rs smell) dominate the people
ib 5. Answer: D Option (B) - 'abandoned' is opposite to the context of the
ao
fj ‘Global south in refurbishment’ is incorrect; it should be ‘global sentence, the context of the sentence is not saying that the
f South in refurbishing’, ‘refurbishment’ is a noun and we need a examples of India's colonial history is neglected, but it is filled
A verb to make the sentence grammatically correct. So, with the examples. So, the option is eliminated
t
v
to ‘refurbishing’ is the correct word 'Abandoned' – no longer used or occupied
n All the other highlighted parts of the sentence are correct. Options (C) and (D) - 'pack' and 'overload' both are
eG Hence, no improvement is required there grammatically incorrect. The blank will be filled by an adjective
r 6. Answer: B or past participle. Both the words are verb. So, both the
r
u The structure of the sentence is in present perfect passive options are eliminated
c voice, the correct form is – (Has/have + been + past participle). 'Pack' – filled by a large no. of things
So, ‘has been observed’ is the correct form 'Overload' – give excessive information of something
x
i All the other highlighted parts of the sentence are correct. Option (A) - 'replete' supports the context of the sentence. So,
s Hence, no improvement is required there this is the correct option
7. Answer: C 'Replete' – filled or well supplied with something
t The structure of the sentence is in future tense, to make the 16. Answer: B
s
a structure of the sentence balanced, after ‘which’, ‘will’ will be The context of the sentence says that the responsibility of
l used. So, the correct form is ‘which will put India’ ensuring rights and liberties of the people doesn't lie alone with
All the other highlighted parts of the sentence are correct. the courts.
Hence, no improvement is required there Option (A) - 'aid' doesn't make any sense here. The context of
8. Answer: B the sentence is not talking about support or assistance. So, the
‘Interrelated’ is a verb, and we need an adverb to qualify the option is eliminated
verb. So, ‘close’ will be changed to ‘closely’. 'Aid' – help or support; assistance
All the other highlighted parts of the sentence are correct. Option (C) - 'rationalize' doesn't support the context of the
Hence, no improvement is required there sentence. The context of the sentence talks about the
9. Answer: D responsibility to ensure that rights and liberties of the people
The subject of the verb ‘begin’ is ‘capacity’, which is singular, should not be obstructed, doesn't lie only with courts. So, the
so the verb will be used according to its subject. So, ‘begins’ is option is eliminated
the correct word 'Rationalize' – attempt to explain or justify with logical reasons
All the other highlighted parts of the sentence are correct. Option (D) - 'embroil' doesn't support the context of the
s Hence, no improvement is required there sentence. The context of the sentence is not talking about any
r 10. Answer: D kind of conflict. So, the option is eliminated
i ‘Strange’ will be replaced by ‘strangely’, ‘dress’ is a verb here, 'Embroil' – involve deeply in argument or conflict
a and we need an adverb to qualify a verb. So, ‘strange’ is Option (B) – ‘impede’ supports the context of the sentence. So,
f
f incorrect here this is the correct option
A 11. Answer: D ‘Impede’ – delay or prevent (something or someone) by
‘Has’ will be replaced by ‘have’, the subject of the verb is obstructing them
t
n ‘economic slowdown’ and ‘a steady decline’, which is plural, 17. Answer: D
e so, the verb will be used according to its subject. So, ‘has’ is The context of the sentence says that if journalists are not
r incorrect here allowed to ask difficult questions the will appear as fearful law
r 12. Answer: C interns rather than interrogators
u
c ‘Of’ will be replaced by ‘for’, ‘Cause for’ signifies “a result or Options (A) and (C) – ‘intrepid’ and ‘doughty’ both are opposite
outcome of something, whereas ‘Cause of’ signifies “a source to the context of the sentence. The context of the sentence
y of something like cause of accident or deforestation etc.” talks about the appearance of fearful journalist. So, both the
l
i ‘Cause for’ supports the context of the sentence. So, ‘of’ is options are eliminated
a incorrect here ‘Intrepid’ – fearless; adventurous
d

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
‘Doughty’ – brave and persistent
Option (B) – ‘Decrepit’ doesn’t make any sense here. The
context of the sentence is not talking about weakness. So, the
option is eliminated
‘Decrepit’ – (of a person) elderly or infirm
Option (D) – ‘awestruck’ supports the context of the sentence.
q So, this is the correct option
c ‘Awestruck’ – filled with awe (feeling of respect, mixed with
m
fear)
s 18. Answer: B
r The context of the paragraph says that there are three steps to
i which developing countries need to cross
a
f Step one - stabilize the population when death rates are high
f Step two - because of good medical health facilities, death rate
A is low but birth rate is increasing
t Step three - when the birth and death rate are low, that time
n the country stabilize its population
e Unfortunately, India is remained at second step since a long
r
r time
u Option (a) - the option explains what India needs to do; an
c inference cannot be a suggestion. So, the option is eliminated
s Option (c) - the option talks about a program to control
r population growth, which is not mentioned in the paragraph
i
a and we cannot assume the information ourselves. So, the
f option is eliminated
f Option (b) - we can infer this from the paragraph, because it is
A mentioned in the paragraph that India is unable to maintain its
t population growth. So, this is the correct option
n 19. Answer: A
e The context of this sentence says that for the first time, the rate
r
r from which population is growing the food industry is losing its
u race.
c Option (b) - it is opposite to the context of the sentence, it is
y food Industry which is losing the race, not the population
l growth. So, the option is eliminated
h Option (c) - it doesn't support the context of the sentence, the
t highlight sentence is comparing food production with
n
o population growth, but the given option simply talks about food
M production. So, the option is eliminated
Option (a) - it supports the context of the sentence. So, this is
the correct option
20. Answer: D
Option (c) - it states "by the first quarter", which is out of
context. So, the option is eliminated (According to the UN’s
estimate, India would surpass China as the world’s most
populous country during 2023)
Option (a) - it is mentioned in the passage (The world
population is also increasing with incredible speed, about 100
s million a year and it is estimated that mother earth would
r embrace close to ten billion people by 2050)
i Option (b) - it is mentioned in the passage (the two most
a populous regions were both in Asia ~ Eastern and South-
f
f Eastern Asia with 2.3 billion people and Central and Southern
A Asia with 2.1 billion)
t 21. Answer: A
n Options (b) and (c) - both the options are out of context, these
e are the obvious effects of increased population but these are
r not discussed in the passage. So, both the options are
r
u eliminated
c Option (a) - it is mentioned in the passage (If the explosion of
the population remains uncontrolled and pragmatic strategic
actions are not taken immediately, how will India foster its
t public health program, manage water resources, universalise
s primary education, and implement overall development
e programs with a holistic approach?)
t 22. Answer: E
e Meaning of ‘succumbing’ – fail to resist pressure or some other
n negative force
i Options (b) and (d) are its synonym
l ‘Yielding’ – give away to pressure or argument
n
o ‘Giving in’ – cease fighting; admit defeat
Meaning of other words ‘withstanding’ – remain undamaged or
e unaffected
e
r ‘Resisting’ – withstand the action or effect of something
f 23. Answer: C
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The correct sentence is - Food production should have
increased to 165 million tons to provide an individual
consumption of 2500 calories
24. Answer: B
The very next statement after the blank says that India will
cross China, in terms of population, if not controlled and that is
obvious. So, we can say that India is losing its grip to control
population, and the bank will be filled by a statement which
talks about the losing side of India.
Options (a) and (c) - both the options talk about the ways to
control the population, which do not support the context of the
blank. So, both the options are eliminated
Option (b) - it says that India is lagging behind to implement an
effective family planning program, because of that the
population of India is increasing. It supports the context of the
blank, so this is the correct option
25. Answer: D
Meaning of ‘commendable’ – deserving praise
Options (a) and (d) are its opposite
‘Reprehensible’ – deserving censure or condemnation
‘Opprobrious’ – expressing scorn or criticism
Meaning of other words ‘Sterling’ – (a person’ work or
qualities) excellent or valuable
‘Meritorious’ – deserving reward or praise
26. Answer: D
The context of the sentence talks about the forms of
discrimination, which look precise, and has serious effects
Options (a) and (c) support the context of the sentence.
'Subtle' – delicate or precise as to be difficult to analyze or
describe
'Indistinct' – not clear or sharply defined
Option (b) - 'improvised' doesn't make any sense here. The
context of this sentence is not talking about spontaneity of
discrimination. So, the option is eliminated
'Improvised' – create or perform spontaneously
Option (d) - 'crude' doesn't support the context of the blank.
The context of the sentence is not talking about natural state of
anything. So, the option is eliminated
'Crude' – in a natural or raw state
27. Answer: B
The context of the sentence says that people are unable to
meet their basic needs, where the environmental conflicts and
crisis are more severe.
Options (b) and (c) support the context of the sentence
'Acute' – present or experienced to a severe or intense degree
'Parlous' – full or danger or uncertainty
Option (a) - 'derisory' is opposite to the context of the
sentence. The context of the sentence is not saying that
environmental crisis and conflicts are minimal. So, the option is
eliminated
'Derisory' – ridiculously small or inadequate
Option (d) - 'astute' doesn't make any sense here. The context
of the sentence is not talking about intelligence of any person.
So, the option is eliminated
'Astute' – an ability to understand and notice things clearly
28. Answer: C
The context of the sentence says that because of the
environmental crisis millions of people are on the margin to
face starvation.
Options (b) and (d) support the context of the sentence
'Verge' – an extreme limit beyond which something specified
will happen
'Brink' – a point at which something unwelcome happen
Option (a) - 'dawn' doesn't make any sense here. The context
of the blank is not talking about the beginning of anything. So,
the option is eliminated
'Dawn' – the beginning of a phenomenon or period of time
Option (b) - 'bounds' doesn't support the context of the
sentence. The context of the sentence is not talking about leap
or jump in anything. So, the option is eliminated
29. Answer: A
The context of the sentence point out that accumulation
nuclear weapons are the worst and most dangerous threat.
Options (a) and (b) support the context of the sentence
12
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
'Accumulation' – the acquisition or gradual gathering of y2 – 7y + 6y – 42 = 0
something y(y – 7) + 6(y – 7) = 0
'Accretion' – growth or increase by the gradual accumulation y = + 7, - 6
Option (c) - 'stockpile' is grammatically incorrect, we need a Hence, x > y
noun to fill the blank, and ‘stockpile’ is a verb. 'Stockpiling' is Direction (36-40): March:
the correct word. So, the option is eliminated The number of Shirts manufactured = 310 – 110
'Stockpile' – accumulate a large stock = 200
Option (d) - 'scattering' is opposite to the context of the The total number of dress manufactured = 310 + 200 = 510
sentence. The context of the sentence talked about the April:
gathering of nuclear weapons, not scattering of it. So the The number of Shirts manufactured = 190 – 50 = 140
option is eliminated The total number of dress manufactured = 190 + 140 = 330
'Scattering' – a small, dispersed amount of something May:
30. Answer: E The number of Shirts manufactured = 270 – 120 = 150
The context of the sentence says that the existence of nuclear The total number of dress manufactured = 270 + 150 = 420
u weapons can destroy most life forms. June:
r
u Options (b) and (d) support the context of the sentence The number of Shirts manufactured = 200 – 70 = 130
gq ‘Existing’ – in existence or operation at the current time The total number of dress manufactured = 200 + 130 = 330
cm ‘Live’ – of current or continuing importance Months The total The The
m Option (a) – ‘zilch’ is opposite to the context of the sentence, number of number of number of
a
xs the context of the sentence is not saying that there no nuclear dresses Kurtas Shirts
E
r weapon, it fact, it talks about the existence of nuclear manufactu manufactu manufactur
i weapons. So, the option is eliminated red red ed
a ‘Zilch’ – not any; nothing
f March 510 310 200
f Option (c) – ‘subsistence’ is both grammatically and
A contextually incorrect, we need an adjective to fill the blank, April 330 190 140
‘subsistence’ is noun. So, the option is eliminated May 420 270 150
t ‘Subsistence’ – the state of remaining in force or effect
n June 330 200 130
e
r Quantitative Aptitude 36. Answer: A
r The total number of Shirts manufactured in May and July
u 31. Answer: A
c together = 330 + 90 = 420
Let the radius of the sphere = r The number of Shirts manufactured in July
The radius of the circle = r + 14 = 420 – 150 = 270
(22/7 × (r + 14)2)/(4 × 22/7 × r2) = 9/4 Required difference = 270 – 200 = 70
(r + 14)2 = 9 × r2 37. Answer: D
(r + 14)2 = (3r)2 Required difference = 510 – 130 = 380
3r – r = 14 38. Answer: C
r = 14/2 The total number of dress sold in May = 420 × (100 –
s r=7
r 28.57)/100 = 420 × 71.42/100 = 420 × 5/7 = 300
i The radius of the circle = 7 + 14 = 21 cm The number of Shirts sold in May = (300 – 80)/2
a The circumference of the circle = 2 × 22/7 × 21 = 132 cm = 220/2 = 110
f 32. Answer: C
f The number of Shirts unsold in May = 150 – 110 = 40
A Let the actual expenditure of Ram = 5x 39. Answer: B
And the actual savings of Ram = 1x The number of Shirts manufactured in January
t 5x+1x – (1x × 2) = 7200 = 200 × 7/4 = 350
n 6x – 2x = 7200
e The number of Kurtas manufactured in January
r 4x = 7200 = 270 × 2/3 = 180
r x = 1800 The total number of dress manufactured in January
u The income of Ram = (5 + 1) × 1800 = 6 × 1800
c = 350 + 180 = 530
= Rs.10800 40. Answer: A
The income of Sam = 10800 × 5/8 = Rs.6750 The total number of Kurtas manufactured in March and April
33. Answer: B together = 310 + 190 = 500
t x2 – 19x + 78 = 0 Required percentage = 140/500 × 100 = 28%
s x2 – 13x – 6x + 78 = 0
e 41. Answer: A
t x(x – 13) – 6(x – 13) = 0 Let the speed of train A = 10x
x = + 13, + 6 And the speed of train B = 7x
e y2 + 4y – 60 = 0
n From statement I,
i y2 + 10y – 6y – 60 = 0 The speed of train A = 21 × 10x/7x = 30 m/sec
l y(y + 10) – 6(y + 10) = 0 The sum of the length of trains A and B = (30 – 21) × 30 = 9 ×
n y = - 10, + 6
o 30 = 270 m
Hence, x ≥ y So, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
e 34. Answer: D From statement II,
e x2 + 13x + 40 = 0 The length of train B = a
r x2 + 8x + 5x + 40 = 0
f The length of train A = a + 30
x(x + 8) + 5(x + 8) = 0 So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
x = - 8, - 5 42. Answer: C
y3 = 343 From statement I,
y3 = 73 The downstream speed of the boat = 240/5 = 48 km/hr
y=7 The speed of the boat in still water = 48 – 12 = 36 km/hr
Hence, x < y The speed of the boat in still water to speed of the stream =
35. Answer: A 36:12 = 3:1
x2 – 22x + 112 = 0 So, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
x2 – 14x – 8x + 112 = 0 From statement II,
x(x – 14) – 8(x – 14) = 0 The ratio of the downstream to the upstream speed of the boat
x = + 14, + 8 = 16:8 = 2:1
y2 – y – 42 = 0

www.todaysprint.com 13
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to speed of the 25 × 2 + 1 = 51
stream = (2x + 1x)/2 : (2x – 1x)/2 = 3x:1x = 3:1 51 × 2.5 + 1 = 128.5
So, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. 50. Answer: E
43. Answer: E 125 + 13 = 126
From statement I, 126 + 32 = 135
The ratio of the total number of employees in company X to Y 135 + 53 = 260
= 6:5 260 + 72 = 309
The ratio of the number of males in company X to Y 309 + 93 = 1038
= 8:5 Direction (51-55): Monday:
So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. The total number of persons watching movie = 450 × 2 = 900
From statement II, The number of females watching movie = 900 – 550 = 350
The number of males in company Y = (1200 + 300)/2 = 1500/2 Tuesday:
= 750 The total number of persons watching movie = 225 × 2 = 450
The number of females in company Y = 1200 – 750 The number of females watching movie = 450 – 300 = 150
s = 450 Wednesday:
b
o So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. The total number of persons watching movie = 475 × 2 = 950
jq From I and II, The number of females watching movie = 950 – 450 = 500
ct The number of males in company X = 750 × 8/5 Thursday:
m = 1200 The total number of persons watching movie = 350 × 2 = 700
v
o
sG The total number of employees in company X The number of females watching movie = 700 – 275 = 425
r = 1200 × 6/5 = 1440 Friday:
i The number of females in company X The total number of persons watching movie = 400 × 2 = 800
a = 1440 – 1200 = 240 The number of females watching movie = 800 – 325 = 475
f
f The ratio of the number of males to females in company X = Days The total The The
A 1200:240 = 5:1 number of number of number of
Both statements are necessary to answer the question. persons males females
t 44. Answer: B
n watching watching watching
e From statement I, movie movie movie
r Let the present age of B = a Monday 900 550 350
r The present age of A = a + 2
u Tuesday 450 300 150
c The present age of C = b
Wednesd 950 450 500
So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
ay
From statement II,
Thursday 700 275 425
The ratio of the present age of A, B and C
= 125:100:150 = 5:4:6 Friday 800 325 475
5x + 4x + 6x = 10 × 3 51. Answer: A
15x = 30 The total number of persons watching movie in theatre Y on
s x=2 Monday = 800 × 75/100 = 600
r The present age of C = 6 × 2 = 12 years The number of males watching movie in theatre Y on Monday
i So, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. = 550 – 170 = 380
a 45. Answer: D The number of females watching movie in theater Y on
f
f From statement I, Monday = 600 – 380 = 220
A Pipes P, Q and S together fill the whole tank = 6 × 3/1 = 18 52. Answer: D
minutes The total number of males watching movie on Thursday and
t So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Friday together = 275 + 325 = 600
n
e From statement II, Required ratio = 600:500 = 6:5
r Pipes P and Q together fill the whole tank = 12 × 2 = 24 53. Answer: B
r minutes The number of males watching movie on Sunday = 300 ×
u
c Pipes Q and R together fill the whole tank = 28.8 minutes 150/100 = 450
So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. The number of females watching movie on Sunday = 300 ×
By combining I and II we can find only the time taken by pipe S 110/100 = 330
alone to fill the tank. Required total = 450 + 330 = 780
So, 54. Answer: C
The data given in both statements I and II together are not The number of females watching movie on Thursday and
sufficient to answer the question Friday together = 425 + 475 = 900
s 46. Answer: A Required percentage = 900/900 × 100 = 100%
r
e 851 + 27 = 878 55. Answer: A
p 878 + 27 = 905 The total number of persons watching movie on Saturday =
a 905 + 27 = 932 550 + 450 = 1000
P 932 + 27 = 959 The number of females watching movie on Saturday = 1000 ×
l 959 + 27 = 986 9/(11 + 9) = 1000 × 9/20 = 450
e 47. Answer: D Direction(56-60): Store: A
d 800 × 1.5 = 1200 The ratio of the number of wired to wireless mouse sold =
o
M 1200 × 1.5 = 1800 150:100 = 3:2
1800 × 1.5 = 2700 The total number of mouse sold = 360 × (3 + 2)/3
2700 × 1.5 = 4050 = 120 × 5 = 600
4050 × 1.5 = 6075 The number of wireless mouse sold = 600 – 360
48. Answer: B = 240
71 82 103 134 175 226 Store: B
+11 +21 +31 + 41 + 51 The total number of mouse sold = 250 × 3 = 750
+10 +10 +10 +10 The number of wireless mouse sold = 750 – 250
49. Answer: C = 500
28 × 0.5 + 1 = 15 Store: C
15 × 1 + 1 = 16 The total number of mouse sold = 160 × 100/(100 – 60) = 160
16 × 1.5 + 1 = 25 × 100/40 = 400

www.todaysprint.com 14
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
The number of wireless mouse sold = 400 – 160 x = 80
= 240 The initial quantity of white sugar = 80 kg
Store: D The initial quantity of brown sugar = 80 + 60 = 140 kg
The total number of mouse sold = 440 × 7/4 = 770 Required ratio = 140:80 = 7:4
The number of wireless mouse sold = 770 – 440 65. Answer: A
= 330 P × (1 + 10/100)2 = 8470
q Store: E P = 8470 × 100/110 × 100/110
c The total number of mouse sold = 300 × (5 + 7)/5 P = 7000
m
= 300 × 12/5 = 720 The simple interest received by Jaya = (7000 – 1500) × 20 ×
s The number of wireless mouse sold = 720 – 300 3/100 = 5500 × 20 × 3/100 = Rs.3300
r = 420
i Reasoning Aptitude
a Stores The total The The
f number of number of number of
f mouse wired wireless 66. Answer: E
A sold mouse mouse B > D > E(175cm) > A > C > F(150cm)
t sold sold D+E=352
n
e
A 600 360 240 D=352-175=177
B 750 250 500
r B+D=357
r C 400 160 240
u B=357-177=180
c D 770 440 330
B-D=180-177=3
s E 720 300 420
r 67. Answer: C
i 56. Answer: A B > D > E(175cm) > A > C > F(150cm)
a The total number of mouse sold by store F = 400 × 140/100 = Direction(68-72):
f 560 Final arrangement.
f The number of wireless mouse sold by store F = 240 × 5/4 =
A 300
Month Date Scheme Beneficiary
May 12 PMUY 36cr
t The number of wired mouse sold by store F = 560 – 300 = 260
n May 17 PMGSY 45cr
57. Answer: B
e The total number of wireless mouse manufactured by store A = June 12 PMMSY 20cr
r June 17 PMVY 30cr
r 240 × 100/(100 – 80) = 240 × 100/80 = 300
u The total number of wireless mouse manufactured by store D = July 12 PMKVY 15cr
c 330 × 100/(100 – 25) = 330 × 100/75 = 440 July 17 PMJDY 25cr
Required difference = 440 – 300 = 140 68. Answer: E
y
l 58. Answer: D The scheme which was launched immediately after PMUY
h Required ratio = 600:720 = 5:6 69. Answer: D
t 59. Answer: C 36cr
n 70. Answer: B
o The total number of mouse sold by store C after the increase =
M 160 × 137.5/100 + 240 × 125/100 = 160 × 11/8 + 240 × 5/4 = As many schemes launched between PMMSY and PMUY
220 + 300 = 520 71. Answer: B
60. Answer: E June 12
Required percentage = (770 – 500)/500 × 100 = 270/5 = 54% 72. Answer: D
more No scheme was launched before PMUY scheme
61. Answer: A 73. Answer: E
The selling price of each mobile = 45600/8 = Rs.5700
X = 5700 × 100/120 – 36000/8
X = 4750 – 4500
X = 250
t
s 62. Answer: B
e The ratio of the profit share of A, B and C = (7200 × 6 + (7200
t + 1800) × 6) : (6000 × 6 + (6000 + 2000) × 6) : (12000 × 6 + 74. Answer: D
k (12000 – 4000) × 6)
c = (7200 + 9000) : (6000 + 8000) : (12000 + 8000) =
o 162:140:200
m = 81:70:100
e The profit share of C = 5020 × 100/(81 + 70 + 100) = 5020 ×
n 100/251 = Rs.2000 75. Answer: E
i 63. Answer: C
l
n Let the remaining distance = a
o 37.5 = (150 + 200 + a)/(150/50 + 200/40 + a/25)
37.5 = (350 + a)/(3 + 5 + a/25)
37.5 × (8 + a/25) = 350 + a
300 + 37.5a/25 = 350 + a 76. Answer: C
37.5a/25 – a = 50
37.5a – 25a = 50 × 25
a = 50 × 25/12.5
a = 100
t D = 350 + 100
s D = 450 km
e 77. Answer: C
T 64. Answer: D 278524962187
Let the quantity of white sugar = x 725842691278
e And the quantity of brown sugar = x + 60 Hence, option C is correct.
n (x + 60 + 100)/(x + 120) = 6/5
i Direction(78-82): the final arrangement becomes
l (x + 160) × 5 = (x + 120) × 6
n 5x + 800 = 6x + 720
O

www.todaysprint.com 15
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

s
r
i
a
f
f 93. Answer: E
A
78. Answer: A Uncle
t O 94. Answer: A
n 79. Answer: B J is the husband of L
e 95. Answer: B
r Third to the left
r 80. Answer: D Aunt
u O Direction(96-100): Final Arrangement
c
81. Answer: E
y No one
l 82. Answer: D
i
a More than three
d Direction(83-86): From the given information, the following
was determined. 96. Answer: B
26
Word Code
97. Answer: D
Understanding pfn Eighth to the left
Knowledge sot 98. Answer: C
Concern tod V
99. Answer: E
Delivers itb
Unknown person
Studies dju 100. Answer: B
System otb Only III and IV
Educational cjy
Online/registered Gku/vrh
su
rr Memorandum/of krj//bto
iu 83. Answer: C
ag
f cjy
fm 84. Answer: A
A gku
a
txE 85. Answer: D
n System understanding
e 86. Answer: D
r Either (a) or (c)
r
u 87. Answer: A
c
y
ld
h
at
o Direction(88-92):
n
lo Final arrangement
n Floor Person
M
w
o 8 S
d 7 U
6 P
s 5 W
r
i 4 T
a 3 R
f
f 2 V
A 1 Q
88. Answer: C
t
n (Three)
e 89. Answer: B
r Two
r 90. Answer: D
u
c (Q)
91. Answer: A
x V
i
s 92. Answer: C
Eighth
t Direction(93-95):
s
a
l

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