Test Booklet Code IAD E 6 This Booklet contains 32 pages, including Rough Page. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. t “Test Booklet No. ENGLISH Important Instructions: 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fll in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (Four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). ‘50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below: (a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos ~ 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory. (b) Section B shall consist of 18 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos ~ 36 to 50, 86 t0 100, 136 fo 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject. ‘Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the ‘question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. 3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet, Rough work isto be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. ‘On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall, The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. ‘The CODE for this Booktet is EG, Make sure that the CODE printed on the Original Copy of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 8, The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 9 Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet. 10, Each candidate must show on-demand his her Admit Card tothe Invigilator. 11. No candidate, without special permission ofthe centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 12, The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet tothe Invigilator ‘on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means ease. 13, Use of Electronie/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 14, The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. . The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the ‘Test BooklevAnswer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 17. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes, uration, whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of Seribe or not. 4 5 6. ‘Name of the Candidate (in Capitals Roll Numbe in figures + In words Centre of Examination (in Capitals) Candidate's Signatu Invigilator’s Signatur Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent E6_English | 1 [ Contd...5 jes : Sectio No. 1 to 35) A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 ms! in the direction 30° above the horizontal, The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g=9.8 ms, sin 30° =0.5| (2) 2800 m (2) 2000 m 3) 1000 m (4) 3000 m A metal wire has mass (0.4 0.002) g, radius (03£0.001) mm and length (5+0.02) cm. ‘The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be: (1) 1.2% (2) 1.3% 3) 1.6% (4) 1.4% Given below are two statements: Statement I : Photovoltaic devic convert optical radiation into electricity. Statement I : Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1) Both Statement I and Statement I are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement I are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement IL is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. can ‘The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4H carrying a current of 2A is: a) +n @) 8m (2) 4mi 4) 8 If G£-dS=0 over a surface, then : (1) the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it (2) the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant. (3) all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface. (4) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform. E6_English | 10 ‘The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is : (1) Zero (3) Infinity (2) Positive (4) Negative If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of Ris given by : 4000 © + + 10V—=—= z == 2V (1) 2000 Q) sa G) 1002 (4) 4000 Ina series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 uF and resistance Ris 1002. The frequency at which resonance occurs is : (1) 15.9 rad/s (3) 1.59 rad/s (2) 15.9 kHz (4) 1.59 kHz ‘The temperature of a gas is 50° C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times? (1) 669°C (2) 3295° C (3) 3097 K (4) 23K Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight IV attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is : (1) w/a @ wa (3) wd (4) Zerouw 12 13 14 15 A Camot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327° C. The temperature of the sink is : () 27°C (2) 15°C 3) 100°C (4) 200° c Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000+5%). The colour of third band must be : (1) Red (2) Green 3) Orange (4) Yellow The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is proportional to: a Ww (2) 1 OQ WF @ For Young’s double slit experiment, two statements are given below: Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant. Statement IT : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) Statement I is true but Statement IT is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 230eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 220eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons? (1) Cs only @) K only (2) Both Na and K (4) Na only E6_English | 16 18 19 20 ‘The magnitude and direction of the current in the following cireuit is 290 WV SV Ig D c 72 (1) 0.2 A from B to A through E (2) 0.5 A from 4 to B through E @) § A from 4 to B through E (4) 1.5 A from B to A through E In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is 2. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is : (1) 2a (2) 42 (3) 92% (4) 164 ‘An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2x10°N C7. It experiences a torque equal to 4.Nm, Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm. (1) 8 mc Q) 6 mc G) 4mc (4) 2mc ‘The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity (yi of substance drops to (i) of (2) 40 minutes (4) 80 minutes (3) 60 minutes ‘The venturi-meter works on : (1) Huygen’s principle (2) Bemnoulli’s principle (3) The principle of parallel axes (4) The principle of perpendicular axes [ Cont2 2 23 24 25 An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency (1) capacitive reactance decreases. (2) displacement current increases. (3) displacement current decreases. (4) capacitive reactance remains constant A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player while turning is : (1) along eastward (2) along northward (3) along north-east (4) along south-west A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output? (1) A centre-tapped transformer 2) p-n junction diodes (3) Capacitor (4) Load resistance The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 em, potential energy stored in it will be : () 2U @) 8U 4 Q) 4U 16U Ina plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0x10!°Hz and amplitude 48 vm. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is (Speed of light in free space = 3 = 108m s-!) (1) 16x10 Tr (2) 1.6x10°8T GB) L6xio7T (4) 16x10" E6_English | 26 27 28 29 30 Light travels a distance x in time 4; in air and 10x in time f in another denser medium. What is the critical angle for this medium? of ‘The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m1) (1) 30161043 (3) 3.011043 (2) 5.06%10-43 (4) 50.1«10-47 A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of.a step down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding? (1) 027A Q) 2.74 GB) 3.7A (4) 0374 ‘The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is : (1) along the radius, away from centre (2) along the radius towards the centre (3) along the tangent to its position (4) along the axis of rotation A vehicle travels half the distance with speed and the remaining distance with speed 20. Its average speed is: 0 20 OF 2) Zz 3) 2 a 22 8 > a>31 32 33 34 35 The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are : (1) Instrumental errors (2) Personal errors (3) Least count errors (4) Random errors The ratio of radius of gyration of a sol sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is : () 3:5 Q) GB) 2:5 4 Fwo bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G= gravitational constant) : a 3& @ -2em @ micen ( ~ 200m The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is : 3uF 3yF 4e—}— |—*B 3ur Q) Zn Q) 34k @) 6 uF (4) 9 uF The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is : () 1:2 @ 2:1 @) 1:3 @) 3:1 E6_English | 36 to 50) 37 Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 (g= 10 ms~), Q) 12ms? 2) 150ms? (3) 1.5ms? 4) soms? ‘The x-1 graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at ¢=2 s is The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be : res —| |. Tf Bint igs 10 “ek 320 V, 50 Hz () wyia Q) 5a G3) sv5Q (4) 25239 40 4 42 An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure. Sem o P —_}+_—- . ——<—* Sem Sem The electric potential (in 10? V) at point P due to the dipole is (€y=permittivity of free space and —! Re x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field B =(2/+3}-a%) T. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is : (1) 31L Q) Vu (3) SIL @) Bu A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet Phen it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is (1) 27cm (2) 24cm 3) 28cm (4) 30m Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (A, but one is convex and the other one is, concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be : fia (1) Zero @ @B) f/2 E6_English | 44 In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)? ny =16— (1) 40 em (2) 40 em (3) -100cem (4) ~ 50 em A satellite is orbiting just above the of the earth with period 7. If dis the density of the earth and G is the universal constant face of gravitation, the quantity 2% represents: wT a) Q) 1? @) WT For the following logie circuit, the truth table is: A B Qaspy QQaeby oo1 0 0 0 ot O11 Loot Loot 11 oo bad GB) 4 BY @aBnyY oon 0 0 0 oto o 1 0 lot a) er) ra.46 47 48 49 50 A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in igure. The magnetic field at point P for steady current configuration is given by : is Q te pointed away from the page 2 8) 2| pointed away from page 4) 2 2| pointed into the page ‘The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 20 and 68Q at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire (1) 3x104 °C! (2) 3x10-3 oct 3) 3x10 °C (4) 3x101 Ct 10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased 7 times. The value of nis : a) 10 (2) 100 QB) 1 (4) 1000 The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3x107!! m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom? (1) 033A Q) 1.06 A. @) 159A (4) 477A A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity 4ms7!. The ball strikes the water surface after 4s. The height of bridge above water surface is (Take g=10m s) ; (1) 56m (2) 60m @) 64m (4) 68m E6_English | 51 52 53 The relation between ny, (Ny = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number (m)) for a given value of azimuthal quantum number (), is 2) [=2n,, +1 im 142 Pst 4) on The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is: ao G) N QF (4) Na Which amongst the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene? (1) H,C=CH-CH=CH, cl I Q) H,C=C-CH=CH, (3) H,C=CH-C=CH CH; | (4) H,C=C-CH=CH, Identify the product in the following reaction: Nocl CuBr /HBr ) Mg/dry ether “WiH)o Cee. ds “OD Product Oo OH @ Br55 ‘The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm! em! and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is - (1) 1.34 em! (3) 1.26 em! (2) 3.28 em"! (4) 3.34 em! Match List - I with List - 11: List -1 List - 11 A. Coke 1 Carbon atoms are sp? hybridised, B. Diamond Il. Used asa dry lubricant C. Fullerene Il, Used asa reducing agent D. Graphite IV. Cage like molecules Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) AIL, B-IV, C-I, D-IL (2) AAV, Bl, C-ll, D-Ill @) Adlll, B-l, C-IV, D-ll (4) Adlll, B-IV, C-l, D-II Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy. Reasons R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy. In the light of the above statemet the correct answer from the op below : (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) Ais true but R is false, (4) Ais false but R is true. E6_English | 58 59 60 OL Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is : (1) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (IID) (2) Diamminechloridonitrito - N - platinum (11) (3) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride (4) Triamminetriaquachromium (111) chloride A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is A,B,, then the value of x+y is in option ays @Q 4 G) 3 2 The right option for the mass of CO, produced by heating 20g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40) [eaco, 2 ca0 +CO, | () 12g Q) 176g (3) 2.642 @) 132g ‘Taking stability as the factor, which one of correet the following relationship? (1) TICl; > TICl represents (2) Inf > Int (3) AICI > AICI, (4) TH> THs62 Identify product (A) in the following reaction: ‘cone, HCT oH Q) OH om ay ® sna @ yh cl, Select the correct statements from the following : A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles. B. The mass of the electron is 9.10939 x 103! kg, C. All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties. D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons. Dalton’s atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter, Choose the correet answer from the options given below : (1) A, Band C only (2) C, D and E only @) Aand E only (4) B,C and E only E6_English | 64 66 67 For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A] [B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would (1) decrease by a factor of nine. (2) increase by a factor of six. (3) inerease by a factor of nine. (4) increase by a factor of three. Given below are two statements Statement I: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1" position of sugar is known as nucleoside Statement II : When nucleoside is ed ‘-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) Both Statement I and Statement I are true. (2) Both Statement T and Statement IT are false. (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement I is true. to phosphorous acid at Amongst the given options which of the following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis, acid? (1) NH; (@) BF; 2) 1,0 (4) OH Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product? (1) CH, CONH, 82/52" >, Product OLAMS , Produet @) CHSCN ~ ari o@ (3) CH,NC REFS Product r (4) CH,CONH, 2 antag? Product [ Cont68 69 0 n Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outer most shell, NH,, AICI; BeCl,.CCI,, PCI, : a 3 Q) 2 GB) 4 al Which of the following statements are NOT correct? A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals. B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism. CC. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats, from oils. D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any element, E, Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more aetive than iron, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : () B,C, D, E only (2) B,D only (3) D,E only (4) A,B,C only Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is : () 16 (2) 32 @) 30 (4) 18 ‘The number of & bonds, 7 bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are: a) 1.2.0 (2) 12,30 @) 3.1 (4) 12,21 E6_English | 10 nR 2B Which one of the following statements is correct? (1) The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is estimated to be 02-03 g. All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor. The bone in human body is an inert and unchanging substance. Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission, Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic. Reasons R : The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. A is true but R is false, A is false but R is true.74 Which amongst the following options is correct graphical representation of Boyle’s Law? t P a) od Q) GB) Pp @ Vj\ ary 2a Cr** (aq) +b SOF (aq) +5 H,0(4) the coefficients a, b and ¢ are found to be, respectively ~ () 1.3.8 @) 1,83 2) 3,81 @) 81.3 89 Pumii (1) sol (3) solid sol stone is an example of = @) gel (4) foam 90 Which complex compound is most stable? (1) [co(NHs),(H,0)8"](03), (2) [co(ntis},(0,),] (3) [Cocl, (en), NO, (4) [co(nt,),] 150,), 91 Consider the following reaction : Identify products A and B. 0) -€ \-csaar-€ Vaan € \-cvaav-€ V1 () A= (2) A= @) am E6_English | 14 92 93 Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions. CH,CHo DLA ipo? A] [8] Br or Navy eller Hor [c] [>] Given below are two statements Statement I : The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication. Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement I are false. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. [ Contd...94 Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidie conditions ? NO, OH 95 What fi void lies 1 1 Q) 3 n of one edge centred octahedral one unit cell of fee? a) ) at 96 The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900K to 1500K temperature range during extraction of iron is: (1) Fe,0, +CO> 2Fe0 +00, (2) FeO+CO>Fe+CO, (@) C+CO,>2co (4) ca0+ D, > Casio, 97 Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy? (1) AH=AU ~An,RT Q) GB) @) AH U + An, RT AH AU =~ AnRT AH +AU=AnR E6_English | 98 99 100 Consider the following compounds/species: ZN 2 “ oN ao wi C The number of compounds/species which ‘obey Huckel’s rule is a4 2) 6 G) 2 @ 5 ‘The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction A+B=C+D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L-!, respectively at 300 K, AG? for the reaction is (R=2 cal / mol K) (1) 1372.60 cal (2) = 137.26 cal (3) - 1381.80 cal (4) ~ 13.73 cal Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained $e30, to Mn307. Basic character increases from V0, to V30, to V305 V4 dissolves in acids to give VO: salts, E. C10 is basic but Cr,0, is amphoteric. Choose the eorreet answer from the options given below : (1) Aand E only (2) Band D only (3) C and D only (4) B and C only101 Movement and accumt 101 to 135) jon of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by (1) Osmosis (2) Facilitated Diffusion (3) Passive Transport (4) Active Transport 102 How many ATP and NADPH, are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle? (1) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH, (2) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH, (3) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH, (4) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH, 103 Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis? (1) manganese (2) molybdenum (3) magnesium — (4) copper 104 Given below are two statements : Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body. Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) Both Statement I and Statement I are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement IT are false. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement IL is false. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement IT is true. E6_English | 16 105 106 107 108 109 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels. Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correet answer from the options given below (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out (1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Histones (4) Polysaccharides In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of metal are used. (Copper 2) Zine (3) Tungsten or gold (4) Silver The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, *The Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year : (1) 1985 (2) 1992 (3) 1986 (4) 2002 In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sae sequentially are : (1) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei Q) [ Cont110 11 112 4 Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show (2) Bright blue colour (3) Bright yellow colour (4) Bright orange colour Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae, a Q) GB) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers (4) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice? (1) GAs (2) Kinetin (3) Ethylene 4) 2,4.) Frequeney of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by (1) Thomas Hunt Morgan (2) Sutton and Boveri (3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Henking Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following : (1) Lycopodium and Selaginella (2) Selaginella and Salvinia (3) Psilotum and Salvinia (4) Equisetum and Salvinia E6_English | 7 5 116 17 18 What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes? (1) Transcription of rRNAs (288, 188 and 5.88) Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA Transcription of precursor of mRNA Transcription of only snRNAs 2) @) (4) Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to (1) All genes that are expressed as RNA. (2) Alll genes that are expressed as proteins. (3) All genes whether expressed or unexpressed. (4) Certain important expressed genes. Cellulose does not form blue colour with lodine because a disaccharide. It is a helical molecule. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules. It breakes down when iodine reacts with Given below are two statements ; One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis. Reason R : First ATP is used in converting ‘glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6- phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) Ais false but R is true.19 120 121 The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to (1) presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover. (2) presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait. (3) a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression. (4) more than two genes affecting a single character. Identify the correct statements A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E, Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism, Choose the correet answer from the options given below : () A,B, C only 2) B.C, D only @) C, D, E only (4) D, EB, A only The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of : (1) Dobson units (2) Decibels (3) Decameter (4) Kilobase E6_English | 18 122 123 124 125 Given below are two statements Statement I : The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height. Statement I : Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob? (1) To attract insects (2) To trap pollen grains (3) To disperse pollen grains (4) To protect seeds The reaction centre in PS I has an absorption maxima at (1) 680 nm (3) 660 nm 2) 700 nm (4) 780 nm In tissue culture experiments, lea mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as : (1) Differentiation (2) Dedifferei (3) Development iation (4) Senescence [ Cont126 127 128 129 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage. Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below = (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. Q) (3) A is correct but R is not correct. (4) A is not correct but R is correct. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in - (1) M phase 3) Gy, phase (2) S phase (4) Gy phase Axile placentation is observed in (1) Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose (2) China rose, Beans and Lupin (3) Tomato, Dianthus and Pea (4) China rose, Petunia and Lemon In the equation PP — R= NPP] GPP is Gross Primary Product NPP is Net Primary Productivity R here is y (1) Photosynthetically active radiation (2) Respiratory quotient (3) Respiratory loss (4) Reproductive allocation E6_English | 19 130 131 132 133 134 135 Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere? (1) Metaphase 1 (2) Metaphase Il (3) Anaphase I (4) ‘Telophase Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production? (1) Indole-3-butyric Acid (2) Gibberellic Acid (3) Zeatin (4) Abscisic Acid Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by (1) Frederick Griffith (2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (3) Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy ) ins and Franklin Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in: (1) insect pollinated plants 2) bird pollinated plants (3). bat pollinated plants (4) wind pollinated plants ‘The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis? (1) Zygotene (2). Pachytene (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis, Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most important cause driving extinetion of species? (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Over exploitation for economic gain (3) Alien species invasions (4) Co-extinetionsio. 136 to 150) 136 Identify the correct statements 139 Match List I with List I: A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings List List II permitting the exchange of gases. A. Iron 1. Synthesis of auxin B. Bark formed early in the season is called B. Zine I Component of hard bark. nitrate reductase C. Bark is a technical term that refers to C. Boron IIL, Activatorofeatalase all tissues exterior to vascular cambium. D. Molybdenum — IV, Cell elongation and D. Bark refers to peridem and secondary differentiation phloem, “ . ‘he th fi the E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness. CS ELITE MTNA TS : ; given below : eats correct answer from the options LEROY ziven below : G) B Cand E only Q) All, Bell, C-IV, D-l (3) Al, B-l, C-IV, D-IL 2 ay (4) AGI, B-IV, C-, D-IID (3) A, B and D only 4) B and C onl @ B and C only 140 Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). B. Such an individual has overall 137 Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of (1) Succinic dehydrogenase 2 . @) Amylase masculine development. However, the (3) Lipase feminine development is also expressed. (4) Dinitrogenase C.. The affectes lual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental 138° Match List 1 with List Il : List I List IL A. Cohesion 1. More attra development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correet answer from the options liquid phase given below : B. Adhesion Il, Mutual attraction (1) A and B only (2) C and D only among water (3) Band E only (4) A and E only molecules C. Surface III. Water loss in 141 Which of the following combinations is tension liquid phase required for chemiosmosis? D. Guttation IV. Attraction towards (1) membrane, proton pump, polar surfaces proton gradient, ATP synthase Choose the correet answer from the options (2) membrane, proton pump, given below : proton gradient, NADP synthase (Q) Adil, BAY, C-l, D-Ill (3) proton pump, electron gradient, (2) A-IV, B-lll, C-II, D-I ATP synthase 3) Al, B-l, C-IV, D-IL (4) proton pump, electron gradient, (4) All, BA, C-V, D-lll NADP synthase E6_English | 20 [ Cont142 144 How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of? (80 2) 60 @) 40 (4) 20 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem. Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves In the light of the above statements, choose the correet answer from the options given below : (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. A is true but R is false. Q) GB) (4) A is false but R is true. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents. Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed. In the light of the above statements, choose the correet answer from the options given below : (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) Ais false but R is true. E6_English | 2 145 146 147 Match List I with List I: List I List I (Interaction) (Species A and B) A. Mutualism L +(A), 0B) B. Commensalism Il. -(A), O(B) C. Amensalism II. +(A),-(B) D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +B) Choose the eorreet answer from the options given below : (1) A-IV, B-Il, C-l, D-IL Q) AAV, BA, C-ll, D-Ill (3) AAV, BAI, C-1, D-ll (4) AAIIL, B-l, C-IV, D-IL Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell. B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by ion enzyme. C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : () BC, D.A G3) CB, DA Q) CA.B.D (4) B.D,ALC Given below are two statements Statement I: Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle” states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the eorreet answer from the options given below (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. Q) @) @)148° Match List I with List II : List I List 11 Oxidative Citrate decarboxylation synthase Glycolysis Pyruvate dehydrogenase Electron transport system IV. EMP pathway L uL Oxidative TL. phosphorylation Tricarboxylie acid eyele Choose the correct answer from the options given below : () Adlll, B-IV, C-ll, D-1 Q) Aull, B-V, C-l, D-Ill @) Aull, BA, C-ll, D-IV (4) A-Il, B-IV, C-IIL, D-I Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (1) The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms. Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries. Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body. The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels. Match List I with List II : List I List I M Phase Proteins are synthesized Inactive phase Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication Equational division Choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) A-IIl, B-Il, C-IV, D-I 2) AV, Bell, C-I, D-III @) AAV, B-l, C-Il, D-III (4) ACII, B-IV, C-I, D-III E6_English | D. 149 Q) GB) 4) 150 A. L B. q Gy Phase Quiescent stage D. G,Phase IV. 2 ‘oology : Section-A (Q. No. 151 to 185) 151 In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny virus (1) Ty cells (2) B-lymphocytes (3) Basophils (4) Eosinophils 152 Which of the following is not a cloning vector? (1) BAC (2) YAC (3) pBR322 (4) Probe 153 Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by- (1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Meo - caecal valve (3) Gastro - oesophageal sphineter (4) Pylorie sphincter 154 Match T with List List 1 List A. P-wave I. Beginning of systole B. Q-wave Il, Repolarisation of ventricles C. QRS complex. III. IV. Depolarisation of atria D. T-wave Depolarisation of ventricles Choose the eorreet answer from the options given below: (1) All, B-l, C-IV, D-IL (2) A-lV, BAlll, C-Il, D-I (G3) Al, B-IV, C-1, D-II (4) Ad, B-ll, C-IIL, D-IV155 156 157 E6_English | Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the eorreet answer from the options given below: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A. Ais true but R is false. A is false but R is true, Q) GB) 4) Mateh List I with List 1. List 1 List I Gene ‘a’ L Gene ‘y’ IL Gene ‘i Ill. Permease Gene ‘2? IV. Repressor protein Choose the correet answer from the options given below: () dll, B+, C-IV, D-Ill (2) All, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) Aull, B-V, C-l, D-IL (4) Adlll, BA, C-V, D-II B-galactosidase Transacetylase Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment? (1) Recombinant DNA Technology (2) Serum and Urine analysis (3) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique (4) 23 158 159 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I incorrect but Statement I is correct. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst. Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correet answer from the options given below: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. Q) @) (4) A is false but R is true. A is true but R is false.160 Match List 1 with List I. 161 ¢c List List IT (Interacting (Name of species) Interaction) . ALeopardanda 1. Competition Lion in a forest! grassland . ACuckoo laying II. Brood egginaCrow’snest parasitism Fungi and rootofa II. Mutualism higher plant in Mycorrtizae . Acattleegretand IV, Commensal a Cattle ina field Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Ad, BAI, C-IIl, D-IV Q) Ac, Bll, C-IV, D-Ill (3) AdlIl, B-IV, C-l, D-l (4) Adil, BAlll, C-1, D-IV Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue. Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular ue. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement IL are false. Q) (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false, Statement I is false but Statement II is true. @) E6_English | 24 162 163 164 Match List I with List I. List I List II A. Ringworm 1, Haemophilus influenzae B. Filariasis Il. Trichophyton C. Malaria IIL. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Pneumonia IV. Plasmodium vivax Choose the eorreet answer from the options given below: (1) Al, B-lll, C-IV, D-l (2) A-ll, B-IIl, C-I, D-IV (3) AdIl, B-Il, C-l, D-IV (4) A-IIL B-IL, C-IV, D-1 Match List I with List II List I List I ‘Vasectomy Oral method Coitus Barrier method interruptus C. Cervical caps I. Surgical method D. Saheli IV, Natural method Choose the eorreet answer from the options given below: (1) All, Bel, C-IV, D-IL Q) Aclll, B-IV, C-ll, D-l (3) A-ll, B-IIl, C-I, D-TV (4) A-IV, B-Il, C-l, D-IL A. B. 1 I Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell’? (1) Nuclear division (2) Protein synthesis (3) Motility (4) Transportation Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation, (1) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger Mole, Flying squirrel, ‘Tasmanian tiger cat Lemur, Anteater, Wolf Q) @) 4)166 167 168 169 Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive eycle? A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic menstruation extends between ‘menarche and menopause. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) A and D only (2) A and B only (3) A,B and C only (4) A, C and D only Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from- (1) Down's syndrome (2) Turner's syndrome (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome (4) Thalassemia Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis? a O 2 re onee Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly? (1) Genital herpes (2) Gonorthoea (3) Hepatitis-B (4) HIV Infection GB) E6_English | 170 171 12 173 Given below are two statements: Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. In the light of the above statements, choose the correet answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement IT are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. Statement I incorrect but Statement IT is true. Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement IL are true. Both Statement I and Statement IL are false. Statement I is true but Statement IT is false. Statement I false but Statement II is true, Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum, . (1) Ctenophora (2) Hemichordata (3) Coelenterata (4) Echinodermata Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system? ‘A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmi Reticulum D. Golgi complex C. Chloroplasts E. Peroxisomes Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Band D only (2) A, C and E only (3) A and D only (4) A, D and E only [ Cont174 175 Match List 1 with List IL. List 1 List I (Type of Joint) (Found between) A. Cartilaginous I. Between flat Joint skull bones B. Ball and IL. Between adjacent Socket Joint vertebrae in vertebral column C. Fibrous Joint Il, Between carpal and met thumb D, Saddle Joint IV, Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Adil, BA, C-Il, D-IV 2) Adi, BAY, C-, D-II (3) Al, B-IV, C-IIl, D-II (4) AIL, B-IV, C-III, D-I Match List I with List 1. List I List II A. CCK 1. Kidney B. GIP I Heart C. ANF IIL Gastrie gland D. ADH IV. Pancreas Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) AAV, Ball, C-Il, D-I (2) AAI, B-ll, C-IV, D-l (3) Adll, B-IV, C- (4) AAV, BA, C-IIl, D-T D-Ill E6_English | 26 176 177 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Statement I: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, itis known as competitive inhibitor. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement IL are false. Statement I is true but Statement IT is false. Statement I is false but Statement I is true. Given below are two statements: Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal) Statement I: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of o type and two subunits of B type.) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement IT are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement I are fal (3) Statement I is true but Statement IT is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true. [ Cont