LRN ENTRY LEVEL CERTIFICATE IN ESOL

INTERNATIONAL (ENTRY 3) (CEF B1)

LEVEL B1 DURATION:
LISTENING 30 MINUTES
LISTENING
WRITING WRITING
2 HOURS
READING AND USE READING
AND USE
EXAM PAPER A - JUNE 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:
• Do not open this paper until you are told to do so.
• Read the instructions before answering the questions.
• You will hear Section 1, Section 2 and Section 3 of the Listening TWICE.
• You will hear Section 3 of the Listening AGAIN in Writing, Section 1.
• Answer all the questions.
• Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet in pencil.
• Use an HB2 pencil.
• Complete TWO Tasks in the Writing Section.
• Write your Tasks in the Writing Booklet in pencil.
• You must ask any questions now as you cannot speak during the Test.

Page 1
LISTENING SECTION 1 CEF B1

Listen to 9 short conversations. For questions 1-9, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
You will hear each conversation TWICE. You now have 2 minutes to read the questions.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

At the gym A runaway dog

1. What is TRUE according to what you 6. What is FALSE according to what you
hear? hear?
A. Judy joined the gym a long time ago. A. Lily saw Bob’s dog in the park.
B. Jogging is not allowed in the park. B. Bob’s dog has got out of the garden
C. Judy thinks that the gym will before.
disappoint David. C. Bob will go to the park to get his
dog.
At the restaurant
2. From what you hear, you understand Away from home
that both the woman and her daughter 7. From what John tells Maria, you
will have understand that he
A. vegetable soup for a starter. A. works in London.
B. cheesecake for dessert. B. hasn’t made any friends in London.
C. something to drink. C. has always lived in London.
Car problems Feeling weak
3. It seems that 8. What does Jill advise Thomas to do?
A. Tania is surprised the car battery is A. sleep during the day
dead. B. take his temperature
B. Mike has had a problem with his car C. drink less coffee
before. Birthday presents
C. Tania won’t go to work.
9. Whose present will Ellen not wear to
A rainy Saturday work tomorrow?
4. What will Emma and Leo probably do? A. her brother’s
A. go shopping before the weather gets B. her mum’s
worse C. Nick’s
B. spend their day at home
C. order food for lunch
The glasses
5. George’s mum tells him that
A. his glasses were not on the kitchen
table.
B. he probably left his glasses in the
living room.
C. she found his glasses in his
bedroom.

Page 2
LISTENING SECTION 2 CEF B1

Listen to 3 longer conversations. For questions 10-15, choose the best answer
(A, B or C). You will hear each conversation TWICE. You now have 1 minute
to read the questions.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

Burnt cake
10. From what you hear, you understand that
A. when the cake was in the oven, Matt was watching TV.
B. Annie helped Matt to make the cake.
C. Annie is angry with Matt.

11. What is TRUE according to what you hear?

A. Annie will make another cake.
B. Matt threw the cake away.
C. Matt likes Annie’s idea.

An old song
12. What is FALSE according to what you hear?
A. Daniel has not heard the song before.
B. The song brings back nice memories for Marian.
C. Daniel and Marian have known each other since college.

13. What does Marian ask Daniel to do?

A. sing with her
B. switch off the radio
C. play the song on his guitar

Dinner plans
14. Steve tells Natalie that
A. the supermarket has already closed.
B. the weather is getting better.
C. there are a lot of cars on the roads.

15. From what you hear, you understand that Steve

A. prefers to have just a salad for dinner.
B. will cook burgers for dinner.
C. asks Natalie to bring him dessert.

Page 3
LISTENING SECTION 3 CEF B1

Listen to Theo’s message for his friend, Harry. For questions 16-20, choose the best
answer (A, B or C). You will hear the message TWICE. You now have 1 minute to look
at the questions.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

16. Theo tells Harry that

A. there is an old castle in the centre of the village.
B. it is very cold in the house where he is staying.
C. the village has got stone houses with red roofs.

17. What does Theo say about the castle?

A. It is a quiet place.
B. A lot of people visit it.
C. Tourists cannot stay there.

18. What is TRUE about the forest according to what you hear?
A. It is a long way from the village.
B. Many tourists go there.
C. People are not allowed to picnic there.

19. What did Theo and his father do on the second day in the village?
A. They went horseback riding.
B. They walked in the forest.
C. They visited a local museum.

20. What is FALSE according to what you hear?

A. The village restaurants have tasty food.
B. Anyone can visit the castle for free.
C. There is no nightlife in the village.

Now, open your Writing Booklet, turn to Writing, Section 1, Task 1 and listen to the
instructions. You have 1 minute to open your Writing Booklet.

Page 4
WRITING SECTION 1 CEF B1

Task 1

Listen to Theo’s message for his friend, Harry, again. USE the space provided in the
Writing Booklet to take notes. You need to use the information from the recording and
the notes you have taken to write an email to a friend of yours telling him/her about a
village in the mountains you are staying at with your family.

Write your email in the Writing Booklet, Task 1.

Your notes will not be marked.

Take notes for the following information

or for anything else you wish.

About the village

Write your notes in
where it is
the Writing Booklet
what it is like

what its main attraction is

Things to do around the village

what activities people can do there

what the food is like there

what people can do at night

Page 5
WRITING SECTION 1 CEF B1

You must do Task 1.

Write your email in the Writing Booklet. You need to use the notes you have taken.
You may add any other relevant information you wish.

Write your email in 90-110 words.

Write an email to a friend of yours telling him/her about a village in the

mountains you are staying at with your family.

In your email, use the notes you have taken and say
• what the village is like
• what the village’s main attraction is
• what activities visitors can do there
• what people can do at night

Page 6
WRITING SECTION 2 CEF B1

Choose ONE of the following Writing Tasks. USE the points given below each Task.
You may add your own points if you wish.

Write your Task in the space provided in the Writing Booklet in 110-150 words.

Task 2
A friend of yours is planning to move to your neighbourhood. Write an email
to your friend telling him/her all about your neighbourhood.

In your email, say

• where your neighbourhood is

• what fun places there are in your neighbourhood
• what shops there are in your neighbourhood
• what you do not like about your neighbourhood

OR

Task 3
Write a story that begins:

‘I was ready to begin my history test when my phone rang.’

Continue the story.

OR

Task 4
Write an essay about the advantages and disadvantages of having a laptop.
Support your ideas.
In your essay, you should talk about the

advantages of having a laptop disadvantages of having a laptop

• easy to carry • easy to get damaged
• access internet through Wi-Fi • expensive to repair
• work or study anywhere • can cause health problems

Page 7
READING AND USE SECTION 1 CEF B1

Read the text below about The History of Shopping Malls and then answer the questions
that follow. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

The History of Shopping Malls

Today, shopping malls are familiar to everyone around the world. But when and where did
the first shopping mall appear?

In the early 1920s, J.C. Nichols, an American architect, bought a big piece of land outside
Kansas City, in the USA. There, he built the Country Club Plaza, the first shopping mall in
the world. Many people in the USA owned a car at that time, so it was easy for them to
travel there to do their shopping. The Country Club Plaza was an outdoor mall; all its shops
were built in a straight line along a road with street parking in front of them. J.C. Nichols
also built very expensive homes around the Country Club Plaza and allowed other companies
to construct blocks of flats, as well as more, smaller shopping centres nearby. Today, the
Country Club Plaza still attracts thousands of people from all over America who shop there.

In 1956, the Southdale Centre, the first indoor and air-conditioned shopping mall in the
world opened just outside the city of Edina, in Minnesota, USA. Victor Gruen, an Austrian
architect, designed the mall in 1954. Gruen had moved to the USA in 1938, and he lived
there until 1968, when he returned to Austria. In 1939, he became well-known after he had
designed some shops on New York’s 5th Avenue, one of the most expensive and visited
shopping streets in the world. Gruen designed the Southdale Centre to be a place where
people could shop and enjoy themselves at the same time. On the ground floor, there was
a large entrance and near it, a fountain with some fake trees, works of art, a juice bar and
many benches where people could sit. Electric stairs, called escalators, took visitors from
there to the other floors, where there were two large department stores and 72 smaller
shops. The mall offered 5,300 free parking spaces; _______, these were quite far from the
mall entrance to encourage walking.

The Southdale Centre became famous and thousands of shopping malls, both in the USA
and the rest of the world, have been built since 1956. Today, online shopping is becoming
more and more popular and as a result, some shopping malls are trying hard to survive and
others are closing down. However, shopping malls still attract a lot of people.

Page 8
READING AND USE SECTION 1 CEF B1

1. From what you read in the 2nd paragraph, you understand that
A. J. C. Nichols built the Country Club Plaza on his own piece of land.
B. it was difficult for people to get to the Country Club Plaza.
C. there was a large car park behind the Country Club Plaza.

2. What is TRUE about the Country Club Plaza according to the 2nd paragraph?
A. It was not the only place for shopping in the area.
B. J. C. Nichols built homes for poor people around it.
C. It is not a popular place for shopping nowadays.

3. What do you learn about Victor Gruen in the 3rd paragraph?

A. He designed the Southdale Centre while he was in Austria.
B. He never went back to Austria after 1938.
C. The shops he designed in New York in 1939 made him famous.

4. What is FALSE about New York’s 5th Avenue, according to the 3rd paragraph?
A. It is a street with very expensive shops.
B. It is a famous place for shopping.
C. It is the place where Victor Gruen grew up.

5. On the ground floor of the Southdale Centre, people could

A. visit a department store.
B. walk in a garden with a lot of trees.
C. have something to drink.

6. Which word can best fill the blank in the 3rd paragraph?
A. because
B. however
C. so

7. What does the phrase ‘the mall entrance’ in the 3rd paragraph mean?
A. a place in the mall to sit down
B. the front door to the mall
C. the space behind the mall

8. In the last paragraph, the writer says that

A. shopping malls are not popular at all nowadays.
B. there is little interest in online shopping.
C. some shopping malls are facing problems.

Page 9
READING AND USE SECTION 2 CEF B1

Read the following two passages about Bananas.

For questions 9-15, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

Bananas

Facts about Bananas 9. What is TRUE according to the 1st

paragraph?
The banana is, perhaps, the world’s
A. Banana trees can grow in any kind of
favourite fruit. However, most people
weather.
don’t know that there are over 1,000 types
B. Some types of bananas do not taste
of bananas; they are all delicious, but each
good.
type has a different size, taste or colour.
C. Nowadays, most people prefer to eat
The most popular type in the world today
Cavendish bananas.
is the sweet Cavendish banana. While
many people believe the first banana 10. According to the 1st paragraph, the
plants were in Africa, they were, actually, banana plant originally comes from
first grown in New Guinea, an island north A. Africa.
of Australia, about 8,000 years ago. From B. Australia.
there, they spread to other areas. Banana C. New Guinea.
plants grow best in tropical areas because
the weather is warm and rainy all year 11. From what you read in the 2nd paragraph,
around; they die in extremely hot or cold you learn that
weather. A. apples are healthier than bananas.
B. many people could not afford to buy
Until the early 20th century, bananas were
bananas in the past.
rare and expensive in most countries, so
C. bananas were very popular before the
they were unknown to a lot of people.
20th century.
Nowadays, although bananas travel long
distances to get to every corner in the 12. In the last paragraph, the writer
world, their price is so low that everyone A. advises us not to eat a lot of bananas
can enjoy their health benefits; like apples, a day.
bananas are full of vitamins and minerals, B. describes a recipe for a banana
which we need to stay healthy and fight dessert.
off illnesses. C. explains why bananas are healthy.
There are a lot of ways we can eat
bananas. We can put them in a smoothie,
or use them to make delicious desserts;
we can even fry or grill them. However, we
should not eat too many bananas a day as
they can cause problems, such as
sleepiness or headaches.

Page 10
READING AND USE SECTION 2 CEF B1

Threats to Banana Plants 13. From what you read in the 1st
paragraph, you understand that
Nowadays, banana plants are in great
Panama disease
danger because of Panama disease. This
A. was unknown in 1950.
disease is the most dangerous of all the
B. is not the only disease that affects
banana plant diseases worldwide. Scientists
banana plants.
first discovered Panama disease in Australia,
C. only affected banana farms in
in 1876. For a very long time, the most
Australia.
popular banana variety in the world was the
Gros Michel; by 1950, though, Panama 14. What is TRUE according to the 2nd
disease had killed almost all the Gros Michel paragraph?
banana plants in all the farms around the A. Cavendish bananas replaced Gros
world. Michel bananas.
Luckily, banana farmers found a solution to B. Cavendish bananas are still safe
their problem; they started growing another from Panama disease.
variety of banana, the Cavendish. Panama C. Scientists have found a way to stop
disease could not easily destroy the Panama disease.
Cavendish variety and so, banana farmers
15. What is FALSE according to the 3rd
rescued their business. Today, however,
paragraph?
Panama disease has returned and is now
A. Scientists worry about the future of
threatening the Cavendish banana as well.
banana plants.
Scientists are very worried because if the
B. The hot weather in the future will
disease affects one banana plant, it will
affect banana plants.
then affect the whole farm and all the
C. Very high temperatures will be
banana plants will die; Scientists are trying
good for banana plants.
very hard to save the Cavendish banana,
but this may be very difficult because there
is still no cure for Panama disease.

Banana plants may face another problem in

the future. Scientists are afraid that
temperatures around the globe may get so
high that they will reduce banana
production in some areas. They also believe
that because of this big increase in
temperatures, there will be more dangerous
diseases which could kill banana plants.

Page 11
READING AND USE SECTION 3 CEF B1

For questions 16-30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

16. Everybody looked when the strangely-dressed man …………… into the office.
A. is walking
B. will walk
C. walked

17. Children should spend …………… time on social media.

A. a few
B. less
C. a lot

18. Some shops are open …………… Sundays.

A. on
B. in
C. at

19. Susan rarely …………… TV late at night.

A. watches
B. has watched
C. is watching

20. John’s teacher asked him …………… the test again.

A. that took
B. taking
C. to take

21. “Don’t be afraid of the dog. It …………… you!”

A. wasn’t hurt
B. don’t hurt
C. won’t hurt

22. She told them an …………… story about her holiday in Mexico.
A. amazed
B. amazing
C. amazes

Page 12
READING AND USE SECTION 3 CEF B1

23. Mary is very kind and friendly so everybody …………… her.

A. are liking
B. likes
C. like

24. “Which film …………… last night?”

A. did you watch
B. you watched
C. have you watched

25. Visitors …………… to touch any work of art at the gallery.

A. can’t allow
B. are not allowed
C. do not allow

26. The little child was not …………… to carry the heavy shopping bag.
A. many strong
B. such strong
C. strong enough

27. “There is no milk in the fridge. …………… you get some on your way home?”
A. Do
B. Can
C. Ought

28. “Their school does not have …………… .”

A. a library
B. no library
C. some library

29. “We have never stayed at a better hotel …………… this one.”
A. as
B. than
C. from

30. His car …………… in the middle of the road.

A. worked out
B. broke down
C. put off

Page 13
READING AND USE SECTION 4 CEF B1

For questions 31-40, choose the best answer (A, B or C) to fill in the gaps.

Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

Summer Camps
Summer camps can be one of the most enjoyable and unforgettable experiences children
have, because, apart (31) ……… having fun, children can learn important skills. Firstly, as
most summer camp activities involve teamwork, children (32) ……… the chance to develop
social skills; they learn to communicate and work with (33) ……… children for the good of
their team; they can also learn to be leaders because they get to guide (34) ……… children.
Secondly, summer camps allow children to forget about technology for a while. (35) ………
children nowadays choose to spend much of their free time either on social media, playing
video games or watching television; this can cause (36) ……… a lot of health problems. At
a summer camp, though, children participate in a variety of sports and outdoor activities
and as a result, they have the opportunity to exercise in a (37) ……… and healthy
environment and have fun at the same time. (38) ……… of the biggest benefits of summer
camps is that children spend time away from their parents. While they are exploring their
interests and trying new things, they learn to depend on (39) ……… . This experience of
independence helps children (40) ……… more confident and responsible.

31. A. of B. from C. to

32. A. have B. have had C. are having

33. A. the others B. others C. other

34. A. younger B. youngest C. more younger

35. A. A little B. Most C. Much

36. A. them B. it C. any

37. A. safely B. safe C. saving

38. A. All B. One C. Some

39. A. they B. themselves C. theirs

40. A. being B. are C. to be

Page 14
 LRN ENTRY LEVEL CERTIFICATE IN ESOL
INTERNATIONAL (ENTRY 3) (CEF B1)

LEVEL B1
SPEAKING
Duration: 14 to 16 minutes

EXAMINER’S INSTRUCTIONS
Speaking Exam Paper A June 2022

Page 1
SPEAKING SECTION 1 CEF B1

Warm up Stage

Duration: 3 minutes

Examiner: Good morning / Good afternoon. My name is ………………

To Candidate A: What’s your name?

Where are you from?

To Candidate B: What’s your name?

Where are you from?

Examiner: In this part of the Test, I would like to ask you some questions about
yourselves.

The Examiner asks each Candidate one or more questions about the following topics.

• hobbies
• free time activities
• school
• hometown or neighbourhood
• future plans

• No questions about their families are allowed.

Page 2
SPEAKING SECTION 2 CEF B1

Prepared Topics – Individual Talks and Interaction

Duration: 6 to 7 minutes

Examiner: In this part of the Test, each of you is going to talk for 1 minute about the topic
you have already prepared for. After you have finished your talk, I will ask you a
question on what you have presented and then your partner can express his/her
point of view on the same topic. Following that, I will ask you to talk together about
another question related to the topic.

• The Examiner shows each Candidate the list of topics and asks them which one
they have prepared to talk about.

List of prepared topics:

1. What do you like talking about with your close friends?
2. Would you like your school to have a library?
3. Why do some children hate school?
4. Why is it better to celebrate our birthday at home?
5. What are the advantages of big cars?

Examiner to Candidate A: Which topic are you going to talk about?

Candidate A can speak for 1 minute

The Examiner asks Candidate A a question on what he/she has said.

Examiner to Candidate B: What do you think of this? or Do you agree or disagree

with your partner?

The Examiner asks both Candidates a question and prompts them to engage in a
conversation.
Interaction: 2-2.5 minutes

Examiner to Candidate B: Which topic are you going to talk about?

Candidate B can speak for 1 minute

The Examiner asks Candidate B a question on what he/she has said.

Examiner to Candidate A: What do you think of this? or Do you agree or disagree

with your partner?

The Examiner asks both Candidates a question and prompts them to engage in a
conversation.
Interaction: 2-2.5 minutes

Page 3
SPEAKING SECTION 3 CEF B1

Respond to a Question and Interaction

Duration: 5 to 6 minutes

Examiner: In this part of the Test, I will ask each of you to respond to a question.
You may use the ideas given below the question and/or use your own
ideas to answer the question. Your partner will be asked to comment
on what you have said and express his/her point of view as well.

• The Examiner must choose a question related to what each Candidate talked about
in Section 2 of the Test.
• The Examiner tells each Candidate to look at the chosen question and the points
below it. When the Candidate has finished talking about the question, the Examiner
asks the other Candidate to comment and express his/her point of view.

1. It is important to talk to our friends about our problems.

• shows we trust them
• reduces our stress
• helps to find solutions
2. The internet is better than libraries.
• find more information faster
• share information with others easily
• use it at any time
3. It is important for children to have a good relationship with their teachers.
• feel more comfortable in the classroom
• want to study more
• believe in themselves
4. There are disadvantages to having a birthday party at home.
• takes time to prepare for it
• difficult to clean the house afterwards
• noise can be a problem for the neighbours
5. It is not a good idea to own big cars.
• pollute the air more
• are more expensive
• are difficult to park

Examiner: Thank you. This is the end of the Test.

Page 4