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 Contents

S.No. Chapters Names Page No.

1. Anatomy 1
2. Biochemistry 2
3. Physiology 3–4
4. Pharmacology 5–6
5. Microbiology 7–8
6. Pathology 9–10
7. Community Medicine 11–12
8. Forensic Medicine 13
9. Ophthalmology 14
10. ENT 15
11. Anaesthesia 16
12. Dermatology 17
13. Psychiatry 18
14. Radiology 19–20
15. Medicine 21–22
16. Surgery 23–24
17. Orthopaedics 25
18. Pediatrics 26–27
19. Obs & Gynae 28–29
DESCRIPTION
 1 Anatomy

1. Which nerve will get damaged due to the fracture shown (b

in the below image? trapezius
(c) Rotate the scapula to depress the glenoid cavity
(d) Rotate the scapula tilting the glenoid cavity superiorly
Sol. (a
trapezius
5.
1.
2.
(a) Median nerve (b) Radial nerve
3.
(c) Ulnar nerve (d) A and C
Sol. (c) Ulnar nerve
(a b
2. Superior gluteal nerve supplies all of the following except (c d
(a) Piriformis (b) Gluteus medius Sol. (b
(c) Gluteus minimus (d) Tensor fascia lata 6. Match the correct pair:
Sol. (a) Piriformis
1. Facial nerve A. Shrugs shoulder
3. All of the following are in anterior relationship with
2. Branch of spinal B.
3rd part of duodenum except
accessory of the tongue
(a) Gallbladder fundus (b) Root of mesentery
3. Glossopharyngeal C. Chewing
(c) Superior mesenteric vessels (d) Jejunal coils
nerve
Sol. (a) Gallbladder fundus
Mandibular nerve D.
4. Correct statement regarding the muscle highlighted in the the tongue
below given image: (a b
(c d
Sol. (b
7. Which artery is involved in lateral medullary syndrome?
(a) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
(b) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
(c) Middle cerebral artery
(d) Anterior cerebral artery
Sol. (a) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
8. Superior to inferior on left side, auscultation points are:
1. Pulmonary 2. Aortic

(a b
(c d
(a
Sol. (b
trapezius
 2 Biochemistry

1. A child with type 1 diabetes was brought in unconscious (c

condition. Urine test was performed and the image is (d) Vitamin C and copper are needed for cross links
given below. Identify the test. Sol. (a) Most abundant amino acid is phenylalanine
7. CGTTATTTACTA is the sequence on template strand in
5 –3 direction. Find the sequence in mRNA in the same
direction.
(a) UAGUAAAUAACG
(b) ATCATTTATTGC
(c) UACUAAAUAAGC
(d) ATGATTTATTCG
Sol. (a) UAGUAAAUAACG
(a) Rothera’s test (b) Biuet test 8.
(c) Benedict’s test (d) Fouchet’s test following?
Sol. (a) Rothera’s test (a) Magnesium (b) Manganese
2. In the liver, ketone bodies are not utilised due to lack of (c) Zinc (d) Molybdenum
which enzyme? Sol. (d) Molybdenum
(a) Thioesterase (b) Thiokinase 9. Apatient presented with muscle weakness. On investigation,
(c) Thiolase (d) Thiophorase cardiomyopathy was found and diagnosed as Barth
Sol. (d) Thiophorase
mitochondrial membrane leads to Barth syndrome?
3.
acid is seen in urine? (a) Cardiolipin (b) Plasmalogen
(a) Vitamin B9 (b) Vitamin B6 (c) Lecithin (d) Lysolecithin
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin B1 Sol. (a) Cardiolipin
Sol. (b) Vitamin B6 10. Which hormone acts through the JAK-STAT pathway?
4. (a) Calcitonin (b) Leptin
(a) Protein (b) Carbohydrate (c) Aldosterone (d) Vasopressin
(c) Lipids (d) All Sol. (b) Leptin
Sol. (a) Protein 11. Defect in which of the following leads to cholestasis?
5. (a) ABCA1 (b) MRP2
(a) Glucose 6 phosphatase (c) MRP3 (d) OAT1b1
(b) Lysosomal glucosidase Sol. (b) MRP2
(c) Beta glucosidase
12. Alteration in DNA sequence can be assessed by
(d) Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
1. FISH 2. Pyrosequencing
Sol. (b) Lysosomal glucosidase
6. Regarding collagen, which of the following statements is
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b
incorrect?
(c d
(a) Most abundant amino acid is phenylalanine
(b) Proline and hydroxyproline are found Sol. (b
 3 Physiology

1. A patient was admitted in the emergency ward with (c) Motilin - M cells of duodenum & jejunum
respiratory discomfort and was found to have carbon (d) Gastrin - G cells of stomach
monoxide poisoning (depicted below). Which among the Sol. (c) Motilin - M cells of duodenum & jejunum
following could be expected in this patient?
6. Which among the following amino acids is not involved in
the synthesis of hormones ?
Hemoglobin saturation by O2(%)

mal (a) Tryptophan (b) Glycine

Nor
(c) Phenylalanine (d) Tyrosine
Carbon monoxide Sol. (b) Glycine
50
7. Regarding the skeletal muscle contraction, identify the
correct statements from the following
1. Calcium is released primarily from the mitochondria
0 25 50 75 100 2. The extracellular calcium is not vital for muscle
PO2(mm Hg) contraction
3. In EC coupling, the sarcolemmal voltage gated
(a) Anemic hypoxia (b) Histotoxic hypoxia
calcium channels have no role
(c) Hypoxic hypoxia (d) Stagnant hypoxia
Sol. (a) Anemic hypoxia (a) 1, 3 (b
2. Which among the following will stimulate the taste (c) 1, 2, 3 (d
receptors associated with bitter taste sensations on the
Sol. (b
tongue?
(a) Amino acid (b) Aldehyde 8. In the radial artery, the changes in blood pressure were
(c) H ions
+
(d) Alkaloid studied. In the Valsalva maneuver, initially the blood
pressure was found to be elevated. This could be explained
Sol. (d) Alkaloid
by
3. (a) Increase in left ventricular pressure
following, except
(b) Increase in aortic pressure
(a) Carotid artery (b) Radial artery
(c) Increase in left ventricular volume
(c) Aorta (d) Renal artery
(d) None of the above
Sol. (b) Radial artery
Sol. (b) Increase in aortic pressure
4.
the following channels would be defective in this patient ? 9. The following are the components of a sarcomere.
Arrange them based on their location from the periphery
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium
to the centre of the sarcomere
(c) Potassium (d) Chloride
1. H zone 2. M line
Sol. (d) Chloride
5. All the following gastrointestinal hormones and their
sources are correctly matched, except (a b
(a) Secretin - S cells of duodenum & jejunum (c d
(b) Cholecystokinin - I cells of duodenum Sol. (b
10. Arrange the following components of the auditory (a) RV (b) TLC
pathway in the correct sequence (ascending order) (c) IC (d) FRC
1. Lateral lemniscus 2. Medial geniculate body Sol. (d) FRC
12. Which among the following will be synthesised from the
smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
(a b
(a) Protein hormones
(c d
(b) Steroid hormones
Sol. (c (c) Aminoacid derivatives
11. At which of the following lung volumes, the relaxation (d) Glycopeptide hormones
pressure will be zero? Sol. (b) Steroid hormones

4 INICET
 4 Pharmacology

1. A patient was started on a drug for mood disorder and 7. A diabetic patient was started on a drug that decreased
later on he developed priapism, What is the most likely her HbA1c from 7.6 to 6.8, after a few weeks She started
causative drug? complaining of itching around the vulvovaginal area.
What is the most likely drug she started ?
(a) Mirtazapine (b) Trazodone
(a
(c) Venlafaxine (d) Bupropion
(b) Acarbose
Sol. (b) Trazodone (c) Linagliptin
2. Which of the following is true about the therapeutic index (d) Metformin
of a drug? Sol. (a
(a 8. Which of the following is true about “LITHIUM”?
(b (a) Fine tremors are seen at therapeutic blood levels
(c) Ratio of median lethal dose in 50% of population to (b) Lithium is not absorbed from the gut
(c) It does not cause teratogenicity
(d) None of the above (d) Approved for absence seizure
Sol. (c) Ratio of median lethal dose in 50% of population to Sol. (a) Fine tremors are seen at therapeutic blood levels
9. Match the following?
3. Which Graph is used for vancomycin dosing? Drug Receptors
(a) Halstead (b) Salazar 1. Mirabegron a. Beta 1
(c) Nomogram scale (d) Kitsco 2. Indacaterol b. Beta 1 & 2
3. Betaxolol c. Beta 3
Sol. (c) Nomogram scale d. Beta 2
4. Which is true about keynote 189 trial? (a
(a) Nivolumab is used in NSCLC (b
(b) Nivolumab plus chemotherapy used in NSCLC (c
(c) Pembrolizumab used in NSCLC (d
(d) Pembrolizumab plus chemotherapy used in NSCLC Sol. (d
Sol. (d) Pembrolizumab plus chemotherapy used in NSCLC 10. A patient with Schizophrenia is being treated with

5. Recently approved drug by FDA for treatment of RETT’s should be monitored in this patient?
Syndrome? (a) Agranulocytosis
(a) Abacavir (b) Intracerebral bleeding
(b) Cltazimumab (c) Myocardial infarction
(c (d) Suicidal tendencies
(d) Sinconimabide
Sol. (a) Agranulocytosis
Sol. (c
11. Which of the following oral antidiabetic drugs causes an
6. Which Drug is used for trastuzumab resistant Her-2 increase in GIP and GLP-1 level and decrease in HbA1C
positive breast cancer? levels?
(a) Lapatinib (b) Sorafenib (a) Liraglutide (b) Pramlintide
(c) Vemurafenib (d) Erlotinib (c) Alogliptin (d) Metformin
Sol. (a) Lapatinib Sol. (c) Alogliptin
12. A patient was given morphine during surgery and he 14. Osimertinib is used in NSCLC with Mutation due to?
developed respiratory depression. Which drug should be (a) T 790M Mutation (b) L 858R Mutation
used as an antidote?
(c) T 890M Mutation (d) M 790T Mutation
(a) Naloxone
(b) Pethidine Sol. (a) T 790M Mutation
(c) Fomepizole 15. A village kid goes to a temple with his grandmother.
(d) Naltrexone He was bitten by some insect and started crying due to
extreme degree of pain. After some time , she noticed
Sol. (a) Naloxone that the child was sweating profusely and hands were
13. Which of the following is responsible for teratogenicity becoming cold. He vomited a couple of times. The mother
due to thalidomide? immediately rushed him to the emergency services.
(a) Free radical mediated DNA damage His pulse was 150/minute and her BP 90/60 mmHg.
(b) Suppression of angiogenesis Sustained priapism for 7 hours. Treatment is?
(c) Cereblon binding (a) Anti venom (b) Prazosin
(d (c) Adrenaline (d) Methylprednisolone
Sol. (c) Cereblon binding Sol. (a) Anti venom

6 INICET
 5 Microbiology

1. During an agglutination test serial dilutions are performed. 4. Bacterial cell wall with pilus and capsule given in the
What is the reason for results in Points 1-3? image below, what is most likely an organism?
Cytoplasmic-membrane proteins
Cytoplasmic membrane
Periplasmic space
Outer membrane
5. 1:32- Positive
Lipooligosaccharide

Pilus

Capsule
Outer-membrane proteins
Phospholipid

(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Neisseria meningitidis
(c) E. Coli
(d) Pseudomonas
Sol. (b) Neisseria meningitidis
(a) Antigen Excess (b) Antibody excess 5. The faeces of cats are generally very carefully disposed
(c) Improper reagent (d) Invalid test
Sol. (b) Antibody excess form is toxoplasmosis transmitted via cat faeces?
(a) Bradyzoite (b) Oocyte
2. Which of the following is false about rubella?
(c) Tachyzoite (d) Gametocytes
(a) Rubella spreads when an infected person coughs or
sneezes. Sol. (b) Oocyte
(b) A person with rubella may spread the disease to others 6. Identify the organism shown in image below,
up to one week before the rash appears, and remain
contagious up to 7 days after.
(c
at preventing rubella.
(d) Most common birth defects from CRS (congenital
rubella syndrome) can include: Deafness, Cataracts,
Heart defects, Intellectual disabilities.
Sol. (c
at preventing rubella.
3. Elderly diabetic patients with immunosuppressive state,
biopsy showed gram positive oval budding yeast cell with
pseudohyphae. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Invasive aspergillosis (b) Invasive candidiasis (a) Mucormycosis (b) Aspergillosis
(c) Invasive Mucormycosis (d) Invasive Histoplasmosis (c) Histoplasmosis (d) Blastomycosis
Sol. (b) Invasive candidiasis Sol. (b) Aspergillosis
 7. What is the Diagnosis based on a given Image? 10.
cultures. And observed resistance to carbapenem,
Aminoglycosides and susceptible to cotrimoxazole and
Ticarcillin and clavulanic acid . What is the most likely
organism?
(a) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
(b) Burkholderia
(c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(d) Acinetobacter baumannii
Sol. (a) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
(a) Aspergillosis (b) Mucormycosis 11. Adult female with foul smelling discharge per vagina,
(c) Nocardiosis (d) Fusariosis Pap smear Image is given below. What is the correct
Sol. (b) Mucormycosis description of appearance shown on the pap smear ?
8. Gram positive bacilli with motility
(a) Listeria - Tumbling motility (motile at 22 degree and
non motile at 37 degree
(b) Listeria- Tumbling motility (motile at 37 degree and
non motile at 22 degree)
(c) Proteus - Swarming Motility (motile at 37 degree and
non motile at 22 degree)
(d) Proteus - Swarming Motility (motile at 22 degree and
non motile at 37 degree)
Sol. (a) Listeria - Tumbling motility (motile at 22 degree and
non motile at 37 degree (a) Epithelial cells coco-bacilli stuck on the surface
(b) Macrophage with engulfed bacteria
9.
(a) Plasmodium (b) Leishmania (c) Squamocolumnar Metaplasia
(c) Babesia (d) Toxoplasmosis (d) Trichomonas
Sol. (b) Leishmania Sol. (a) Epithelial cells coco-bacilli stuck on the surface

8 INICET
 6 Pathology

1. Which among the following is anti-apoptotic in nature? (a) Centromeric (b

(a) BAX (b) PUMA (c) Speckled (d) Nucleolar
(c) BAK (d) MCL 1 Sol. (a) Centromeric
Sol. (d) MCL 1 6. Match the following disorders with the correct genetic
2. Which of the following statements are true about necrosis? abnormalities
1. Cellular swelling will be there (1) Trisomy 18 (A) Sickle cell disease
2. Physiological (2) Point mutation of Glu to (B) Patau syndrome
3. Associated with cell membrane rupture Val in Hb
(3) Trisomy 13 (C) Huntington disease
(a) 1, 3 (b) 3, 4 (4) Trinucleotide repeat (D) Edward syndrome
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 sequences
Sol. (c) 1, 3, 4 (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
3. All the following statements are correct about BRCA-1, (b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
except (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(a) Involved in double strand break DNA repair (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(b) Tumour suppressor gene Sol. (b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
(c) Causes ovarian cancer
7. From the pedigree chart depicted below, the pattern of
(d) Mutated in Fanconi anemia inheritance would be
Sol. (d) Mutated in Fanconi anemia
Aa aa
4. An elderly patient was admitted with lymphadenopathy.
The total leucocyte counts were found to be 68,000 per
cu. mm. The histopathology revealed smudge cells. What
aa Aa aa Aa aa
would be the next line of management in this patient?
(a) Bone marrow biopsy (b) Flow cytometry
(c) PET Scan (d) Cytogenetics Aa aa aa
Sol. (b) Flow cytometry (a) Autosomal dominant
5. From the image depicted below, identify the type of ANA (b) Autosomal recessive
pattern (c) X-linked
(d) Mitochondrial
Sol. (a) Autosomal dominant
8. All the following statements about amyloidosis are cor-
rect, except
(a) Extracellular accumulation of protein
(b) Beta pleated sheet on X-ray crystallography
(c) AL is secondary type
(d) Amyloidosis named due to accumulation related to
starch
Sol. (c) AL is secondary type
 9. Identify the cell depicted in the image given below 15. From the following statements about the blood transfusion
products, identify the correct statement
(a) Fresh frozen plasma can be stored at -30 degree C for
2 years
(b) Cryoprecipitate can be stored at 2-6 degree C
(c) Platelets can be stored at 24 degree C for 5 days
(d) Packed red blood cells can be stored at -10 degree C
for 3 weeks
Sol. (c) Platelets can be stored at 24 degree C for 5 days
16. All the following are altered DNA sequence detection
techniques, except
(a) Pyrosequencing (b) Flow cytometry
(a) Sickle cell (b) Target cell (c) RFLP (d) Sanger sequencing
(c) Hairy cell (d) Gaucher cell Sol. (b) Flow cytometry
Sol. (c) Hairy cell 17. -
10. All the following can be associated with massive blood ing the blood in vacutainers?
transfusion, except (a) Red - Blue - Green - Gray
(a) Hypothermia (b) Hypokalemia (b) Blue - Green - Lavender - Red
(c) Hypomagnesemia (d) Hypocalcemia (c) Green - Blue - Red - Lavender
Sol. (b) Hypokalemia (d) Blue - Red - Green - Gray
11. In a patient with alcoholic liver disease, which of the fol- Sol. (d) Blue - Red - Green - Gray
18. Which of the following is the most common cause for hy-
(a) GGT (b) ALT percoagulable state?
(c) Serum Bilirubin (d) AST (a
Sol. (a) GGT (b) Factor 5 leiden mutation
12. Which of the following genes is responsible for the regu- (c) Prothrombin mutation
lation of T lymphocytes by the thymus? (d) Antithrombin III mutation
(a) RAG 1 (b) AIRE Sol. (b) Factor 5 leiden mutation
(c) NOTCH 3 (d) RAG 2 19.
Sol. (b) AIRE
13. A patient with renal failure has undergone hemodialysis. (2) Caplan syndrome (B) Crazy pavement
Which of the following amyloid proteins would be expect- pattern
ed to get deposited in this patient? (3) Silicosis (C) Lower lung lobe
(a) AL (b) ATTR involved
(c) A Beta 2m (d) A cal (4) Mesothelioma (D) Coal worker pneumo-
Sol. (c) A Beta 2m coniosis
14. Which among the following disorders is associated with (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
the absence of CD40 ligand? (b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(a) Agammaglobulinemia (b) Hyper IgM syndrome (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(c) SCID (d) IgA nephropathy (d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Sol. (b) Hyper IgM syndrome Sol. (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

10 INICET
 Community
7 Medicine

1. Find the Kappa statistics? 6. Which of the following statement is incorrect

(a) Mode is for the qualitative data
IGRA Suspect TB Not TB Total
(b
TST suspect TB 80 40 120
(c
No TB 20 60 80
(d) Median absolute deviation (MAD) is not a measure of
Total 100 100 200 the variability of a univariate sample of quantitative
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.6 data.
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.3 Sol. (d) Median absolute deviation (MAD) is not a measure of
Sol. (c) 0.4 the variability of a univariate sample of quantitative
2. Which of the following is not the guideline for studies data.
(a) CARE : RCT 7. A Man is on immunosuppressants, bitten by a dog (both
(b) CONSORT : RCT man and dog immunised), simple skin lesion is there.
What is the next step of management
(c) PRISMA : Systematic Review & metaanalysis
(a) Observation
(d) MOOSE : Observational
(b) Amoxyclav
Sol. (a) CARE : RCT
(c) Metronidazole
3. Which of the following has correct incubation period (d
(a) Syphilis : 90 days
Sol. (b) Amoxyclav
(b) Chicken Pox : 5 days
8. In Kaplan Meier Survival curve/plot , bands used for con-
(c) COVID : 1-2 days
(d) Hep A : 1-3 days
(a) Hall wellner bands
Sol. (a) Syphilis : 90 days (b) Prediction bands
4. The given mathematical formula is used for calculation (c) Brookmeyer and Crowley
of - (d) Point band
( xi )2 Sol. (a) Hall wellner bands
N 9. How much population falls between median and median
x : Datapoint value ± 1SD in a case of normal distribution?
: Population mean
(a) 0.34 (b) 0.68
N : Population size
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Variance (c) 0.17 (d) 0.47
(c d) Mean Sol. (b) 0.68
Sol. (a) Standard Deviation 10. 30K large cohort is followed up for 10 years . 50 cases
5. Which of the following is not useful to determine normalcy develop and rest controls have been taken . What kind of
of data? study design is it?
(a) Box and Whisker plot (a) NCC ( Nested Case Control)
(b) Histogram (b) Retrospective Cohort
(c) Shapiro wilk test (c) Cross sectional study
(d) Mantzel Score (d) Meta Analysis

Sol. (d) Mantzel Score Sol. (a) NCC ( Nested Case Control)
11. Live Vaccination is contraindicated in all except- (a) scrub typhus
(a) Wiskott Aldrich syndrome (b) Crimean-congo haemorrhagic fever
(b) Di-george syndrome (c) Chagas disease
(d) Onchocerciasis
(c) Ataxia telangiectasia
(d Sol. (a) scrub typhus
13. Which of the following is correct about categories in
Sol. (d
Bioterrorism -
12. Vector given in the image transmits? (a) Category C has emerging infectious diseases such as
Nipah and Hantavirus.
(b) Category A cannot be easily disseminated or transmit-
ted from person to person
(c) Category A includes brucellosis and Q fever
(d) Category B includes smallpox and anthrax
Sol. (a) Category C has emerging infectious diseases such as
Nipah and Hantavirus.
14. Which of the following statistical chart is best used to
evaluate the normal distribution of data?
(a) Histogram (b) Q Q plot
(c) Kolmogorov-smirnov test (d) Line plot
Sol. (a) Histogram

12 INICET
 Forensic
8 Medicine

1. Which of the following is not a part of RIGHT slogan for (a) Antemortem burn causing blister
snake bite treatment? (b) Barbiturate poisoning
(a) Reassure (b) Incision (c
(c) Get to hospital (d) Immobilisation (d
Sol. (b) Incision Sol. (a) Antemortem burn causing blister
2.
5. -
(a ing poisoning?
(b
(a
(c
(b) Arsenic
(d (c) Antimony
of putrefaction (d) Bismuth
Sol. (c Sol. (b) Arsenic
6.
3.

(a) Emphysema Aquosum

(a
(b
(b
(c
(d (c
(d) Obtain her consent
Sol. (b
4. Sol. (d) Obtain her consent
7.

(a) Close
(b) Near
(c) Contact
(d) Distant
Sol. (d) Distant
 9 Ophthalmology

1. Which of the following is a direct Gonioscope? 4. Choose the structured marked:

1. Goldman’s
2. Koeppe’s
3. Zeiss

(a) 2 only (b
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d
Sol. (b
2. What is the sequence of staining in case of dry eye?
(a) Fluorescein > Rose Bengal > Lissamine green
(b) Rose Bengal > Fluorescein > Lissamine green
(c) Lissamine green > Rose Bengal > Fluorescein
(d) Fluorescein > Lissamine green > Rose Bengal
Sol. (d) Fluorescein > Lissamine green > Rose Bengal (a) Egger’s line
3. The following is the image of the patient before and after (b) Lens capsules
the use of phenylephrine drops: (c) Canal of Hanover
(d) Canal of Petit
Sol. (d) Canal of Petit
5. Which of the following is true about glaucoma:
(a
baring of blind spot
(b) In static perimeter, intensity of stimulus is kept
constant while it is moved
(c) VFD to be associated with glaucoma only if it is
associated with ONH changes
(a) Episcleritis (b) Scleritis (d) Kinetic perimeter is best for monitoring VF changes
in a glaucoma patient
(c) Phlycten (d) Tenon cysts
Sol. (c) VFD to be associated with glaucoma only if it is asso-
Sol. (a) Episcleritis ciated with ONH changes
 10 ENT

1. Name the nerve block in this procedure:

(a) Rhinoscleroma (b) Rhinosporidiosis

(a) Naso-ciliary nerve (b) Sphenopalatine (c) Pemphigus vulgaris (d) Nasal polyp
(c) Anterior ethmoid (d) Vidian nerve Sol. (b) Rhinosporidiosis
Sol. (c) Anterior ethmoid 5. What is the likely diagnosis of the image given below:
2. Match the following with their regards to thyroid swelling
obstruction:
A. Trachea 1. Dysphasia
B. Oesophagus 2. Hoarseness of voice
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve 3. Horner’s syndrome
D. Sympathetic chain 4. Dyspnoea
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Sol. (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
3. Arrange in order of BERA (a) Ranula (b) Mucocele
A. Spiral ganglions B. Cochlear nucleus (c) Ludwig angina (d) Dermoid cyst
C. Sup. Olivary nucleus D. Lateral lemniscus Sol. (a) Ranula
E. Inferior nucleus F. Medial geniculate 6. A 14 years old female patient presents to the ENT OPD
G. Auditory cortex complaints that she can understand the language and
hears the sound. But unable to understand the meaning.
Select the correct answer from the given below code:
Her Pure tone audiometry and ABR is normal. What is the
(a) A, B, C, D, E, F, G (b) B, C, D, E, F, A, G likely diagnosis in this patient?
(c) A, G, B, C, D, F, E (d) A, G, B, C, F, D, E (a) Malingering
Sol. (a) A, B, C, D, E, F, G (b) Wernicke’s aphasia / auditory neuropathy
4. An elderly male comes with a polyp hanging from the (c) Otosclerosis
nose. He takes a bath in the pond regularly. What is the (d) Michael aplasia
diagnosis? Sol. (b) Wernicke’s aphasia / auditory neuropathy
 11 Anaesthesia

1. Which of the following is incorrect about Quality CPR? A. Acute bronchial asthma B. Pericarditis
(a) Rate of compression is 100-120/min C. Cardiac tamponade D. Bronchospasm
(b) Respiratory rate is 20-25/min (a) A, B (b) B, C
(c) Depth of chest compressions in adult is 5 to 6 cm (c) A, C (d) A, D
(d) Allow adequate chest recoil Sol. (d) A, D
Sol. (b) Respiratory rate is 20-25/min 4. Which of the following test is depicted in the following
2. Acute pancreatitis patient, Intubated on ventilator with image,

FiO2- 0.9. OnABG , pH-7.33, pCO2 2-110, HCO3- 28,

SPO2-100%. What is the next step in management?
(a) Decrease FiO2
(b) Decrease respiratory rate
(c) Increase tidal volume
(d
Sol. (a) Decrease FiO2
3. A 15 year old boy reported to the emergency department

following graph was seen on capnography.

What can be the diagnosis?
50
PCO2(mm Hg)

37
(a) Allen test (b) Durkan’s test
(c) Roos test (d) Adson test
0
Time Sol. (a) Allen test
 12 Dermatology

1.
Diseases Appearance
1. Erythrasma a. Yellow
2. Pityriasis Versicolor b. Coral red
3. Tinea Capitis c. White
d. Green
(a b
(c d
(a) Christmas tree appearance of Pityriasis rosea
Sol. (a
(b) Wickham’s Striae of Lichen Planus
2. Non Scarring Alopecia is seen all of the following except, (c
(a) Androgenic alopecia (d) Grattage test positive for Seborrheic Dermatitis
(b) Frontal Fibrosing alopecia Sol. (a) Christmas tree appearance of Pityriasis rosea
(c) Alopecia areata 5. Assertion: -
(d basal acantholysis
Sol. (b) Frontal Fibrosing alopecia Reason: Row of tombstone appearance seen in pemphigus
vulgaris
3. A patient on PDL-1 inhibitor presented with multiple (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct
explanation of assertion
Linear deposits of IgG/C3 was seen, What is the most
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not a
likely Diagnosis?
correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is false and reason is true
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Sol. (b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not a
correct explanation of assertion
6. Identify the lines given in Image as below,

(a) Pemphigus Vulgaris

(b) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
(c) Bullous Pemphigoid
(d) Pemphigus Foliaceus
Sol. (c) Bullous Pemphigoid
4. (a) Blaschko lines (b) Langer lines
non-itchy periphery lesion on his trunk as given in image (c) Dermatomal lines (d) Marionettes lines
below, what is the most likely Diagnosis? Sol. (b) Langer lines
 13 Psychiatry

1. During examination of Alcoholic patient smells of Sol. (a) Conversion disorder

Alcohol, has red eyes (conjunctival haemorrhage) he is 5. SCOFF criterion questionnaire is used in evaluation for?
conscious, his motor coordination is normal as he can
(a) Eating disorders
walk in a straight line & can talk normally. Which of the
(b) Sexual disorders
following statements is true?
(c) Behavioural disorders
(a) Pt has not taken alcohol
(d) Mental health
(b) Patient has consumed alcohol
Sol. (a) Eating disorders
(c
(d 6. Which of the following are reversible causes of dementia?
1. NPH
Sol. (d
2. Hypothyroidism
2. Mr A. has low mood since past few months decreased per- 3. LBD
sonal hygiene, on examination his thoughts were:I’m dead
I don’t have a head how will l eat?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c d
(a) Paranoid (b) Nihilistic
(c) Bizarre (d) Cotard Sol. (d
7. Which of the following is included in criterion of substance
Sol. (b) Nihilistic
Dependence?
3. Tactile hallucinations seen with use of cocaine are known as: 1. Gradually increased amount of drug taken over time
(a) Formication (b) Dipsomania 2. Consuming despite physical harm
(c) Run amok (d) Oneroid state 3. Tolerance
Sol. (a) Formication
4. (a b
(a) Conversion disorder (b) Mania (c d
(c) Schizophrenia (d) Depression Sol. (d
 14 Radiology

1. A patient presents with painful bilateral hip joints and 3.

pigmented lesions on the skin. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

(a) Papillary Ca with bone mets

(b) McCune Albright Syndrome (a) Acute Cholecystitis
(c) NF1 with bony lesions (b) Choledocholithiasis
(d) Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (c) Pancreatic duct stones
Sol. (b) McCune Albright Syndrome (d) Cholangitis
2. Which of the following is a sign for malignant transformation Sol. (b) Choledocholithiasis
of the tumor shown in the x-ray.
4. Which ribs are fractured?

(a) Increase in cartilaginous cap thickness > 2cm

(b) Normally it grows away from the joint, but if it grows
towards the joint. (a) 5, 6
(c) Bone marrow continuity in the tumor and parent bone (b) 5, 6, 7
(d) Development abnormality that causes to grow be- (c) 7, 8
yond skeletal maturity (d) 6, 7, 8
Sol. (a) Increase in cartilaginous cap thickness > 2cm Sol. (b) 5, 6, 7
5. Patient Presents with Dysuria, Fatigue and Backache. X (a) Parathyroid Adenoma
Ray abdomen is shown below. What could be the likely (b) Cystic Fibrosis
diagnosis? (c) Wilson’s disease
(d) Addisons
Sol. (a) Parathyroid Adenoma
6. Banana sign on antennal USG is seen in:

(a
(b) Ompahalocele
(c) Downs Syndrome
(d) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Sol. (a

20 INICET
 15 Medicine

1. A 50 year old diabetic came with palpitation. On 5. Resection of all of the following structures results in
examination BP is 120/ 70. ECG is shown below. What is macrocytosis except?
the clinical diagnosis? (a) Ileum (b) Jejunum
(c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
Sol. (d) Duodenum
6. Lesion in which of the following structures give rise to
hemiballismus?
(a) Caudate Nucleus
(b) Putamen
(c) Subthalamic Nucleus
(d) Mid Brain
Sol. (c) Subthalamic Nucleus
(a) PSVT (b) VT 7.
treating physician makes a diagnosis of an inherited
(c) Ventricular Fibrillation (d) AF
condition in which thick mucus is built up in lungs and
Sol. (a) PSVT pancreas. Which of the following electrolyte ions and
2. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of gene mutation is involved in this inherited condition?
hyperkalemia?
(a) Chloride ion and deletion of phenylalanine at 508
(a) Ca Gluconate (b) Insulin position
(c) Salbutamol (d) Magnesium Sulphate (b) Chloride ion and deletion of tryptophan at 508 position
Sol. (d) Magnesium Sulphate
(c) Chloride ion and deletion of phenylalanine at 708
3. A 73 year old male patient who has a history of Diabetes position
presents to the hospital. BP is 80/ 50. Investigations reveal
(d) Chloride ion and deletion of leucine at 508 position
Ketones. Physical Examination shows dry tongue. Which Sol. (a) Chloride ion and deletion of phenylalanine at 508
position
(a) RL 8. Which of the following is seen in primary hypothyroidism?
(b) NS FT4 FT3 RT3 Total T4 Total T3 TSH
(c) N/2 (a) Low Low Normal Normal Normal Elevated
(d) Plain water via Ryle’s Tube (b) Normal Low Elevated Normal Normal Normal
Sol. (b) NS (c) High High Normal High High Low
4. A patient has vomiting and no proper dietary intake (d) High High Normal Normal Normal Elevated
Sol. (a) Low Low Normal Normal Normal Elevated
9.
developed quadriplegia and became mute. Which one of voice, protrusion of chin, excessive sweating, enlargement
the following is a correct statement? of hands and lower limbs and was recently diagnosed with
(a) It is due to rapid correction of hyponatremia diabetes. Which of the following drugs (Growth Hormone
(b) It is due to slow correction of hypernatremia antagonist) is used to treat this condition?
(c (a) Pegvisomant (b) Octreotide
(d) It is due to hypernatremia (c) Cabergoline (d) Olcegepant
Sol. (a) It is due to rapid correction of hyponatremia Sol. (a) Pegvisomant
 10. Deep Y descent in JVP is seen all of the following conditions, Which of the following should be administered?
except 1. Ceftazidime + Azithromycin
(a) Cardiac Tamponade
(b) Constrictive Pericarditis
(c) Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
(d) TR
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3
Sol. (a) Cardiac Tamponade
(c d
11. In a patient, the plasma sodium concentration was
Sol. (a) 1, 2
mmol/L, bicarbonate concentration was 30 mmol/L and 17. Which of the following does not qualify as severe COVID?
(a) RR of 32/min
Calculate the anion gap in this patient
(b) SpO2 of 87 % on room air
(a) 35 mmol/L (b) 65 mmol/L
(c
(c) 85 mmol/L (d) 95 mmol/L
(d) MAP of 70 mmHg
Sol. (a) 35 mmol/L
12. A patient has been having severe vomiting since the past 2 Sol. (c
days. He also develops orthostatic hypotension. Which of 18. In a patient with aortic regurgitation, the murmur is likely
the following will be seen? to be heard is:
1. Hypokalemia 2. Hypochloremia (a) Throughout the cardiac cycle
(b) In isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b
(c) In isovolumetric ventricular contraction
(c d) 1, 3
(d
Sol. (a) 1, 2, 3
Sol. (d
13.
found in dermatomyositis? 19. Consider the following areas for CVS Examination
(a) Antinuclear antibody 1. Pulmonary 2. Aortic
(b) Antimitochondrial antibody 3. Mitral
(c) Anti centromere antibody During the physical examination, what is the sequence
(d) Anti Mi-2 antibody (superior to inferior) of these areas, on the left chest wall?
Sol. (d) Anti Mi-2 antibody (a) 2, 1, 3 (b) 1, 2, 3
14. Which of the following is true about caplan syndrome?
(c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 3, 2
(a) Initially seen in coal workers
Sol. (b) 1, 2, 3
(b
(c 20. A 30 year old female came to the outpatient department
(d) Crazy-paving pattern seen on HRCT with the features of skin thickening and cold clammy
Sol. (a) Initially seen in coal workers
15. A 53 year old woman is being evaluated for daytime exposed to cold. On evaluation, SCL-70 was found to be
sleepiness and memory loss which have been present for
with this disorder?
In an awake state, ABG shows pO2 70 mmHg, pCO2 (a) Anti Jo Ab (b) Anti Scl Ab
53 mmHg, HCO3 33 mmol/L.
(c) ANA (d) Anti Smith Ab
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Sol. (b) Anti Scl Ab
(a) OSA
(b) Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome 21.
(c) Central Sleep Apnea Which of the following could be expected in this patient?
(d) Alzeihmer’s Disease 1. Decreased serum iron
Sol. (b) Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome 2. Decreased transferrin saturation
16. 3. Decreased serum ferritin
is being treated for severe breathlessness. He is febrile.
His SpO2 is 87 % on 6L oxygen, with nasal cannula. He
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3
is oriented only to person. TLC is 19k. Serum Creatinine is
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d
cells. Rhinovirus is demonstrated in the anterior nares. Sol. (d

22 INICET
 16 Surgery

1. A patient presented with dull aching pain in the tortuous (a) Duplicated Gallbladder (b) GB Polyp
veins of both limbs. Which of the following tests can be (c) Phrygian Cap (d) Mercedes Benz Sign
used to check the competency of SF Junction? Sol. (c) Phrygian Cap
1. Fegan 2. Morrissey 6. A 73 year old man presents to the OPD with chronic
bleeding per rectum. Which of the following tests is used
(a b) 1
(c) 3 (d (a) CA 19-9 (b) CECT
Sol. (a (c) CEA (d) Colonoscopy + CECT
2. Which of the following is not a perineal approach for Sol. (d) Colonoscopy + CECT
rectal prolapse? 7. There was a fracture of the shaft of the femur. The patient
(a) Ripstein (b) Delorme was initially stable but gradually developed a rash over
the axilla and chest in the next 12 hours, his vitals are now
(c) Thiersch (d) Altemeier
unstable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Sol. (a) Ripstein
(a) Fat Embolism
3. A patient presents with h/o dysentry and fever for the
(b) Blunt Chest Trauma
past 6 weeks. Alongwith that there is associated upper
(c) Flail Chest
abdominal pain. USG shows abscess with irregular
margins in the liver. What is the probable diagnosis? (d) Myocardial Infarction
(a) Amoebic Liver Abscess Sol. (a) Fat Embolism
(b) Echinococcus Granulosus Abscess 8. A surgeon tried to reduce the hernia without removing its
content. What is it called as?
(c) Pyogenic Liver Abscess
(a) Reduction en masse (b) Maydail Hernia
(d) Hydatid Cyst
(c) Incarceration (d) Sliding Hernia
Sol. (a) Amoebic Liver Abscess
Sol. (d) Sliding Hernia
4. Regarding breast conservation surgery, which of the
9. Which of the following is not seen in Intermittent
following statements is incorrect?
Claudication?
(a) Wide local excision is performed
1. Rest Pain at night
(b) Post Operative radiation is not compulsory
(c) Intraoperative frozen section is required
3. Most common cause of atheroma
(d) Axillary node dissection is done
Sol. (b) Post Operative radiation is not compulsory (a) 1, 2 (b
5. What variant of gallbladder is shown in the USG image (c) 2, 3 (d
shown below?
Sol. (d
10. Which of the following conditions has smoking as a risk
factor?
1. Fibroadenoma
2. Mondor
3. Carcinoma

(a) 1, 2 (b
(c d
Sol. (b
 11. Which of the following structures is not associated with 13. Which of the following is the most common type of
the third part of duodenum? Adrenal Incidentalloma?
(a) SupraRenal Glands (a) Functioning Adenoma
(b) Body and trunk of the gallbladder (b) Non Functioning Adenoma
(c) Abdominal Aorta (c) Adrenocortical Carcinoma
(d) IVC (d) Pheochromocytoma
Sol. (b) Body and trunk of the gallbladder Sol. (b) Non Functioning Adenoma
12. Which of the following is not a complication of Parenteral 14.
Nutrition? are diagnosed as renal calculi. This has been a recurrent
(a) Pneumothorax problem with the patient. Which of the following
(b) Refeeding Syndrome conditions is most likely associated with it ?
(c) Osteoporosis (a) Hyperthyroidism (b) Hyperparathyroidism
(d) Aspiration (c) Pinealoma (d) Bladder Carcinoma
Sol. (d) Aspiration Sol. (b) Hyperparathyroidism

24 INICET
 17 Orthopaedics

1. (c) Hypovolemic Shock

(d) Hemorrhagic Shock
of the following structures will result in inability to hold
Sol. (a) Fat Embolism Syndrome

(a) Surgical Neck (b) Lateral Epicondyle 4. Which of the following ligament is injured in the image
shown below?
(c) Medial Epicondyle (d) Spinal Groove
Sol. (c) Medial Epicondyle
2. A patient presented to the emergency department with

in management?
(a
(b) External Fixation
(c) Blood Transfusion
(d) Bed Sheet Draping around pelvis
Sol. (d) Bed Sheet Draping around pelvis
3. Tibial Fracture, after 12 hours he became unconscious.
Axillary petechial lesion, breathlessness, diagnosis? (a) Glenohumeral (b) Coracoacromial
(a) Fat Embolism Syndrome (c) Gleno Acromial (d) Acromioclavicular
(b) Compartment Syndrome Sol. (d) Acromioclavicular Subluxation Injury
 18 Pediatrics

1. NADAS Criteria are used for: (a) Pure Red Cell Aplasia
(a) Assessment of children of dehydration (b) Kaposi sarcoma
(b) Assessment of children of heart disease (c) Stomatitis
(c) Assessment of children of malnutrition
(d) Myocardial Infarction
(d) Assessment of children of mental retardation
Sol. (b) Assessment of children of heart disease Sol. (a) Pure Red Cell Aplasia
2. 4. DPT vaccine is given to a child, 6 weeks following which
red tongue with an enlarged lymph node in the neck as the child develops inconsolable crying. In 10 weeks, what
shown in the images below. would be the next step?
What is the management of this condition ? (a) Give DPT
(b) Give DT
(c) Don’t give DPT
(d) Give DPT but after one month
Sol. (a) Give DPT
5. A child presents to the clinic with 3 days of vomiting,
watery diarrhoea and an altered sensorium.
Possible diagnosis includes :
A C E 1. Severe dehydration
2. Hyponatremia
3. Cerebral Venous Thrombosis

(a) 1, 2
(b) 1, 2, 3
B D F (c
(a) IVIG (b) Aspirin (d
(c) LMWH (d) Blood Transfusion Sol. (b) 1, 2, 3
Sol. (a) IVIG
6. What is the delivery procedure to be done in a newborn
3. What is the complication caused by the organism
delivery through meconium stained liquor?
associated with the given image?
1. Before delivery of shoulder, suction of mouth and
nose
2. PPV in non vigorous child after initial steps
3. Gentle suctioning of vigorous baby

(a) 1, 2
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3
(d
Sol. (c) 2, 3
 7. Which of the following syndromes is best associated with 8. Which of the following is not a cause of high output cardiac
congenital heart disease? failure?
(a) Lesch Nyhan Syndrome (a) Cor Pulmonale
(b) Rasmussen syndrome (b) Beri Beri
(c) Holt oram syndrome (c) Anaemia
(d) Leopard syndrome (d) Systemic AV Shunt
Sol. (c) Holt oram syndrome Sol. (a) Cor Pulmonale

Pediatrics 27
 19 Obs & Gynae

1. Where is the SRY gene located ? 6. A patient who is a known case of Fibroid Uterus presents
(a) Long arm of Y Chromosome
(b) Short arm of Y Chromosome week of gestation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(c) Long arm of X Chromosome (a) Torsion
(d) Short arm of X Chromosome (b) Red Degeneration in pregnancy
(c) Infection
Sol. (b) Short arm of Y Chromosome
(d) Preterm Labour
2. In cases of complete gonadal dysgenesis, what type of
mutation will be seen in the SRY Gene? Sol. (b) Red Degeneration in pregnancy
(a) Point mutation (b) Deletion 7. A 27 year old female presents with painful bleeding
(c) Inversion (d) Translocation during menses and pain while having intercourse. On
physical examination there is adnexal tenderness and the
Sol. (a) Point mutation
uterus is retroverted. Which investigation would be done
3. A patient presents to the clinic with clitoromegaly,
prepubertal breasts and Tanner 2 Pubic Hair and a blind (a) TVS
(b) Diagnostic Laparoscopy
levels are in the range of a male. Which of the following
is the probable diagnosis? (c) Laparotomy
(a) Complete AIS (d) HSG
(b) Swyer Syndrome Sol. (b) Diagnostic Laparoscopy
(c 8. Which of the following is the feature of primary
(d dysmenorrhea?
Sol. (c (a
(b) Dyspareunia
4. (c) Post Coital Bleeding
clinic. She also has a history of infertility for the past 6 (d) Non-Cyclical pain
years. On physical examination hirsutism is noted. What
Sol. (a
is the best next step?
(a) Weight Reduction + Metformin + Ovulation Induc- 9. All of the following are causes of non immune hydrops,
tion with Urinary Gonadotropins EXCEPT?
(b) Weight Reduction + Metformin + Ovulation Induc- (a) Parvovirus (b) Thalassemia
tion with Clomiphene (c) Cardiovascular Causes (d) ABO Incompatibility
(c) Finasteride + Metformin and wait for spontaneous Sol. (d) ABO Incompatibility
conception 10. A female presented to the Gynaecology OPD with
(d) Finasteride + Metformin and ovulation induction complaints of vaginal discharge. Upon further
Sol. (b) Weight Reduction + Metformin + Ovulation Induction investigation, clue cells were found in microscopy. What
with Clomiphene are these clue cells?
5. Which is the most common cause of Abnormal Uterine (a) Gardenella Vaginalis rods accumulated
Bleeding in pubertal girls? (b) Epithelial cells studded with bacteria
(a) Endometriosis (b) Anovulation (c) Macrophage which have phagocytosed doderlein bacilli
(c) Malignancy (d) Bleeding Disorder (d) None of the above
Sol. (b) Anovulation Sol. (b) Epithelial cells studded with bacteria
11. A woman presents to the clinic with complaints of non-foul 17. Which of the following is a true statement for HRT?
smelling white vaginal discharge. On further investigations, (a) Decreases breast cancer
pH is found to be acidic and normal lactobacillus count is (b) Decreases endometrial cancer
(c) Decreases colon cancer
Which is the probable cause?
(d) Increases osteoporosis
(a) Physiological Discharge (b) Candida
Sol. (c) Decreases colon cancer
(c) Chlamydia (d) Bacterial Vaginosis
18. Which of the following drugs is not used in the
Sol. (a) Physiological Discharge management of Endometriosis?
12. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (a) Leuprolide
(a) Colposuspension - Cystocele (b) Estradiol
(b) Sacrospinous Fixation - Vault Prolapse (c) Medroxyprogesterone Acetate
(c) Vaginal Hysterectomy - Uterine Prolapse (d) Clomiphene
(d) Posterior Perineal Colporrhaphy - Rectocele Sol. (b) Estradiol
Sol. (a) Colposuspension - Cystocele 19. Which of these will require evaluation for primary
13. A semen analysis shows absent fructose. Which of the amenorrhea?
following is the probable cause? 1. Absence of menses by age 15
(a) Absent Seminal Vesicle 2. No menses within 3 years of thelarche
(b) Obstruction of Ejaculatory Duct 3. High TSH with short stature
(c) Both of the above
(d) Testicular Carcinoma (a) 1, 2 (b
Sol. (c) Both of the above (c) 1, 3 (d
14. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? Sol. (d
(a) At 8 week gestation, zygote is bipotential 20. Which of the following is responsible for foetal heart rate
(b) DHT is necessary for development of external genitalia acceleration?
(c) MIS inhibits the formation of Mullerian Ducts (a) Autonomic function of brainstem
(d (b) ANP
Sol. (a) At 8 week gestation, zygote is bipotential (c) Carotid Baroreceptor
15. Which of the following is NOT transmitted perinatally? (d) Aortic Baroreceptor
(a) CMV (b) Rubella Sol. (a) Autonomic function of brainstem
(c) HSV (d) Hepatitis B 21. A 32 year old woman visits the OPD with h/o painless
Sol. (b) Rubella ulcer on vulva, her obstetric history reveals h/o still birth
16. Which of the following investigations is NOT done for at 28 weeks. She has got contact with multiple sexual
evaluation in Turner’s Syndrome? partners. What is the best next step?
(a) Cardiac Evaluation (b) OGTT (a) VDRL testing (b) HIV ELISA
(c) Audiometry (d) ANA (c) Lupus Anticoagulant (d) None of the above
Sol. (d) ANA Sol. (a) VDRL testing

s ae 29