27/04/2023, @® CODE-A Aakash +nsywus Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10008, Ph.011-47623456 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023 MM : 720 csT- ‘Complete Syllabus of NEET 6 Time :3 Hrs. 20 Mins Instructions ()) There are two sections in each subject, ie. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions willbe given no marks. (il) Use bluerbiack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle, (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle. (v)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. PHYSICS Choose the correct answer SECTION-A’ 2. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) 1, The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to and identity the correct answer. the logic gate Statement (A): Zener diode is used in reverse tov bias for using as a voltage regulator. Statement (B): Zener diode cannot be used in R forward bias. A (1) Both the statements are correct ‘Oy (2) Both the statements are incorrect (2) Statement (A) is correct while (B) is incorrect B (4) Statement (B) is correct while (A) is incorrect = 3. The density of a material in S.| units is 192 kg (1) oR m=, In certain units in which the unit of length is 25 om and the unit of mass is 50 gm, the (2) AND numerical value of density of material is (3) NOR (1) 640 (2) 60 (4) NAND. (3) 410 (4) 56 (ayGST-16_(Code-A) 4 ‘The dimensional formula for Boltzman’s constant is (1) MLK (2) MLT2K1 (3) MLET2K-+ (4) MUT2K Choose the correct statement with respect to alpha decay. (1) Alpha decay occurs to gain stability by optimising the neutron-proton ratio. (2) in alpha decay mass of parent nucleus is greater than mass of daughter nucleus plus mass of u-particle (3) Alpha decay leads to transmutation (4) All of these ‘The ratio of energies of hydrogen atom in its first excited state to third excited state is (Mast 23:2 (3) 1:9 (42:3 ‘A given circuit consists of three resistors and an ideal battery of emf 24V as shown in the figure. Current passing through the resistor 6, will be 24 6a the ceiling of a truck was at rest. if tru\ acceleration of 10. m f f= 10.3" period of pendulum beco (1) 2% (2) 4x2%s 4 4 ) se ® sas Which of the following is incorrect regarding the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases? (1) Collision between the molecules of gases and with the walls of the container are elastic (2) Number of molecules in the sample should be of the order of moles (3) Gas molecules have some intermolecular forces of attraction (4) Gas molecules have negligible volume 10. " 2 14. 15. 16. Intensive Program for NEET-2023, A hollow prism having refracting angle 60° is filed with a liquid having refractive index u. If angle of minimum deviation produced by the prism is 30°, then value of will be (1) 2 2 3) £ (a) > A colour coded carbon resistor has the colours red, green, orange and silver. Its resistance value land tolerance in percentage respectively are (1) 52% 1080, 10% (2) 25 « 1040, 10% (3) 25% 10°, 19% (4) 52* 1049, 5% An object is placed @ a distance of 30 cm in front of a concave mirror Nqving focal length 20 cm. ticle of mass 1 kg each are put at (3, 4) ¢ PA Two ind (1, 2) m. The moment of inertia of the system about z-axis in kg m2 will be (a) 20 (2) 30 @) 10 (4) 16 The kinetic energy of a rotating wheel is 100 J land its angular momentum has a magnitude of ‘50 Js. Then its moment of inertia will be (1) 12.5 kg m2 (2) 25 kg me (3) Bkg me (4) 16 kg m= When the temperature of 0.5 mol of a gas is changed from 100°C to 120°C keeping the volume constant, the change in intemal energy of, the gas is 80 J. The heat capacity of the gas at constant volume will be (1) 20K (2) Bik (3) 4K (4) 1K Two identical flutes produce fundamental notes of frequency 300 Hz at 27°C. If the temperature of air in one flute increases to 31°C, the number of beats observed per second will be wi 2 @) 3 4 2Intensive Program for NEET-2023 GST-16_(Code-A) 17. 18. 19, 20. 24 22. Hf 100 Joule of work must be done to move an electric charge of -2C from a point, where potential is -10 volt to another point, where Potential is V volt, the value of V is (1) -80 (2) -60 (3) 30 (4) 40 ‘Aman is 100 m behind a bus and he tries to catch it, The bus is moving with 8 m/s and the man starts running towards it with 2 m/s®, The time taken by the man to catch the bus will be (2) (4-228) s (4) (2+v28)s The acceleration due to gravity on earth’s surface is g, then its value at height R is (R is radius of earth) (1) 4s (3) (4+2V29)s qa) (2)9 (3) ele ale 9 @ $ ‘Suppose you want to cool 200 g of lemon water (specific heat 4200 J kg-" k-') at 30°C by adding ice at -10°C, The amount of ice that should be added, so that the final temperature becomes 0°C with all the ice melt is (Specific heat of ice = 2000 J kgr* kt and Ly= 3.34 * 108 Jikg) (1) 309 (2) 80g (3) 1209 (4) 719 ‘A spherical shell of mean radius 2 m has a point heat source of power 100x KW at its centre. The material of the shell has thermal conductivity 80 WimK. If the temperature difference between the outer and the inner surface of the shell is not to exceed 25°C, then the thickness of the shell should not be less than (1) 64cm (2) 320m (3) 640m (4) 32m Which rays are not part of electromagnetic spectrum? (1) X-rays (2) a-rays (3) Radio waves (4) Ultraviolet 23. 24, 26. 27. 28. A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has electric field E on its surface, then the value of electric fed at stance rom its centre is () 200 ae oe w& Which of the folowing is incorrect regarding electrostatic field? (1) Horiginates from positive charge (2) It terminates on negative charge (3) Itcan form closed loops (4) Two electrostatic field lines do not intersect A body has acceleration a= 31 +2t27if body starts from rest then the ratio of ve and vy at t = 2 sec will be 8 ms as 8 4 ag Ors A bullet is fired from a gun then select the correct option, (neglect the support provided to gun) (1) Rate of change of momentum of bullet and gun will be same (2) Rate of change of momentum of bullet will be greater than gun (3) Rate of change of momentum of gun will be greater than bullet (4) Allof these Consider the statement about the work done by fiction below and select the correct option. (1) Work done by friction is always positive (2) Work done by friction is always negative (3) Work done by friction is always zero (4) Work done by friction may be positive, negative or zero The time period of oscilation of a bar magnet in magnetic field B having magnetic moment M for small angular displacement will be @)GST-16_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023 29. 20. 34 32. 33, 34. In the diagrams given below coupling constant will be minimum for pe ' @) a> : re o <=> 7 a) (4) Equal for all three The equation of current flowing through a circuit is given by / = (t— 1)° then the average value of current for first two seconds will be () 0A (2) 6A 1 (a BA 3 ay 2a OF ‘A horizontal pipe of cross-sectional diameter 4.cm carries water at a speed of 6 mis. The pipe is connected to a smaller pipe with a cross- sectional diameter 2 om. The velocity of the water through the smaller pipe is (1) 12 mis (2) 14 mis (3) 18 mis (4) 24 mis If be the intensity of the polarized light incident on analyser and 8 be the angle between the transmission axes of the polarizer and the analyser, the intensity of light transmitted through, analyser is given by (1) I= bcos’ (3) I= sino Invar, an alloy of iron and nickle remains almost dimensionally stable with temperature change because (2) 1 locost® (4) zero (1) Very low coofficient of thermal expansion (2) Very high coefficient of thermal expansion (3) Very low value of young’s modulus of elasticity (4) Very high value of young's modulus of elasticity Magnetic field applied on a cyclotron is 0.8 T and radius of its dees is 2 m. The energy of the emergent protons from cyclotron in MeV is nearly (1) 122 Mev (2) 102 Mev (3) 148 Mev (4) 76 Mev 36. 37. 38, 39. 35. A solenoid 50 cm long has 4 layers of windings of 800 turns each. If the current carried is 12 A, then magnetic field at the centre of solenoid is (1) 9.64 « 10? T (2) 9.42 * 104 T (3) 1.2% 10? T (4) 6.48 x 10° T SECTION ‘The angle between the plane of vibration of light wave andthe plane of polarization fo ight being polarized is coneidered fo ba (1) 45° (2) 90° (3) Zero (4) 180° A nomscous liquid is flowing through a ftonees duct, wih cfost-codton varying Se shown in figure Which of the folowing graph best represents the Vatiaton of pressure P along the ax of tube? P ° “) @) a. . (3) (4) AK > ° Ihlight of frequency 5.1 « 10° Hz is incident on the metal eutolt volage for photosletic emission is 2.03 V. The threshold frequency is (h = 6.63 x 10 Js; e = 1.6 x 10-*C) (1) 02 10% Hz (2) 32% 10% Hz (3) 54x 40"Hz (4) 12 10°4He ‘An npn transistors connected in common omiter configuration as shown in the figure. The voltage drop across collector resistance (Re = 1 kM) is 2 V. Iff = 100 then base current is (1) 20 yA (3) 7mA (2) 2ma (4) 5 pA (4)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 GST-16_(Code-A) 40. 44 42. 43, 44, 48. Hf momentum (P), area (A) and time (7) are taken to be the fundamental quantities then the dimensional formula for energy is (1) [P*ATY (2) [PAT (3) [PAT] (4) [PAST] ‘A metal coin is at the bottom of a beaker filled upto a height of 8 cm. The refractive index of the liquid is 3. To an observer looking from above the surface of the liquid, the coin appears raised up by (1) 480m (2) 160m (3) 320m (4) 280m Two cells A and B of emf 4 V and 3 V respectively, are connected as shown in figure through an extemal resistance 10 0. if internal resistance of each cell is 2 © than potential difference Ex and Ex across the terminals of the calls A and B respectively are 4V.20 a R=100 Bav20 31, 35 1) 4v,3V 2) Sty, Sy yay, @ ave 2y,2y @ 2v3y 7 74 ‘A man of mass 40 kg is standing on a uniform Plank of mass 60 kg lying on horizontal frictionless ice. The man walks from one end to the other end of the plank. The distance walked by the man relative to ice is (given length of plank =5m) (2m 23m (3) 5m 4m The velocity of sound in air is 330 mis. To increase the apparent frequency of the sound by 25%, the source should move towards the stationary observer with velocity equal to (1) 165 mis (2) 330 mis (3) 66 mis (4) 116 mis In the circuit below, if a dielectric is inserted into : then the charge on Cz will C ¢ i—ir— 46. a7, 48, 49, 50, (1) Increase (2) Decrease () Remainsame (4) Behave Inacyte proces () Wak done nays ze (2) Heat supplied is always zero (3) Change in internal energy is always zero (4) All of these fn aii ste s moving in a eer of (of radius r) around the earth and its orbital speeds eislo 1 of he escape sped om the earth’s surface. The value of r in terms of radius of earth Ris 9R (1) 3k (2) > 3R 9R @ > 4] ‘The extension in the spring in the situation given below will be (all surfaces are smooth and F: > Fa kK Fu, | nerf, > F. (i FMM (2) FMA—FeMe K(M+M,) (y+ My) (a) Fit Mie (a) Fille —Faly (ld, +Mp) K(My + Mp) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface the co-efficient of friction between the block and surface is 0.5. A force of 10 N is acting on the body at an angle 30° with the horizontal work done by friction force in one second will be A0N G0" (1) ou (2) 105 (3) 54 (4) 65 A capacitor of capacitance 2 uF is connected across 20 V 50 Hz supply then the approximate value of capacitive reactance will be (1) 1592.0 (2) 20000 (3) 15.920 (4) 2000, 6)GST-16_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023 51 52. 53, 54. 56. 56. ‘SECTION-A. H:02 in gas phase is (1) Polar and planar (2) Polar and non-planar (3) Non-polar and planar (4) Non-polar and non-planar ‘Ambidentate ligand among the following is. (1) Heo (2) en (3) NH (4) cn Hattife ofa first order reaction with rate constant of 0.02 s** will be nearly (1) 69.38 (2) 34.68 (3) 100s (4) 508, sec-butyl alcohol on reaction with Iz and NaOH, majorly gives (1) CHeb and CHsCOONa (2) CHls and CHsCH2COONa (3) CHsl and CHsCH2CH2 — OH (4) Cla and CHsCH2COONa Correct order of ionic radii of the given species is (1) Na? > Th? > Tm? (8) Th®*> Nae > Tm (2) Tm? > Th > Na (4) Th*> Tm** > Na Match the compounds given in list! with their characteristic reactions given in list-II and choose the correct answer. List|(Compounds)| _ | List-I (Reactions) - bn [Gives red colouration in Victor Meyer's test OH Produces b. C immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent w Forms white precipitate with bromine water c.|CH»CHecHO (ii Forms silver mirror Jon reaction with Jammoniacal JAgNOs solution OF ‘Oo tiv) 87. 58. 59) 60, 61 (1) ali), bt, (), dQiv) (2) ativ), BG), ef), ai) (3) ali), b(i), ev), A) (4) ati), BA), ev), (i) Catalyst used in the given reaction is own, —Catabst oy, 200-300 atm 573- 673K (1) Pa (2) MozOs (3) CuCk, (4) Zn0 - CroOs A nitro compound (X) reacts with nitrous acid to give nitrolic acid (Y) which when dissolved in alkali imparts red colour to the solution. The nitro ‘compound (X) is, a 0, Basic amino acid among the following is (1) Lysine (2) Glutamic acid (8) Isoleucine (4) Alanine Which of the following is an example of elastomer? a (1) £cH,- CH}, (2) £CH.- ie ~CH,}, cl (3) 4NH- 5 -NH-CH,+, fe Lot The gas which is most easily adsorbed on activated charcoal among the following is (1) (2) NHs (3) Ch (4) Coz (6)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 GST-16_(Code-A) 62. 63, 64, 66. 66. Correct order of boiling point for the given compounds is, Clapega clmeage cl cl (ty > >(O <1 cl cl cl cl c (2) > > cl cl a a a Cl (3) > > cl & Clase Clasags ci (4) a9 > oO Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards Sn2 reaction? cl (2) KA cl OAAF why The maximum prescribed concentration of Ma in. drinking water is (1) CHCl (1) 0.005 ppm (2) 0.0005 ppm (8) 0.05 ppm (4) 0.2 ppm Which of the folowing is an antacid? (1) Ranitidine (2) Ofloxacin (3) Equanil (4) Codeine Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? a. Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved per lire of solution. b. Molarity is temperature concentration term, independent ©. Molality of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 g of solution. d. The ratio of mole fractions of solute and solvent Is in the ratio of thelr respective moles. (1) aandc only (3) band ¢ only (2) aandd only (4) aonly 67. 68, 69, 70. nm For any H like species, the ratio of energies of 44, 24 and 31 orbit is (1) 1:4:9 4 a4 a9 (3) 1:2:3 (41:44 Given below are two statements. ‘Statement-I: Negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is greater than chlorine. Statement I: lonisation enthalpy of fluorine is less than chlorine. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (2) Both statement 1 and statement II incorrect are (3) Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct For the equilbrium, C{s)+C0,(g)— 2606) Ko= 60 atm at 1000 K. If at equilibrium Pop ="0Pco,+ then the total pressure at equilibrium is (1) 6-1 atm (2) 6.6 atm (3) 0.6 atm (4) 66.6 atm Statement: LizO and MgO do not combine with excess oxygen to give superoxide, Statement Il: Li and Be do not impart colour to flame test, In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer. (1) Statement | is true but statement Il is false (2) Statement |i false but statement lis true (3) Both statements | and Il are true (4) Both statoments | and Il are false The correct order of stability of the resonating structures is following 6: ° T 1 og GH.-CH=C-H CH,=CH-C-H :CH,-CH: x y z (1) x>y>z (2) z>y>x (3) y>x>z (4) y>z>x 7GST-16_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023 72. 73. 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. Assertion (A): Nitrogen exhibits + 5 oxidation state Reason (R): Nitrogen does not form pentahalide. In the light of above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the ‘correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is correct but (R) is not correct (4) Both the (A) and (R) are not correct Which of the following processes is used for the manufacturing of chlorine gas? (1) Haber’s process (2) Contact process (3) Deacon's process (4) Ostwald’s process Out of the following 0.1 molal aqueous solutions which will have maximum freezing point? (1) Glucose (3) Sodium sulphate (2) Potassium chloride (4) Aluminium sulphate A solution containing 20 g per dm? urea is isotonic with a 10% (wiv) solution of a non- volatile non-electrolyte solute ‘B’. The molar mass of the solute ‘B' is (1) 100 gimot (3) 300 gimot (2) 200 gimot (4) 600 gimol WF A;,of NaCl HCl and CH:COONa are x, y and 2 S om? mot" respectively then A%, of CHsCOOH will be () ztytx (2) x-2-y (8) zty-x (4) z-y-x An element A crystallises in bec unit cell. If edge length of unit cell is 200 pm then density of element is (Atomic mass will be A = 60 u, Na=6 « 10%) (1) 1.25 g om (2) 12.5 g om (3) 25g em (4) 25 9 em? Network solid among the following is (1) AlN (2) zns (3) HCI (4) CO» 79. 80, at 82, 83, 84, 85, Which of the following reactions does not take place at 500-800 K temperature range in blast furnace? (1) 3Fe,0, +CO > 2Fe,0, +CO, (2) Fe0+1CO-Fe+ CO, (3) Fe,0, +CO > 2Fe0=CO, (4) Fe,0, +4CO > 3Fe +40, Using molecular orbital theory, predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length? (1) 0% (2) 03 (3) 03 (4) O2 Which of the following species, do not show disproportionation reaction? (1) C10 (2) ClO; (3) C10; (4) C10; Which among the following will have maximum critical temperature? (1) NH (2) No (3) He (4) Ox Which of the following compounds can be best prepared by Wurtz reaction? (1) m-pentane (2) Isopentane (3) Isobutane (4) n-butane The bond energies for A - A, 8 - B and A-B, are a, b and ¢ kJ mol" respectively. The AH for tne eacton 1A, » ah" (1) atb-c (3) c-a-b 4) Which among the following elements is unable to form Els compound? [where E-> element] aya 2) TI (3) Ga (4) In (8)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 86. a7. 88, 89, 90. SECTION-B Hybridisations of carbon in ; s (1) sp and sp? (2) sp and sp? (3) sp? and sp? (4) sp, sp? and sp? The equivalent weight of Cro($Os)s [mol. wt =M] in the following reaction is Cr,(SO,4), +H,0, +NaOH > the compound are NazCrO, +Na,SO, +H,0 M My 2 olz alz @) M (4) If a gas expands at constant temperature then which of the following is correct? (1) The pressure increases (2) Kinetic energy of gas molecules remains the (3) Kinetic energy of gas molecules decreases (4) The number increases Which of the following electrolytes will give a linear relationship between molar conductivity ‘Ay, and square root of concentration? (1) CHsCOOH (2) KCI (3) HCOOH (4) NHsOH Match list with list-Il and choose the correct option, of molecules of the gas List = List (Compound) (Isomerism) (2)) [Corny }g [Cr(CN ]](0 J Optical isomerism ()| [Fet,0),C1]Br (id) | Coordination isomerism (| [Prien | (i) [lonisation isomerism (| Kg (C0t0%),] (iv) [Geometrical isomerism 91 92, 93, 94, 95. GST-16_(Code-A) Statement-: Rate of reaction for endothermic reaction increases with increase in temperature. Statement-ll: Rate of reaction for exothermic reaction decreases with increase in temperature. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) Statement I is correct but statement I is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement 1 and statement II incorrect Consider the following reaction sequence Br (CO, () BesRed P WY aera AHO ® RO ¢ (Major)<— Product C is cooH (1) Arn, @) ay Br ° “) AA. Br Maximum number of electrons in a subshell having |= 2 and n= 3is (1) 2 (26 (3) 10 (4) 14 Strongest acid among the following is (1) HCOOH (2) CoHsCOOH (3) CH»COOH (4) CHsCH:COOH Match list with list-1I and choose the correct List Listal {Group attached (Effect shown by the in benzene) sroup) fa. |-Noe (| -Reffect and —1 effect b. | i) [+R effect and —1 effect c. |-o-cs i) | +R effect and +1 effect a. |-CHs iv) | +1etfect and no resonance (1) a(li), B¢iil), c(i), d(iv) (2) ail), Ui), efiv), di) (3) ali), BG), e€, dv) (4) afi, BG, e@¥), dC) (1) Gi), BU), ei), div) (2) afi, BE, efi), dfiv) (3) aGiv), bil), c(i), di) (4) a(i), bow), eC), ai) (@)GST-16_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023 96. Plaster of paris is hardened by (1) Liberating CO2 (2) Giving out water (3) Combining with water (4) Changing into CaCOs 97. An organic compound (x) on reaction with ethanoic anhydride gives N-phenylethanamide. Correct statements about the compound (X) are 1. X on reaction with chloroform and ethanolic Potassium hydroxide form isocyanide X on reaction with nitrous acid at low temperature forms benzene diazonium salt UL. X is more basic than pyridine (1) Land tl only (3) Hand Ill only (2) Land tl only (4) AIL, land 98. Brownian movement is shown by (1) Salt solution (2) Starch solution (3) Sugar solution (4) Aq HCI solution 99. The major product ofthe following reaction is, 2S 0D 100. Which among the following is not true for a cyclic process? (1) W=0 (3) AH=0 ‘SECTION-A 101. Mark the features similar between Agaricus and yeast. b, Forms edible fruiting bodies Unicellular ©. Produce asexual spores, 4, Commercially important (1) Only aandc (2) Onlya, cand d (3) Only (4) Only aandb 102, Assertion (A): Paramoecium is actively moving organism. Reason ( In the light of above statements choose the correct option. (1 Both A) and (Rae tu and (As corect OP Soanaton of (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not ‘correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect (4) (A)is incorrect but (R) is correct 103. Cyanobacteria can be all, except (1) Aquatic or terrestrial (2) Unicelular or fiamentous BAutotrophie or heterotrophic (4) Nitrogen fixers possess thousands of cilia 104. A person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome (1) 1s a male with 45 autosomes and 2 allosomes (2) Is a female with 45 autosomes and 1 allosome (3) Has.45 chromosomes with XO GATE ctecmozomes ncudng XXY Pos opt Homozygous sex chromosomes — Produce male in Drosophila (2) Homozygous sex chromosomes — Produce male in chicks (3) Heterozygous sex chromosomes ~ Produce male in humans (4) Heterozygous sex chromosomes ~ Produce males in grasshopper \correct match. 106. One of the Mendel's pea plants was pure for green seed color. How many genotypically different types of male gametes can be produced by this plant for the same trai (1) One Two (3) Three (4) Four 107. In green plants, what colour does the chlorophyll pigment show in chromatogram which is present in the reaction centre in the photosystem? llow-orange nce (2) Bright or blue green (4) Yellow (10)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 GST-16_(Code-A) 108. DNA as alan (i) substance was first identified by (il) and name itas (il) Select the option that fills the blanks correctly. @ i) ( (1) [Neutral [Francis Crick Nuclei (2)|Basic | Friedrich Meischer | Chromatin (3) [Alkaline [Francis Crick Chromatin \[eer]acicie | Friedrich Meischer )Nuclein 109. DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA. fingerprinting analysis, because the sensitivity of the technique can be increased by using PCR (2) The DNA sequence is arranged in many copy numbers (3) After hybridisation with VNTR probe, the autoradiogram gives many bands of different (4) VNTRs varies from chromosome ‘chromosome in an individual 110. The inducer of fac operon is a/an \(2-€atbohydrate (2) Pentose sugar (3) Amino acid (4) Phospholipid 111. Regarding conservation strategies of biodiversity, choose the odd one out. (1) Wildlife Safari Park (2) Zoological Park (3) National Park 44) Botanical Garden 112. The compressed natural gas is better than diese! because of all, except AAT The former bums more efficiently (2) CNG is cheaper than diesel (3) It cannot be adulterated lke diesel (4) The former does not emit greenhouse gases ‘on burning to 113. Select the incorrect statement for modification of leaves. (1) In cacti, they are modified into spines for defence rte petioles in the plant like Australian ‘acacia become green and synthesise food (3) In Citrus and Bougainvilea they get modified into thorns (4) Fleshy leaves in garlic store food 114. Which among the following is an omamental plant belongs to family Fabageae? (1) Trifolium ue ui (3) Indigofera (4) Sesbania 115. In which tissue of the plant casparian strips are observed? (1) Cortex (2) Epidermis 116. Choose the incorrect statement (1) Cambium is very active in spring seagon 2H ood formed during spring season is caled late wood yO (3) Spring wood is lighter in p6Tour (4) Spring wood produces large number of xyiary elements, with wider cafities 117. In Acrocentric chromosome, position of primary constriction (1) Is: slightly away from the middle of the chromosome (2) Is at the telomere the chromosome close to one of its end, forming one ‘extremely short and one very long arm 118. The structure important for excretion in Amoeba (1) Lysosomes ercorractte vacuole (3) Inclusion bodies (4) Microbodies 119, Granular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in (1) Synthesis of fipids (2) Active production of steroidal hormone in animal cell ‘Synthesis of secretory proteins (4) Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid 120, Photoperiod is perceived by (3) Axillary bud (4) Floral bud Charais 121 HAY Monoecious green alga (2) Dioecious bryophyte (3) Monoecious flowering plant (4) Heterothallic fungi (11)GST-16_(Code-A) 122. Statement-I: Apomictic seeds di superior trait over generations, not lose Statement-ll: Formation of apomictic seeds do natinvee mods In light of above slatements, nd the correct option (1) Both the statements are correct but statement II is not a correct reason of statement (2) Only statement Il is correct J Both the statements are correct and statement Il is correct reason of statement | (4) Only statement |is correct, 123. Sedimentation of which the following substances occur during primary and secondary treatment of sewage respectively? \(-B6pended solids and flocs (2) Dissolved nutrients and flocs of (3) Flocs and suspended solids (4) Flocs and organic matter 124, Which of the following is an ex-situ conservation strategy for plants? (1) Herbarium yotanical gardens (3) Zoological parks (4) Museums 125. How many of the following categories are equivalent to rank of Carnivora? a. Primata ¢ —b,Insectaf! Diptera. Mammal Chordata (We b tree (3) Five (4) Four 126. If one molecule of pyruvic acid is completely oxidised aerobically then, are obtained, Chge$ the correct option to fin the blanks. A) 302 + NADH: + 2FADH: + 1ATP (2) 3COz + 4NADH + 4H" + FADH2 + ATP (3) 2CO2 + 4NADHe + 3FADH2 + 1ATP (4) 3COz + 4NADH + 2FADH2 + ATP Intensive Program for NEET-2023 127. Select the incorrect statement from the following w.rt. plant breeding for disease resistance. (1) Disease resistant crop varieties reduce the dependence on use of fungicides and bacteriocides (2) Resistance of the host plant is determined by its genetic constitution (3) Before breeding, the causative organism and the mode of transmission should be known (4}-PGsa Komal is a variety of cauliflower resistant against white rust 4128. Triangular age pyramid represents t4F Expancing population (2) Declining population (8) Stable population (4) Decreasing population 129. Choose the odd one out succession (1) Newly created pond_- {2) Baresock _, 3) (4) Newly cooled lava wrt primary fnt forest 130. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding diffusion? (1) Diffusion pressure is indirectly proportional to the number of diffusing particles (2) Diffusion continues tll the equilibrium is established Diffusion in solids rather than of solids is (4) Lipid insoluble substances diffuse slower through the membrane 131. Which of the following is a component of energy- related compounds and also serve as an activator of RuBisCO? (1M (2) P (3) Mn (4) Zn 132, Which of the following statements represent paradox of meiosis? (1) Méiosis produce variations _~ f} Meiosis maintains chromosome number constant from generation to generation (3) Meiosis produce gametes _~ (4) In meiosis, chiasmata can be observed ~~ (12)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 133. All of the following are part of ‘resting phase’ in cell cycle, except (1) Gr-phase (2) Gephase ASS M-phase (4) S-phase 134, Select the correct alga, which exhibits all the following features: A, Isogamous form of sexual reproduction B. Filamentous form C. Produce flagellated zoospores collulpse and pectose (1) Euerne of etn (3) Polysipnoniayy (4) Chlamydomonas 136. Fossils are important tools in (1) Artificial system of classification D. Cell wall made up of (2) Natural system of classification ABS Phylogenetic system of classification (4) Morphological system of classification SECTION-B 136. Prions are similar to viruses in (1) Having capsid (2) Having RNA Size (4) Having DNA 187. Select the correct statements. a. Loss or gain of a segment of DNA resulls in loss or gain of genes. Deletion and insertion of base pairs of DNA, causes frameshift mutations. UV radiation is a mutagen. Mutation leads to variation in DNA. b. c d (1) Only a andc. ly a,candd (2) O (a) Onybande Ala. oandd 138. To complete the process of replication in E. coli in 18 minutes, the average rate of replication has, to be approximately (1) 4600 bp per second (2) 2000 bp per second (3) 4250 bp per second (4) 3500 bp per second 139. Select the Incorrect statement from the following (1) Animals that require large territories lead to population decline due to habitat loss. (2) When our need tums to greed, it leads to over-exploitation of natural gesources (3) The accelerated rates of species extinctions are now largely due to humanyactvities ‘Very time the alion species when introduced deliberately tums invasive and causes extinction of other species GST-16_(Code-A) 140. Pollutants from human's activities like effluents from the industries and home radically accelerate the aging of lakes. This is called (1) Incineration (2) Biomagnification “tural Eutrophication (4) Biofortfication In which plant, the placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it? (2) Mustard (4) Primrose 141 (1) Dianthus AF Sunflower 142, The type of tissue found in both fruit walls of nuts and pulp of fruts like guava and sapota is. Seloreids (2) Bast fibres (3) Gollenchyma (4) Parenchyma 143. Choose the correct statement for chloroplast. (1) Majority of chloroplasts are found in epidermal cells of the leaves (2) In some eukaryotes, chloroplast is a part of tendomembrane system (3) The ribosomes of tho chloroplast are smaller than. the cytoplasmic eukaryotic cell ribosomes in an (4) The membrane of the thylakoids enclose a space called stroma Gren cotton 6 wet 2 reson of sed dormancy? () Prosunce of phenol acd sed ay Fptoialy mature embryo () or seed on () Preonc cf ance acm seed 105. Pn ncaect ai (1) Zostera —hydrophily (2) Maize — anemophily 0) vaowone. otomopty Yr Yucca - entomophily 148. Which of the following are used for clarifying fruit juices? (1) Streptokinases (3) Lipases (2) Amylases (i Bectinases (13)GST-16_(Code-A) 147. Which of the following options is showing correct, sequence of growth phases of a population growing in a habitat having limited resources? (1) Lag phase -> Log phase — Crash (2) Log phase -» Lag phase -» Deceleration (3) Lag phase > Log phase -> Deceleration > Asymptote (4) Log phase -» Lag phase > Asymptote Intensive Program for NEET-2023 (1) aQi), bai), efi), iv) (2) a\ebii), ctv), ati) pra i), oti), iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), cfiv), a(ii) . 149, Which of the following is responsible for pushing up water column to small heights in the stem of herbaceous plants? (1) Osmotic pressure (2) Turgor pressure (2) Wall pressure (4) Root pressure 150. Allof the following plants are liverworts, except (1) Marchantia (2) Poretia (3) Riecia (4) Funaria 148. Match the column | with column II and select the correct option, Column | ‘Column it a. | Saprotrophic | (i) | Transducers bacteria b. | Green plants AX) }Key industry animals c. | Herbivores P(ii)\] Nature's scavengers 4. | Camivores | (v) | Secondary consumers. ‘SECTION-A 161. The type of sugar found in polynucleotides is (1) Hexose (2) Heptose Pentose (4) Tetrose 152. Succinic dehydrogenase is inhibited by a competitive inhibitor called ny (3) Succinic acid (4) Patmitic acid 153. Choose the correct statement w.r. proteins, is (1) Succinate SAT Trypsin is a nucleic acid which acts as an enzyme (2) Insulin is a polysaccharide hormone (8) GLUT-4 is a transporter which enables glucose transport into cells (4) Collagen is intracellular ground substance 154. The drugs that are used as medicines to help Patients cope with mental iinesses like insomnia does not include (1) Cocaine (2) Amphetamines \ 3) vatiturates (4) Benzodiazepines 155. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like and serotonin from cells. Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks respectively. ot (2) Histamine, mast istamine, mast (3) Adrenaline, mast (4) Cortisol, mast 186. The common feature exhibited by both muscle fibre and nerve fiore is (1) Contractility Br Excitability (3) Extensibility (4) Elasticity 157. Select the incorrect match wrt. the {ype of joint with its example in human skeletal system, Type of joint Example (1) Saddle joint - Between carpal and metacarpal of (2) Photjoint = Between atlas angaxis _3)-Flings joint = Between humerus. and pectoral girdle (4) Gliding joint -_Bertieen the carpals (14)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 158. Superior male is the bull which (1) Given rise to progeny producing less milk per lactation (2) |s developed by MOET only (3) Can mate with multiple partners of different cies eres rise to superior progeny 159. Kidneys do not play any significant role in removal of nitrogenous waste Clarias (1) Canis (3) Felis (4) Delphinus 160. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Asthma is attributed only to bacterial infection of lungs (2) Beduction in pH of blood will decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen (3) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma (4) Cigarette smoking may leads to damage in alveolar walls 161. During denaturation step of PCR, the separation of DNA strands occur due tothe breakdown of (1) Phospliodiester bonds {2 Flydrogen bonds (8) Disulphide bones (4) Peptide bonds 162. Restriction endonuclease works by breaking the bond between (1) Adenine and thymine (2) Purine and phosphate group of deoxyribose nucleic acid Deoxyribose-phosphate backbone of DNA at specific points on each strand (4) Deoxyribose and thymine 163. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases ‘X’ and ‘Y’ only when the sequence 5'-GAATTC-3' is present in the DNA. These two bases form how many bonds, respectively, with their complementary bases 32 (2) 2:3 (3) 22 (4) 3:3 GST-16_(Code-A) 164. The work of which of the following influenced Darwin? (2) Louis Pasteur 4) Lamarck a inomas Malthus (4) S.L. Miller 165. Which one of the given options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution? Convergent tion Divergent evolution Vertebrate Wings of butterfly and of nears bis (2) Fortnbs of Vertebrate brains whale a at (3) Flippers of ‘Thoms of Bougainyillea penguins and and tendris ot Cagle Saiphine (4) Darwin's ches Insta tas 166. ¥ geo MretO\neppene mutple See then —_ Ti} Gene poo! (2) Genetic recombination (3) Genetic drift "Gene flow 467. How many ofthe given statements are correct? a The world population was around 2 bilion in the year 1900. . Indian population was approximately 35 million at the time of our independence. b, . According to 2011 census report population growth rate was more than 2 percent. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR. are probable reasons for huge increase in the population. Chopse the correct option wr (2)2 (3) 3 (4) 4 168. Which of the following is incorrect wrt improved reproductive health of the society? (1) Better awareness of the sex-related matters (2) Better detection and cure of STIs jecreased number of medically assisted deliveries and poor post-natal care (4) Increased number of couples with small families (15)GST-16_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023 169. For gene therapy of ADA deficiency, a permanent cure can be provided if gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at (1) Later embryonic stages Early childhood stages (3) During puberty (4) Early embryonic stages 170. Cerebral aqueduct is present in the part of brain that is located (1) At the dorsal wall of thalamus (2) In the inner parts of cerebral hemisphere (3) Between thalamus and pons AY oetnoon creel and pons triirotowng ve the funders ot aldosterone, ‘on (1) Maintenance of electrolytes” (2) Maintenance of osmotic pressure and blood pressure v oon of pubic hair during pubs (4) Maintenance of fuid volume of the body 172, Inhumans, bile is stored and concentrated in (1) Hepatic ces (2) Thick muscular sac (3) Pancreas yall bladder 173. All of the following are correct. for salivary amylase, except (1) It initiates the chemical process of digestion in the oral cavity (2) Itis a carbohydrate digesting enzyme Optimum pH for its action is 6.8 (4) Itacts as an antibacterial agent 174. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-A: Hypopharynx acts as tongue in cockroach, Statement-B: In both male and female cockroach, 10" segment bears a pair of jointed oF. onefilamentous ytructures called anal cerci Ti) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Bgth statements A and B are incorrect “pron statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct, 175. Select the type of cell junctions that perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. 4 Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions: (3) Adhering junctions (4) Zonula occludens 176. Choose the incorrect statement wrt. coagulation of blood. (1) Itis a mechanism to prevent excessive loss of blood from the body (2) Calcium ions play a very importettfole (8) Cortain factors released by the tissues at the te of injury can initiate this‘mechanism Dark yellowish black scum formed at the site of a cut oran injury immediately 177. Inhumans, cardiac output is decreased by (1) Release of adrenaline (2) Stimulation of sympathetic neural signals @ (4) Release of norepinephrine mulation of parasympathetic neural signals 178. Match the column-t with column-t Choose the correct option (1) alti, qa), ef), dv) (2) agi), b~D, ft, ev) (3) aGwv), BG), €(), 6) L4FAtiv), BC), eC), Ai) 179. One of the organisms given below belongs to a phylum that was earlier considered as a sub- phylum under phylum Chordata due to presence of rudimentary structure similar to notochord, Identify and select the correct option w.r.t, this organism. rachia (2) Chaetopleura (1) Pley falanoglossus (4) Branchiostoma 180. How many of the organisms given below in the box exhibit closed circulatory system? Nereis, Musca domestica, Myxine, Hirudinaria, Macaca, Delphinus (1) Three aro (3) Four (4) Two (16)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 GST-16_(Code-A) 181. Select the odd one among the following w.rt metamerism, 4Y)-Pheretina (2) Culex (3) Pila (4) Pleropus 182. The structure which is spirally arranged and is energy source for swimming is present in which part of a mammalian sperm? (1) Acrosome (2) Nucleus (@) Tail {G)Afiddte piece 183. Which among the following hormones is found i” both pregnant and non-pregnant women? (1) nL (2) hee (3) Relaxin (€)- Progesterone 184. What will happen if most of the GnRH secreting cells of hypothalamus gets damaged? (1) Incfeased secretion of gonadotropins (2) Increase in flicular development (3)-Bcreased secretion of LH and FSH (A) No effect on secretion of gonadotropins 185. Select t inder rrect statement, favourable conditions, Amoeba undergoes encystation-— (2) The organism's habitat, its internal Physiology has of reproductior Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of only a female organism from one ‘generation to the next Parturition is induced by a complex neuro endocrine mechanism involving cortisol, ‘estrogen and oxytocin ‘SECTION-B 186. Match Column-I with Column-tL role in deciding the mode @) (4) Column-t Column. Lectin 0 Ki iy iv) labrin [Toxin [curcumin c. [alkaloid [concanavalin A a. Drug Morphine Select the correct option. (1) (i), BG, efi), dfiv) (2) ati), BV), efi, A) (3) ai), i), efv), ai) (4) abi, BG. tiv), dQ) 187. Choose the incorrect statement w.rt immune response, (1) Cel-mediated immune responsible for graft rejection response is, (2) PMNLs provide non-specific type of defence to body (3) Antigenic proteins of pathogen provide 7, possieinmniy (4) Activ immunity is slow and tak time to give its fl effective response 188, Gene of interest is inserted at how many restriction site(s) of vector pBR322 given in the box below to produce amp* tet® recombinants? Pstl, Pvul, BamH, Clal, EcoR! (1) Five (2) Four 3 (4) One 189. The cells multiplied in continuous culture system are maintained in (1) Lag phase (3C0g phase (4) Stationary phase 190. Read the given statements:- three (2) Diminishing phase a, The embryos of all vertebrates including humans develop a row of vestigial gill slits just behind the head but it is a functional ‘organ only in fish and not found in any other adult vertebrates, In 1920, it was observed that there were ‘more white-winged moths on trees than dark- winged moths, The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span. Choose the correct option (1) aand care correct, b is incorrect (2) @andb are correct, cis incorrect (3) band c are correct, ais incorrect (4) All statements are correct 191. Select the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t hormone and its effect/funetion. Catecholamine : Pupilary dilation Reabsorption of Na’ and water (1) Aldosterone (2) Insutin (3) Epinephrine (4) Glucagon (17)GST-16_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023 192. The three semi-circular canals in ear lie in a different plane which are (1) Parallel to each other right angle to each other (3) Indifferent regions (4) In concentric fashion 193. One could be free of STIs by following the principles given below, except (1) Aiways try to use condoms during coitus (2) Avoid sex with unknown partners _GF-Have unprotected sex with muitiple partners (4) Taking advise from a qualified doctor and regular health checkup 194. All of the following are benefits of genetic modification in plants except. (1) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (2) Helped to reduce post harvest losses (B}-réteased reliance on chemical pesticides (4) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants 195. Select the incorrect statement wr. tissue fuid in humans, (1) Itis also called as interstitial uid (2) It has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma (8) Exchange of nutrients, gases, etc., between the blood and the cells always occur through this uid SUT tis a red coloured fluid containing specialised Iymphocytes 196. Assertion (A): During cleavage, the nucleus to cytoplasmic ratio increases. Reason (R): Cleavage is a special mitotic division in which size of daughter cells become half of mother but size of nucleus remains same (en) In the light of above statements, choose the correct option (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) isnot the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (8) (A)is true, (R) is false (4) (A)is false, (R) is tue a 197. Identify the organisms 'X' and ‘Y' given below. x Y Soloct the correct option wink x’ and’ (1) % ves in foshwater whereas "Yves in ocean (2) A central gastro-vascular cavity witha single pening (mouth) on hypostome ts present In both x’ and Y (3) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y' are sessile animals and ‘Y’ uses ts tontacas for capturing the prey AEF Biinging capsule is present in "'Y" and xX contains flagellated collar cells 198. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t comb jellies. (1) Exclusively marine (2) Qnly sexual reproduction Internal fertilisation (4) No sexual dimorphism 199. Match column-| with column-Il and select the correct option. Column ‘Column-tl a. | Chemosensitive | (l) | Causes expiration or area inspiration according fo need of body b. | Respiratory (ii) | Strong signais rhythm centr reduce the duration of inspiration . | Pneumotaxic, Highly sensi centre ind H (1) ati), bi, c(i) (i), Bd, o( (3) a(), BG), eG) (4) ai), BG), 0) 200. In which of the given conditions, renin is released from JG cells? (1) Increase in secretion of ANF (2) Increase in glomerular blood flow (3) A fall in glomerular filtration rate (4) Increase in blood pressure (18)