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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BÌNH THUẬN

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TÀI LIỆU
ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT

MÔN TIẾNG ANH


(Lưu hành nội bộ)
TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. stops B. views C. talks D. waits
Question 2. A. take B. save C. date D. stand

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. language B. culture C. belief D. forest
Question 4. A. important B. negative C. dangerous D. favorite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Your father is working here, ______?
A. is he B. isn’t he
C. doesn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 6. The town ____________ by the earthquake one hundred years ago.
A. was destroying B. destroys
C. destroyed D. was destroyed
Question 7. We usually go to France ____ the summer, but we've decided to give it a miss this year.
A. in B. for
C. at D. on
Question 8. The harder the games are, _____________ the children get.
A. the most excited B. the excited
C. the more excited D. more excited
Question 9. He told me he wanted to buy a ____________ table.
A. round big dining B. big round dining
C. dining big round D. big dining round
Question 10. I saw your younger brother while I _______ in the park.
A. had walked B. walked
C. was walking D. am walking
Question 11. ___________ she's lived there for ten years, the villagers still treat her as an outsider.
A. In spite of B. Because
C. Although D. Because of
Question 12: ________ the project, we will have a big party.
A. After we have finished B. As soon as we finished
C. Before we finished D. Until we had finished
Question 13. ______ all traces of his crime, the criminal left the building.
A. Removed B. Having removed
C. To remove D. Being removed
Question 14: He is one of the most _________businessmen in my town.
A. succeed B. success
C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: When you have _______the form, keep the top part and send the other part to the bank.
A. gone off B. filled in
C. turned off D. taken after
Question 16: If you abuse your body now, you'll ____ the price when you're older.
A. pay B. have
C. make D. do
Question 17. The parents are trying to _______the generation gap with their children.
A. improve B. boost
C. bridge D. construct
Question 18. His parents used to lecture him on his table ______________.
A. lessons B. matters
C. problems D. manners
Question 19. If you could just put yourself in his __________ for a moment, perhaps you would
understand why it is not as easy as you seem to think.
A. hats B. glasses
C. shoes D. gloves

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Students should take every opportunity to widen their experience.
A. control B. combine
C. worsen D. broaden
Question 21. My boss is very reliable - if he says he'll do something, he'll do it.
A. enjoyable B. dependable
C. exhausted D. delighted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: You can enhance the flavour of most dishes with the careful use of herbs.
A. improve B. maximize
C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23. I'd love to buy this laptop for my son, but it costs an arm and a leg.
A. is cheap B. is expensive
C. is exciting D. is harmful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Lam and Hang are having a party at Hai’s house.
- Lam : “Would you like to have some more soup, Hang ?”
- Hang: “______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party
C. Yes, please D. No, thanks
Question 25. Peter and Mary are talking about online shopping.
- Peter: "Online shopping helps us save time.”
- Mary: “______.You can sit at home and buy anything you like."
A. I'm not sure about that B. You're wrong
C. I don’t quite agree D. That's true

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to
these radio waves might (26) _______ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific
evidence does not enable us to say with certainty that mobile phones are categorically (27) ______. On
the other hand, current research has not yet proved clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use
of mobile phones
(28)______ studies are now going on in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but
others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (29)______, these studies are
preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation. Until the scientific data is more
definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long periods of time. Don't think that
hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the opposite and they
may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (30) ______ bodies are still growing may
be at particular risk.
Question 26. A. bring B. lead C. cause D. produce
Question 27. A. risky B. healthy C. secure D. safe
Question 28. A. Many B. Much C. Every D. Each
Question 29. A. Therefore B. However C. While D. Though
Question 30. A. whose B. that C. who D. whom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
If you want to make your school green, think beyond your classrooms. Here are some suggestions
that are all easy and simple to follow, and can make a big difference in reducing your carbon footprint
and creating a sustainable community.
One of the places where both teachers and students often spend some of their time is the library. An
eco-friendly reading space is likely to create a favorable impression on library users, and bring some
significant educational benefits. For example, you can install energy-saving products like fans instead of
air-conditioners which consume a lot of energy. You can also use biodegradable dust cloths or old T-
shirts to clean the environment. In addition, to raise public awareness, allocate a clearly visible space on
the noticeboard for everyday green tips like ‘Let others reuse your book'.
Sporty students may prefer to spend more time in the swimming pool than in the library. Therefore,
keeping this place safe and green will also help to raise their environmental awareness. Remember that
chlorinated pool water may cause red eyes and itchy skin to some people if they spend much time in the
pool. An ideal alternative would be a salt-water pool, which can be naturally clean and economical. In
case warm water is required, think of solar heating to save the environment as one pool with gas or
electric heater may emit tons of carbon dioxide each year.
Finally, focus on the school gym, which is perhaps the most interactive and exciting place for all
school staff. Think of installing low-flow taps and showers to save gallons of water per minute and
energy-saving lights to cut the cost of electricity. Moreover, make sure that the airflow pathways are
clear and free of mould, mildew and other allergens.
Question 31. What do you think is the best title for the text?
A. How to make your community green
B. Ways to raise students' awareness of environment.
C. How to make your school green
D. How to make your family green
Question 32.Which energy-saving product is NOT mentioned in the text?
A. Fans B. Solar heating
C. Energy-efficient windows D. Low-flow taps and showers
Question 33. Where may sporty students prefer to spend more time?
A. in the swimming pool B. in the library
C. in the house D. in the classroom
Question 34. What can best replace the word “significant” in the second paragraph?
A. impressive B. dangerous
C. important D. difficult
Question 35. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. sporty students B. red eyes
C. allergens D. tips

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
One day, a middle-aged man asked a taxi to take him to see Chelsea play Arsenal at football. He told
the driver “Stamford Bridge”, the name of Chelsea's stadium, but he was delivered instead to the village
of Stamford Bridge in Yorkshire. Of course, he missed the match.
What had happened? With the Sat-Nav system in place, the driver in this story felt that he did not
need to know where he was going. He confidently outsourced the job of knowing this information to the
Sat-Nav. Using an Internet search engine takes a broadband user less than a second. And with
smartphones at hand, people will be online almost all of the time.
The same could be true of university education. Today, the average student seems not to value
general knowledge. If asked a factual question, they will usually click on a search engine without a
second thought. Actually knowing the fact and committing it to memory does not seem to be an issue, it's
the ease with which we can look it up.
However, general knowledge has never been something that you acquire formally. Instead, we pick it
up from all sorts of sources as we go along, often absorbing facts without realising. The question
remains, then: is the Internet threatening general knowledge? When I put that to Moira Jones, expert in
designing IQ tests, she referred me to the story of the Egyptian god Thoth. It goes like this: Thoth offers
writing as a gift to the king of Egypt, declaring it an “elixir of memory and wisdom”. But the king is
horrified, and tells him: “This invention will induce forgetfulness in the souls of those who have learned
it, because they will not need to exercise their memories, being able to rely on what is written”.
Who wants to be a millionaire finalist David Swift, responding to the same question, recognises that
there was a problem of young people saying: “I don't need to know that”, but he is far more excited about
the educational potential of the Internet. “There is so much more information out there, giving people far
more opportunities to boost their general knowledge”.
After all, the Internet might just help us to forget more and more. But meanwhile, the continuing
popularity of puzzles and games-show shows us that general knowledge is strong enough to remain.
(Extracted from the official test by the MOET, 2020)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Age of the Robot?
B. Novel applications of the Sat-Nav System
C. New perspectives on Tertiary Education
D. The End of General Knowledge?
Question 37: Why did the middle-aged man miss the football match?
A. Because the Sat-Nav in his car was out of order
B. Because the taxi driver was over-dependent on technology
C. Because he did not remember the directions to the stadium
D. Because the search engine in the taxi failed to work
Question 38: The word “outsourced” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. exchanged B. assigned
C. submitted D. imposed
Question 39: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to_______.
A. the story B. general knowledge
C. the Internet D. the question
Question 40: The word “induce” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. ease B. limit
C. promote D. cause
Question 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Young people do not seem to bother themselves with memorising factual information.
B. General knowledge tends to have been mainly acquired through formal schooling.
C. The majority of undergraduates are reluctant to look for answers to factual questions online.
D. On being offered the gift of writing, the king of Egypt was hopeful about its potential.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many universities worldwide have switched to virtual platforms for learning and teaching.
B. Moira Jones is not positive about the potential of the Internet in general knowledge acquisition.
C. When it comes to IQ tests, the ability to recall factual information is of little importance.
D. David Swift believes that informal acquisition of knowledge has been overrated these days.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Last night she cries a lot and told us many things about her family.
A. cries B. told
C. things D. her
Question 44. Many miners have suffered from the effects of coal dust in his lungs.
A. have B. from
C. effects D. his
Question 45. It is clear that good pronunciation is beneficent to speaking English.
A. clear B. pronunciation
C. beneficent D. speaking

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Question 46. She last phoned her mother two months ago.
A. She hasn’t phoned her mother for two months.
B. She didn’t phone her mother two months ago.
C. She has phoned her mother for two months.
D. She has two months to phone her mother.
Question 47. “I want to buy a new printer,” Lam said.
A. Lam said that I wanted to buy a new printer.
B. Lam said that he had wanted to buy a new printer.
C. Lam said that he wants to buy a new printer.
D. Lam said that he wanted to buy a new printer.
Question 48. It is prohibited to drink alcohol during working hours.
A. You must drink alcohol during working hours.
B. You mustn’t drink alcohol during working hours.
C. You should drink alcohol during working hours.
D. You needn’t drink alcohol during working hours.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49. Nam feels bad today. He can’t go to the beach with his family.
A. If Nam had felt bad today, he could have gone to the beach with his family.
B. Nam wishes he felt well today so that he could go to the beach with his family.
C. If only Nam had felt well today so that he could have gone to the beach with his family.
D. Provided that Nam feels bad today, he can’t go to the beach with his family.
Question 50. Restaurants are not permitted to serve over ten customers at a time during social
distancing. There is no exception whatsoever.
A. In no way are restaurants forbidden from serving over ten customers at a time during social
distancing.
B. Under no circumstances are restaurants allowed to serve over ten customers at a time during social
distancing.
C. At no time were restaurants permitted to serve over ten customers at a time during social distancing.
D. By no means are restaurants prohibited from serving over ten customers at a time during social
distancing.
-THE END-

TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1: A. prevents B. displays C. explains D. performs
Question 2: A. write B. smile C. bite D. click

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 4
Question 3: A. confidence B. advantage C. argument D. harmony
Question 4: A. pleasant B. remote C. easy D. useful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 5 to 19
Question 5: John is very good at playing the guitar, ______?
A. doesn’t he B. won’t he
C. isn’t he D. hasn't he
Question 6: Many ancient houses ______ by the storm last week.
A. destroyed B. have destroyed
C. are destroyed D. were destroyed
Question 7: Schools need to protect students _____ dangerous materials on the Internet.
A. for B. from
C. about D. in
Question 8: _______ the final exam comes, the harder he studies.
A. The nearer B. The nearest
C. Nearer D. Nearest
Question 9: My father bought a/an _______ clock at the weekly fair last weekend.
A. old wonderful German B. German old wonderful
C. old German wonderful D. wonderful old German
Question 10: Peter _____ his homework when the doorbell rang.
A. was doing B. is doing
C. has done D. does
Question 11: We didn't enjoy the picnic _______ the weather was so awful.
A. because B. in spite of
C. because of D. although
Question 12: I will send you the report _______.
A. until I finished it B. after I had finished it
C. as soon as I finish it D. while I was finishing it
Question 13: ________ the instructions twice, I understood how to use this machine.
A. Having been read B. Have been read
C. Have read D. Having read
Question 14: He gets all his _______ about politics from watching television.
A. knowledgeable B. know
C. knowledgeably D. knowledge
Question 15: They decided to _______ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round
C. put off D. apply for
Question 16: The manager will _______ an official announcement tomorrow.
A. take B. bring
C. set D. make
Question 17: Many companies now advertise their new products by distributing free ____ in public
places.
A. deals B. instances
C. examples D. samples
Question 18: He devoted his time to football at the _______ of his studies.
A. worth B. fee
C. expense D. value
Question 19: Apparently he has turned over a new _______ and he's not smoking any more.
A. style B. way
C. leaf D. life

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 20 to 21
Question 20: The oil spill had a devastating effect on seabirds and other wildlife.
A. impressive B. beneficial
C. exciting D. catastrophic
Question 21: Chris is asleep after burning the midnight oil trying to finish his article.
A. staying up very late B. going to bed early
C. lighting the oil lamp D. building a fire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 22 to 23
Question 22: I don't think she wanted us to come and stay with her; she just offered out of courtesy.
A. acceptance B. modesty
C. responsibility D. impoliteness
Question 23: Planning a wedding reception for over 1,000 guests will be very challenging.
A. hard B. easy
C. daunting D. complicated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges from 24 to 25
Question 24: Tony is telling Daisy about his driving test.
- Tony: “I’ve passed the driving test.”
- Daisy : “_______”
A. It's very kind of you. B. It's my pleasure.
C. Congratulations! D. Better luck next time!
Question 25: Two friends Tom and Peter are in the classroom.
- Tom: “Can I borrow your calculator, Peter?”
- Peter: “__________________”
A. Sounds interesting. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. Yes, certainly. Here it is. D. Yes, I’d love to.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30
American dating practices are similar to those of other English-speaking western cultures. It is
common for couples to meet through their social (26)_____, workplaces or hobbies. Online dating
services are popular amongst (27) _____ age groups. Younger people may use free apps for casual
dating, whilst middle-aged adults or elderly people looking to find serious or long-term partners tend to
prefer dating websites that (28)_____ paid membership.
Dates usually happen in contexts (29)_____ allow the couple to engage in enough conversation to get
to know one another (for example, over a meal or drink). It is common for an American to ‘date’ or get to
know multiple people at once over a period of time without having an exclusive relationship with any of
those people. (30)_____, if feelings develop for a particular person, an American will often pursue that
one person until he or she agrees to be in a committed relationship with them or indicates a lack of
interest.
(Adapted from https://culturalatlas.sbs.com.au/american-culture/american-culture-family)
Question 26: A. circles B. norms C. cycles D. reforms
Question 27: A. several B. another C. much D. every
Question 28: A. acquire B. require C. inquire D. recite
Question 29: A. who B. where C. whose D. that
Question 30: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. For example
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Every country has its own codes of etiquette. For example, it is common for people in the
United States and in Britain to use first names quickly, even in a letter or a fax. Such instant familiarity is
much less accepted in the rest of Europe and Asia, where even business partners and colleagues of many
years’ acquaintance address each other by the equivalent of Mr., Mrs., Ms., or Miss with the last name.
Therefore, when addressing a European, we should stick to the last name unless he/ she suggests that we
use his/her first name. Also, we should not interpret the other person’s formality as stiffness or
unfriendliness. On the other hand, if a partner with a North America or British background uses our first
names right away, we shouldn’t be surprised.
In many Western countries, including the United States, a person who does not maintain good
eye contact is regarded as being a slightly suspicious, or dishonest person. Americans tend to associate
people who avoid eye contact as unfriendly, insecure, untrustworthy, and inattentive. In contrast, the
Japanese lower their eyes when they speak to a superior to show a gesture of respect. In Latin America
as well as in some African cultures, people have longer looking time, but prolonged eye contact from an
individual of lower status is considered disrespectful. In the United States, it is considered rude to stare,
regardless of who is looking at whom. In contrast, the polite Englishman is taught to pay strict attention
to a speaker, to listen carefully, and to blink his eyes to let the speaker know he or she has been
understood as well as heard. A widening of the eyes can be interpreted differently, depending on
circumstances and cultures. Regardless of the language being used, an American may interpret a Chinese
person’s widened eyes as an expression of astonishment instead of its true meaning – politely expressing
anger.
Question 31: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How to communicate with Americans
B. Ways of socializing in the United States and China
C. Socializing and codes of etiquette
D. The differences between Western cultures and African cultures
Question 32: The word “addressing” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. waving to B. speaking to
C. pointing to D. contributing to
Question 33: In the United States, staring at someone is considered to be _____.
A. inattentive B. rude
C. astonished D. unfriendly
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. Americans B. the Japanese
C. African cultures D. Western countries
Question 35: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _____
A. The Japanese lower their eyes to show respect to their superiors.
B. The Chinese often show their astonishment by widening their eyes.
C. Good eye contact is highly appreciated in many Western countries.
D. The English express their attention by blinking their eyes.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
The 20th century was a time of remarkable change. In less than one hundred years, the
population of our planet went from around 2 billion people to close to 6, almost treble the number of
people living in the world today as did ten or so decades ago. And not only have our numbers exploded,
but our lives have become more intertwined than ever before. For most of human history, the different
communities which existed lived in their own very small worlds - worlds inside a bigger world they
knew little about. The only world that mattered was the one you could see in your immediate
surroundings. Compare that situation with today, when even the poorest parts of sub-Saharan Africa can
boast 43 television sets per thousand people. The world view is no longer limited to the horizon; it
stretches across the planet. The global village is here. Now let’s see how it came about.
The lessons of two world wars in quick succession signaled the dawning of a new age.
Politicians saw that the way forward lay in bringing the world closer together. World War Three was to
be avoided at all costs, they said. It was believed that by making nations more interdependent the risk of
conflict would be lessened as it would be nobody’s interest to go to war then.
That desire to see the nations of the world united gave birth to the U.N. - the United Nations.
The idea of the U.N. was to share power, responsibility and decision making for world affairs equally
between all the members of the new global village. The U.N. brings together officials from 193 member
states. Their task is to preserve world peace and prevent conflicts, but the dream never quite became a
reality as this body has very little “real” power - it just does a lot of talking.
Not long after the U.N. was founded, Europe started to play with the idea of uniting its own
continent. In 1957, the idea took shape; it started as the European Coal and Steel Community with six
member states. Today, we know it as the E.U. or the European Union – 28 countries, called member
states, united in one large free trade area and committed to supporting each other in order to make Europe
a safer, more secure and more prosperous place.
But, for all the political movement that took place in the last century, there was a revolution
more powerful, and yet more simple, that changed the world as we know it forever – and that was the
dawn of the information age. First the television brought people from opposite sides of the globe into
contact; then the internet made the world our living room. Technology was the most powerful tool for
uniting people in the last century and the first to create a truly global community.
Now we can communicate with people of different “tribes” in an instant; debate with them;
learn from them; understand them; just chat with them if that’s all we want. But for all the change, have
we made the world any better? There’s still a huge gap between the richest and the poorest nations;
there’s still misunderstanding and conflict. We may be closer; we may live in a global village; maybe we
are getting there, but there’s still a lot more to do.
(Adapted from 10 FCE Practice Tests by Andrew Betsis and Lawrence Mamas)
Question 36: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. A Century of Change
B. The Age of the Internet
C. The Advantages and Disadvantages of Technology
D. The Roles of the United Nations
Question 37: What does the writer mean by saying communities used to live in worlds inside a bigger
world?
A. In the past people only cared about themselves.
B. Most people didn’t travel very much in the past.
C. In the past people knew little about faraway places.
D. Most people cared about what was happening in the bigger world.
Question 38: What changed after the experience of two world wars?
A. Information technology brought the world closer together
B. Politicians felt determined to prevent another world war
C. Nations wanted to become more independent
D. Nobody was interested in conflict anymore
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. World War Three B. the European Union
C. the United Nations D. the 20th century
Question 40: What does the phrase “took shape” mean in the context of paragraph 4?
A. succeeded B. developed
C. changed D. concluded
Question 41: The arrival of new technology and the information age______.
A. saw people use the internet a lot in their living rooms
B. brought people together in a way that politicians could not
C. seemed unimportant compared to the social changes
D. had a strong impact on the opposite side of the globe
Question 42: The phrase “in an instant” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. promptly B. hesitantly
C. constantly D. reluctantly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 43 to 45
Question 43: Last night, my brother and sister are arguing about something when I walked into the
room.
A. and B. are arguing
C. something D. walked
Question 44: The flight attendants made all the passengers fasten his seat belts during the turbulence.
A. flight attendants B. fasten
C. his D. all
Question 45: Thanks to advances in medical science, life expectation for both men and women has
improved greatly over the past decades.
A. advances B. past
C. has improved D. life expectation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions from 46 to 48
Question 46: I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. The last time I met my grandparents was five years ago.
C. It was five years ago that I didn’t meet my grandparents.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 47: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
A. You may finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You must finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
D. You mustn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
Question 48: “I’m so sorry I didn’t look at the hotel room before I booked it,” said my friend.
A. My friend regretted not looking at the hotel room before she booked it.
B. My friend promised to look at the hotel room before she booked it.
C. My friend denied looking at the hotel room before she booked it.
D. My friend refused to look at the hotel room before she booked it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions from 49 to 50
Question 49: The girl removed her hat and sunglasses. I realized it was Vanessa only then.
A. Scarcely had I realized it was Vanessa when the girl removed her hat and sunglasses.
B. Only when the girl removed her hat and sunglasses did I realize it was Vanessa.
C. If the girl had removed her hat and sunglasses, I could have realized it was Vanessa immediately.
D. As soon as I realized it was Vanessa, she removed her hat and sunglasses.
Question 50: I don’t live near the sea. I really want to walk along the beach every morning.
A. Provided I lived near the sea, I couldn’t walk along the beach every morning.
B. I wish I lived near the sea so that I could walk along the beach every morning.
C. If I didn’t live near the sea, I couldn’t walk along the beach every morning.
D. If only I had lived near the sea and could have walked along the beach every morning.
____THE END____
TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. kicked B. grabbed C. cleaned D. played
Question 2: A. life B. site C. skill D. night

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. notice B. oblige C. reject D. maintain
Question 4: A. performance B. reception C. enjoyment D. interview
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Nancy is talking to Mary about Mary’s new skirt.
- Nancy: “What a beautiful skirt you’re wearing!”
- Mary: “______”
A. I’m in no mood of it. B. It’s my pleasure.
C. You are welcome. D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 6: Harry and Bob are talking about Covid-19.
- Harry: “Covid-19 is one of the most terrible pandemics in human history.”
- Bob: “______”
A. Yes, that’s a good idea. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. Never mind D. It’s my pleasure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: Tom comes from England, ______?
A. is he B. doesn’t he
C. isn’t he D. does he
Question 8: Sheila _____ the first prize in an English competition last week.
A. awarded B. is awarded
C. was awarding D. was awarded
Question 9: He had an appointment at the restaurant ______ 8 o'clock tonight.
A. at B. in
C. for D. on
Question 10: The more we think of the exam, ______ we get.
A. the more nervous B. the most nervous
C. most nervous D. more nervous
Question 11: When we came to the meeting, the chairman ______ a speech.
A. delivers B. was delivering
C. will deliver D. has been delivering
Question 12: He didn’t make a call to his parents last night ______ he was busy doing his assignment.
A. because of B. although
C. because D. despite
Question 13: It won’t be safe to use these stairs ______.
A. before we had them repaired B. after we will repair them
C. when we repaired them D. until we have them repaired
Question 14: The little boy is wearing a(n) ______ pullover.
A. new blue Aristino B. blue new Aristino
C. Aristino blue new D. new Aristino blue
Question 15: ______ some documents about Green Earth, Susan decided to join the organisation.
A. Having read B. Have read
C. Have been read D. Have been reading
Question 16: I don’t think doing the household chores is the main ______ of women nowadays.
A. responsible B. irresponsible
C. responsibility D. responsibly
Question 17: The alarm should _____ automatically as soon as smoke is detected.
A. turn up B. go off
C. put on D. take off
Question 18: He wants to pass the final exam, so he is ______ every effort to revise all his lessons.
A. breaking B. making
C. lending D. keeping
Question 19: After the power failure last night, the washing machine started to ______, so I had to hand-
wash the clothes.
A. interfere B. sacrifice
C. malfunction D. operate
Question 20: I love competitive sports because I perform really well under ______.
A. secret B. project
C. pressure D. weather
Question 21: Of course, we'd love a luxurious car, but we must cut our ______ according to our cloth.
A. shirt B. pants
C. coat D. dress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Traffic jams in big cities deter many people from using their private cars at peak hours.
A. prohibit B. protect
C. encourage D. limit
Question 23: He’s a great scientist, but I find his explanation of bacteria and microbes as clear as mud.
A. comprehensible B. complicated
C. different D. ambiguous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The regional authorities failed to provide the poor with essential services such as
accommodation, fresh water and electricity.
A. excellent B. unimportant
C. impossible D. necessary
Question 25: The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing village into a thriving tourist resort.
A. developed B. generated
C. created D. increased
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26: In the past, some communicable diseases in the world are a real threat to people’s health.
A. are B. health
C. diseases D. to
Question 27: A large number of inventions require years of arduous research and development before we
put it into practice.
A. large number B. it
C. development D. require
Question 28: Before leaving, the robbers made the victims stand in a pool of water almost up to their
wastes and left them there for some time.
A. wastes B. victims
C. almost D. some time

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Aquatic sports, (29) ______ involve playing in or upon the water, take various forms. The main activities
include swimming, synchronized swimming, and water polo. Swimming is an integral part of almost all
water-based activities. In synchronized swimming, the players perform beautiful maneuvers to music and
diving. Water polo, (30) ______, is a game where two opposing teams play against (31) ______,
attempting to throw a buoyant ball into the opponent’s goal.
Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical exercise. Furthermore,
practising them is known to produce both (32) ______ and physical benefits which help to improve mood
states and reduce the (33) ______ of many serious diseases. This explains why aquatic sports have
become very popular forms of exercise among people of all ages.
Question 29: A. who B. whom C. which D. that
Question 30: A. as a result B. in addition C. for instance D. in contrast
Question 31: A. each other B. another C. the others D. together
Question 32: A. psychological B. biological C. philosophical D. theoretical
Question 33: A. feel B. risk C. stress D. sense
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
If you enjoy water sports, Hawaii is the place for you. You can go swimming all year round in the warm
water. You can go sport fishing from the shore or from a boat. If you like boats, you can go sailing,
canoeing, or windsurfing. Or, you can also try some other popular water sports such as surfing.
Surfing is a sport which started in Hawaii many years ago. The Hawaiians called it “he’e nalu”, which
means “to slide on a wave”. If you want to try surfing, you need, first of all, to be a good swimmer. You
also have to have an excellent sense of balance. You must swim out from the beach with your surfboard
under your arm. When you get to where the waves begin to break, you wait for a calm moment. Then you
try to stand up on the board. The wave will begin to rise under you. You must try to steer the board with
your feet so you stay on top of the wave. The important thing is to keep your balance and not fall down.
If you can manage this, you will have an exciting ride all the way into the shore.
Question 34: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Swimming in Hawaii B. Diving in Hawaii
C. Surfing in Hawaii D. Sports in Hawaii
Question 35: What equipment is required to go surfing?
A. a boat B. a surfboard
C. a canoe D. a sail
Question 36: The word “steer” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. delay B. protect
C. improve D. control
Question 37: The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. keeping balance and not falling down
B. standing up on the board
C. swimming with the surfboard under the arm
D. staying on top of the wave
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned according to the passage?
A. Surfing originated in Hawaii many years ago.
B. Surfing is the most popular sport in Hawaii.
C. We must be good swimmers to go surfing.
D. Waves play an important part in surfing.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know without analysis the difference between
a number of objects and a smaller number. In his book "The natural History of Selboure" (1786) , the
naturalist Gilbert White tells how he surreptitiously removed one egg a day from a plover's nest , and
how the mother laid another egg each day to make up for the missing one. He noted that other species of
birds ignore the absence of a single egg but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been removed.
It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain type of wasp always provides five – never four, never
six - caterpillars for each of their eggs so that their young have something to eat when the eggs hatch.
Research has also shown that both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between odd and even
numbers of food pieces.
These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that creatures other than humans can
actually count. They also point to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions with the
correct number of barks, or to horses that seem to solve arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves
the proper number of times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to survival as a species – as in the case of
the eggs – or survival as individuals - as in the case of food. There is no transfer to other situations or
from concrete reality to the abstract notion of numbers. Animals can "count" only when the objects are
present and only when the numbers involved are small – not more than seven or eight. In lab
experiments, animals trained to "count" one kind of object were unable to count any other type. The
objects, not the numbers, are what interest them. Animals admittedly remarkable achievements simply do
not amount to evidence of counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined by the genes of
successive generations, or the results of clever, careful conditioning by trainers.
(Source: PETERSON’S TOEFL)
Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Although animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.
B. Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
C. Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers
D. Animals cannot "count" more than one kind of object.
Question 40: The word "surreptitiously" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. quickly B. occasionally
C. stubbornly D. secretly
Question 41: The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some ways
EXCEPT_____.
A. wasps B. plovers
C. caterpillars D. mice
Question 42: The word "accounts" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. reasons B. reports
C. deceptions D. invoices
Question 43: According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur
as a result of animals' intuitive awareness of quantities?
A. A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box containing one piece.
B. When asked by its trainer how old it is, a monkey holds up five fingers.
C. When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the missing kitten.
D. A lion follows one antelope instead of the herd of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a single prey.
Question 44: How would the author probably characterize the people who are mentioned in the first line
of the second paragraph
A. As foolish B. As demanding
C. As clever D. As mistaken
Question 45: The word "they" in the last sentence refers to _____.
A. number B. animals
C. achievements D. genes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: He is always busy at work. He can’t spend time with his children.
A. He wishes he had more free time so that he could spend time with his children.
B. If he has had more free time , he can spend time with his children.
C. If only he had had more free time and could spend time with his children.
D. As long as he has more free time, he is able to spend time with his children.
Question 47: He was very tired. He still agreed to help his wife with the household chores.
A. So tired did he feel that he agreed to help his wife with the household chores.
B. However tired he felt, he agreed to help his wife with the household chores.
C. Not until he felt very tired did he agree to help his wife with the household chores.
D. Scarcely had he felt tired when he agreed to help his wife with the household chores.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: I last went swimming several months ago.
A. It’s several months since I first went swimming.
B. I used to swim very well several months ago.
C. I started to go swimming several months ago.
D. I haven’t gone swimming for several months.
Question 49: It is imperative for all new migrants to obey the rules and regulations of the local area.
A. The rules and regulations of the local area must be obeyed by all new migrants.
B. The rules and regulations of the local area might be obeyed by all new migrants.
C. The rules and regulations of the local area should be obeyed by all new migrants.
D. The rules and regulations of the local area can be obeyed by all new migrants.
Question 50: “I don’t know how to do this exercise,” Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter told Mary that he didn’t know how to do that exercise.
B. Peter told Mary that she doesn’t know how to do that exercise.
C. Peter told Mary that he doesn’t know how to do this exercise.
D. Peter told Mary that she didn’t know how to do this exercise.
TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. word B. port C. core D. sort
Question 2: A. worked B. added C. missed D. stopped
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. company B. importance C. survival D. temptation
Question 4: A. diverse B. extinct C. crucial D. intact
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 5: Mike has just fixed Daisy’s computer.
- Daisy: “ Thanks a lot for fixing the computer for me.”
- Mike: “___________”
A. You are welcome. B. You are right.
C. Good idea. D. Better luck next time.
Question 6: Mary and Jane are talking about Jane’s new smartphone.
- Mary: “Your new smartphone looks great.”
- Jane: “___________”
A. I'm glad you like it. B. Don't mention it
C. It doesn't matter. D. Don't worry about it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: Students use the library's computers to get ____________ to the Internet.
A. way B. touch
C. access D. crossing
Question 8: John was late for school _____ he missed the bus.
A. because B. although
C. because of D. despite
Question 9: I don't know what I will do ____________ the weekend. It depends on the weather.
A. of B. in
C. at D. into
Question 10: _____ , I will have finished my work for the day.
A. By the time I go to bed B. until I went to bed
C. before I went to bed D. While I was going to bed
Question 11: This morning when the alarm clock went off, I _________ a sweet dream.
A. was having B. am having
C. have had D. have
Question 12: The best way to start on the pathway to _____ your goals is building your skills.
A. achieving B. recruiting
C. adapting D. improving
Question 13: Many Internet users delete their social accounts because of cyberbullying, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they
C. does he D. doesn’t he
Question 14: : _______information you get, the better you will understand the problem.
A. The more B. More
C. Most D. The most
Question 15: Pass me the ________ cups, please.
A. plastic big blue B. big plastic blue
C. big blue plastic D. blue big plastic
Question 16: The role of the mass media is not only to _______ and amuse the masses but also to
educate them about their rights and responsibilities.
A. entertainment B. entertain
C. entertainer D. entertaining
Question 17: Lots of houses_________ by the earthquake last night .
A. are destroying B. destroyed
C. were destroyed D. has been destroyed
Question 18: Visuals often grab the attention of our students and keep them ________ in the lesson.
A. written B. occupied
C. ignored D. engaged
Question 19: In the ____ agriculture, farmers try to limit the use of chemicals and fertilizers.
A. industrialized B. conservative
C. sustainable D. preservative
Question 20: I felt very excited as the plane _____ from Noi Bai.
A. took off B. took after
C. put on D. put off
Question 21: _______ about the bad effects of chemical fertilisers, farmers started using them sparingly
on their farms.
A. Be informed B. Having informed
C. Having been informed D. Having been informing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Old people may find it challenging to learn how to use the Net, but they can always find
someone to walk them through the process.
A. do research on B. pay attention to
C. help them learn D. help them take a walk with
Question 23: Employers usually look for candidates who have qualifications and relevant experience.
A. excellent B. rich
C. appropriate D. extensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Kurzweil believes that there could be tiny robots called nanobots implanted into our
brains to improve our memory.
A. inserted in B. fixed in
C. removed from D. replaced with
Question 25: Cultural changes in identity can be stressful and result in problems with self-esteem and
mental health.
A. anxiety B. confidence
C. dissatisfaction D. modesty
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can be found in books. The invention of
the book is one of humankind’s greatest achievements, the importance of (26) _____ cannot be
overestimated. Books are very useful because they (27)_____ us with both entertainment and
information. The production of books began in Ancient Egypt, (28) _____ not in a form that is
accessible to us today.

The books read by the Romans, however, have (29) _____ similarities to the ones we read now. Until the
middle of the 15th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They were often beautifully
illustrated and always rare and expensive. With printing came the (30)_____ of cheap, large publication
and distribution of books, making knowledge more widespread and reliable.
Question 26: A. which B. whom C. that D. who
Question 27: A. give B. send C. propose D. provide
Question 28: A. though B. because C. besides D. therefore
Question 29: A. much B. some C. another D. a little
Question 30: A. ability B. possibility C. capacity D. facility

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today.
Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that
begin with the words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn more money. Another may tell you
how to save or spend it and another may explain how to give your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to
succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you
would like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make
any money at all, you may need a book called “How to Live on Nothing”.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want
to have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”. If you
are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to
redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex.
Today people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to
books help people deal with modern life.
(Source: https://tuyensinh247.com/bai-tap-443953.html)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How to succeed in love every minute of your life.
B. How to turn failure into success.
C. How to make a millionaire.
D. How-to books.
Question 32: How-to books give you advice on these things, EXCEPT__________ .
A. How to choose a career and how to succeed in it.
B. How to redecorate or enlarge a house.
C. How to break a promise.
D. How to earn more money.
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT the type of books giving information on careers?
A. “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”.
B. “How to Live on Nothing”.
C. “How to Make a Millionaire”.
D. “How to Turn Failure into Success”.
Question 34: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to________.
A. advice B. instruction
C. how-to books D. career
Question 35: The word “step-by-step” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______ .
A. little B. gradually
C. quickly D. greatly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The Internet has been the most exciting medium among all other forms of mass media because
of its diversified services and constant development. Social networking, which are closely tied to the
Internet, have had a strong influence on people and society, and have changed their habits and
behaviour. While most people hold positive opinions about social networking, there are some negative
views as well.
Many people think social networking is good for several reasons. It is a fast and efficient way
of communication that helps people to keep in touch with friends and family by sharing photos and using
various apps such as instant messaging. It has become the preferred way of interaction for young people
because of its speed, convenience, and wide range of functions. People who want to see the person they
are talking to online can easily do that by using a video chat app. Those who want to learn a new
language like social networking because they can be exposed to authentic language, use and connect
with native speakers online. People who want to express their thoughts and opinions and share
information with their friends or followers can do that via either microblogging or taking part in online
discussion forums. Those who want to relax and escape from reality can access a huge store of online
games, music and videos in different genres.
On the other hand, there are many people who think that social networking can expose users
to inappropriate contents and even cyberbullying. Some people complain that it is annoying to encounter
repeated themes across sites. Some say they cannot sense the emotion or enthusiasm from the other
person because there is no face-to-face communication. Many think social networking can be addictive
and time-consuming if users spend most of their day on useless microblogging or become obsessed with
the private lives of other people. Many parents complain that their children spend a lot of time on social
networking sites and are distracted from their schoolwork and social life by doing homework less and
spending less time with friends and family. A lot of teachers think microblogging can promote laziness
and poor writing skills because students tend to post very short messages and rely heavily on the Internet
as their source of information. These are some of the many negative views on social networking.
In conclusion, social media has become popular and helpful in today's society and has a great
impact on all aspects of life. However, people's opinions about its benefits differ because of their
experiences, social background and age. It is clear that social media comes with great responsibility, and
people should fully understand the risks before they start using this modern tool.
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about ?
A. Cyberbullying B. Social networking
C. Face-to-face communication D. Microblogging
Question 37: The word “tied to” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. connected with B. classified into
C. analyzed for D. emerged from
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true about social networking?
A. It is a fast and efficient way of communication.
B. It helps people to stay connected with friends and family.
C. It may expose users to improper contents.
D. It does not facilitate self-expression and social interaction.
Question 39: The word “authentic” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. real B. complicated
C. unique D. artificial

Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why do young people like instant messaging?
A. Because it is fast, convenient, and multi-functional
B. Because they want to keep up with advanced technology
C. Because it is a popular trend
D. Because they want to store a lot of online games
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. contents B. sites
C. people D. themes

Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage?


A. All parents opposed their children to spend their time on social networking sites
B. Social networking has both advantages and disadvantages.
C. Most people rely heavily on the mass media as their main source of information
D. Face-to-face communication is not necessary nowadays.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 43: It’s forbidden to smoke in here.
A. You might not smoke in here. B. You mustn’t smoke in here
C. You needn’t smoke in here. D. You don’t have to smoke in here.
Question 44: Patty said, “I wish I hadn’t told my girlfriend the truth.”
A. Patty suggested telling his girlfriend the truth.
B. Patty denied telling his girlfriend the truth.
C. Patty promised to tell his girlfriend the truth.
D. Patty regretted telling his girlfriend the truth.
Question 45: Jim and Susan started working in this firm many years ago, and they still work there.
A. Jim and Susan have worked in this firm for many years.
B. Jim and Susan worked in this firm for many years.
C. Jim and Susan didn’t work in this firm for many years.
D. Jim and Susan stopped working in this firm many years ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: All personal details are treated as strictly confident and remain on computer file.
A. personal B. strictly
C. confident D. computer file
Question 47: Books help people to educate ourselves while newspapers record daily events.
A. help B. ourselves
C. newspapers D. daily events
Question 48: Next week, when there will be an English club held here, I will give you more information
about it.
A. will be B. held
C. information D. it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Smoking is strictly forbidden in this office. There is no exception whatsoever.
A. On no occasion are people banned from smoking in this office.
B. At no time are people banned from smoking in this office.
C. By no means were people allowed to smoke in this office.
D. Under no circumstances are people allowed to smoke in this office.

Question 50: Mike doesn’t feel well today. He can’t go out with his friends.
A. If Mike had felt well today, he couldn’t have gone out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he could go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn’t have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can’t go out with his friends.

TEST 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. cost B. most C. post D. ghost
Question 2. A. waited B. needed C. cooked D. mended

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. energy B. festival C. atmosphere D. location

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. He went to Hanoi yesterday, _______?
A. doesn’t he B. did he
C. does he D. didn’t he
Question 6. The accident _______ in this city last night by some drunk drivers.
A. was caused B. caused
C. were caused D. causes
Question 7. John is very brilliant _______ crosswords.
A. with B. for
C. at D. about
Question 8. _____he worked, the more he earned.
A. The more hard B. The hard
C. The harder D. The hardest
Question 9. My aunt gave me a _______ hat on my 16th birthday.
A. nice yellow Korean B. Korean nice yellow
C. Korean nice yellow D. nice Korean yellow
Question 10: I saw Lisa at the museum when I _______ to the restaurant.
A. was going B. go
C. have gone D. had gone

Question 11: _______ he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car.
A. Because B. Although
C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 12: _______, his employees will have worked for two hours.
A. By the time the boss arrives B. When the boss arrived
C. After the boss had arrived D. Before the boss arrived
Question 13: ____________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. Being won B. Having won
C. Have won D. Having been won
Question 14. Many astronomers never got back to the Earth because of__________ accidents.
A. terror B. terrible
C. terribly D. terrorist
Question 15. I applied for the job but my application form was _______.
A. taken away B. got over
C. turned down D. turned off
Question 16: A few kind words at the right time may _______ a difference to one’s life.
A. make B. give
C. do D. take
Question 17: I gave the waiter a $50 note and waited for my _______.
A. supply B. change
C. cost D. cash
Question 18: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my _______.
A. piece of cake B. sugar and spice
C. piece of the pie D. cup of tea
Question 19: Jenny has a good _______ of Japanese cuisine and she is widely recognized for her
mastery.
A. chance B. order
C. command D. request

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. After I had deleted several details in the report, I found out that they contained necessary
information.
A. ignored B. described
C. erased D. included
Question 21: Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance
C. difference D. arrival

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. She decided to remain celibate and devote her entire life to helping the homeless and
orphans
A. divorced B. separated
C. single D. married
Question 23: She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed
C. confident D. happy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mike and Jenny are talking at home.
- Mike: “Would you like me to send this package for you?”
- Jenny: “_______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems?
B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are.
D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 25: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “_______. A doctor also works very hard.”
A. It’s a good idea.
B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you.
D. That’s exactly what I think.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
According to the U.S National Association for Gifted Children, a gifted child shows an
“exceptional level of performance” in one or more areas. In general usage, giftedness includes high levels
of (26) _______ ability, motivation, inquisitiveness, creativity, and leadership. Gifted children (27)
_______ for approximately 3 to 5 percent of the school-aged population.
(28) ______ giftedness cannot be assessed by an intelligence test alone, these tests are often
used to indicate giftedness. By and large, giftedness begins at an IQ of 115, or about one in six children.
Highly gifted children have IQs over 145, or about one in a thousand children. Profoundly gifted children
have IQs over 180 or about one in a million children. Because very few education programs include any
courses on teaching the gifted, teachers are often not able to recognize the profoundly gifted. Teachers
are more likely to recognize moderately gifted children because they are ahead of the (29) ______
children but not so far ahead as to be recognizable. For instance, children who can read older children’s
books in first and second grade are often transferred into gifted classes, but children (30) _______ are
reading adult books are told to stop reading them. These profoundly gifted students who are not
recognized often turn into discipline problems when they are not offered constructive ways to focus their
extraordinary creativity.
(Adapted from “Essential Words for the IELTS” by Dr. Lin Lougheed)
Question 26. A. cognitive B. constructive C. different D. distinctive
Question 27. A. take B. account C. make D. get
Question 28. A. However B. Therefore C. Because D. Although
Question 29. A. some B. other C. another D. one
Question 30. A. which B. what C. whom D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
There are three basic types of classroom learning styles: visual, auditory, and kinesthetic.
These learning styles describe the most common ways that people learn.
Visual learners prefer to sit somewhere in the classroom where no obstructions hinder their
view of the lesson. They rely on the teacher’s facial expressions and body language to aid their learning.
They learn best from a blend of visual displays and presentations such as colorful videos, diagrams, and
flig-charts. Often, these learners think in pictures and may even close their eyes to visualize or remember
something. Many visual learners lack confidence in their auditory memory skills and so may take
detailed notes during classroom discussions and lectures.
Auditory learners sit where they can hear well. They enjoy listening and talking, so
discussions and verbal lectures stimulate them. Listening to what others have to say and then talking the
subjects through help them process new information. These learners may be heard reading to themselves
out loud because they can absorb written information better in this way.
Kinesthetic learners may find it difficult to sit still in a conventional classroom. They need to
be physically active and take frequent breaks. When they are bored, they fidget in their seats. They prefer
to sit someplace where there is room to move about. They benefit from manipulating materials and learn
best when classroom subjects such as maths, science, and reading are processed through hands-on
experiences. Incorporating arts-and-crafts activities, building projects, and sports into lessons helps
kinesthetic learners process new information. Physical expressions of encouragement, such as a pat on
the back, are often appreciated.
(Adapted from “Essential Words for the IELTS” by Dr. Lin Lougheed)
Question 31. What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The combination of different learning approaches
B. Different classrooms for different learning groups
C. The most common ways to learn
D. Teaching strategies for different learning styles
Question 32. According to paragraph 2, visual learners ______.
A. have a preference for sitting at the back of the classroom
B. only keep an eye on the pictures to memorise the content of the lessons
C. are easy to get up with the lesson
D. are not confident in remembering what they have listened
Question 33. The word “blend” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. division B. list
C. mixture D. separation
Question 34. What does the word “They” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. auditory learners B. discussions
C. verbal lectures D. subjects
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT suggested to attract kinesthetic learners?
A. encouraging hands-on activities
B. integrating projects and sports into lessons
C. stimulating them by physical expressions
D. isolating them in a traditional classroom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Australia has a well-known and well-structured education system. The education starts at the
age of five or six, but it may differ by a narrow margin between states. It starts with preschool education
which is not compulsory and can be offered within a school or separately. The primary and secondary
school encompasses compulsory education for Australians. There are a large number of primary and high
schools across the country with most of them being public schools. It is estimated that public schools
amount to 60% of scholars as opposed to 40% in private settings. All these education providers must be
licensed by the government and must fulfil certain requirements including infrastructure and teaching.
Universities, on the other hand, are mainly public institutions.
The Australian education system has established a standard curriculum, so all scholars will be
given the same quality of education. The actual curriculum set out in the Australian education system is
based on important abilities one must have in his life: literacy, numeracy, information and
communication technology, critical thinking, personal and social capability, ethical understanding,
intercultural understanding.
Vocational and Technical schools prepare students that want to skip university and want to
move directly to the job market. Actually, here it stands the difference between universities and colleges:
the Vocational and Technical Schools are more oriented in teaching practical skills while university
courses are mainly theory-based to lead students to different academic careers. There are hundreds of
other schools out there that provide technical and further education (TAFE) and vocational education and
training (VET). These schools offer short courses, certificates I through IV, diplomas, and advanced
diplomas. They focus on training their students in a particular vocation or just to help their students get
out into the workplace.
Australian higher education modernity and reputation rely on a huge number of educational
providers including universities and different training organisations. Currently, there are 43 universities
across the country. The vast majority of universities are public except two private universities. The
world-class teaching offered is surely undisputed. Seven Australian universities are traditionally found
at the top 100 best universities in the world which is a sufficient indicator to highlight their quality.
Besides universities, more than 5,000 training organisations are registered and accredited. Actual figures
show that the number of enrolled students is around 3.8 million with international students sharing more
than half a million.
(Source:http://www. https://www.studying-in-australia.org/education-system/)

Question 36. Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The levels of education in Australia.
B. The curriculum of schools in Australia.
C. The Australian education system.
D. The position of Australian schools in the world.
Question 37. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is TRUE about education in Australia?
A. Children must start school when they are five years old.
B. Pre-school education is not optional for Australian children.
C. There are more students attending public schools than private schools.
D. Every education provider can establish a school with its own requirements.
Question 38. What is an Australian curriculum based on?
A. It focuses on necessary skills that students must be prepared for in their life.
B. It puts more focus on understanding important subjects.
C. It concentrates on knowledge and technology.
D. It depends on the quality of education that each school provides.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to ____.
A. schools B. careers
C. diplomas D. certificates
Question 40. The word “reputation” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _____.
A. anonymity B. renown
C. difference D. stability
Question 41. The word “undisputed” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _____.
A. questionable
B. doubtful
C. undeniable
D. unacknowledged

Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage?


A. Private schools are not highly valued in the Australian education system.
B. There are more and more international students choosing Australian institutions to attend.
C. To win fame, Australia establishes a lot of universities and training organisations each year.
D. Students in Australia prefer Vocational and Technical schools more than others.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A. when B. with
C. homework D. asked

Question 44: What happened in that city was a reaction from city workers, including firemen and
policemen who had been laid off from his jobs.
A. including B. his jobs
C. what happened D. was

Question 45: I’m becoming increasingly forgettable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A. the B. I’m becoming
C. forgettable D. myself
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Peter started learning to play the piano two months ago.
A. Peter has learned to play the piano for two months.
B. Peter is learning to play the piano at the moment.
C. Peter stopped learning to play the piano two months ago.
D. Peter has never learned to play the piano.
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the
students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: I’m sure that they practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They can’t have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
B. They must have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
C. They shouldn’t have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
D. They might have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
A. I regret having seen Susan off at the airport.
B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.
C. I wish I could see Susan off at the airport.
D. I regret my decision to have seen Susan off at the airport.

Question 50: Hans told us about his invest in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his invest in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his invest in the company.

TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. thanked B. played C. missed D. washed
Question 2. A. state B. bake C. shake D. talk
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. promote B. follow C. arrange D. decide
Question 4. A. disappear B. determine C. establish D. contribute

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. There are three cats in the kitchen, _______?
A. are they B. aren’t they
C. aren’t there D. are there
Question 6. Lots of houses _______by the earthquake yesterday.
A. are destroying B. destroyed
C. were destroying D. were destroyed
Question 7. We were extremely surprised _______the news that they told us.
A. at B. of
C. to D. in
Question 8. _______you study for the exam, the better you will do.
A. The harder B. Hardest
C. The hardest D. Harder
Question 9. I always remember the moments when the whole family gathered around the _______table.
A. round wooden black B. wooden black round
C. round black wooden D. black wooden round
Question 10. The students _______to each other in the classroom when the teacher came in.
A. was talking B. were talking
C. are talking D. talked
Question 11. Tony came to the English speaking contest ten minutes late _______he had missed the
bus.
A. because of B. because
C. though D. in spite of
Question 12. The thieves will have hidden the stolen things _______.
A. by the time the police arrive B. when the police arrived
C. as soon as the police had arrived D. after the police had arrived
Question 13. _______part in this kind of campaign many times, these volunteers are experienced in
teaching children to read and write.
A. Having taken B. Taken
C. To take D. Being taken
Question 14. Many species of plants and animals are in _______of extinction.
A. danger B. dangerous
C. endangered D. dangerously
Question 15. Because of the chairman’s illness, we are going to have to _______the meeting until next
week.
A. take off B. put off
C. take on D. go off
Question 16. Some measures have been _______to control traffic jams at rush hours.
A. made B. carried
C. done D. taken
Question 17. The dish was so tasty that I asked for a second _______.
A. part B. portion
C. helping D. sharing
Question 18. My mind went _______when the official asked me my phone number - I couldn’t
remember it at all.
A. vacant B. blank
C. empty D. clear
Question 19. Mr Smith ate his breakfast in great_______ so as not to miss the bus to London.
A. haste B. speed
C. rush D. pace
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. It was so easy an exercise that all weak students could do it well.
A. hard B. complex
C. confusing D. simple
Question 21. Think about the interviewer’s comments because they may help you prepare better when
you are called for the next job interview.
A. compliments B. character
C. remarks D. problems

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The pilot changed direction abruptly, causing great panic in the plane. No one knew what
was exactly happening.
A. suddenly B. recently
C. gradually D. lately
Question 23. Although they hold similar political points of view, their religious beliefs present a striking
contrast.
A. minor comparison B. significant difference
C. strong resemblance D. complete distinction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: David is inviting Susan to his party.
- David: “Would you like to come to my birthday party this weekend? - Susan: “_______.”
A. Don’t mention it. B. That’s mine.
C. You’re welcome. D. Yes, I’d love to.

Question 25: Some students are talking about their plan for the trip.
- Tom: “I don’t think taking a hiking trip in this weather is a good idea.”
- Peter: “_______.”
A. So do I. We will have a nice time together
B. Don’t worry. I have the map here.
C. I couldn’t agree more. It’s going to rain soon.
D. That’s right. Why don’t we prepare for it now?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 30.
Father’s day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother’s Day which (26)
______mothers and motherhood, Father’s Day celebrates fatherhood and paternal bonds; it highlights the
influence of father in society. Many countries hold it on the third Sunday of June, but it is also celebrated
widely on (27) ______days.
Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the celebration of male parenting.
Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single parent (28) ______raised his six
children there. After hearing a seaman about Jarvis’ Mother’s Day in 1909, she told her pastor that
fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she initially suggested June 5 th, her
father’s birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to prepare their sermons, and the celebration was
deferred to the third Sunday of June. The first celebration was in Spokane, Washington at the YMCA
(Young men’s Christian Association) on June 19th, 1910. Since then it has become a traditional day every
year.
In (29) ______of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a party
holding male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (30) ______, schools help
children prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the celebration.
(Adapted from My Englishpage.com)
Question 26. A. creates B. separates C. honors D. makes
Question 27. A. every B. another C. others D. other
Question 28. A. who B. what C. which D. why
Question 29. A. addition B. recognition C. advance D. account
Question 30. A. Therefore B. Besides C. Although D. However

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
There are many different kinds of sports that are undertaken by a wide variety of different people. Some
people do sport for their career and other people purely do sport for enjoyment and recreation. Some
sports, like cricket, require the use of a lot of equipment, while others need very little in order to
successfully play a game in that sport. Some people use public playing fields to play sports for free,
while other sports such as squash, tennis, badminton and table tennis are usually paid for on an hourly
basis in the comfort of a local leisure centre.

Most sports are played with a round object often known as a ball. Some sports use more than one ball and
snooker is one of the unique sports that make use of a number of balls while being played. The game
itself is often controlled by an impartial individual known as an umpire in cricket and a referee in sports
like football and rugby. Most sports have a duration of not more than a few hours, however some athletic
tournaments can last for up to a week and a game of cricket can be five days in duration before a winner
is announced.

Some people prefer to watch sports. This can either be done by going to a stadium, a local leisure centre,
park or on the television. It is often cheaper to watch sport from the comfort of a person’s home than to
visit the stadium or a special event. Some sports, such as football and cricket, are really popular in the
United Kingdom but not in the USA. In the USA people often play basketball and baseball. However,
most countries put aside time to compete in world sporting events such as the football world cup or the
Olympics, which occur every four years.
(Adapted from Reading Academic English)
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Various categories of sports
B. Various balls used in sports
C. The Paralympics
D. Equipment used in sports
Question 32. What statement is NOT true about the passage?
A. Football and Cricket are really popular not only in the United Kingdom but also in the USA.
B. Watching sports at home is cheaper than visiting a stadium.
C. An impartial person controlling a football match is often known as a referee.
D. Snooker is one of the unique sports played with more than one ball.
Question 33. Which sport requires the use of a lot of equipment?
A. Football B. Athletics
C. Cricket D. Rugby
Question 34. The word “undertaken” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. supposed B. opposed
C. devoted D. done
Question 35. The word “others” in paragraph 1 refers to______.
A. people B. equipment
C. sports D. careers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating,
having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that children will be aware
of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger
of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all
costs. Good behavior and fair play aren’t the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating
and bad behavior are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the
fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being
handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behavior.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to
discuss attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player
swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player’s
skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player’s contribution to the
team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it’s important for members to
work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from
players, think it’s amusing or even consider it a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players
get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has
on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace
or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to
remind children that both are part of sport.

However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents
should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasize to children the high
reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the
media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable
they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved
sportspeople don’t gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these
people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing.
In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicized players.
(Adapted from “New English File – Advanced” by Will Maddox)

Question 36: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of team spirit in sport.
B. The influence of model sportspeople on children.
C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports.
D. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport.
Question 37: The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inspired.
B. represented.
C. energized.
D. reinforced.
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through watching
sports?
A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success.
Question 39: The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _______.
A. highlight B. embolden
C. consolidate D. actualize
Question 40: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. children B. spectators
C. teammates D. parents
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
D. Many sports people help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sports people's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conduct when not playing.
C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams’ budgets than others.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The man is invited to the clambake by Mary last night.
A. is B. The
C. by D. to
Question 44. Receiving the letter from his boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A. Receiving B. his
C. felt D. excited
Question 45. Ozone is extremely active chemically and succeeds in damaging any vegetability it comes
in contact with.
A. extremely B. chemically
C. damaging D. vegetability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46. I last wrote to him two years ago.
A. I didn't write to him two years ago.
B. I haven’t written to him for two years.
C. I wrote to him for two years.
D. I have written to him two years ago.
Question 47. She said, "John, I'll show you around my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She refused to show John around her city.
C. She promised to show John around her city.
D. She organised a trip around her city for John.
Question 48. It is unnecessary for you to finish the report by tomorrow afternoon.
A. You needn’t finish the report by tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report by tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report by tomorrow afternoon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turned up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie hadn’t turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50. Barbara became a mother. She felt a strong sense of responsibility towards her parents.
A. Were Barbara to become a mother herself, she would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards her
parents.
B. Only after Barbara had become a mother herself did she feel a strong sense of responsibility towards her
parents.
C. Had Barbara become a mother herself, she would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards her
parents.
D. Not until she felt a strong sense of responsibility towards her parents did Barbara become a mother herself
TEST 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. wanted
Question 2. A. hand B. bag C. page D. hat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. cancer B. attempt C. tutor D. campus
Question 4. A. vacancy B. confidence C. existence D. furniture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tom is at home, _________?
A. won't he B. is he
C. doesn't he D. isn't he
Question 6. The museum _________ by a group of Japanese engineers last year.
A. reconstructed B. was reconstructed
C. was reconstructing D. reconstructs
Question 7. I've been trying to learn Spanish but I'm not very satisfied ________ my progress.
A. with B. on
C. from D. to
Question 8. ________ this road gets, the more dangerous it becomes.
A. More busy B. The busier
C. Busiest D. The busiest
Question 9. Her aunt gave her a ________ handbag on her birthday last week.
A. Korean red beautiful B. red Korean beautiful
C. beautiful Korean red D. beautiful red Korean
Question 10. Peter ________ game when his father went into the room.
A. was playing B. is playing
C. played D. plays
Question 11. I knew they were talking about me _________they stopped when I entered the room.
A. because of B. because
C. though D. in spite of
Question 12. Tom will have finished his work report ________ him.
A. as soon as his boss called B. when his boss will call
C. by the time his boss calls D. after his boss had called
Question 13. ________ her leg the last time she went, Brenda decided not to go on the school skiing trip
this year.
A. Having broken B. Broken
C. Being broken D. To break
Question 14. The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response to
questions.
A. attention B. attentively
C. attentive D. attentiveness
Question 15. Our teacher told us that if we don't ______ the environment, our grandchildren may not
even be able to carry on living.
A. take after B. hold on
C. count on D. look after
Question 16. Entering the meeting half an hour late, he tried to _________ an excuse, but the strict
chairman of the board told him to leave the room.
A. make B. do
C. give D. have
Question 17. English is an obligatory subject from sixth grade across Vietnam, but in large cities, many
primary schools demand high _________.
A. capacity B. experience
C. competency D. ability
Question 18. Parents are always willing to lend a sympathetic ________ to their children when they have
problems.
A. hand B. ear
C. eye D. paw
Question 19. Vietnam makes many key containment decisions in a ______ of days, which may take
weeks for governments in other countries to make.
A. matter B. trouble
C. situation D. amount

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. TEFL.com is a website which offers a job research facility to assist qualified students in
finding work.
A. delay B. burden
C. hinder D. help
Question 21. We'll have to use the restrooms on the third floor because the ones on this floor are not in
working condition.
A. out of order B. out of work
C. run out of D. torn down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalised for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded
C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 23. After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the
hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends
C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hung was invited to Hoa's party. He wants to thank her for the lovely party.
- Hung: "Thank you very much for a lovely party."
- Hoa: " .”
A. Thanks B. Have a good day
C. You are welcome D. Cheers
Question 25. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: Endgame is such a wonderful movie.
- Mary: _________. It has many beautiful scenes and two main actors are really involved in their roles.
A. I couldn’t agree more
B. I don’t like your saying
C. I didn’t say anything
D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In the year 1900, the world was in the midst of a machine revolution. (26) _____ electrical
power became more ubiquitous, tasks once done by hand were now completed quickly and efficiently by
machine. Sewing machines replaced needle and thread. Tractors replaced hoes. Typewriters replaced
pens. Automobiles replaced horse-drawn carriages.
A hundred years later, in the year 2000, machines were again pushing the boundaries of what
was possible. Humans could now work in space, thanks to the International Space Station. We were
finding out the composition of life thanks to the DNA sequencer. Computers and the world wide web
changed the way (27) ______ we learn, read, communicate, or start political revolutions.
So what will be the game-changing machines in the year 2100? How will they (28) _____ our
lives better, cleaner, safer, more efficient, and (29) _____ exciting?
We asked over three dozen experts, scientists, engineers, futurists, and organisations in five
different disciplines, including climate change, military, infrastructure, transportation, and space
exploration, about how the machines of 2100 will change humanity. The (30) _____ we got back were
thought-provoking, hopeful and, at times, apocalyptic.
(Adapted from https://www.popularmechanics.com/)
Question 26. A. Despite B. However C. Although D. As
Question 27. A. what B. that C. who D. whom
Question 28. A. notice B. taste C. make D. hope
Question 29. A. much B. more C. little D. less
Question 30. A. answers B. programs C. contacts D. services
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Vietnam officially became a full member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN) on July 28, 1995. Since then, Vietnam has worked together with other ASEAN member
countries to reinforce regional cooperation and made great contributions to maintaining peace, stability
and reconciliation in the region.
In the past years in the ASEAN, Vietnam has reaped many successes in all social and
economic fields. The country has gradually restructured its administrative apparatus to suit a market
economy and to integrate into the international community. Vietnam has made a good impression on
ASEAN countries with its achievements in economic development especially in hunger eradication and
poverty alleviation. ASEAN countries' investment into Vietnam has also increased sharply. With a high
economic growth rate averaging seven percent each year, Vietnam has been able to decrease the
economic gap slightly with Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, Indonesia, the Philippines and Brunei.
In addition, Vietnam actively works to integrate culturally and socially with the Southeast
Asian region while preserving its own cultural features. Thirteen is not a long period for such an
important political event but what has been achieved in relations between Vietnam and the association is
creating a splendid prospect for the future.
(https://asean.org/vietnam-in-asean-toward-cooperation-for-mutual-benefits/)
Question 31. Which is the best title of the passage?
A. How Vietnam joined ASEAN.
B. Vietnam's contributions to ASEAN's development.
C. Vietnam's achievements in relation with the ASEAN community.
D. Vietnam-ASEAN: a decade of companionship and development.
Question 32. The word “ reaped” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. obtained
B. desired
C. attempted
D. restored
Question 33. Which information is NOT given in the passage?
A. Vietnam has played an important part in maintaining peace in the region.
B. Culture is an aspect which Vietnam has focused on as an ASEAN member
C. Singapore has invested a lot in the Vietnamese market.
D. Joining ASEAN was an important political event for Vietnam.
Question 34. How long has Vietnam been a full member of ASEAN?
A. For the past few years.
B. As long as Singapore.
C. Since 1995.
D. For a decade.
Question 35. The word “its” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. ASEAN’s B. Brunei’s
C. Vietnam’s D. Asia’s

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
When Malaysia takes the ASEAN chair next year, it will face a huge challenge. Too few of us
know enough about this grouping we call the Association of Southeast Asian Nations. We do not know
what it means to be a part of ASEAN and why it is important to us. At the same time, pressure is
mounting to reinvent ASEAN to make it more people-centric and less government-centric. The Heat
speaks to Global Movement of Moderates CEO Saifuddin Abdullah on why ASEAN should mean more
to us than just acronyms.
ASEAN people do not feel like they are a part of the community of Southeast Asian nations.
This statement, backed up by survey findings, is pretty bizarre, and extremely hurtful too, considering
that ASEAN is 47 years old today. "Interview 10 persons on the street and you would perhaps get only
one of them who knows about ASEAN,” says Datuk Saifuddin Abdullah. This CEO of Global Movement
of Moderates (GMM) is not running down ASEAN; he's confronting the truth as it impacts the project he
has been entrusted with. Here's more, in 2012, the ASEAN Secretariat conducted a survey that showed
only 34% of Malaysians had heard of the ASEAN community. This compares with 96% of Laotians.
Malaysia chairs ASEAN next year, and GMM is a member of the national steering committee organising
the ASEAN People's Forum (APF), a platform designed to bridge the gap between governments and civil
society. Never heard of it? You're forgiven.
The APF actually started off life in the 1990s, except it was called the ASEAN People's
Assembly (APA). It was held back to back with the ASEAN Summit, which is held twice a year. The
APA is the forum where 10 leaders of government engage with 10 leaders of civil society in a half-hour
meeting. "It was going well until one year when the chairman decided not to hold the APA, so it was
discontinued until 2005 when Malaysia took the chairmanship of ASEAN again and founded the ASEAN
People's Forum (APF)," Saifuddin explains. In a perfect world, forums such as the APF or its predecessor
APA would have worked perfectly to bridge the gap between government and civil society.
However, as Saifuddin points out, Civil Society Organisations (CSOs) often do not see eye to
eye with their governments. For instance this year, Myanmar is chair of ASEAN and in the APF, three
member nations - including Malaysia - decided not to recognise the CSO leaders chosen as
representatives so the APF did not take place. “This is where the GMM wants to play a role in ensuring
that this situation does not arise again," Saifuddin says.
(Source: http://www.gmomf.org)
Question 36. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. How important was the ASEAN People's Forum?
B. Who is going to be the ASEAN chair next year?
C. What does it mean to be a part of ASEAN?
D. Why do GMM play an important role in ASEAN?

Question 37. The phrase "backed up" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. concluded B. introduced
C. founded D. supported

Question 38. The phrase "bridge the gap" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. avoid the conflict B. break down the wall
C. build a strong relation D. narrow the difference
Question 39. According to the passage, in the 1990s, APF was called __________.
A. ASEAN People's Assembly B. ASEAN People's Forum
C. Civil Society Organisations D. Global Movement of Moderates
Question 40. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the APF according to the passage?
A. APF consists of 20 leaders. B. APF is held every two years.
C. APF was reorganised in 2005. D. APF lasts for 30 minutes.
Question 41.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Discontinuing APF led to conflict between government and civil society.
B. Malaysians show more interest in politics than Laotians.
C. The APA was held twice a year until 2005.
D. CSOs do not always agree with their governments.
Question 42. The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. the chair B. ASEAN
C. challenge D. Malaysia

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The dog stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked the eyes, and barked.
A. slowly B. their
C. the eyes D. barked
Question 44. They practice speaking English with some native Americans two days ago.
A. practice B. speaking
C. with D. Americans
Question 45. Archaeologists found a large number of historic objects when they excavated the field.
A. found B. number
C. historic D. excavated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. I didn’t see her three years ago.
C. I have seen her for three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night

Question 48. You are required to clean the house instead of your brother
A. You needn’t clean the house instead of your brother.
B. You must clean the house instead of your brother.
C. You mustn’t clean the house instead of your brother.
D. You might clean the house instead of your brother.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I don’t have enough money. I want to buy that house.
A. If only I had enough money and could buy that house.
B. I wish I have enough money to buy that house.
C. Unless I had enough money, I would buy that house.
D. As long as I have enough money, I won’t buy that house.
Question 50. I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes. Shortly after that, I heard the sound of the alarm.
A. Scarcely had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes, I heard the sound of the alarm.
B. Not until I hardly heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and close my eyes.
C. Hardly had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes when I heard the sound of the alarm.
D. Only when I heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and closed my eyes.

TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. peach B. break C. teach D. beach
Question 2: A. hoped B. looked C. started D. watched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. employment B. heritage C. industry D. influence
Question 4: A. nation B. design C. shyness D. promise

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Some tourism activities have contributed to _______ native species to the verge of
extinction.
A. allowing B. forcing
C. raising D. driving
Question 6: The healthier your lifestyle is, _______ health benefits you can receive.
A. the more B. the most
C. more D. most
Question 7: Thousands of people _______ in a raid last night.
A. are killed B. killed
C. will kill D. were killed
Question 8: I will have completed the Ketogenic training course_______ next year.
A. before I will see you again B. when I saw you again
C. by the time I see you again D. as soon as I had seen you again
Question 9: ______ meditation is simple and inexpensive, it can give you a sense of calm, peace and
balance.
A. Because of B. Despite
C. Although D. In spite of
Question 10: _______ to learn through their entire life, workers will become less likely to fall behind in
the job market.
A. Continued B. Being continued
C. To continue D. Continuing
Question 11: The villagers can _______ income from ecotourism services such as guiding visitors to
wilderness areas and therefore can improve their lives.
A. use up B. run on
C. pass down D. live on
Question 12: The residents _______ in peace when the war broke out.
A. are living B. lived
C. have lived D. were living
Question 13: Ecotourism involves responsible travel to _______ areas to conserve the environment and
improve the local economy.
A. nature B. natural
C. naturality D. naturally
Question 14: I take a dim _______ of an inactive lifestyle because it increases health risks.
A. thought B. view
C. opinion D. mind
Question 15: Lifelong learning is to pursue personal interests and passions, ________?
A. aren’t they B. isn’t it
C. is it D. are they
Question 16: _______ learning allows learners to take responsibility for their own learning process
through their life.
A. Self-initiated B. Self-assured
C. Self-centered D. Self-proclaimed
Question 17: Some students labor under a _______ that education is built around tests and scores
whereas its true value is to enable people to make proper choices.
A. misdevelopment B. misunderstanding
C. misapprehension D. misinformation

Question 18: _______ burgers may pose health risks to Gen Z.


A. Inexpensive big McDonald’s B. Big inexpensive McDonald’s
C. Inexpensive McDonald’s big D. McDonald’s inexpensive big
Question 19: Physical inactivity creates a negative effect _______ functional capacity of organs.
A. about B. for
C. on D. with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The downside of this job is that I have to work long hours and have no time for my family.
A. right side B. good thing
C. left side D. bad point
Question 21: Some children become sedentary in front of a television and refuse to go outside.
A. sportive B. sociable
C. inactive D. energetic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: It was the student’s discourtesy that shocked the teacher, having no idea why this
schoolboy was so rude to him.
A. enthusiasm B. politeness
C. honesty D. passion
Question 23: They promised an across-the-board tax cut which applies to all taxpayers regardless of
their income.
A. global B. inclusive
C. widespread D. customised

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Minh and Nam are talking about ecotourism in a class discussion.
- Minh: “I think ecotourism will be a growing travel trend because it economically benefits local
communities and increases conservation efforts.”
- Nam: "______. Responsible travel will be popular.”
A. I see it that way, too
B. I think otherwise.
C. That’s not the case
D. Of course, but I beg to differ.

Question 25:
Hoa is talking to Lan about the university offer she has just received.
- Hoa: “You know what. I’ve been successfully admitted to RMIT.”
- Lan: "_____ You are great.”
A. Congratulations!
B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. I’m sorry to hear that.
D. Don’t mention it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Research in the USA on acupuncture has focused on their use in pain relief.
A B C D
Question 27: I had no faith in his word, and I was determined to keep at a respectable
A B C
distance from him.
D
Question 28: John doesn’t attend the class yesterday because he was seriously ill.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 29: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr Pike you saw because he is in London.
A. You mightn’t have seen Mr Pike because he is in London.
B. You needn’t have seen Mr Pike because he is in London.
C. You can’t have seen Mr Pike because he is in London.
D. You shouldn’t have seen Mr Pike because he is in London.
Question 30: She has taught the children in this remote village for five months.
A. She has started teaching the children in this remote village for five months.
B. The first time she taught the children in this remote village was five months ago.
C. It is five months since she has taught the children in this remote village.
D. She started teaching the children in this remote village five months ago.
Question 31: I’ll show you around my city,'' she said to me.
A. She threatened to show me around her city.
B. She pretended to show me around her city.
C. She promised to show me around her city.
D. She refused to show me around her city.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: He didn’t join us for the environmental conservation program. He regretted his decision
not to join.
A. He wished he had joined us for the environmental conservation program.
B. He wished he could join us for the environmental conservation program.
C. He wished he should have joined us for the environmental conservation program.
D. He wished he joined us for the environmental conservation program.

Question 33: His living conditions were difficult. However, he studied very well.
A. Difficult as his living conditions were, he studied very well.
B. However well he studied, his living conditions were difficult.
C. Had his living conditions not been difficult, he wouldn’t have studied well.
D. Not until his living conditions were difficult did he study well.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The traditional classroom is being turned upside down with many teachers now placing more emphasis
on students’ independent learning. Building your students’ (34)_____ will provide them with the tools
and confidence needed for lifelong learning. An effective way of doing this is by reducing “teacher talk”.
It is common for teachers to stand at the front of the class and give feedback and reflection on the day’s
learning. Yet (35)_____ can sometimes enable students to sit back and not to engage with the class.
Instead, encourage your students to reflect on their own learning. They can do this by keeping a
“learner’s diary” (36)_____ is filled in at home and you review regularly. Not only will this give you an
insight into their learning habits, strengths and weaknesses, (37)_____ it will also help them to reflect on
their day, their learning process, and what they think they need to do to (38)_____ progress.
Question 34:
A. dependence B. autonomy C. inhibition D. irresponsibility
Question 35:
A. what B. those C. this D. these
Question 36:
A. where B. which C. when D. why
Question 37:
A. or B. and C. but D. however
Question 38:
A. take B. make C. give D. get

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from questions 39 to 43.
Travel allows us to explore different places and learn about different cultures. But today many
tourists want to have a positive impact on the places they visit. They believe that it’s important to respect
the local people, help the local economy, and avoid harming the environment. These are the goals of the
movement called “ecotourism.” Interested tourists can find a variety of ecotourism destinations.
Punta Laguna on Mexico’s Yucatan peninsula is a village of Mayans who participate in
ecotourism. The men take turns guiding visitors through the large wildlife reserve that protects the local
monkeys, birds, and other animals. They also take tourists on hikes in the jungle or on canoe trips.
Similarly, the women take turns selling their crafts, including traditional clothing, wall hangings, and
jewellery. In this way, everyone in the community shares in the profits from tourism.
In New Zealand, you can take a two-week bicycle tour that includes visiting glaciers and
seeing ocean wildlife. Bicycling is an ideal way to tour without harming the environment. You can also
tour a farm where you can watch sheep shearing and help with tasks such as milking cows. If you prefer,
you can travel through the Marlborough Sounds with a Maori family on their boat. You will learn about
the sea animals and birds you see. You will sleep and eat on the boat and visit with other Maori along the
way. You will experience a different culture and at the same time, contribute to the tourism that is so
important for the Maori economy. You can learn more about eco-destinations online and in the travel
sections of the newspaper. So make your choice and have fun!
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Amazing benefits that travel brings people.
B. The impact ecotourism has made on local communities.
C. The importance of conservation efforts.
D. Travel as a way to experience diverse cultures.
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, Mayan villagers do the following things to earn money
EXCEPT
A. taking tourists on a tour of a nature reserve.
B. selling their traditional costumes.
C. taking tourists on jungle walks or canoeing outings.
D. protecting local animals.
Question 41: According to paragraph 3, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about tourist
activities in New Zealand?
A. They can widen tourists’ knowledge.
B. They make no contributions to Maori’s economic growth.
C. They include sightseeing activities.
D. They are related to cultural experiences with local people.
Question 42: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. cultures B. places
C. tourists D. local people
Question 43: The word “eco-destinations” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. popular places that ecotourists want to visit
B. popular activities to do on sightseeing tours
C. activities that harm the environment
D. different cultures to explore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from questions 44 to 50.
Our natural inclination to help others in need runs extremely deep within our mammalian
heritage – there’re many examples of altruism in primates and it's even been demonstrated in mice. This
generosity, prevalent across human cultures, has psychological and health benefits for us all as
individuals. Now researchers have also found evidence that generosity helps people in societies live
longer - regardless of their wealth levels.
Researchers found that the more people shared resources between generations, the lower the
society's mortality rate – death rate was. They found people in France and Japan, the societies with the
lowest mortality rates, shared around 69 percent of their lifetime incomes. Whereas countries like China
and Turkey, who shared less than 50 percent, had doubled the risk of death for someone over 65 in the
coming year. South Africa had low rates of sharing, and despite being economically more developed than
neighbouring countries, their mortality rate remained similar in comparison - suggesting that their
relative wealth didn't necessarily make up for their lack of sharing.
This isn't the first study to suggest that transferring resources, even through formal support
systems, benefits the givers too, as well as providing obvious support for those in need. "Human beings
around the world derive emotional benefits from using their financial resources to help others (prosocial
spending)," a study from 2013 stated. It's even been shown that providing support and care has a
protective effect against mortality for the provider. Generosity is linked to increased happiness and may
promote stronger social connectedness.
Findings like these are more important than ever. They provide evidence of a path into the
future that could make our societies stronger, despite the massive losses in resources many of us are now
facing. Of course, transferring resources across generations doesn't just mean money, the researchers
explain. It can also include homes, and sharing other benefits such as knowledge between generations, or
even volunteering time.
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Steps to increase life expectancy
B. The relationship between generosity and life expectancy
C. Ways to develop social networks
D. The relationship between economic status and longevity
Question 45: The word “altruism” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. competitiveness B. cooperation
C. invasion D. selflessness
Question 46: The word “prosocial” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. private B. considerate
C. welfare D. charitable
Question 47: It is suggested in paragraph 2 that _______.
A. The French and the Japanese were the most generous people.
B. China and Turkey had the lowest mortality rate.
C. The more resources people share, the higher risk of death they suffer.
D. South Africa’s underdevelopment led to its higher death rate.

Question 48: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Generosity is beneficial to everyone.
B. Sharing resources means giving more than just money.
C. Prosperity does not affect one’s longevity.
D. Future societies are likely to be weakened.
Question 49: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Giving support to others, human beings are true to their nature.
B. There is little solid evidence of benefits that generosity brings.
C. Sharing incomes is a must to prolong one’s life.
D. Discovery of generosity reveals our mammalian origin
Question 50: The word “It” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. providing evidence B. strengthening societies
C. creating a future path D. transferring resources

TEST 9
Mark the letter A, B, C or D t on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. Sue's still very angry ______ me for forgetting our anniversary.
A. with B. to
C. of D. in
Question 2. The more vegetables we eat, ______ we are.
A. the healthier B. the healthier and healthier
C. the healthiest D. the more heath
Question 3. ______ working harder this term, Peter got bad marks and he was really upset.
A. Although B. In spite of
C. Because of D. As
Question 4. The old engine ______ by one of my best friends last night.
A. is repaired B. was repairing
C. was repaired D. has been repairing
Question 5. I will call you and we will go out for dinner ______.
A. after I had finished my report B. as soon as I finish my report
C. before I finished my report D. while I was finishing my report
Question 6. ______ , we had to walk home in the end.
A. Having missed the last bus B. Missed the last bus
C. While missing the last bus D. Being missed the last bus
Question 7. To be honest, there are a lot of ______ tourist destinations in our hometown.
A. attractive B. attraction
C. attractively D. attract

Question 8. The boy has a collection of ______ postage stamps.


A. old valuable Australian B. old Australian valuable
C. valuable Australian old D. valuable old Australian
Question 9. Mary ____________ a letter when there was a power cut, so she couldn’t finish it.
A. wrote B. was writing
C. had written D. has written
Question 10. Hoa wasn’t excited about the new idea, _________?
A. did she B. was she
C. wasn’t she D. didn’t she
Question 11. Please __________ the air conditioner. It’s so hot.
A. turn on B. turn off
C. take off D. put on
Question 12. The coronavirus (COVID-19) pandemic _______ a great impact on people's lifestyles in
much of the world.
A. takes B. gives
C. gets D. has
Question 13. For the police, the incident seemed nothing out of the __________.
A. normal B. typical
C. ordinary D. usual
Question 14. I thought the seminar would be boring, but I actually had a ______ of a time.
A. whale B. horse
C. pig D. bear
Question 15. I took it for _______ that we'd be invited, but we weren’t in the end.
A. supplied B. granted
C. given D. accepted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 16. A. copy B. threaten C. divide D. travel
Question 17. A. interesting B. impressive C. negative D. challenging

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18. Over the last few days, many Ukrainians have abandoned their lands and property to
migrate to neighboring countries when their country was at war.
A. left B. stopped
C. stayed in D. removed
Question 19. The CEO really had egg on his face after he went on stage to demonstrate the new product
and couldn't get it to work.
A. felt embarrassed B. felt nervous
C. seemed satisfied D. looked silly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. rolled B. stopped C. liked D. kissed
Question 21. A. clean B. mean C. clear D. jean

Mark the letter A. B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 22. John is talking to Tom about the result of the GCSE exam.
- John: “I’ve passed the GCSE exam.”
- Tom: “______”
A. Congratulations! B. What a lazy boy!
C. No, it doesn’t matter. D. Good luck.
Question 23. Nam and Hai are talking about women’s job opportunities.
- Nam: “I think women shouldn’t pursue their career after marriage.”
- Hai: “________. That will make them more financially dependent on their husbands.”
A. I guess so B. That’s true
C. I couldn’t agree more D. I’m sorry but I have to disagree

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The floods brought death and destruction to the area. The number of homeless people is
still increasing rapidly.
A. organisation B. damage
C. protection D. contamination
Question 25: As a country in Southeast Asia, choosing a favorable day before any important events is
really common in Vietnam.
A. favorite B. whole
C. beautiful D. suitable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was
still studying at university and I was only able to work (26) _________ nights a week.

I came across an advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were
yesterday. The (27) _______ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which
surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hour later, I was told that I had got the job
and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a
member of staff, I was (28) _______ to some benefits, including discounts.

When I eventually started, I was responsible for the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved
demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made
working there fun even when we had to deal with customers (29) _______ got on our nerves. (30)
_______, working there was a great experience which I will never forget.
Question 26: A. a little B. many C. much D. a few
Question 27: A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel
Question 28: A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied
Question 29: A. which B. why C. when D. who
Question 30: A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
If you want to turn your hobbies into jobs, consider the following experts’ suggestions. If you are a
helpful person, you can teach others to do what you love. Teach piano lessons, offer cooking classes, or
teach other languages, if those are your passions. You can do this by teaching through a college or
continuing education program, by creating your own classes, or by creating your own webinars or tele-
seminar series online, Collamer says.

If you are not interested in teaching, appraising, repairing or fixing items related to what you love. Most
hobbies have “stuff” connected to them, and sometimes that stuff needs to be fixed by a skilled and
knowledgeable person. “You could fix computers, appraise collectibles, repair bicycles, source missing
parts for highly unusual items, and so on,” Collamer says.

“The next time you find yourself confused as to how to generate income from your hobbies, search out
the most successful entrepreneurs in your area of interest and study their business models and revenue
stream,” Collamer suggests. “Ask yourself: Is their income coming from consulting services, videos,
accessories? What is their pricing strategy?” In doing this, you’ll discover proven models for monetizing
your hobbies, as well as helpful information about how to price your own services and products.

Mufson, who has interests outside of career coaching, says she managed to turn a hobby into a lucrative
part-time gig. “I personally turned my hobby of creating gemstone jewellery into a sideline business,”
she explains. “Jewellery making is an expensive hobby and early on I decided to make it pay for itself.
Since then I have developed two online stores and a relationship with a jewellery gallery that sells most
of my work.”
(Adapted from: http://www.forbes.com/sites/jacquelynsmith/2013/10/07/six-tips-for-turning-your-hobby-
into-your-job/#44283c363248)
Question 31. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Methods of designing and selling jewellery
B. Tips for turning your interests into careers
C. Experts’ advice on choosing the best jobs
D. Pros and cons of running a private business
Question 32. The word “monetizing” can be best replaced by
A. making money from
B. paying money for
C. exchange money with
D. using money for
Question 33. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Collamer suggests creating our own webinar to teach people to do what we love.
B. When confused about how to make money out of your hobbies, we should analyse successful people’s
methods.
C. Besides teaching, repairing or fixing “stuff” related to our hobbies is another way of making money.
D. Mufson was not successful in selling her jewellery products because they are expensive.
Question 34. Where are most of Mufson’s products sold?
A. At a gallery
B. In the market
C. At her shops
D. On the Internet
Question 35. What does the phrase “do this” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. Have your passion
B. Create your own webinars
C. Offer cooking classes
D. Teach others your hobby

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Not so long ago almost any student who successfully completed a university degree or diploma course
could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions, competing with each
other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates
often face strong competition in the search for jobs.

Most careers organisations highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of securing a
suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and presenting them well to
prospective employers.

Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of assessment should be of
their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within their subject area. Graduates
should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the relative importance to themselves of
such matters as money, security, leadership and caring for others. An honest assessment of personal
interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills, or skills acquired from work experience, should
also be given careful thought.

The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about how the
general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can study job
vacancies and information in newspapers, or they can visit a careers office, write to possible employers
for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a particular profession.
After studying all the various options, they should be in a position to make informed comparisons
between various careers.
Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application forms and letters
should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling errors. Where
additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and work experience in
more depth, with examples if possible. They should try to balance their own abilities with the
employer's needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular company and try to show
that they already know something about the company and its activities.

When graduates are asked to attend an interview, they should prepare properly by finding out all they can
about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the interview on time are also
obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful answers and should not be
afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is much better than pretending to
understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer.

There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills and determination; the
secret to securing a good job is to be one of them.
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. What job seekers need to do to secure a suitable job.
B. How job seekers evaluate their abilities.
C. How job seekers prepare for their job interview.
D. What graduates are normally faced with when looking for jobs.
Question 37. The word "prospective" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. future B. generous
C. reasonable D. ambitious
Question 38. In paragraph 2, "them" refers to ______.
A. abilities B. three stages
C. careers organisations. D. available vacancies
Question 39. According to paragraph 4, graduates should ______.
A. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job.
B. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the comparisons they want.
C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons.
D. find a good position and then compare it with other careers

Question 40. In paragraph 5, 'in more depth' could best be replaced by ______.
A. more honestly B. more carefully
C. using more word D. in greater detail
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Businesses used to visit the universities in Hong Kong to recruit graduates.
B. Until recently it was quite easy for graduates to get good jobs in Hong Kong.
C. Job seekers should consider as many as possible the factors involved.
D. Graduates sometimes have to take part in competitions to secure a good career.
Question 42. What can be inferred in paragraph 6?
A. It is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand.
B. Interviewees should ask a question if they can't think of an answer.
C. It is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers.
D. Pretending to understand a question is better than giving an unsuitable answer.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. The students aren’t aware of the importance of the environment. They don’t keep their
school clean and tidy.
A. If the students were aware of the importance of the environment, they wouldn’t keep their school
clean and tidy.
B. Unless the students were aware of the importance of the environment, they wouldn’t keep their school
clean and tidy.
C. Without realising the importance of the environment, they wouldn’t keep their school clean and tidy.
D. If only the students were aware of the importance of the environment and kept their school clean and
tidy.

Question 44. Joe discovered that all the goods were faulty. He had them returned to the manufacturer
immediately.
A. So faulty were the goods that they returned to the manufacturer immediately.
B. Hardly had Joe discovered that all goods were faulty when he had them returned to the manufacturer
immediately.
C. Hadn't he returned all the goods to the manufacturer, they wouldn't have been faulty.
D. Only when Joe had returned all goods to the manufacturer did he discover that they were faulty.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 45. Paintings of a religious, ceremonial, or historical character tend to elevate its subjects
above the level of ordinary existence.
A. historical B. tend to
C. its D. ordinary
Question 46. Last Saturday, I see two ladies arguing when I was waiting for a bus.
A. see B. arguing
C. when D. waiting for
Question 47: He lacked purpose, was disinteresting in voluntary work, and increasingly spent his time
bored at home.
A. voluntary work B. disinteresting
C. at D. increasingly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48. He last visited his grandparents three years ago.
A. He visited his grandparents for three years.
B. He has visited his grandparents three years before.
C. He has not visited his grandparents for three years.
D. He didn’t visit his grandparents for three years.
Question 49. “I’m sorry I forgot our wedding anniversary,” Mike told his wife.
A. Mike said sorry to his wife for forgetting their wedding anniversary.
B. Mike felt sorry to forget their wedding anniversary.
C. Mike apologised to his wife for having forgotten their wedding anniversary.
D. Mike really felt a pity not to remember their wedding anniversary.
Question 50. It was not necessary for Julie to book the tickets in advance.
A. Julie can’t have booked the tickets in advance.
B. Julie shouldn’t book the tickets in advance.
C. Julie couldn’t have booked the tickets in advance.
D. Julie needn’t have booked the tickets in advance.

_______ THE END _______


TEST 10
Mark‌‌the‌‌letter‌‌A,‌‌B,‌‌C,‌‌or‌‌D‌‌on‌‌your‌‌answer‌‌sheet‌‌to‌‌indicate‌‌the‌‌word‌‌whose‌‌underlined‌‌part‌‌differs‌
‌from‌the rest.
Question‌‌1:‌A. ‌list‌ed‌ B. ‌want‌ed‌ C. ‌stopp‌ed‌ D. ‌need‌ed‌‌
Question‌‌2:‌‌A. drive‌ ‌ B. ‌kick‌ ‌ C. find ‌ D. ‌strike‌‌‌

Mark‌ ‌the‌ ‌letter‌ ‌A,‌ ‌B,‌ ‌C,‌ ‌or‌ ‌D ‌ ‌on‌ ‌your‌ ‌answer‌ ‌sheet‌ ‌to‌ ‌indicate‌ ‌the‌ ‌word‌ ‌that‌ ‌differs‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌other‌
‌three‌‌in‌the‌‌position‌‌of‌‌primary‌‌stress‌‌in‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions.‌‌‌
Question‌‌3‌.‌‌A. ‌effort‌‌ B. ‌actor‌‌ C. ‌bamboo ‌ D. ‌rubbish ‌‌
Question‌‌4‌.‌‌A. ‌disappear‌‌ B. ‌recommend‌‌ C. ‌entertain‌‌ D. demonstrate ‌‌

Mark‌ ‌the‌ ‌letter‌ ‌A,‌ ‌B,‌ ‌C,‌ ‌or‌ ‌D ‌ ‌on‌ ‌your‌ ‌answer‌ ‌sheet‌ ‌to‌ ‌indicate‌ ‌the‌ ‌correct‌ ‌answer‌ ‌to‌ ‌each‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌
‌following‌‌questions.‌‌‌
Question‌‌5:‌‌Lady‌‌Gaga‌‌is‌‌an‌‌American‌‌singer,‌‌songwriter‌‌and‌‌actress,‌‌______?‌‌‌
A. doesn’t s‌he B. ‌is‌‌she‌‌
C. wasn’t ‌she D. ‌isn’t‌‌she‌‌
Question‌ ‌6.‌The children ‌____________not to waste time and money by their parents when they were
young.‌‌
A. advise ‌ B. were advised ‌
C. were advising ‌ D. advised ‌
Question‌‌7‌. Yesterday, Nga was absent ________ class because she was ill‌‌.‌‌‌
A. ‌on‌ ‌ B. ‌for‌ ‌
C. ‌in‌‌‌ D. ‌from‌‌‌
Question‌‌8.‌‌The‌‌more‌‌cigarettes‌‌you‌‌smoke,‌‌_____________ you‌‌will‌‌die.‌‌
A. ‌the‌soon ‌ B. ‌more‌‌sooner‌‌
C. ‌the‌‌sooner‌‌ D. ‌the more sooner ‌
Question‌ ‌9.‌John lost the _____ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him
because of his carelessness.
A. Japanese beautiful blue B. beautiful blue Japanese
C. beautiful Japanese blue D. beautiful Japanese blue ‌
Question‌‌10.‌‌When‌‌he‌‌‌came,‌‌I_______‌‌in‌‌the‌‌kitchen.‌‌
A. ‌cooked‌‌ B. ‌am‌‌cooking‌‌
C. ‌has‌‌cooked‌‌ D. ‌was‌‌cooking‌‌
Question‌‌11.‌‌‌________‌‌he‌‌was‌‌the‌‌most‌‌prominent‌‌candidate,‌‌he‌‌was‌‌not‌‌chosen.‌‌
A. ‌Though‌ B. ‌Because‌
C. Despite D. Because of ‌
Question‌ ‌12.‌ ‌________‌ to ‌the‌ ‌destination,‌ ‌he‌ ‌will‌ ‌have‌ ‌been‌ ‌walking‌ ‌for‌ ‌about‌ ‌three‌ ‌hours.‌‌A. ‌When‌
‌John‌‌will‌‌get‌‌
B. ‌By‌‌the‌‌time‌‌John‌‌gets‌‌‌
C. ‌After‌‌John‌‌has‌‌got‌‌
D. ‌Until‌‌John‌‌is‌‌getting‌‌
Question‌ ‌13. ‌____________‌ with the environmentalists, we changed our attitude to nature. ‌‌A. Have
Talked B. ‌Having‌‌talked
C. Being‌‌talked D. Talked
Question‌‌14:‌‌Her mother told her not to be too ____ and advised her to try to do things herself.
A. ‌dependently B. ‌dependence
C. ‌dependent D. depend
Question‌‌15:‌‌Susan was alone in the house when the fire ____.
A. broke down B. broke out
C. broke into D. broke up
Question‌ ‌16:‌‌ ‌The‌ ‌jury ______her‌ ‌compliments‌ ‌on‌ ‌her‌ ‌excellent‌ ‌knowledge‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌ ‌subject.‌‌A. ‌paid‌‌
B. took
C. ‌made‌‌ D. ‌said‌‌
Question‌ ‌17:‌‌ ‌Nobody‌ ‌took‌ ‌any ______of‌ ‌the‌ ‌warning‌ ‌and‌ ‌they‌ ‌went‌ ‌swimming‌ ‌in‌‌ ‌the‌ ‌contaminated‌
‌water.‌
‌A. ‌information‌‌ B. ‌attention‌‌
C. ‌sight‌‌ D. ‌notice‌‌
Question‌‌18:‌‌I‌always regretted not looking after my teeth when I was young. I had my first ________ of
false teeth when I was thirty.‌‌
A. ‌row B. ‌set
C. ‌chain‌‌ D. lain
Question‌‌19:‌My parents ______________ when they discovered I had dropped out of school.
A. grinned from ear to ear B. hit the ceiling ‌
C. burned the midnight oil D. were on cloud nine

Mark‌ ‌the‌ ‌letter‌ ‌A,‌ ‌B,‌ ‌C,‌ ‌or‌ ‌D ‌ ‌on‌ ‌your‌ ‌answer‌ ‌sheet‌ ‌to‌ ‌indicate‌ ‌the‌ ‌word(s)‌ ‌CLOSEST‌ ‌in‌ ‌meaning‌ ‌to‌
‌the‌‌underlined‌‌word(s)‌‌in‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions.‌‌
Question‌‌20:‌‌The‌dog is starving. It hasn’t got anything to eat for nearly a week. ‌
A. rather full B. very hungry
C. extremely thirsty D. quite happy ‌
Question‌ ‌21‌: ‌ We want to recruit the brightest and the best. If you think you fit the bill, fill in an
application form today.
A. are able to pay the bill B. are suitable
C. are of the right size D. are excellent
Mark‌‌the‌‌letter‌‌A,‌‌B,‌‌C,‌‌or‌‌D‌‌on‌‌your‌‌answer‌‌sheet‌‌to‌‌indicate‌‌the‌‌word(s)‌‌OPPOSITE‌‌in‌‌meaning‌‌to‌
‌the‌‌underlined‌‌word(s)‌‌in‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions.‌‌
Question ‌ ‌22: ‌‌Many ‌ ‌women ‌ ‌prefer ‌ ‌to ‌ ‌use ‌ ‌cosmetics ‌ ‌to ‌‌enhance‌‌ ‌their ‌ ‌beauty ‌ ‌and ‌ ‌make ‌ ‌them ‌ ‌look‌
‌younger.‌
A. ‌improve‌‌ B. ‌maximize‌‌
C. ‌worsen‌‌ D. ‌enrich‌‌
Question‌‌23:‌‌I‌‌think‌‌we‌‌cannot‌‌purchase‌‌this‌‌device‌‌this‌‌time‌‌as‌‌it‌‌costs‌‌an‌‌arm‌‌and‌‌a‌‌leg‌.‌‌‌
A. ‌is‌‌cheap‌‌ B. ‌is‌‌painful‌‌
C. ‌is‌‌confusing‌‌ D. ‌is‌‌expensive‌‌

Mark‌ ‌the‌ ‌letter‌ ‌A,‌ ‌B,‌ ‌C,‌ ‌or‌ ‌D‌ ‌on‌ ‌your‌ ‌answer‌ ‌sheet‌ ‌to‌ ‌indicate‌ ‌the‌ ‌option‌ ‌that‌ ‌best‌ ‌completes‌ ‌each‌ ‌of‌
‌the‌‌following‌‌exchanges.‌‌
Question‌‌24:‌‌Nam‌‌and‌‌Mai‌‌are‌‌having‌‌a‌‌party‌‌at‌‌Nam’s‌‌house.‌‌
- Nam:‌‌“Would‌‌you‌‌like‌‌to‌‌have‌‌some‌‌more‌‌dessert,‌‌Mai?”‌‌
- Mai:‌‌“______.‌‌I’m‌‌full.”‌‌
A. ‌That‌‌would‌‌be‌‌great‌‌
B. ‌Yes,‌‌I‌‌like‌‌your‌‌party‌‌‌
C. ‌Yes,‌‌please‌‌
D. ‌No,‌‌thanks‌‌
Question‌‌25:‌‌Tim‌‌and‌‌Peter‌‌had‌‌a‌‌quarrel‌‌last‌‌week‌‌and‌‌now‌‌Tom‌‌is‌‌giving‌‌Tim‌‌advice.‌‌
- Tom:‌‌“I‌‌think‌‌the‌‌best‌‌way‌‌to‌‌solve‌‌that‌‌problem‌‌is‌‌to‌‌keep‌‌silent.”‌‌
- Tim:‌‌“______.‌‌Silence‌‌may‌‌kill‌‌our‌‌friendship.”‌‌
A. ‌That’s‌‌a‌‌great‌‌idea‌‌ B. ‌That’s‌‌not‌‌a‌‌good‌‌idea‌‌‌
C. ‌I’m‌‌not‌‌wrong‌‌ D. ‌Yes,‌‌I‌‌think‌‌much‌‌

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Speech is one of the most important (26) ______ of communicating. It consists of far more than just
making noises. To talk and also to be understood by (27) ______ people, we have to speak a language.
That is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or
idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language.

Learning a language (28) ______ is very important. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large,
and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite well. (29) ______ the more idea you can express,
the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main thing (30) ______ we use in
communicating what we want to say. The way we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice
can express many emotions and show whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 26. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests
Question 27. A. other B. another C. others D. The other
Question 28. A. immediately B. accidentally C. simply D. properly
Question 29. A. Although B. Therefore C. But D. However
Question 30. A. where B. which C. who D. whom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
The Sahara Desert is the world's largest hot desert. The Sahara is in North Africa and is as large as the
United States. Many people think that an area like this has no animals or plant life, but they are incorrect.
In fact, the Sahara Desert has many different 'ecoregions’. Each ecoregion has different plants and
animals living there. The biggest ecoregion is called the 'Sahara Desert ecoregion.' In this area, the
climate is extremely dry and extremely hot. The landscape is sandy and dusty with many high dunes.
Because the Sahara Desert ecoregion is so hot and dry, there are very few plants and animals. Scientists
estimate that there are only 500 species of plants. This is not very much when thinking of how enormous
the region is. These plants include acacia trees, palms, spiny shrubs, and grasses. The Sahara is also
home to 70 species of mammals. Twenty of these are large mammals. There are about 90 species of birds
and around 100 reptiles.

The biggest threat to plants and animals in this environment is drying up. Because of this, plants have the
ability to recover their health after their leaves have dried out completely. Animals can lose 30-60% of
their body mass and still survive. Most animals do not get their water from drinking like other
ecosystems. Instead, they have adapted to get their water through metabolic processes. This is why they
can survive in a place like the Sahara Desert ecosystem.
Question 31. What is the text mostly about?
A. Location of the Sahara Desert.
B. Hot weather of the Sahara Desert.
C. How animals survive on this Desert.
D. The Sahara Desert and its ecosystem.
Question 32. In paragraph 1, the word they refers to ____.
A. people B. plants
C. animals D. ecoregions
Question 33. In paragraph 2, the word estimate is closest in meaning to ____.
A. confirm B. calculate
C. formulate D. participate
Question 34. All of the following are true about the Sahara Desert EXCEPT ____.
A. there are about five hundred types of plants
B. seventy species of mammals can be found there
C. it is home to about ninety species of birds
D. fewer than 100 reptiles are found there
Question 35. Why can animals survive in the Sahara Desert?
A. They try to reduce the water intake.
B. They get water from the irrigation system.
C. They get water through a metabolic process.
D. They don't really need water for a long time.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their jobs due to the
economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever seen people who have just
endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost, and this is easy to understan d. But other
people focus on what they did not lose, and they start thinking about a better future.
One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or other people.
The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations. Sometimes a situation
may really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can influence our own moods by the
way you think about negative situations.
Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a devastating storm.
One family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold dear has been destroyed. They
cannot imagine how they will ever be able to replace things and start over again. Their normal life seems
to have been completely lost. In contrast, a second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their
family are unharmed and safe. This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is
already trying to figure out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for
experiencing a very normal reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to
be better off. They are thinking about making progress rather than focusing on the tragic events.
Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful at the time.
This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets through life without
having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the steps you can take to remedy the
situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this, you will be laying the foundation for a
better tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain today.
Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help you through
many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you are more likely to fix it if
you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to seek help when you need it. The
advice of a friend, family member, or even a professional may be all it takes to get back on track.
It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every problem, it can
certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations.
B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person.
C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful.
D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists.
Question 37. The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. problem B. sorrow
C. disappointment D. damage

Question 38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. tragic events B. all of the people
C. the first family D. the second family
Question 39. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that _______.
A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations.
B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems are.
C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists.
D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations.
Question 40. The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. trouble B. background
C. circumstance D. imagination
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.
B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.
C. Paying attention to the solutions of the setback is better than focusing on the damage it causes.
D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations today.
Question 42. According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have troubles?
A. Be optimistic and make out a plan.
B. Ask other people for help when necessary.
C. Control your emotions.
D. Determine how serious the problem is.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and
C. are still D. for her
Question 44. Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.
A. his B. prime
C. being D. the
Question 45. It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A. is said B. these
C. become D. confidential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years.
B. He hasn't visited London for three years.
C. He didn't visit London three years ago.
D. He was in London for three years.
Question 47. “You’d better work harder if you don’t want to retake the exam!” the teacher said to
Jimmy.
A. The teacher advised Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
B. The teacher ordered Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
C. The teacher reminded Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
D. The teacher warned Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
Question 48. I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she fails the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. Jack dropped out of school at the age of 15. He now regrets it.
A. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he was 15.
B. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it.
C. Jack wishes he hadn’t dropped out of school when he was 15.
D. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.
Question 50. Linda's final exam is important. She realizes little of it
A. Under no circumstances does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
B. Never does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
C. Little does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
D. Never does Linda realize how important her final exam is.
_______ THE END _______
TEST 11

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. washed B. passed C. worked D. opened
Question 2. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. nervous B. polite C. careful D. happy
Question 4. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or on your answer sheet lo indicate the corrected answer to each other
following questions.
Question 5: The headmaster is the most popular figure at our school, ________?
A. isn’t he B. was he
C. doesn’t he D. did he
Question 6: The flood victims _________ with food and clean water by the volunteers yesterday.
A. provided B. were provided
C. are provided D. have provided
Question 7. The more information you get, _________ you will understand the problem.
A. the better B. the best
C. The more good D. better
Question 8: When their dad came home, the kids _________ the Christmas tree.
A. were decorating B. have decorated
C. decorate D. are decorating
Question 9. Mary feels confident about the competition _________ she has been well-prepared for it.
A. because of B. because
C. although D. despite
Question 10. Bill's mother won't let him go out with his friends _________ .
A. when he finished his homework
B. after he had finished his homework
C. once he finished his homework
D. until he has finished his homework
Question 11. My son is thinking of applying for a temporary job _________ the summer.
A. on B. in
C. of D. at
Question 12. ______ the negative effects of plastic bags, they turned to paper bags instead
A. To realise B. realised
C. Have realised D. Having realised
Question 13. Her father has just given her a/an _________ laptop on her birthday.
A. black old Germany B. Germany old black
C. old black Germany D. old Germany black
Question 14. Susan has achieved great _________ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. succeed
C. successful D. successfully
Question 15. Peter is an ambitious man who will never _________ till he gets what he wants.
A. take after B. give up
C. put on D. get over
Question 16. My aunt excitedly _______ me a compliment on the scarf I knitted for her as a birthday
present.
A. took B. passed
C. paid D. caught
Question 17. Thousands of _________ packed into the stadium to support their team in the final match.
A. viewers B. audiences
C. witnesses D. spectators
Question 18. Jim didn't break the vase on _________, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. occasion B. chance
C. intention D. purpose
Question 19. My employees have worked their ________ off for the whole year, so they deserve a
month's holiday.
A. shoes B. hats
C. coats C. socks

Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The local authority should take some measures to prevent farmers from cutting down trees
for land.
A. encourage B. save
C. force D. stop
Question 21. The new movie was a big hit as tickets for most of the showings were sold out.
A. beat B. failure
C. success D. threat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the
disaster-stricken areas.
A. uncertainty B. willingness
C. awareness D. reluctance
Question 23. Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging question
and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. felt happy B. stayed confident
C. got nervous D. became aggressive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.
- Peter: "Using social networks may have negative effects on students."
- Mary: “________. It distracts them from their studies."
A. You're wrong B. That's quite true
C. I don't quite agree D. I'm not sure about that
Question 25. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
- Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
- Daniel: "______."
A. You can say that again B. Thank you for looking for it
C. I like reading books D. I'm glad you like it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Women's Day
International Women's Day (IWD) is marked on March 8 every year. Countries around the world
celebrate IWD to give credit to the economic, political and social achievements of women and to (26)
_________ respect to their contributions in the development of their countries. The IWD was first
celebrated on 19 March 1911 in Germany following a declaration by the Socialist Party of America. It's
only in the beginning of the 20th century that the day was officially and internationally (27) _________
due to the rapid industrialization and the social protest that it accompanied.

On this day women are usually given flowers and small gifts. It is also celebrated as an equivalent of
Mother's Day in (28) _________ countries. Children also give small gifts to their mothers and
grandmothers. In countries like Portugal, it is customary, at the night of 8 March, for groups of women to
celebrate the holiday with women-only dinners and parties. In 1975, the United Nations gave official
sanction to and started financing International Women's Day.

(29) _________ women are becoming more powerful in business, entertainment, politics and many more
areas, there are still a lot of inequalities around the world (30) _________ call for the mobilisation of
everybody to grant women the proper status they merit.
Question 26. A. indicate B. show C. make D. perform
Question 27. A. discovered B. appreciated C. realised D. acknowledged
Question 28. A. some B. few C. a little D. most of
Question 29. A. Because B. However C. Although D. Moreover
Question 30. A. who B. which C. whose D. where
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Many Internet users delete his social accounts because of cyberbullying
A B C D
Question 32. My younger brother draws a very beautiful picture for me yesterday.
A B C D
Question 33. They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
schoolchildren’s
A B
behaviour and their academic performance.
C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Susan B. Anthony was a women's rights leader in the late 1800's. She helped lead the way to voting
rights for women. She was born in 1820 to Quaker parents. She grew up in New York State. Unlike most
girls at that time, she got a very good education.

She became active in the Abolitionist movement, taking a very strong stand against slavery. She soon
devoted all of her time to the rights of women. It bothered her a lot that women could not vote and that
women earned only a fraction of what a man would earn doing the same job.

She became very involved in trying to get the government to change its laws. She often spoke at
meetings to spread the equality message. With the help of Elizabeth Cady Stanton, she ran a newspaper
called The Revolution. In 1869 the two of them started the National Women's Suffrage (right to vote)
Association to further the cause. Even though it was illegal, Susan B. Anthony voted in the 1872
presidential election. She was arrested and fined $100 - a lot of money at that time.

She spent the rest of her life working to get women the right to vote. Unfortunately she didn't live to see
that day. Anthony died in 1906, 14 years before the Constitution was changed, in 1920, to say that
everyone had the right to vote, regardless of gender.
(Source: https://worksheetsplus.com/)

Question 34. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Susan B. Anthony, a pioneer in the women’s suffrage movement.
B. Susan B. Anthony and the Abolitionist movement.
C. Susan B. Anthony and her struggle for gender equality.
D. Susan B. Anthony’s fight against gender discrimination.
Question 35. When did American women get the right to vote according to the passage?
A. 1869 B. 1872
C. 1906 D. 1920
Question 36. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Elizabeth Cady Stanton worked with Susan B. Anthony to start the National Woman's Suffrage
Association.
B. Susan B. Anthony died before women got the vote.
C. Most girls in the United States in the 1800's got a good education.
D. Men earned much more than women would do with the same job.

Question 37. The word devoted in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______.


A. dedicated B. saved
C. wasted D. fixed
Question 38. The word she in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. Susan B. Anthony
B. Elizabeth Cady Stanton
C. a slaver
D. Susan’s mother
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in what are called
greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but tend to reflect back
downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the Earth's atmosphere. This
process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most significant of these gases – there is
25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than there was a century ago, the result of our
burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a warmer place.
They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5 degrees Celsius in the
next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years from 1987 to 1997 were the
warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that global warming has actually begun
because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade to decade, and it takes many years of
records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little disagreement, though, that global warming is
looming.

Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected to have
more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more powerful storms.
Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that exaggerated weather
conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the western United States, where
temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic decreases in rainfall may lead to severe
droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of Africa, for example.

Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected sea level
rise of 50 centimetres by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood coastal cities,
force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal wetlands. Diseases like
malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become more common in the regions of
the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the temperate zones. For many of the world's
plant species, and for animal species that are not easily able to shift their territories as their habitat grows
warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Extracted from 2017 official tests by
the MOET)
Question 39. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
C. Global Warming: Future Reactions
D. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
Question 40. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in greenhouse
gases?
A. Glass in a greenhouse
B. Humans
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Solar radiation
Question 41. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. scientists B. temperatures
C. gases D. increases
Question 42. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. fading B. showing
C. ending D. appearing
Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
B. Global climate naturally changes over time.
C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
D. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
Question 44. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. improving B. increasing
C. preventing D. decreasing
Question 45. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Minimal natural disasters
B. Higher agricultural production
C. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods
D. Favourable weather conditions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
B. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
C. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
D. I was in my hometown for a few years.
Question 47. “I found a lot of mistakes in your plan,” said my teacher.
A. My teacher said that she found a lot of mistakes in his plan.
B. My teacher said that she has found a lot of mistakes in his plan.
C. My teacher said that she had found a lot of mistakes in my plan.
D. My teacher said that she had found a lot of mistakes in her plan.
Question 48. It is compulsory for all the students to finish their class work before going home.
A. All the students needn't finish their class work before going home.
B. All the students must finish their class work before going home.
C. All the students may finish their class work before going home.
D. All the students can't finish their class work before going home

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Jane doesn’t have a computer. She can’t work from home.
A. Provided that Jane has a computer, she can’t work from home.
B. Jane wishes she had a computer so that she could work from home.
C. If Jane had had a computer, she couldn’t have worked from home.
D. If only Jane had had a computer, she couldn’t have worked from home.
Question 50. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in the
competition.
_______ THE END _______
TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. talks B. wants C. calls D. laughs
Question 2:A. widen B. open C. remind D. happen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. endanger B. dedicate C. discover D. develop
Question 4: A. police B. culture C. slogan D. famine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: He has a bicycle,_________?
A. has he B. does he
C. hasn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 6: The reserve ________many years ago, but it has actually been in use for some years recently.
A. has been established B. was established
C. is established D. established
Question 7: He quickly became accustomed ____________ the local food.
A. about B. on
C. with D. to
Question 8: The better the weather is, _________the beaches get.
A. the crowded B. the most crowded
C. more crowded D. the more crowded
Question 9: Paul has just sold his _________car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black Italian old B. Italian old black
C. old black Italian D. black old Italian
Question 10: I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. am walking
C. walked D. walk
Question 11: ___________I have read the books twice, I still don’t understand it.
A. Because B. Because of
C. Though D. In spite of
Question 12: ______________, he will have had a full day and will be ready for sleep.
A. By the time Bill goes to bed tonight
B. When Bill went to bed tonight
C. As soon as Bill went to bed tonight
D. After Bill had gone to bed tonight
Question 13: the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there
instead of going there by train.
A. Having discovered B. Discovered
C. To have discovered D. Being discovered
Question 14: She was no longer able to distinguish between ___________ and reality.
A. imaginarily B. imagination
C. imagine D. imaginary
Question 15: Her dad’s short but her mum’s really tall. With those long legs, she certainly _____her
mother.
A. looks after B. takes after
C. sees off D. turns into
Question 16 : The anti-smoking campaign has ______ an impact on young people.
A. done B. had
C. threw D. caught
Question 17 : GPS systems help a lot of people _______ on land, on the sea, and in the air.
A. inform B. interfere
C. navigate D. reunite
Question 18: The children are really getting in my___________. Tell them to go and play outside.
A. hair B. nerves
C. mouth D. books
Question 19: It is likely that artificial intelligence might decide to put a/an _____ to humanity simply
because it surpasses human intelligence.
A. danger B. reach
C. end D. distance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn’t have got our task done in time.
A. thank B. depreciate
C. require D. admire
Question 21: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety B. damage
C. decision D. chance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Dinosaurs were unable to survive under severe ice age weather conditions.
A. remain alive
B. remain intact
C. get through
D. lose their lives
Question 23: My neighbours are really tight with money. They hate throwing away food, don’t eat out,
and always try to find the best price.
A. to spend money too easily
B. not to like spending money
C. not to know the value of money
D. to save money as much as possible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mum and Jackson are in the living room.
- Mum: “Would you like a piece of cheesecake I’ve just made, darling?” - -
Jackson:”________”
A. You’re welcome.
B. That would be great.
C. Not at all.
D. You are right.
Question 25: Pat and Sam are having a topic on the environment.
- Pat: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Sam: “__________. It’s really worrying.”
A. I’ll think about that. B. I don’t agree.
C. I don’t think so. D. I can’t agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
When the word "endangered" is mentioned, people usually think of particular species, like the panda or
whooping crane. However, we would like to encourage you to think about (26) ____ in a broader
context. It is habitat, the physical places (27) _______ species live and interact with one another.
Although the development of special breeding programs, also known as captive conservation, may help
some species in some cases, it is clearly not an answer to the global problem. Indeed, (28) ____ we are
able to protect natural areas where endangered species actually live, they have no future.

Species become endangered for a wide (29) ____ of reasons. By analysing and grouping many individual
cases, however, we find the same broad causes appearing again and again. They are Habitat Destruction,
Exotic Species, and Overexploitation. Among other factors threatening particular species are limited:
distribution, disease, and pollution. Limited distributions are often a consequence of other threats:
populations confined to one or a few small areas because of habitat loss. Diseases can have a severe
impact on species lacking natural genetic protections against particular pathogens. Domestic animals are
usually the reservoirs of these and (30) _______ diseases affecting wild populations.
Question 26: A. endangerment B. circulation C. restoration D. evolution
Question 27: A. that B. when C. where D. whose
Question 28: A. so B. but C. if D. unless
Question 29: A. commerce B. extinction C. variety D. destruction
Question 30: A. another B. other C. the other D. others
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global warming.
Scientists have already observed changes in the life cycles of many plants and animals: They have begun
changing where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountain sides toward
higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to change their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow
too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these changes. Species that find
cities or farmland preventing their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique
ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountainous regions, are especially at risk because moving
to new habitats is not possible.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have
estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3°C of further
warming. The rate of warming is extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and even
entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough and may
disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially easily damaged ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to "bleach", a state which if lasted will lead to the
death of the coral.
Question 31: Which statement is TRUE about coral reefs mentioned in paragraph 4?
A. They have to absorb water to survive in the ocean.
B. They can grow quickly in a marine environment.
C. They can bloom when ocean temperatures rise.
D. They can die due to warmer ocean temperatures.
Question 32: The word "disappear" in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. live B. die
C. survive D. exist
Question 33: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ____.
A. plants and animals B. scientists
C. life cycle D. changes
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move
______.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher.
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human.
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants.
C. Global warming and possible solutions.
D. Global warming and species.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When it comes to ambition, no two people are alike. Every class has its outstanding students, every
company has its wonderful employees, and every family has its successful members. Then there is
someone who is happy with whatever life brings. So what makes us different?

A person's desire to succeed depends on so many factors. He or she may have goals, but without the
ambition to get started, they never take the first steps to achieve them. Similarly, those with an ambition
but no clear goals tend to begin many projects, but do not ever follow them till the end.

Although there are not any strict rules about how to teach "ambition” or what decides it, many
successful people do share some things. Most scientists agree that it helps to have parents who encourage
the children to try new experiences, praise their successes, and accept their failures. In those families,
kids often have much higher confidence levels. They know how to set goals and keep trying until they
achieve them. Money also plays an important role. Those who are not very rich often want to earn
money. It forces them to work hard all the time and improve their life.

However, the desire for success can create its own stress. Working too hard to achieve success can
lead to illnesses. These days, even teens and young adults are feeling the stress. Trying to get into good
colleges and find good jobs have forced high school students to study harder than ever. For many, it is
difficult to find the balance. One solution may be to get together with family and friends, and do the
things we enjoy. Most would agree that those values are far more important than any wealth or success.
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. An Interesting Life Story
B. A Life without Stress
C. The Desire For Success
D. Ways to Teach Ambition
Question 37: The word outstanding in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. terrible B. pleasant
C. honest D. excellent
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, ambition _______.
A. is achieved by all people
B. is shared by different people
C. differs from person to person
D. is the same for all people
Question 39: The word them in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. kids B. levels
C. levels D. goals
Question 40: The word illnesses in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. wonderful results B. good feelings
C. money problems D. health problems
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. A person's desire for success depends on so many factors.
B. The desire to succeed can badly affect people's health.
C. Money does not play a role in people's success.
D. Some people are pleased with whatever life brings.
Question 42: Which of the following can be referred from the passage?
A. People in modern society do not care about the values of family.
B. Teenagers in the past had to work harder to enter colleges.
C. Poor people do not work hard enough to improve their life.
D. The combination of ambition and clear goals is essential to success.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to be
corrected on each of the following questions.
Question 43: As people need more land to build houses, he cuts down more forests.
A. forests B. As
C. he cuts D. more land
Question 44: David falls down the stairs yesterday and hurt his leg seriously.
A. falls B. the stairs
C. his D. seriously
Question 45: Species become extinct or dangerous for a number of reasons, but the primary cause is the
destruction of habitat by human actions.
A. destruction B. reasons
C. dangerous D. human actions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 46: The last time my father played tennis was in 1990.
A. My father has played tennis since 1990.
B. My father started playing tennis in 1990.
C. My father hasn’t played tennis since 1990.
D. My father didn’t play tennis in 1990.
Question 47: “You’d better stay at home and rest for a few days”, he said to Mai.
A. He ordered Mai to stay at home and rest for a few days.
B. He warned Mai against staying at home and resting for a few days.
C. He advised Mai to stay at home and rest for a few days.
D. He thanked Mai for staying at home and resting for a few days.
Question 48: I’m sure Linda was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Linda must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Linda must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Linda should have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Linda was likely dissatisfied with her final exam results.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Mary lost the ticket for the concert. She really wanted to watch it.
A. As long as Mary didn’t lose the ticket, she would go to the concert.
B. Mary wishes she hadn’t lost the ticket and could have gone to the concert.
C. Had Mary lost the ticket, she wouldn’t have gone to the concert.
D. If only Mary didn’t lose the ticket and could go to the concert.
Question 50. He graduated from a famous university. He was admitted to that company right after that.
A. But for his admission to that company, he could have graduated from a famous university.
B. Scarcely had he graduated from a famous university when he was admitted to that company.
C. He graduated from a famous university as soon as he was admitted to that company.
D. Not until he was admitted to that company did he graduate from a famous university.
_______ THE END _______
TEST 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1: A. installed B. appeared C. washed D. joined
Question 2: A. determine B. combine C. oblige D. ideal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 4
Question 3: A. psychology B. certificate C. experience D. application
Question 4: A. status B. signal C. physics D. police

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 5 to 16
Question 5: He passed the entrance exam with flying colours. He _____ very hard.
A. needn't have studied B. must have studied
C. can't have studied D. should have studied
Question 6: People _____ late were not allowed in until the interval.
A. arriving B. arrive
C. to arrive D. arrived
Question 7: The last time I_____ in Tampa, the weather was hot and humid.
A. have been B. had been
C. am D. was
Question 8: You have been late twice this week. Don't be late again,_____ ?
A. will you B. don't you
C. won't you D. do you
Question 9: She didn't realize the _____ to which the children would be affected.
A. width B. extent
C. length D. expanse
Question 10: Her description of events was not enough to _____ the court.
A. cope B. justify
C. satisfy D. prove
Question 11: She expressed her _____ thanks to all those who had helped and supported her.
A. heart-broken B. heart-shaped
C. heart-felt D. heart-centered
Question 12: Her singing career _____ after she became the winner of a singing competition.
A. turned up B. took off
C. went out D. broken out
Question 13: If I had more money, I _____ a larger house.
A. would buy B. will buy
C. had bought D. would have bought
Question 14: I stood _____ to the spot when the thief snatched my bag.
A. amazed B. rooted
C. untouched D. unmoved
Question 15: Society is now much more _____ than ever before.
A. diversity B. diversify
C. diversification D. diverse
Question 16: I avoid_____ Mary the truth because I knew she would be angry.
A. to be told B. to tell
C. telling D. being told
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 17 to 18
Question 17: Turtles abandon their eggs after they lay them and never see their young.
A. desert B. raise
C. keep D. destroy
Question 18: She'd purchase her expensive jewelry at the drop of a hat and worry about how she would
pay for it later.
A. with care B. with no difficulty
C. without hesitation D. with great effort

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 19 to 20
Question 19: Scholarships allow some students from less affluent families to attend college.
A. happy B. significant
C. wealthy D. poor
Question 20: Living in the heart of New York City is certainly a far cry from living in the rural
countryside.
A. very similar to B. not as costly as
C. as interesting as D. quite different from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges from 21 to 22
Question 21: Peter is talking to Mai after work.
- Peter: "______________________"
- Mary: "Thank you for your invitation. I'd be delighted to."
A. What would you like for dinner on Saturday?
B. Would you like to have dinner with me on Saturday?
C. Do you usually have tea after dinner ?
D. What do you think of the dinner last Saturday?
Question 22: Tom and Daisy are talking about films.
- Tom :"Do you find horror films interesting?"
- Daisy: "_____ "
A. What nonsense! B. Not at all.
C. No problem . D. I don't agree with you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 23 to 25
Question 23: When she saw the cat running across the street, she quickly slammed on the breaks to
avoid hitting it.
A. hitting B. quickly
C. running D. the breaks
Question 24: The chief of police demanded from his assistants an orderly investigation, a well-written
report, and that they work hard.
A. demanded B. that they work hard
C. orderly D. his
Question 25: It was not until did she receive the new treatment that her heart condition improved.
A. improved B. did she receive
C. treatment D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30
The invention and development of the Internet was the biggest discovery by mankind in the 20th
century. Today, the Internet is used by more than 50% of the world population. Its applications are found
in every field, be it communication, knowledge, news, shopping, marketing, entertainment, education,
etc.
The fast and (26)_____ low-cost access is one of the major benefits of Internet to people and students
all over the world, as getting an Internet connection is easy. Communication and information are the two
basic uses of the Internet. Information available on websites can be updated or modified at any time and
for any number of times, (27)_____ helps in learning and better understanding.
Arguably, it is believed that visual data has a greater impact (28)_____ learning and memorizing
than plain text. (29)_____ , images, graphics, animation, pictures, slides, documentaries, etc., have a
greater appeal than a plain textbook. Using multimedia and Internet provides an opportunity for children
to gain knowledge about a particular subject in (30)_____ . Students can now see actual photographs of
rare bird species, or see animated graphics of a volcanic eruption to understand the concept in detail.
(Source: https://eduzenith.com/advantages-of-internet-in-education)
Question 26: A. likely B. probably C. relatively D. approximately
Question 27: A. that B. which C. who D. where
Question 28: A. on B. in C. to D. with
Question 29: A. In contrast B. However C. Therefore D. On the contrary
Question 30: A. depth B. size C. width D. length

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions from 31 to 33
Question 31: There is a general belief that a huge meteorite crashing into the earth led to the extinction
of dinosaurs.
A. It is believed that the extinction of dinosaurs brought about the crash of a huge meteorite into the
earth.
B. A huge meteorite crashing into the earth is believed to have resulted from the extinction of
dinosaurs.
C. The extinction of dinosaurs is thought to be responsible for the crash of a huge meteorite into the
earth.
D. The disappearance of dinosaurs is believed to have been caused by a huge meteorite colliding with
the earth.
Question 32: John finds it difficult to eat with chopsticks.
A. Eating with chopsticks is not a problem for John.
B. John used to eat with chopsticks.
C. John is familiar with eating with chopsticks.
D. John is not used to eating with chopsticks.
Question 33: “I will study harder for the next exam. Believe me, Mum!” he said.
A. He objected to studying harder for the next exam.
B. He promised to study harder for the next exam.
C. He suggested studying harder for the next exam.
D. He asked his mother to believe in his studying harder.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions from 34 to 35
Question 34: Family support is very important. You will fully appreciate the importance of family
support when you are alone in a strange place.
A. Not until you fully realize the importance of family support will you be alone in a strange place.
B. As soon as you fully appreciate the importance of family support, you will be alone in a strange
place.
C. It is not until you realize how important family support is that you are alone in a strange place.
D. Only when you are alone in a strange place will you fully understand how important family support
is.
Question 35: The artist did not sell the painting. The dealer offered a high price for it.
A. When the dealer offered a high price for the painting, the artist sold it.
B. The dealer offered a high price, so the artist sold the painting.
C. The artist did not sell the painting because the dealer did not offer a high price for it.
D. Although the dealer offered a high price for the painting, the artist did not sell it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
A Western-style conversation between two people is like a game of tennis. If I introduce a topic, a
conversational ball, I expect you to hit it back. If you agree with me, I expect you to add something- a
reason for agreeing, another example, or an elaboration to carry the idea further. But I don't expect you
always to agree. I am just as happy if you question me, or challenge me, or completely disagree with me.
Whether you agree or disagree, your response will return the ball to me. And then it is my turn again. I
don't serve a new ball from my original starting line. I hit your ball back again from where it has
bounced. I carry your idea further, or answer your questions or objections, or challenge or question you.
And so the ball goes back and forth.
A Japanese-style conversation, however, is not at all like tennis or volleyball. It is like bowling. You
wait for your turn. And you always know your place in line. It depends on such things as whether you are
older or younger, in a senior or junior position, and so on. When your turn comes, you step up to the
starting line with your bowling ball and carefully bowl it. Everyone else stands back and watches politely,
murmuring encouragement. Everyone waits until the ball has reached the end of the alley and watches to
see how many pins have been knocked down. Then, after everyone is sure that you have completely
finished your turn, the next person in line steps up to the same starting line, with a different ball. He doesn't
return your ball, and he does not begin from where your ball stopped.
It is quite true that even though you have been trained all your life to play one game, it is no simple
matter to switch to another, even if you know the rules. Knowing the rules is not at all the same thing as
playing the game.
(by Nancy Masterson- from Polite Fictions- Why Japanese and Americans Seem Rude to Each
Other)
Question 36: Which of the following sentences best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. It’s unlikely to have a conversation with someone from another country.
B. Japanese conversations are different from Western ones.
C. It’s important to take part in a conversation in Western countries.
D. It’s considered rude to interrupt someone who is speaking.
Question 37: The author makes all of the following arguments EXCEPT ______ .
A. In Japanese-style conversations, you must wait your turn to speak.
B. A Western-style conversation goes on in a similar way to a tennis or volleyball game.
C. A Japanese-style conversation advances in the same way as a bowling game.
D. Western-style conversations are longer than Japanese-style ones.
Question 38: What does the word “elaboration” in paragraph 1 most likely means ______ .
A. disagreement B. explanation
C. encouragement D. collaboration
Question 39: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ______ .
A. tennis B. Japanese-style conversation
C. volleyball D. turn
Question 40: In paragraph 2, the word “alley” most likely means _____ in bowling.
A. something you wear
B. the place where players sit
C. the place where you roll the ball
D. the place where you write your score
Question 41: During conversation, Western speakers do NOT expect their listeners to _____ .
A. take their own turns
B. give reasons for their agreement
C. listen to them silently
D. completely disagree with them
Question 42: What can we infer from the passage?
A. Japanese students are more likely to stop their teachers to ask questions during lessons.
B. If you know Japanese conversation etiquettes, you can easily talk to Japanese people.
C. Japanese people would be surprised if someone interrupted them while they are speaking.
D. Japanese people prefer playing bowling to tennis or volleyball during a conversation.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
As history shows, the past was not wonderful. It was not really bad for a privileged minority, though
even they had to do without modern medicine, and childbirth was fraught with dangers for women. But
for the vast majority of the population, life was hard and short.
Nowadays, it cannot be denied that scientific knowledge and technology have been changing our
world in the right directions. Then, this means that the public needs to have a basic understanding of
science, so as to make informed decisions and not leave them in the hands of experts. At the moment, the
public has a rather ambivalent attitude toward science. It has come to expect the steady increase in the
standard of living that new developments in science and technology have brought to continue, but it also
distrusts science because it doesn't understand it. This skepticism is evident in the cartoon figure of the
mad scientist working in his laboratory to produce a Frankenstein. But the public also has a great interest
in science, as is shown by the large audiences for science fiction.
What can be done to harness this interest and give the public the scientific background it needs to
make well-grounded decisions on subjects like acid rain, the greenhouse effect, nuclear weapons, and
genetic engineering? Clearly, the basis must lie in what is taught in schools. But in schools science is
often presented in a dry and uninteresting manner. Children must learn it by rote to pass examinations,
and they don't see its relevance to the world around them. Moreover, science is often taught in terms of
equations because scientists and engineers tend to express the precise value of quantities. But for the rest
of us, a qualitative grasp of scientific concepts is sufficient, and this can be conveyed by words and
diagrams.
The science people learn in schools can provide the basic framework. But the rate of scientific
progress is now so rapid that there are always new developments that have occurred since one was at
school or university. Besides books and Internet, there are some very good science programs on TV, but
others present scientific wonders simply as magic, without explaining them or showing how they fit into
the framework of scientific ideas. Producers of television science programs should realize that they have
a responsibility to educate the public, not just entertain it.
What are the science-related issues that the public will have to make decisions on in the near future?
Among the imminent dangers, nuclear weapons are still poised to strike the major cities. There's a sick
joker that the reason we have not been contacted by an alien civilization is that civilizations tend to
destroy themselves when they reach our stage. But I have sufficient faith in the good sense of the public
to believe that we might prove this wrong.
(by Stephen Hawking from Black Holes and Baby Universes and Other Essays)
Question 43: The main idea of this reading is ______.
A. The media can inform people about the most recent developments in technology
B. The science people learn in school can provide a basic framework for scientific understanding
C. Many people don’t take science in faith because science is beyond their comprehension
D. The public should be educated about science more properly so they can make good decisions
Question 44: History shows that in the past, ______.
A. life was more strenuous for the majority of people than today
B. it was not risky for honored women to give birth with modern medicine
C. life was not so inconvenient for ordinary people as today
D. life was more prosperous for most privileged people than today

Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.


A. informed decisions
B. scientific knowledge and technology
C. hands of experts
D. public needs
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, the public ______.
A. has mixed feelings toward benefits of science
B. feels science completely beneficial to life
C. usually refuses to see science fiction films
D. believes scientists working in the laboratories are mad
Question 47: The phrase qualitative grasp of in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. increasing interest in B. explicit understanding of
C. general understanding of D. firm hold of
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, science programs on TV should ______.
A. show science wonders as a kind of magic to attract people’s attention
B. not only entertain the public but also educate them about basic science
C. present a lot of basic frameworks to arouse people’s interest in science
D. show more science fiction films to satisfy ordinary people’s need
Question 49: The phrase “poised to strike” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. prohibited by B. used to destroy
C. ready to attack D. allowed by
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. More attention should be paid to sources outside the school to provide ordinary people with basic
scientific knowledge.
B. Educators should make school scientific programs more precise and helpful for students who want
to become scientists.
C. The authority should impose stricter censorship on science programs on TV to make them less
entertaining and more educational.
D. Students are not interested in learning science at school because they do not want to become insane
like scientists in comics.
----------- THE END ----------
TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shout B. round C. would D. count
Question 2: A. jumped B. lived C. warned D. stared
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. important B. attractive C. romantic D. personal
Question 4: A. combine B. deny C. open D. arrive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5: Forced to give up her driver's license, Gertrude doesn't like ___ around town in her sister’s
car.
A. being driven B. to have driven
C. to be driving D. having driven
Question 6: Many students take a _____ year to do voluntary work or to travel before going to
university.
A. gap B. break
C. division D. cut
Question 7: ______, a company could not be sold.
A. Without the approval of the shareholders
B. Needed the approval of the shareholders
C. To have approved the shareholders
D. The shareholders hadn’t approved
Question 8: My grandson has been very interested in doing research on ____ since he was eight at
school.
A. biological B. biologically
C. biology D. biologist
Question 9: When _____ about where he had gone and what he had done three days before, the suspect
looked really troubled.
A. was questioned B. having questioned
C. questioning D. questioned
Question 10: My grandfather's always complaining ____ about how expensive things are.
A. highly B. painfully
C. bitterly D. extensively
Question 11: More and more people in my hometown are using solar energy, _____ it is rather
expensive.
A. although B. owing to
C. because D. despite
Question 12: Even as an adult, I still ________ out of building sandcastles at the beach.
A. have my hands full B. keep cool head
C. drag my feet D. get a kick
Question 13: As the oldest child in my family, I always try not to be financially dependent _____ my
parents.
A. of B. on
C. from D. with
Question 14: If we walk fast enough, we _____ the village by the time it gets dark.
A. reached B. were reaching
C. would reach D. will reach
Question 15: I caught sight of one of my old friends while I _____ along the street yesterday afternoon.
A. would drive B. drove
C. was driving D. had driven
Question 16: She’s such an opportunist. Have you seen the disgusting way she _____ the boss?
A. makes up to B. sorts out
C. gets back to D. takes on
Question 17: To achieve a nice body, you can use a waist trainer, but remember that is only a ______ to
a healthy lifestyle with regular exercising and a balanced diet.
A. combination B. supplement
C. displacement D. substitute
Question 18: Neil Armstrong was _____ first man who walked on the Moon.
A. the B. an
C. Ø D. a

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 19: I was supposed to go to a concert with Jean on Friday, but she stood me up, explaining
that she had forgotten the date.
A. got me to stand up B. remained calmed
C. failed to show up D. supported my idea
Question 20: Athletes must undergo a mandatory drug test before competing in the championship.
A. voluntary B. elective
C. compulsory D. optional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: One great achievement in Thomas Edison’s career is the invention of the electric lamp.
A. misstep B. failure
C. bankruptcy D. success
Question 22: Had the students studied instead of goofing off all semester, they wouldn’t be so worried
about tomorrow’s exam.
A. passing time in a relaxed way B. spending time studying
C. behaving not very well D. avoiding working

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Two friends are talking about artificial intelligence.
Lien: “I think that the rapid development of artificial intelligence would pose a threat to human. What
do you think?
Luan: “_________. Human beings are very smart. They create artificial intelligence and would know
how to keep it under control.”
A. I totally agree with you B. No. I don’t think so.
C. Yes. That’s true. D. You can’t miss it.
Question 24: Clara and Danvers are talking with each other about Danvers’s new job.
Clara: “I’ve heard that you have found a new job. Congratulations!”
Danvers: “_______________”
A. Not at all. It is easy. B. Oh. I’m sorry to hear that.
C. You’re welcome. D. Thank you very much.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Innovative farmers in Japan have figured out a way to produce square-shaped watermelons. And all
(25) ____ the help of weird science or genetic engineering! As baby watermelons are growing on the
vine, glass containers are placed around them. As each watermelon matures, it naturally swells to fit the
shape of the box. The result is (26) ____ eye-catching watermelons that can be sliced like a loaf of bread.
Unlike normal water melons, square watermelons don’t take up a lot of room and there is no difficulty
storing them in the fridge as they sit neatly on the shelf. But these watermelons don’t (27) ____ cheap.
Each one costs 10,000 yen (about $82)! Square melons are thus an expensive luxury food and so are not
eaten by regular people. (28) ____, these melons appeal to wealthy people (29) ____ are looking to give
a business colleague or friend an impressive gift. In Japan, gift-giving is a very important part of
socialising. Giving a friend a beautifully-wrapped and costly piece of fruit as a gift is very popular.
Question 25: A. for B. in C. without D. with
Question 26: A. terribly B. frequently C. indispensably D. incredibly
Question 27: A. become B. turn C. remain D. come
Question 28: A. Furthermore B. Instead C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 29: A. who B. what C. whose D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The city of Lodz in Poland was another unremarkable industrial city until a few years ago in 2009,
an organisation called the Urban Forms Foundation was set up by a well-known art historian and an
actress. Their idea was to bring the tired urban landscape to life again.
The Foundation planned an art project that would change the city’s image and regenerate the
centre, and presented it to the city council. It wanted the council to ask street artists to paint on walls
around the city centre as a permanent outdoor exhibition. The mayor of the city supported the idea and
the Foundation was given permission to go ahead and raise the money needed. Famous street artists from
all over the world were invited by the Foundation to come to Poland to work, including Os Gemeos from
Brazil, Aryz from Spain and Remed from France, as well as local talents like M-city and Etam Cru. In
total, artists from eight countries took part in the project over the next few years, and more than twenty
huge murals were created on the sides of buildings in public spaces.
Lodz is now the second city in the world for street art after New York, and people visit there
especially to see the amazing artworks. With a special map, tourists can walk round the city and view
them all in a couple of hours. Now, once a year, the Foundation organises an art festival which attracts
participants from all over the world. An in the future, the project will be continued with other pieces of
urban art- statues, sculptures and ‘street jewellery’. The transformation goes on.
(Solution intermediate, workbook, 3rd edition, OUP, 2018)

Question 30: What is the best title of the passage?


A. Street Artists B. A Brighter City
C. Urban Forms Foundation Organization D. The Most Famous Industrial City
Question 31: The word “It” in paragraph 2 most likely refers to _____.
A. The image B. The centre
C. The city D. The Foundation
Question 32: The word “murals” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. devices B. ceremonies
C. paintings D. projects
Question 33: According to the passage, famous street artists _____.
A. from abroad only were invited
B. were asked to take part in the project
C. asked the Foundation for work
D. weren’t interested at first in the project
Question 34: According to the passage, because of the Foundation’s work, _____.
A. the city has become famous in the art world
B. the city now has more street art than New York
C. tourists are allowed to paint on the city walls
D. there is no need for more artwork in the city

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Digital technology has given birth to social media, tools that allow ordinary people to create, share
and exchange information without the need for the usual news channels. Moreover, social media is also
attracting a large share of advertisers' money away from the traditional media. As a result, newspapers,
the radio and television are always looking for ways to hurt their new rival by publishing stories that play
on people's fears about how untrustworthy and unsafe social media is.
When Zilla van den Born left home for a five-week trip around South-East Asia, she promised her
family in Amsterdam that she would keep in touch and she did. Zilla regularly uploaded photos to her
Facebook page of herself on the beach, on sightseeing trips and dining out. She also made Skype calls to
her family to tell them that everything was going just as she had planned. And it was, but not as she had
led her family to believe, because Zilla hadn't gone abroad; she was holed up in her flat in Amsterdam.
The reason for Zilla's devious behaviour was her university project, which aimed to demonstrate how
social media can distort the truth. Zilla certainly succeeded. When Zilla finally let on that her holiday had
been a hoax, her family admitted that they had been completely taken in. Zilla explained that the
experiment demonstrated how today we can manipulate reality and the press loved the story. However,
while the mainstream media takes every opportunity to expose the dangers of social media, social media
has become good at demonstrating that the traditional press is also far from perfect.
As all football fans know, the sports media has to work harder between matches to fill their pages
and sites. The most popular method of doing this is by speculating about the players that clubs might buy
or sell, especially talented foreigners. However, many readers often suspect that these stories are the
products of lazy journalism and, if not completely false, contain very little truth and a lot of exaggeration.
One Irish football fan set up a Wikipedia page of an invented Masai Bugduv, a football superstar from
Moldova, whose nickname was ‘Massi’. He then wrote false press agency stories that claimed Bugduv
would soon join Arsenal and sent them to sports Hogs. The blogs accepted the stories as true, but the big
surprise came when The Times newspaper included an article entitled Football's Top 50 Rising Stars. At
number thirty on the list was ‘Moldova's finest’, sixteen-year-old Masai Bugduv, who had been linked
with Arsenal and 'plenty of other top clubs as well.'
While most people would agree that the traditional press should warn people about the
dangers of new technology, it is also good to know that social media can expose the unprofessional
practices of some journalists. The more they zoom in on each other's unacceptable practices, the better
for the readers.
(Solution upper-intermediate, 3rd edition, OUP, 2018)
Question 35: What is the best title of the passage?
A. Digital Technology Era B. A Virtual Holiday
C. Media Wars D. Imperfection of Traditional Press
Question 36: The word “hoax” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. a way to relax B. a plan to deceive someone
C. a criminal D. an excuse for bad behaviour
Question 37: To deceive her family and friends, Zilla _____.
A. just created a virtual holiday world on her computer
B. went on holiday to a local beach
C. stayed in a hotel room
D. used both real objects and computer programs

Question 38: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.


A. readers B. top clubs
C. stories D. Sports Hogs
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, a lot of readers of sports journalism think that _____.
A. Masal Bugduv really exists
B. stories about players are usually invented
C. talented foreign players are often lazy
D. it’s more difficult to write about football when games aren’t being played
Question 40: The word “zoom in on” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. give way to B. give special attention to
C. lose track of D. make the image much larger
Question 41: The writer includes the story about Masai Bugduv to ______.
A. provide a balanced approach to the topic.
B. demonstrate how untrustworthy traditional media is.
C. show how lazy journalists are.
D. show sports journalism is not very serious.
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that the traditional media find ways to attack social
media because it _____.
A. can’t defend itself B. is untrustworthy and unsafe
C. isn’t a dangerous rival D. sees it as a threat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The architects were praised for having made imaginary use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. transparent plastic B. of
C. praised for D. imaginary
Question 44: The children enjoy always being allowed to stay up late when there’s something special on
TV.
A. on TV B. enjoy always
C. to stay up D. there’s
Question 45: Modern laptops like this one can find easily at any FPT stores, where there are a wide
range of products for customers to choose.
A. like B. can find
C. where D. a wide range of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: It was wrong of you to allow our son to ride the motorbike to school.
A. You needn’t have allowed our son to ride the motorbike to school.
B. You couldn’t have allowed our son to ride the motorbike to school.
C. You shouldn’t have allowed our son to ride the motorbike to school.
D. You mightn’t have allowed our son to ride the motorbike to school.
Question 47: My brother drives more carefully than I do.
A. I drive more carefully than my brother does.
B. I don’t drive as carelessly as my brother does.
C. My brother does drive as carefully as I do.
D. I don’t drive as carefully as my brother does.
Question 48: “Did you turn off the lights before going out, Mai?” asked the mother.
A. The mother asked Mai if she had turned off the lights before going out.
B. The mother asked Mai if she has turned off the lights before going out.
C. The mother asked Mai whether she would turn off the lights before going out.
D. The mother asked Mai whether she turned off the lights before going out.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She didn’t lend a sympathetic ear to my problems. It is a pity.
A. I wish she hadn’t given lent a sympathetic ear to my problem.
B. I regret that she isn’t sympathetic enough to listen to my problem.
C. I would rather she lent me a sympathetic ear.
D. If only she had listened to my problems sympathetically.
Question 50: Tom didn’t pay enough attention. Now he asks such a question.
A. Had Tom not paid enough attention, he wouldn’t ask such a question.
B. Had it not been for his inattention, he wouldn’t have asked such a question.
C. So inattentive was Tom that he asks such a question now.
D. Attentive as Tom was, he asks such a question now.
----------- THE END ----------
TEST 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1: It's an impressive design, but it probably won't receive much popular approval.
A. determination B. opposition
C. support D. success
Question 2: The case will be thoroughly studied before any decision is made.
A. eternally B. instantly
C. temporarily D. carefully

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 3 to 4
Question 3: I always have butterflies in my stomach before an interview.
A. feel calm B. get nervous
C. give certainty D. become irritated
Question 4: After several part-time jobs, he's now got a stable job in a bank.
A. challenging B. unchangeable
C. get annoyed D. temporary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 5 to 6
Question 5: A. treat B. team C. seat D. great
Question 6: A. answers B. maintains C. appalls D. attacks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 7 to 8
Question 7: A. primary B. confident C. defensive D. optional
Question 8: A. appeal B. limit C. enact D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 9 to 23
Question 9: Every morning, _____ sun shines in my bedroom window and wakes me up.
A. the B. Ø (no article)
C. a D. an
Question 10: Sheila is the _____ behind our new environmental initiative, so she deserves all the credit.
A. heads B. thoughts
C. brains D. minds
Question 11: He hasn't been home since he _____ from university.
A. graduated B. graduates
C. has graduated D. will graduate
Question 12: The committee made a number of _____ for improving standards in schools.
A. acceptances B. promotions
C. introductions D. recommendations
Question 13: They have organized a car to meet him _____ the airport.
A. by B. on
C. at D. under
Question 14: They were angry _____ their plans had been discovered.
A. although B. because
C. in spite of D. because of
Question 15: That boy is so intelligent, _____?
A. isn’t he B. doesn’t he
C. is he D. does he
Question 16: Before you can start a business, you will have to raise the necessary _____.
A. investment B. capital
C. income D. savings
Question 17: I don't expect a lot of people to _____ at this event because it's on a Tuesday night.
A. turn on B. hold on
C. hold up D. turn up
Question 18: I’ll phone my mother _____ in Hanoi.
A. While I was arriving B. After I had arrived
C. Before I arrived D. As soon as I arrive
Question 19: No one really knows why he agreed _____ the film.
A. done B. did
C. to do D. doing
Question 20: If the weather _____ so bad, we would go to the park.
A. weren’t B. isn’t
C. hadn’t been D. hasn’t been
Question 21: The bride and the groom are in the wedding car _____ with ribbons and flowers.
A. beautifully decorating B. beautifully decorated
C. having beautifully decorated D. is beautifully decorated
Question 22: Researchers found a number of important _____ in the way boys and girls learn.
A. differ B. different
C. differences D. differently
Question 23: You should try to _____advantage of every opportunity that comes your way.
A. do B. make
C. take D. get
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges from 24 to 25
Question 24: Peter and John are talking about the use of electronic devices in the classroom.
- Peter: “I think teachers should ban or limit the use of electronic devices in the classroom”
- John: “_____________. Electronic devices distract students from their studies.”
A. Don’t mention it B. I’m afraid I disagree
C. That’s not true D. I quite agree
Question 25: David and Tony are co-workers. They are at a lunch table in a cafeteria.
- David: “Could you pass me the pepper, Tony?”
- Tony:"_____”
A. Certainly. Here you are. B. Yes, I’d love to.
C. No, not at all. D. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 26 to 28
Question 26: The subjects that you will be studying in this course is listed in the syllabus.
A. The B. that
C. is D. in
Question 27: I wish he would listen to his mother, stop playing computer games, and paying more
attention to his studies.
A. paying B. stop
C. his studies D. to
Question 28: Walt Disney's imagination and creation resulted in the production of some wonderful
animated films.
A. the B. animated films
C. imagination D. creation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 33
Tom Avery is the youngest Briton to have reached both poles. He and his team recently followed
the route taken by Robert Peary in his 1909 expedition to the North Pole.
Both men left from Cape Columbia in Canada but Peary’s team was larger. Peary also had four
support groups and every 160 kilometres a group would leave food behind and turn back. This meant the
team decreased in size as he went north. Avery’s team didn’t have the extra men, but they had food
dropped by plane at four locations.
Although Avery’s team had the benefit of modern technology, Avery thinks this did not make much
difference. “Your speed depends on the dogs and how rapidly you can get a sledge through the ice. We
also had to deal with the same dangers. At the end of winter, some ice is only 7 centimetres thick and it
can break easily under your weight. Peary was also more experienced than us and had been on several
expeditions to the Arctic.”
Avery believes they owe their success to the 16 Inuit dogs that pulled the sledges. “Our dogs
worked in teams of 8. They kept us going. In the evenings, I would thank every one of them.”
“Travelling with dogs is the best form of Arctic transport. You cannot do the journey in that time by
any other method.”
Some historians say Peary could not have reached the North Pole in 39 days. But Avery’s team
actually beat this time, becoming the fastest to reach the North Pole on foot. Avery says, “We told
everyone that could be done so it was important not to fail. But it was hard, especially towards the end
when the ice was melting quickly.”
Question 29: What is the best title for this text?
A. An accident in the Arctic
B. Proving it’s possible
C. Discovering new routes
D. How to lead a team
Question 30: How was Avery’s North Pole Expedition different from that of Peary’s?
A. They did not leave from the same place.
B. Avery’s team was supplied by air.
C. Avery’s team was larger.
D. They did not take the same route.
Question 31: The word “rapidly” in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. well B. fast
C. hard D. low
Question 32: Which of the following is TRUE about Avery’s attitude towards the Inuit dogs?
A. He was surprised by their speed.
B. He was very grateful to the dogs.
C. He regretted not taking more dogs.
D. He thought they were well trained.
Question 33: The word “that” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. Avery’s team reaching the North Pole in record time
B. Peary’s team beating Avery’s team to set foot at the North Pole
C. The North Pole’s ice melting in the end
D. Some historians denying Peary’s team’s success
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
With the globalization of information technology (IT) and worldwide access to the Internet,
people from all (34) _____ of learning are finding themselves using some form of information
technology in the workplace. The corporate world has seen a boom in the use of IT tools, but conversely,
not enough people with IT skills that can enter the workplace and be productive with minimal on-the-job
training.
A recent issue of the New York Times reports that many companies are looking for smart
students (35) _____ may have a budding interest in IT. Some companies, trying to encourage students to
attend interviews, provide good salary packages and challenging work environments. (36) ______, one
American IT consulting company offers high salaries, annual bonuses, and immediate stock options to
potential recruits. It also brings in 25 to 40 (37) _____ applicants at a time for a two-day visit to the
company. This time includes interviews, team exercises, and social events. The idea behind the team
exercises is that the applicants get to see that they will be working with (38) _____ smart people doing
really interesting things, rather than sitting alone writing code.
Question 34: A. sides B. regions C. areas D. places
Question 35: A. who B. which C. where D. whom
Question 36: A. However B. Therefore C. For example D. Moreover
Question 37: A. elaborate B. perspective C. prospective D. confidential
Question 38: A. other B. another C. every D. others

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45
Most of us consider our personality to be an integral and unchanging part of who we are, and for
decades psychologists have more or less assumed that our main personality traits are fixed by the age of
30. But now mounting evidence is undermining that notion; personality is far more mutable than we
thought. That may be a little unsettling, but it’s also good news for the almost 90% of us who wish our
personalities were at least a little different.
There’s no doubt that personality is partly genetic, but experiences in childhood also shape our
personalities. Research shows that young children become more extroverted and work harder when
surrounded by other kids with these traits. Parental behaviour has an impact, too. Jerome Kagan at
Harvard University has found that if parents encourage timid infants to be sociable and bold, they grow
up to be less shy and fearful.
Genes and environment interact in complex ways to shape our personality, and this process
doesn’t stop when we reach adulthood. It’s becoming clear that major life events can have long-lasting
impacts on personality at any age. For example, going through a divorce makes women more extroverted
and more open to experience, while men become less conscientious, according to one US study.
Becoming unemployed can have a dramatic effect on well-being. ‘It’s probably the life event that
has the biggest impact,’ says Christopher Boyce at the University of Stirling, UK. And he has found that
the impact on personality is twice as big, tending to make people less conscientious and less agreeable.
Moving to a new town or country might influence your personality too- people living in New York tend
to be highly neurotic, for example, while Londoners score low on agreeableness.
The extent to which environmental factors shape our characters over a lifetime is remarkable. In
work published last year, psychologist Wendy Johnson and her colleagues at the University of Edinburgh
compared results from personality tests taken by people when they were aged 14 and again at 77. ‘We
couldn’t find any evidence for stability in individual personality characteristics,’ she says.
There is also growing evidence that we can actively shape our own personality-and would benefit
from doing so. Psychologists continue to debate the extent to which personality is plastic in adulthood,
but there is now no doubt that it can and does change. And that’s good news for all of us. Knowing that
you are not ‘set’ by 30 is empowering. You can think: ‘I’m not stuck with who I am. I can change,’ says
Boyce.
Question 39: What is the main idea of the text?
A. You cannot escape the personality that you are genetically destined to have.
B. People are becoming generally more neurotic than they used to be.
C. Scientists still know very little about how our personalities are formed.
D. Your personality changes throughout your life and you may be able to affect this process.
Question 40: The word ‘unsettling’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. worrying B. satisfactory
C. critical D. interesting
Question 41: As it is mentioned in the passage, the idea that our personality does not change much after
the age of 30 is one which ______.
A. psychologists have always doubted.
B. most people find uncomfortable.
C. is not supported by the results of research.
D. has been undermined by advances in genetics.
Question 42: According to the study mentioned in paragraph 3, what is TRUE about the experience of
getting divorced?
A. It tends to affect people differently depending on their age.
B. It tends to affect men and women differently.
C. It tends to have a bigger effect than genetics.
D. It tends to make people generally more outgoing.
Question 43: The word ‘conscientious’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. half-hearted B. responsible
C. impatient D. mean
Question 44: According to paragraph 4, the effect of losing your job on your personality is ______.
A. as profound as its effect on your well-being
B. the same as the effect of moving to New York
C. far bigger than on your well-being.
D. less dramatic than moving house
Question 45: The word ‘it’ in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. adulthood B. extent
C. news D. personality

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions from 46 to 48
Question 46: “I went out with my friends last night,” Daisy said.
A. Daisy said that she had gone out with my friends the night before.
B. Daisy said that she had gone out with her friends the previous night.
C. Daisy said that I had gone out with her friends the night before.
D. Daisy said that she would go out with her friend the following night.
Question 47: Jane is not as talkative as her sister.
A. Jane’s sister is as talkative as Jane.
B. Jane’s sister is more talkative than Jane.
C. Jane’s sister is less talkative than Jane.
D. Jane is more talkative than her sister.
Question 48: It’s possible that our train will not arrive at the station punctually.
A. Our train will certainly arrive at the station punctually.
B. Our train needn’t arrive at the station early.
C. Our train may have arrived at the station late.
D. Our train might not arrive at the station on time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions from 49 to 50
Question 49: You can go out with your friend. Make sure you get home before 8 p.m.
A. You can go out with your friends unless you get home before 8 p.m.
B. You can go out with your friends provided that you get home before 8 p.m.
C. You can go out with your friends in case you get home before 8 p.m.
D. As long as you get home before 8 p.m., you can’t go out with your friends.
Question 50: Sally was very brave. She saved Jim from drowning.
A. But for Sally’s bravery, Jim would have drowned.
B. If Sally had not been so brave, Jim would not have drowned.
C. If Sally were not so brave, Jim would drown.
D. Had it not been for Sally’s bravery, Jim would drown.
-----------------------------------------------
----------- THE END ----------
TEST 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. pretends B. performs C. regrets D. opens
Question 2: A. dog B. know C. pop D. hot

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. character B. disaster C. adventure D. attention
Question 4: A. arrive B. decide C. copy D. concern

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5: The dry season is coming to an end, ________?
A. is it B. does it
C. isn’t it D. doesn’t it
Question 6: Last night, she ________ a big diamond ring by her husband-to-be at her birthday party.
A. was giving B. gave
C. gives D. was given
Question 7: ______ she studies, the better results she will probably get.
A. Hardest B. The hardest
C. The harder D. Harder
Question 8: He ______ on his report when his computer suddenly shut down.
A. works B. was working
C. worked D. is working
Question 9: We didn’t enjoy the day ______ the weather was so awful.
A. in spite of B. because
C. although D. due to
Question 10: Jeff will have traveled to 20 countries _______ at the end of next month.
A. as soon as he turned fifty B. when he turned fifty
C. by the time he turns fifty D. after he had turned fifty
Question 11: When you grow up, you must learn how to become independent _______ your parents.
A. on B. of
C. with D. in
Question 12: ________ on the project, he felt absolutely exhausted when it finished.
A. Having spent a lot of time B. Being spent a lot of time
C. To spend a lot of time D. Spent a lot of time
Question 13: At the farewell party, Jane gave Danny a _______ mug with her portrait outside so that he
would always remember her.
A. big Japanese lovely B. lovely Japanese big
C. lovely big Japanese D. Japanese big lovely
Question 14: In Asian countries, _______ is a form of connection between two families or two clans
rather than two people.
A. marrying B. married
C. marry D. marriage
Question 15: When I first traveled by plane, I really felt excited as the plane ______ from the ground.
A. took off B. filled in
C. turned down D. stood up
Question 16: In order to become a member of the country club, applicants have to __________ set by
the club president.
A. widen the gap B. gain confidence
C. enhance communication D. meet the requirements
Question 17: The website is managed by volunteers who put in __________ hours of work helping
students deal with situations of bullying.
A. generous B. widespread
C. overwhelming D. countless
Question 18: IT technology has developed to a very high level, __________ the community and
transforming the residents’ lives positively.
A. creating impacts on B. causing trouble for
C. making bad decisions on D. doing harm to
Question 19: The journalist had to __________ because what he had written in his article about the
celebrity’s private life was wrong.
A. put himself in other people’s shoes B. call it a day
C. rest on his laurels D. eat humble pie

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
A recent study suggests that teens’ relationship with parents, friends and teachers may have a
lot to do with why they don’t get a good night’s sleep.
David Maume, a sociologist and sleep researcher, analyzed federal health data, which
interviewed 974 teenagers when they were 12, and then again at 15. He found that family dynamics have
much to do with how well kids sleep. Teens, who had warm relations with their parents and felt like they
could talk to them or their parents were supportive of them, tended to sleep better. However, families
that were going through a divorce or a remarriage tended to affect teens’ sleep.
And problems at school also affected teens’ sleep. Feeling safe at school and having good
relations with teachers tended to promote better sleep. As did good relationships with friends. Kids who
took part in sports or other positive social activities or shared similar academic goals with their friends
were also more likely to get a good night’s sleep.
These add up to what makes lots of sense: a general feeling of well-being helps teens sleep. If
we’re happy and contented, we’re much more likely to sleep better than if we’re sad and anxious.
Now, of course, teens can hardly resist being drawn to their computers and social networking.
Maume also found that when parents were strict not only about bedtime, but also about limiting
technology, kids slept better. It’s a finding that seems obvious, but parents really do matter when it
comes to health habits of their teenagers. Clearly, teenagers aren’t getting 9 to 10 hours a night, which
puts them at risk for all the consequences of lack of sleep, including poor academic performance, colds
and stress.
(Adapted from www.mofangge.com/html/qDetail/03/g3/.../6i35g303219584.html)
Question 20: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Modern technology has something to do with teens’ sleep problems.
B. It is necessary for teens to join in sports and positive social activities.
C. Lack of adequate sleep puts teens at risk of performing poorly at school
D. Teens’ sleep is linked to their relationship with people around them.
Question 21: What does the word “them” in the passage refer to?
A. parents B. warm relations
C. teens D. family dynamics
Question 22: According to Maume’s analysis, who will probably have a poor night’s sleep?
A. Teens who lack a sense of security at school.
B. Teens who have friends sharing their dreams.
C. Teens who feel like talking with their parents.
D. Teens who feel contented about themselves.
Question 23: The word “well-being” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. worrying B. insecurity
C. happiness D. excitement
Question 24: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Parents have nothing to do with their children’s health habits.
B. Parents can help their children sleep better by restricting their use of technology.
C. Teens whose parents broke up can’t sleep well.
D. Teens are unable to perform well at school if they don’t get sufficient sleep.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Light pollution is the existence of too much unwanted, artificial light in the environment. Too
much light pollution has (25) ______ effects on people. It upsets ecosystems, has bad health effects, and
wastes energy.
In upsetting ecosystems, light pollution poses a serious threat in particular to night wildlife,
having damaging impacts on plant and animal physiology. It can affect the migratory patterns of animals,
change competitive interactions of animals, and cause physiological harm. The rhythm of life as we
know it is controlled by the natural daily patterns of light and dark. (26) ______, the disruption to these
patterns does harm to the ecological dynamics. With respect to adverse health effects, many
species, especially humans, are dependent on natural body cycles, and the production of melatonin, (27)
______ are regulated by light and dark (e.g., day and night). If humans are exposed to light while
sleeping, melatonin production can be affected. This can lead to sleep disorders and (28) ______ health
problems such as increased headaches, worker fatigue, stress, some forms of obesity due to lack of sleep
and increased anxiety. Health effects are not only due to over-illumination or excessive (29) ______ of
light over time, but also improper spectral composition of light.
(Adapted from https://www.globeatnight.org/light-pollution.php)
Question 25: A. negative B. essential C. positive D. helpful
Question 26: A. Whereas B. However C. Conversely D. Therefore
Question 27: A. whom B. which C. whose D. that
Question 28: A. other B. another C. the other D. others
Question 29: A. coverage B. inauguration C. contact D. exposure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: She enjoyed the chance to converse with those who speak her language.
A. teach B. talk
C. translate D. preserve
Question 31: The most diligent students, who always put efforts into what they do, will succeed.
A. competitive B. lazy
C. hard-working D. intelligent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32: Before he went on vacation, Mike left explicit instructions for the decoration of his office
and everyone got it.
A. vague B. clear
C. simple D. direct
Question 33: Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a striking
contrast.
A. minor comparison B. great disparity
C. significant difference D. complete coincidence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 34: Lily has been invited to Wendy’s party and she is talking to Wendy at the end of the party.
- Lily: “Thank you for a wonderful evening!”
- Wendy: “__________”
A. Have a great day! B. Never mind.
C. It’s very kind of you to say so. D. You’re welcome.
Question 35: Jenny and Anna are having a discussion about interesting career options.
- Jenny: “I think teaching is one of the most rewarding jobs because it gives you a chance to create
impacts on future generations.”
- Anna: “__________”
A. Let’s drop it. B. No doubt about it.
C. Let me think about that and get back to you. D. Why not?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 36: Some ancient philosophers such as Pythagorus and Aristotle were ahead of their time
because he thought that the earth was round.
A. he thought B. because
C. Some D. ahead of
Question 37: I woke up late for my interview because I have been worrying about it all night and didn’t
get much sleep.
A. have been worrying B. woke up late
C. get much sleep D. all night
Question 38: A panel of uninterested judges who had never met the contestants before judged the
singing contest with justice.
A. contestants B. A panel
C. uninterested judges D. judged

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Question 39: I started to learn English 10 years ago.
A. I learnt English for 10 years.
B. I have started learning English for 10 years.
C. The last time I learnt English was 10 years ago.
D. I have been learning English for 10 years.
Question 40: “I will pay back the money, Linda,” said Helen.
A. Helen suggested paying the money back to Linda.
B. Helen apologized to Linda for borrowing her money.
C. Helen insisted on paying the money back to Linda.
D. Helen promised to pay the money back to Linda.
Question 41: You were supposed to hand in this assignment two days ago.
A. You may have handed in this assignment two days ago.
B. You must have handed in this assignment two days ago.
C. You ought to have handed in this assignment two days ago.
D. You should have been supposed to hand in this assignment two days ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 42: You didn’t perform well in the interview. I feel sorry for you.
A. I wish you performed better in the interview.
B. I regret that you couldn’t have performed better in the interview.
C. I wish you had performed better in the interview.
D. Had you performed better in the interview, I didn’t feel sorry for you.
Question 43: I posted the letter. I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
A. Scarcely had I posted the letter when I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
B. Not only did I realize that I had forgotten to put a stamp on the letter but I posted it as well.
C. Only before posting the letter did I realize that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
D. No sooner had I posted the letter than I forgot to put on a stamp.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
I left school and university with my head packed full of knowledge; enough of it, anyway, to
pass all the examinations that were put in my path. As a well-educated man I rather expected my work to
be a piece of cake, something at which my intellect would allow me to excel without undue effort. It
came as something of a shock, therefore, to encounter the world outside for the first time, and to realize
that I was ill-equipped, not only for the necessary business of earning a living, but, more importantly, for
coping with all the new decisions which came my way, in both life and work.
I was soon to discover that my mind had been trained to deal with closed problems, whereas
most of what I now had to deal with were open-ended problems. ‘What is the cost of sales?’ is a closed
problem, one with a right or a wrong answer. ‘What should we do about it?’ is an open problem, one with
any number of possible answers, and I had no experience of taking this type of decision.
I had been educated in an individualist culture. My scores were mine. No one else into it,
except as competitors in some imagined race. I was on my own in the learning game at school and
university. Not so in my work, I soon realized. Being an individual star would not help me there if it was
in a failing group. I had discovered, rather later than most, the necessity of others.
So much of the content of what I had learned was irrelevant, while the process of learning it
had cultivated a set of attitudes and behaviors which were directly opposed to what seemed to be needed
in real life. Although I had studied philosophy, I hadn’t applied it to myself. It would be nice to think that
our schools today prepare people better for life and for work. The subjects may appear to be a little more
relevant, but we are still left to learn about work at work, and about life by living it. I believe we could do
more to make sure that the process of education had more in common with the processes of living and
working as they are today, so that the shock of reality is less cruel.
(Adapted from New proficiency Gold Coursebook by Jacky Newbrook and Judith Wilson)
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The complexity of the world outside.
B. The gap between education and the real world.
C. The necessity of being exposed to the harsh reality.
D. The urgent need for educational reforms.
Question 45: The word “undue” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. constant B. extensive C. inconsiderable D. negligible
Question 46: The word “this type” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. the type related to the cost of sales B. the type with some possible answers
C. the type with a right answer D. the type with a wrong answer

Question 47: According to the passage, ______.


A. The author could deal with new decisions
B. The author was ill-prepared for real-life experiences
C. The author realized the importance of individualism in his work
D. The author found it necessary to view his colleagues as competitors
Question 48: The word “cultivated” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. changed B. developed C. weakened D. required
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned, according to the passage?
A. The author expected to succeed by using the qualities his education had developed when leaving
university.
B. The author found that he had been trained to deal with problems in the wrong way.
C. The author realized that he needed the company of his colleagues at work.
D. The author found that he should have taken advantage of his intellectual ability.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred about the author’s thoughts from paragraph 4?
A. Relevance of learning contents has reduced the gap between school and work.
B. Work and life experience plays a little role in dealing with the harsh reality.
C. Students should be aware of applying philosophy to their life.
D. Today’s educational system does not give students a much better preparation.---
---------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------
ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ 6
1. B 11. B 21. C 31. A 41. D
2. D 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. A
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. C 43. A
4. A 14. A 24. D 34. D 44. B
5. C 15. B 25. C 35. C 45. D
6. D 16. D 26. C 36. C 46. B
7. A 17. C 27. D 37. D 47. C
8. A 18. B 28. A 38. D 48. A
9. C 19. A 29. B 39. A 49. B
10. B 20. D 30. B 40. D 50. B

ĐỀ 7
1. D 11. B 21. A 31. C 41. D
2. C 12. C 22. B 32. A 42. D
3. B 13. A 23. A 33. C 43. B
4. C 14. C 24. C 34. C 44. A
5. D 15. D 25. A 35. C 45. C
6. B 16. A 26. D 36. C 46. A
7. A 17. C 27. B 37. D 47. C
8. B 18. B 28. C 38. D 48. B
9. D 19. A 29. B 39. A 49. A
10. A 20. D 30. A 40. B 50. C

ĐỀ 8
1. B 11. D 21. C 31. C 41. B
2. C 12. D 22. B 32. A 42. C
3. A 13. B 23. D 33. A 43. A
4. B 14. B 24. A 34. B 44. B
5. D 15. B 25. A 35. C 45. D
6. A 16. A 26. D 36. B 46. D
7. D 17. C 27. C 37. C 47. A
8. C 18. A 28. A 38. B 48. D
9. C 19. C 29. C 39. B 49. A
10. D 20. D 30. D 40. D 50. D
ĐỀ 9
1. A 11. A 21. C 31. B 41. D
2. A 12. D 22. A 32. A 42. A
3. B 13. C 23. D 33. D 43. D
4. C 14. A 24. B 34. A 44. B
5. B 15. B 25. D 35. D 45. C
6. A 16. C 26. D 36. A 46. A
7. A 17. B 27. D 37. A 47. B
8. D 18. C 28. C 38. A 48. C
9. B 19. C 29. D 39. C 49. C
10. B 20. A 30. D 40. B 50. D
ĐỀ 10
1. C 11. A 21. B 31. D 41. D
2. B 12. B 22. C 32. A 42. A
3. C 13. B 23. A 33. B 43. A
4. D 14. C 24. D 34. D 44. A
5. D 15. B 25. B 35. D 45. D
6. B 16. A 26. C 36. A 46. B
7. D 17. D 27. A 37. B 47. A
8. C 18. B 28. D 38. C 48. B
9. B 19. B 29. C 39. D 49. C
10. D 20. B 30. B 40. C 50. C

1. D 11. B 21. D 31. B 41. A


2. B 12. D 22. B 32. B 42. D
3. B 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. A
4. B 14. A 24. B 34. A 44. D
5. A 15. B 25. D 35. D 45. B
6. B 16. C 26. B 36. C 46. B
7. A 17. D 27. D 37. A 47. C
8. A 18. D 28. A 38. A 48. B
9. B 19. D 29. C 39. D 49. B
10. D 20. C 30. B 40. B 50. D

ĐỀ 12
1. C 11. C 21. A 31. D 41. C
2. C 12. A 22. D 32. B 42. D
3. B 13. A 23. A 33. A 43. C
4. A 14. B 24. B 34. D 44. A
5. D 15. B 25. D 35. B 45. C
6. A 16. B 26. A 36. C 46. C
7. D 17. C 27. C 37. D 47. C
8. D 18. A 28. D 38. C 48. B
9. C 19. C 29. C 39. D 49. B
10. A 20. A 30. B 40. D 50. B

ĐỀ 13
1. C 11. C 21. B 31. D 41. C
2. A 12. B 22. B 32. D 42. C
3. D 13. A 23. D 33. B 43. D
4. D 14. B 24. B 34. D 44. A
5. B 15. D 25. B 35. D 45. A
6. A 16. C 26. C 36. B 46. A
7. D 17. A 27. B 37. D 47. C
8. A 18. C 28. A 38. B 48. B
9. B 19. D 29. C 39. B 49. C
10. C 20. A 30. A 40. C 50. A
ĐỀ 14
1. C 11. A 21. B 31. D 41. A
2. A 12. D 22. B 32. C 42. D
3. D 13. B 23. B 33. B 43. D
4. C 14. D 24. D 34. A 44. B
5. A 15. C 25. C 35. C 45. B
6. A 16. A 26. D 36. B 46. C
7. A 17. B 27. D 37. A 47. D
8. C 18. A 28. B 38. C 48. A
9. D 19. C 29. A 39. B 49. D
10. C 20. C 30. B 40. B 50. C

ĐỀ 15

1. C 11. A 21. B 31. B 41. C


2. D 12. D 22. C 32. B 42. B
3. A 13. C 23. C 33. A 43. B
4. D 14. B 24. D 34. C 44. C
5. D 15. A 25. A 35. A 45. D
6. D 16. B 26. C 36. C 46. B
7. C 17. D 27. A 37. C 47. B
8. B 18. D 28. D 38. A 48. D
9. A 19. C 29. B 39. D 49. B
10. C 20. A 30. B 40. A 50. A
ĐỀ 16
1. C 11. B 21. C 31. C 41. C
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. A 42. C
3. A 13. C 23. C 33. D 43. A
4. C 14. D 24. A 34. D 44. B
5. C 15. A 25. A 35. B 45. B
6. D 16. D 26. D 36. A 46. B
7. C 17. D 27. B 37. A 47. B
8. B 18. A 28. A 38. C 48. B
9. B 19. D 29. D 39. D 49. D
10. C 20. D 30. B 40. D 50. D

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