POLS 3304-Integrated Social Sciences

Dr. Mark Saad Saka

TEST 3-150 Points

The Constitution of the United States and the Institutions of Government

Read the Passage below, then answer the question that follows below

“There is an opinion that parties in free countries are useful checks upon the administration of
the government and serve to keep alive the spirit of liberty. This within certain limits is probably
true; and in governments of a monarchical cast, patriotism may look with indulgence, if not
with favor, upon the spirit of party. But in those of the popular character, in governments
purely elective, it is a spirit not to be encouraged. From their natural tendency, it is certain
there will always be enough of that spirit for every salutary purpose. And there being constant
danger of excess, the effort ought to be by force of public opinion, to mitigate and assuage it. A
fire not to be quenched, it demands a uniform vigilance to prevent its bursting into a flame, lest,
instead of warming, it should consume.”
1. In the exert above from his final speech as president, George Washington urged A.

A. Avoid foreign alliances

B. Limit freedom of speech
C. Refrain from joining political parties
D. Repay the national debt
2. The system of government in the United States takes its inspiration most directly from which
of the following ancient civilizations?
A. The Han Dynasty
B. The Aztec Empire
C. Athens
D. Egypt
3. Which is the following is a characteristic of authoritarian forms of government?
A. Protections for the press
B. Protections for individual privacy
C. Equal representation for political minorities
D. Lack of transparency in public finances
4. Which of the following was the primary purpose of adding the Bill of Rights to the United
States Constitution?
A. Granting the power of judicial review to the Supreme Court
B. Ceding sovereignty to the individual states
C. Creating explicit limits on the power of the federal government
 D. Amending errors in the Constitution
5. Which of the following excerpts from the U.S. Constitution best embodies the concepts of
federalism?
A. “The powers no delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to
the states, are reserved to the states, respectively to the people”
B. “The judicial power of the United States shall be vested in one Supreme Court, and in such
inferior courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain.”
C. “The citizens of each state shall be entitled to all privileges and immunities of citizens in the
several states
D. “All bills for raising revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives, but the Senate
may propose or concur with amendments as on other bills.”
6. The main effect of formal changes to the U.S. Constitution has been to:
A. Male the Constitution more democratic than the original document
B. Determine the specific meaning of language contained in the Constitution
C. Reinforce the system of checks and balances
D. Expand the powers of the executive branch of government
7. Which of the following best describes the significance of the U.S. Supreme Court’s decision in
Marbury v. Madison (1803)?
A. It established the principal of constitutional sovereignty
B. It set the precedent for the doctrine of judicial review
C. It was the fist case in which the Court recognized the right of executive privilege
D. It was the fist case in which the Court ruled a state law unconstitutional
8. The rights and responsibilities of citizenship are likely to be most expansive in a society where:
A. Citizens are committed to common goals established by the government
B. There are constitutional limits on the powers of government
C. Political power is shared by national and regional governments
D. All of the above
9. Which of the following is a constitutional principle intended to prevent the abuse of power by
one of the branches of the United States government?
A. Sovereignty
B. Federalism
C. Checks and balances
D. Nullification
10. Voters can best make an informed decision by electoral contest by:
A. Using varied sources of information to examine the candidates’ political backgrounds and
beliefs
B. Determining the number and types of media sources that support each of the candidates
C. Observing and analyzing the campaign strategies used by each of the candidates
D. Reading campaign literature and watching television ads.
11. In agreeing to the three-fifths Clause at the Constitutional Convention, the framers delayed
reaching a clear solution to which of the following issues?
A. The right of women to vote
B. The protection of individual liberties
C. The balance of power in Congress between large and small states
 D. The future of slavery
12. Which of the following statements correctly explains how the United States Constitution may
be amended?
A. Congress may propose an amendment by a two-thirds vote, and three-fourths of the states
must ratify it.
B. The president may propose an amendment, and Congress must ratify it by a supermajority
vote.
C. Three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, and the Supreme Court must ratify
it by a two-thirds vote
D. Three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, and the president must ratify.
13. Which of the following is the purpose of the due process clause in the Fifth Amendment?
A. To ensure that similar crimes have similar penalties
B. To protect those accused of crimes
C. To guarantee that all citizens follow the law
D. To guarantee trial by jury
14. Read the list of statements below an answer the question that follows:
*some powers are delegated , such as declaring war and coining money
*some powers are reserved, such as establishing schools and conducting elections
*some powers are shared, such as raising taxes and borrowing money

The list above describes the features of which of the following principles of the Constitution?
A. Rule of law
B. Popular sovereignty
C. Individual rights
D. Federalism
15. The passage of the Twenty-Second Amendment, which limits the number of terms a president
can serve, was in reaction to the administration of which of the following presidents?
A. William McKinley
B. Woodrow Wilson
C. Franklin Roosevelt
D. Harry Truman
16. The United States Supreme Court cited the idea of separate but equal to justify the decision in
which of the following cases?
A. McCulloch v. Maryland
B. Dred Scott v. Sandford
C. Texas v. White
D. Plessy Ferguson
17. The Connecticut Compromise of 1787, also know as the Great Compromise, established which
of the following:
A. The practice of counting only three-fifths of a state’s enslaved people in apportioning
representation and taxation
B. The separation of the federal government into three branches; the executive, the legislative,
and the judicial
 C. The addition of a Bill of Rights to the United States Constitution to protect individual
liberties and limit the power of the government
D. The congressional apportionment to each state for two Senators and a number of House of
Representatives based on state population
18. In which of the following ways did the Magna Carta influence the subsequent development of
government power in England and North America?
A. It mandated the separation of government among three branches
B. It expanded the power of the executive branch of government
C. It placed limitations on the executive branch of government
D. It limited religious practices not sponsored by the government
19. Under the Articles of Confederation, our first Constitution, (1781-1788)
A. Most of the important powers were exercised by the states
B. A standing army was established
C. The president had the power to declare war
D. We had three separate branches of government
20. At the Philadelphia Convention of 1787, supporters of the “Virginia Plan” wanted to:
A. Strengthen the powers of the national government
B. Strengthen the powers of state governments
C. Make only minor modification to the existing constitution
D. Add a Bill of Rights to the existing constitution
21. At the Philadelphia Convention of 1787, supporters of the “New Jersey Plan” wanted to:
A. Add a single person executive to our Constitutional structure
B. Terminate the national government and give states full sovereignty
C. Make the Senate a hereditary institution
D. Retain a single house legislature
22. In Federalist Paper # 10, James Madison argued that a stronger national government would be
more effective than state governments in:
A. Defending the nation from a foreign invasion
B. Promoting commerce and encouraging economic growth
C. Controlling the destructive effects of factions
D. Defending free speech and other personal freedoms
23. “We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice,
ensure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general
welfare….”
A. Preamble to the Constitution
B. Declaration of Independence
C. Article I of the Constitution
D. Fifth Amendment to the Constitution
24. How often do members of the U.S. House of Representatives face election?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 4 years
D. 6 years
25. A member of the House of Representatives must be at least years of age?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
26. How often do U.S. Senators face election?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 4 years
D. 6 years
27. A U.S. Senator must be at least years of age?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
28. Which institution has the power to try impeachment cases against the president or other
federal officials?
A. Senate
B. House of Representatives
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice
29. Members of the U.S> Congress may be arrested:
A. Only in cases of treason, felony, or breach of peace
B. Only when Congress is in session
C. At any time, for any reason
D. Never
30. How many votes does it take in both houses of Congress to override the President’s veto?
A. Simple majority
B. Two-thirds majority
C. Three-fourths majority
D. Congress cannot override the President’s veto
31. If a bill passed by both houses of Congress sits on the President’s desk for 10 days or longer
without a signature and Congress remains in session:
A. Congress must reconsider the bill
B. The bill is dead
C. The bill is transferred to the Supreme Court
D. The bill automatically becomes law
32. Which of the following is not a power delegated to Congress?
A. Overturn state laws
B. Lay and collect taxes
C. Borrow money
D. Regulate Congress
33. Who is responsible for establishing the inferior federal courts?
 A. The President
B. The Congress
C. The Supreme Court
D. The State legislatures
34. The “necessary and proper” clause refers to the powers of
A. The Congress
B. The President
C. The Supreme Court
D. The State legislatures
35. Article I, Section 9 prohibits Congress from suspending the right of the Writ of Habeas Corpus.
Which of the following most nearly explains what a Writ of Habeas Corpus says?
A. The law does not apply to me because it was enacted after I committed the crime
B. I cannot be detained without being formally charged with a crime
C. I have been convicted is a crime and I want a superior or appeals court to hear my case
D. An elected official cannot convict me or a crime. Only a court can do that.
36. According to Article I, Section 10 of the Constitution, states are prohibited from doing all fo
the following except:
A. Enter any treaty, alliance, or confederation
B. Coin money
C. Keep troops
D. Establish courts
37. The president requires two-thirds approval from this body to make treaties of confirm
appointments:
A. House of Representatives
B. Senate
C. Supreme Court
D. Both houses of Congress.
38. A president may grant pardons in all cases except:
A. treason
B. bribery
C. fraud
D. impeachment
39. Concerning the authority of the Supreme Court, the most accurate way of describing the
difference between original and appellate jurisdiction is:
A. In the case of original jurisdiction, the case cannot be heard by the Supreme Court
B. In the case of original jurisdiction, the case must be heard by the state court first
C. In the case of appellate jurisdiction, the case must be heard by the Supreme Court first
D. In the case of appellate jurisdiction, the case must be heard by a state or inferior federal
court first.
40. According to the Constitution, all of the following statements concerning federal judges are
correct except:
A. Federal judges receive compensation
B. Federal judges must be natural-born citizens
C. Federal judges serve for life
 D. All of these are correct
41. According to the Constitution, a President must be:
A. At least 25 years of age and a U.S. Citizen for at least 5 years
B. At least 30 years of age, and a U.S> citizen for at least 10 years
C. At least 35 years of age, and a natural born U.S. Citizen
D. At least 40 years of age and must hail from two-natural-born U.S. citizens.
42. According to the U.S. Constitution, the president exercises all fo the following powers except:
A. Declare War
B. Veto laws passed by Congress
C. Nominate appointees to the U.S. Supreme Court
D. Command the armed forces as commander-in-chief
43. What is the vice-president’s relationship to the U.S. Senate?
A. The vice president has no relationship to the U.S. Senate
B. The vice president presides over the Senate, but casts a vote only to break a tie
C. The vice president is required to consult with the Senate
D. The vice president is a full voting member of the Senate
44. Which cabinet level position under the president is considered to be the nation’s chief
diplomat?
A. Secretary of Defense
B. Secretary of Treasury
C. National Security Advisor
D. Secretary of State
45. Concerning presidential elections, which of the following is not mandated by the U.S.
Constitution?
A. The District of Columbia receives electoral votes
B. The party nomination process for candidates must be democratic
C. States may not charge their citizens from voting based on race, gender, or age (assuming
they are 18 years or older)
D. States may not charge a tax to vote.
46. Article IV of the U.S. Constitution speaks mostly to relations between:
A. The national government and the people
B. The executive branch and the congress
C. Congress and the judicial branch
D. Interstate relations and citizens relationship between states
47. The “Supreme Law of the Land” clause is found in which part of the U.S. Constitution?
A. First Amendment
B. Tenth Amendment
C. Article I
D. Article VI
48. How many states were required to ratify the Constitution?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
49. Which part of the Constitution explicitly prohibits Congress from enacting any law concerning
the establishment of a religion?
A. Preamble
B. Article I
C. Amendment 1
D. Amendment 5
50. If someone says “I plead the fifth,: in referring to the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution,
what does that mean?
A. You can’t search my property without a warrant
B. You can’t make me testify against myself
C. You can’t make me appear in court
D. I want a lawyer
51. All of the following are established by the Bill of Rights except:
A. The accused have the right to a speedy and public trial
B. The right of property is absolute
C. Cruel and/or unusual punishments are prohibited
D. People are secure in their persons and property
52. In the case of Griswold v. Connecticut (1965), the Supreme Court ruled that the right to
privacy was upheld by the Constitution, even though the word “privacy” appears nowhere in
the Constitution itself. In writing for the majority, Justice William O. Douglas described the
concept of a “penumbra,” or a right that emanated from other protections. The idea that the
Constitution protects rights that are not specifically enumerated might find the most obvious
support from which Constitutional amendment?
A. Amendment 6
B. Amendment 9
C. Amendment 14
D. Amendment 16
53. Amendments 13, 14, and 15 to our Constitution all deal with:
A. Civil Rights
B. The powers of the federal government
C. The powers of the state governments
D. The conduct of foreign policy
54. Which of the following concerning the Bill of Rights is true?
A. A Bill of Rights was formally added to the Constitution approximately two years after the
ratification of the Constitution itself
B. The original constitution had a Bill of Rights
C. Endorsed by the supporters of the Constitution but not its opponents
D. The Bill of Rights limits what states can do, but it does not limit what the national
government can do
55. Amendments 16, 17, 18, and 19 were all enacted during which era in American history?
A. Antebellum
B. Gilded Age
 C. Progressive
D. After World War II
56. Our current Constitution (1788-present) was ratified and became law by a:
A national vote
B. Vote in Congress
C. Vote by state ratifying conventions
D. Vote by state legislatures

57. According to the Amendment 14 of the U.S. Constitution, a U.S. citizen is anyone:

A. with at least one U.S. parent

B. who has lived in the United States for at least 5 years

C. Who speaks English

D. Born in the United States

58. Under Chief Justice John Marshall (1801-1835), the U.S. Supreme Court affirmed all of the
following except:

A. The applicability of the Bill of Rights to the states

B. The inviolability of contracts

C. The supremacy of the federal government over state governments

D. An expansive interpretation of the “necessary and proper” clause

59. In 1866, Congress passed the first Civil Rights Act. It survives today as part of the United
States Code. The Act guarantees citizens the right to:

A. Make and enforce contracts

B. Purchase and convey land

C. Enjoy the benefits of all laws

D. The applicability of the Bill of rights to the states

E. All of the above

60. “No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges and immunities
of the citizens of the United States; nor any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or
property, without due process of the laws.”

A. Article I of the Constitution

B. Article IV of the Constitution

C. Amendment 14 of the Constitution

D. Amendment 15 of the Constitution

61. The Constitution grants Congress the power to tax personal income in:

A. Article I

B. Article VI

C. Amendment 15

D. Amendment 16

62. The only Amendment in the history of our Constitution ever to be overturned by another
Amendment dealt with the right to:

A. Bear arms

B. Manufacture, sell, or transport alcohol

C. Criticize the national government during times of emergency

D. Have an attorney present during questioning.

63. Which Supreme Court case overturned the “separate but equal” doctrine?

A. Griswold v. Connecticut

B. Brown v. Board of Education

C. Hardwick v. Bowers

D. Roe v. Wade

64. Individuals charged with a minor criminal offense or involved in a divorce or property
dispute are most likely to find themselves in:

A. Municipal, county, or state district court

B. Federal district court

C. Federal Circuit Court

D. U.S. Supreme Court

65. Which of the following was an effect of the Supreme Court decision in Dred Scott. Sanford?

A. The decision increased the number of congressional representatives to include the Wisconsin
Territory

B. The decision required the United States government to regulate the interstate travel of
enslaved people

C. The decision denied citizenship to all African Americans, whether free or enslaves

The decision preserved the balance of representatives power between free and slave states.
66. In the United States of America, women were the right to vote nationally in:

A. 1900

B. 1910

C. 1920

D. 1930

67. According to Article II, Section 4 of the Constitution, which of the following would be least
likely to secure the removal of the president on an impeachment charge?

A. treason

B. A high crime or misdemeanor

C. A personal scandal

D. Bribery

68. The term “Double Jeopardy” means that:

A. spouses cannot be asked to testify against each other

B. A murder conviction must be supported by the testimony of at least two witnesses

C. The accused must be allowed to cross-examine their accusers

D. A defendant cannot be tried for the same crime twice

69. In the federal court system

A. there are more district courts than circuit courts

B. there are more circuit courts than there are district courts

C. There are an equal amount of circuit courts and district courts

D. District courts may only hear cases on appeal

70. In the case of Mapp v. Ohio, the Supreme Court ruled that Dollree Mapp’s procedural due
process right had been violated. In so doing, the Court made it clear that:

A. The evidence against Mapp could not be used because the police did not have probable cause
or a proper search warrant

B. Mapp had the right to possess lewd materials based on her constitutional right to privacy

C. Neither of the Above

D. Both A & B

71. The “Lemon Test,” as elaborated in the case Lemon v. Kurtzman, 1971, deals with;
A. freedom of the press

B. Public support for religious institutions

C. the right to bear arms

D. Procedural due process

72. In the case of Near v. Minnesota 1931, the Supreme Court rejected the application of
“near restraint.” Near Restraint deals with:

A. Detaining people without charging them with a crime

B. Preventing press organs from publishing potentially scandalous or malicious materials

C. Applying different standards of proof against people previously convicted of a past crime

D. Prohibiting dangerous expressions of speech in times of national emergency

73. The case of Regents of California v. Baker 1978, the Supreme Court declared that
institutions of higher education:

A. Preventing press organs from publishing potentially scandalous or malicious materials

B. Were within their rights to expect higher admissions to disclose his or her race or ethnicity

C. Had no right to consider race as a factor in admissions

D. Could not use racial quotas in making their admission decisions

74. In very basic terms, what did the U.S. Supreme Court tell President Richard M. Nixon in
1974?

A. All conversations in the White House are public

B. National security is not important

C. Nobody is above the law

D. The president should not be bound by an inferior federal court decision

75. Concerning the relationship between segregation and education, what did the Supreme
Court rule in Brown v. Board of Education 1954?

A. if school facilities are separate, they must be equal

B. Separate facilities are inherently unequal

C. Schools had the right to segregate children if concerns about the safety of the children
warranted it

D. Schools had the right to segregagte children if their parents demanded it

76. Which president was impeached and removed from office?

A. Andrew Johnson

B. Richard Nixon

C. Bill Clinton

D. None of the above

77. Congress attempted to impose the War Powers Act on the president restricting the
president's right to deploy American military forces without congressional authority, after 30
days, as a result of which war?

A. World War II

B. The Korean War

C. The Vietnam War

D. The First Gulf War

78. In the case of Tinker v. Des Moines 1968, students took their public-school authorities to
court after the authorities had prohibited them from wearing armbands in protest against the
Vietnam War. What did the Supreme Court say?

A. Students do not lose their first amendment rights at the schoolhouse gates

B. School authorities had the obligation to prevent disruptions to other students

C. Since the students were minors, they had no right to bring suit in court

D. It was permissible for students to wear armbands if their parents agreed to it

79. In Minersville School District v. Gobitis, 1940, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that a school
district was within its rights to demand that students (in this case members of the Jehovah’s
Witnesses) be required to salute the American flag, even if their personal religious beliefs
prohibited them from doing so. Just two years later, the West Virginia State Board of
Education v Barnett 1942 the Supreme Court reversed itself, arguing that the students were
within their First Amendment rights in refusing to salute the flag. The Court’s change of heart
may have been influenced by which ongoing war?

A. World War One

B. World War Two

C. The Korean war

D. The Vietnam War

80. In the case of Craig v. Boren 1976, the Supreme Court established the principle of
intermediate scrutiny” in dealing with discrimination cases based on gender. Intermediate
scrutiny means that the burden of proof is:

A. On the Plaintiff
B. On the defendant

C. Partly on the defendant and partly on the plaintiff

D. On the defendant, but using the lesser preponderance of evidence standard

81. In the case of Meritor Savings Bank. Vinson, 1986 the Supreme Court ruled that sexual
harassment:

A. Is prohibited by the Civil Rights Act of 1964

B. Is an explicit or implied threat that submission to such harassment is a condition of continued

employment

C. Is an act that creates offensive or intimidating employment conditions that amount to barrier
to successful completion of one’s obligations

D. All of the above

82. This chief Justice presided over the Supreme Court from 1953-1969. During that time, the
Court ruled repeatedly in favor of civil rights and he rights of the accused.

A. Abe Fortas

B. Earl Warren

C. Warren Burger

D. William Rehnquist

83. Which of the following most accurately describes the Supreme Court case of Milliken v.
Bradley 1974, which dealt with busing children across district lines in order to achieve racially
integrated schools?

A. Busing children across state lines was impermissible in all cases

B. School districts were no circumstances obligated to bus children to achieve integration

C. School districts were not allowed to bus children across district lines if the only reason is to
integrate their schools

D. School district were obligated legally to bus children only if it could be shown that in the past,
they had deliberately segregated children

84. According to Pew Research, the lowest percentage of Americans as of 2022 get their news
from this source:

A. Print newspapers

B. Television

C. Public radio

D. The internet
85. According to Pew Research as of 2022, the following can be said about voters under the
age of 30 EXCEPT:

A. They tend to be more liberal

B. Religious faith has comparatively less impact on their voting

C. They have much higher voter turnout than voters over 30

D. They are more likely to feel left outside of either mainstream party

86. When you vote in a Presidential primary, it means that you are voting for:

A. President

B. Your party’s candidate for President

C. The members who will represent your state in the Electoral College

D. The candidate you would be willing to accept as President if your first choice isn’t elected

87. The United States electoral college is often criticized by voters for which of the following
reasons?

A. It encourages the formation of radical political parties

B. It gives more political power to heavily populated areas

C. It normally favors the incumbent candidate

D. It is influenced by money generated by political parties

88. In the election of 2000, George W. Bush lost the popular vote to Al Gore by roughly
500,000 votes. Why did Bush win the election?

A. A recount in Florida changed the results

B. The Supreme Court ruled that Gore’s campaign had committed fraud

C. The electoral college votes in the states that Bush won exceeded the electoral college votes in
the states that Gore won

D. Bush prevailed in more states than did Gore

89. If you are collecting signatures to get a measure on the next local or state ballot, it means
that you are making use of the:

A. Referendum

B. Initiative

C. Recall

D. Secret ballot
90. Concerning the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), which of the following is true?

A. An employer may not ask an applicant to self-identify as an individual with a disability, even
when the employer is voluntarily using this information to benefit individuals with a disability

B. An applicant with a documented disability need not meet the same qualifications for the
position as an applicant who does not have a documented disability

C. Employers must give preferences to those documented disabilities when making hiring or
promotion decisions

D. An employer is not required to make an accommodation to an individual with a known

disability if it would impose an “undue hardship” on the operation of the employer’s business.

91. According to the Civil Rights Act of 1964, all of the following categories could be
considered a “protected class” (protected against discrimination in the workplace, in housing
and elsewhere) EXCEPT:

A. Race

B. Gender

C. Religion

D. Political Belief

92. A representative democracy is a system of government that:

A. Allows citizens to vote directly on laws and policies

B. Allows citizens to personally make, veto or judge statutes

C. Gives citizens a regular opportunity to elect top government officials

D. Gives citizens the ability to remove their elected officials at any time

93. For which of the following reasons are political action committee (PACS) often considered
to be controversial?

A. they are the first to review proposed legislation in Congress

B. They appoint people to serve as part of the Electoral College

C. They influence public officials by making campaign contributions

D. They directly communicate with foreign leaders to confirm treaties

94. Which of the following shared values in U.S. society is embodied by the motto on the seal
of the United States, “E Pluribus Unum,” which means “out of the many, one”?

A. Diversity within unity

B. Liberty for all

C. Freedom of speech
D. Importance of individuality

95. Affirmative action is controversial because:

A. Americans disagree over whether it promotes or restrains equality

B. It is inherently undemocratic

C. It limits political equality for the sake of cost effectiveness

D. The triumph of the civil rights movement has rendered the issue of racial equality moot

96. Th e federal government first began to take a much more assertive attitude towards the
social welfare around this period of time, when it enacted measures to design to protect
people from old age and disability:

A. 1890s

B. 1930s

C. 1960s

D. 1980s

97. Which of the following represents the largest source of funding for Texas public schools?

A. Local property taxes

B. Local bonds

C. Federal grants

D. Lottery proceeds

98. What controversial education policy was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in
the case, Zelman v. Simmons-Harris, 2002?

A. The No Child Left Behind Act

B. School vouchers

C. The use of the phrase “Under God” in the Pledge of Allegiance

D. Magnet schools

99. An example of “drawing and quartering” a prisoner or torturing a citizen of the United
States would be an example of a violation of the:

A. Third Amendment

B. Sixth Amendment

C. Eighth Amendment

D. Twelfth Amendment
100. The Amendment that forms of the basis of American Federalism and grants powers not
delegated to the Federal Government to the states and the people is the:

A. 9th Amendment

B. 10th Amendment

C. 11th Amendment

D. Both A&B

101. Article I of the U.S. Constitution covers:

A. Powers delegated to the Legislative Branch

B. Powers delegated to the Executive Branch

C. Powers delegated to the Judicial Branch

D. Relationship between states and the means of admitting new states

102. Article II of the U.S. Constitution covers:

A. Powers delegated to the Legislative Branch

B. Powers delegated to the Executive Branch

C. Powers delegated to the Judicial Branch

D. Relationship between states and the means of admitting new states

103. Article III of the U.S. Constitution covers:

A. Powers delegated to the Legislative Branch

B. Powers delegated to the Executive Branch

C. Powers delegated to the Judicial Branch

D. relationship between states and the means of admitting new states

104. Article IV of the Constitution covers:

A. Powers delegated to the Legislative Branch

B. Powers delegated to the Executive Branch

C. Powers delegated to the Judicial Branch

D. Relationship between states and the means of admitting new states

105. The ability of the Congress to propose and enact new Amendments is covered in which
Article of the U.S. Constitution?

A. Article V
B. Article VI

C. Article VII

D. Article VIII

106. In terms of religion oaths for office:

A. The Constitution requires an oath that affirms the God of Christianity

B. The Constitution requires an oath that affirms the God of Judeo-Christianity

C. The Constitution requires an oath that affirms the belief in a “higher power.”

D. No religious test shall be administered

107. The following is taken from Washington’s Farewell Address in 1796:

“So likewise, a passionate attachment of one nation for another produces a variety of evils.
Sympathy for the favorite nation, facilitating the illusion of an imaginary common interest in
cases where no real common interests exists and infusing into one the enmities of the other,
betrays the former into a participation in the quarrels and wars of the latter, without
adequate inducement or justification.”

What are/were the implications of Washington’s statement

A. Warning against political factionalism

B. Warning against regionalism
C. Warning against political apathy
D. Warning against foreign entanglements and alliances

108. In the landmark case McCullough v. Maryland 1819, the Supreme Court ruled that:

A. under the “Supremacy Clause” of the Constitution, federal law is the supreme law of the land,
and not the states.

B. under the “Necessary and Proper Clause” of the Constitution, the federal government had
“Implied Powers” to achieve a federal end such as raising revenue.

C. Under the “Supremacy Clause” of the Constitution, a state did not have the right to secede
from the Union.

D. Both A&B

E. Both B&C

109. In the landmark case Gibbons v. Ogden 1824, the Supreme Court ruled that Congress and
the federal government could:

A. regulate interstate commerce

B. deny the right of African Americans to sue in federal court

C. deny the right of Native Americans to live on tribal lands

D. Both B&C

110. In the landmark Supreme Court case Schenk v. the United States 1918, the Supreme Court
ruled that the federal government:

A. could regulate interstate commerce when the needs of wartime demanded that the
government control industrial output and distribution

B. could regulate labor and industrial unrest when the needs of wartime demanded that the
government maintain wartime defense production

C. could regulate “unlimited free speech” when that free speech represented a “clear and
present danger” to the U.S. ware effort.

D. could regulate agricultural production in order to feed the civilian population of our World
War One allies, the British and the French nations.

111. In the landmark Supreme Court case Buck v. Bell 1827, the Supreme Court ruled:

A. forced sterilization of people was constitutional

B. reaffirmed that only Congress could declare war, as sentiment to the U.S. involvement in
World War One was still strong.

C. that the presidential administration of Calvin Coolidge did not have constitutional authority to
pledge military assistance to the Russian forces that were trying to overthrow the Bolshevik or
Communist regime for the USSR.

D. capital punishment against Army deserters from World War One was constitutional

112. The Supreme Court Justice who oversaw many Progressive cases in the first decade of the
twentieth century was:

A. John Marshall

B. Roger Taney

C. Oliver Wendell Holmes

D. Earl Warren

113. The Supreme Court Justice over oversaw the expansion of the federal government and
established that the federal government had jurisdiction over state governments as well as
the notion of Judicial Review in the earl decades of the Court’s existence was:

A. John Marshall

B. Roger Taney

C. Oliver Wendell Holmes

D. Earl Warren
114. The Supreme Court Justice who oversaw the Dred Scott decision as well as other cases in
the 1850s as foreshadowing the American Civil War was:

A. John Marshall

B. Roger Taney

C. Oliver Wendell Holmes

D. Earl Warren

115. In which form of government does a small groups of elite people hold political power?

A. direct democracy

B. monarchy

C. Oligarchy

D. Anarchy

116. The elite theory of government maintains that:

A. special interest groups make government policy

B. politicians who have held office for a long time are favored by voters

C. poor people and people of color should be allowed to vote

D. wealthy, politically powerful people control government, and government has not interest in
meeting the needs of ordinary people

117. According to the pluralist theory of government:

A, government does what the majority of voters want it to do

B. government policy is formed as a result of the competition between groups with different
goals and interests

C. ordinary people acting on their own have a significant influence on government

D. wealthy people decide what government policy will be, and politicians have no interest in
pleasing anyone else

118. Which is an example of a political tradeoff?

A. The government please environmental activist by preserving public lands but also pleases
ranchers by allowing them to rent public lands for grazing purposes

B. The government please environmental activists by reintroducing wolves to Yellowstone

National Park but angers ranchers by placing their cattle in danger

C. The government pleases oil companies by allowing them to drill on lands set aside for
conservation but allows environmental activist groups to protest the drilling operations
D. Groups that represent a variety of conflicting interests are allowed to protest outside
Congress and the White House

119. Supporting the actions of the Democratic or Republican Party simply because one
identifies as a member of that party is an example of:

A. partisanship

B. ideology

C. latent preference

D. social capital

120. British colonists in North American were greatly influenced by the political thought of:

A. King James II

B> Thomas Jefferson

C. John Locke

D. James Madison

121. The agreement that citizens will consent to be governed so long as government protects
their natural rights Is called:

A. the divine right of kings

B. the social contract

C. a bill of rights

D. due process

122. Why were The Federalist Papers written?

A. To encourage states to ratify the Constitution

B. To encourage New York to ratify the Constitution

C. To oppose the admission of slaveholding states to the federal union

D. To encourage people to vote for George Washington as the nation’s first president

123. The authors of the Federalist Papers included:

A. Thomas Jefferson, Alexander Hamilton, and James Madison

B. James Madison, Alexander Hamilton, and John Jay

C. Thomas Jefferson, Benjamin Franklin, and George Washington

D. James Madison, Thomas Jefferson, and Benjamin Franklin

124. What argument fid Alexander Hamilton use to convince people that it was not so
dangerous to place power in the hands of one hand?

A. That man would have to pass a religious test to become president; thus, citizens would be
guaranteed of his good character

B. One man could respond to crises more quickly than a group of men like Congress.

C. It would be easier to control the actions of one man than the actions of a group

D. Both B & C

125. In 1967, the supreme Court ruled in Loving v. Virginia that:

A. laws prohibiting inter-racial marriages were unconstitutional

B. That the Virginia law banning contraception was a violation of the notion of privacy

C. That the Virginia flying of the Confederate flag was constitutionally protected as free speech

D. That Virginia’s laws banning homosexual relation was unconstitutional

126. What is the Bill of Rights?

A. the first ten amendments to the Constitution

B. powers given to Congress in Article I of the Constitution

C. twenty-seven amendment added to the Constitution over the years

D. document authored by Thomas Jefferson that details the rights of man

127. Which statement about federal and unitary systems is most accurate?

A. in a federal system, power is concentrated in the states; in a unitary system, it is concentrated

in the national government

B. In a federal system, the constitution allocates powers between federal and state’s
government; in a unitary system, powers are lodged in the national government

C. Today there are more countries with federal systems than with unitary systems

D. The United States and Japan have federal systems, while Canada and Great Britain have
unitary systems

128. Which statement is most accurate about eh sources of revenue for local and state
governments?

A. Taxes generate well over one-half the total revenue of local and state governments

B. Property taxes generate the most tax revenue for both local and state governments

C. Between 30 and 40 percent of the revenue for local and state governments comes from grant
money
D. Local and state governments generate an equal amount of revenue from issuing licenses and
certificates

129. In the Supreme Court case, United Citizens v. Federal Election Commission 2010, the court
ruled that:

A. corporate funding of independent political broadcasting elections cannot be limited under the
First Amendment

B. corporate funding of independent political broadcasting could be limited as a means of

preventing political-candidate influence of election outcomes

C. corporate finding of independent political broadcasting could be unlimited as long as both

political candidates were equally funded

D. None of the above

130. In 2010, the island commonwealth Puerto Rico was granted:

A. granted voting representation at the federal level

B. granted electoral rights for the presidential election

C. Both A& B

D. none of the above

131. The Supreme Court struck down the Texas All White Primary which for all practical
purposes, locked the African American population of Texas out of the electoral process with
the ruling in:

A. Brooks v. State of Texas 1923

B. Smith v. Allwright 1944

C. Sweatt v. Painter 1950

D. Buck v. Bell 1927

132. In 1948, the Supreme Court struck down public education that segregated Mexican
American children from Anglo children based on the discrimination violated the due process
clause:

A. Delgado v. Bastrop County

B. Westminster v. Mendez .I.S.D.

C. Uvalde County v. State of Texas

D. Both A & B

133. In Hernandez v. State of Texas 1954, the Supreme Court ruled that:
A. that the 14th Amendment applied to all racial and ethnic groups, including Mexican
Americans who had historically experienced discrimination

B. that the 13th Amendment which had outlawed slavery was extended to the use of
undocumented workers who were victims of human trafficking.

C. that the historic use of all white juries in Jackson County, Texas constituted a violation of
equal protection of the law for Mexican Americans

D. Both A&B

134. In 1970, the Supreme Court ruled in Cisneros v. Corpus Christi I.S.D. that:

A. The Brown v. Board of Education of 1954 extended to Mexican Americans

B. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 included Mexican Americans

C. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 included Mexican Americans

D. All of the above.

135. Which statement about immigration federalism is false?

A. The Arizona v. United States decision struck down all Arizona’s most restrictive provisions on

Undocumented immigration

B. Since the 1990s, states have increasingly moved into the policy domain of immigration

C. Federal immigration laws trump state laws

D. State’s involvement in immigration os partly due to their interest in preventing

undocumented immigrants from accessing public services such as education and welfare
benefits

136. Which statement about the evolution of same-sex marriage is false?

A. The federal government became involved in this issue when it passed the Defense of
Marriage Act or DOMA

B. In the 1990s and 2000s, the number of state restrictions on same-sex marriage increased

C. United States v. Windsor had legalized same-sex marriage in the United States

D. More than half the states had legalized same-sex marriage by the time the Supreme Court
made same-sex marriage legal nationwide in 2015.

137. Which of the following is not a benefit of federalism?

A. Federalism promoted political participation

B. Federalism provides for multiple levels of government action

C. Federalism has increased political polarization between states in America over the course of
the past four decades
D. Federalism allows state initiatives such as progressivism in the early 20th century to influence
national political, a sort of “state-laboratory”

138. Which of the following makes it easy for a citizen to register to vote?

A. Grandfather clause

B. Lengthy residency requirements

C. Competency requirements

D. The National Voter Registration Act

139. If you wanted to prove the United States is suffering from low voter turnout, a
calculation based on which percentage of the population would yield the lowest voter turnout
rate?

A. registered voters

B. voting-eligible population

C. voting-age population

D. voters who voted in the last election

140. What characterizes those most likely to vote in the next election?

A. over forty-five years old

B. income under $30,000

C. high school education or less

D. residency in the South

141. Where and when do Electoral College electors vote?

A. at their precent, on Election Day

B. at their state capital, on Election Day

C. at their state capital, in December

D. in Washington D.C. in December

142. In which type of election are you most likely to see coattail effects?

A. presidential

B. midterm

C. special

D. caucuses

143. In article 3 of the U.S. Constitution, nine Supreme Court Justices are mandated?
A. True

B. False

C. Eight are allowed in the case of the death of a justice member, but there must be a new
nominee within 30 days

D. None of the above

144. The lawyer who represents the federal government and argues before the Supreme Court
is the:

A. Solicitor General

B. Attorney General

C. U.S. Attorney

D. Chief Justice

145. In the event of a Senate tie, which elected official votes to break the tie?

A. The Secretary of State

B. The Vice President

C. The President

D. The Attorney General

146. The first African American to serve on the Supreme Court was:

A. Clarence Thomas

B. Thurgood Marshall

C. John L. Lewis

D. Andrew Young

147. The first “Latina” to serve on the Supreme Court was

A. Sonia Sotomayor

B. Sandra Cisneros

C. Gloria Anzaldua

D. Isabel Allende

148. Civil Liberties”

A. serves as a limit on government towards individuals

B. are guarantees that government officials will treat people equally and that decisions will be
made on the basis of merit rather than race, gender, or other personal characteristics.
C. protects American military personnel who are in another country the same protection that
they would have in the United States

D. None of the above

149. Civil Rights:

A. serves as a limit on government towards individuals

B. are guarantees that government officials will treat people equally and that decisions will be
made on the basis of merit rather than race, gender, or other personal characteristics.

C. protects American military personnel who are in another country the same protection that
they would have in the United States

D. None of the above

150. In McGirt v. Oklahoma 2020

A. that the state of Oklahoma was constitutionally bound to reserve oil revenues for public
school funding

B. that the Cherokee Nation located in Oklahoma could maintain political alliances with e
Carolina Cherokee located in North Carolina

C. stated that the Muscogee (Creek) Nation currently has a reservation in eastern Oklahoma and
that either the federal government or the Muscogee (Creek) Nation, not the State, should have
prosecuted tribal members for committing a crime on that reservation.

D. that the state of Oklahoma must provide equal access to the state universities to Native
Americans in the state, whom had previously been prevented on the notion that Indian
reservations paid little taxes to the state of Oklahoma