HEALTH ASSESSMENT

1. Nurse Calvin is assessing the nares to evaluate the site of epistaxis. The most common site of
bleeding is which of the following?
a. Ostiomeatal complex c. Kiesselbach plexus
b. Nasal Septum d. Woodruff plexus

2. During routine physical examination of a 20-year old woman, Nurse Coleen notes a septal
perforation. This finding may be signification for which of the following causes?
a. Illicit drug use c. Nasal trauma
b. Nose picking d. Bifid uvula

3. What is the medical term for nasal discharge?

a. Nasorrhea c. Rhinorrhea
b. Orthopnea d. Bronchitis

4. Nurse Adam knows that the floor of the mouth is highly vascular and therefore a good location
for which of the following?
a. Identification of malignancy in the pharyngeal fossa
b. Infection with streptococcus
c. Aspiration, even if the gag reflex is present
d. Absorption of sublingual medications

5. Acute airway obstruction is a situation that should be

a. Reassessed during the next visit c. Further assessed thoroughly
b. Evaluated within 8 hours d. Quickly assessed and treated

6. Nurse Tria has assessed the nose and documents expected findings as:
a. Nose asymmetrical with clear drainage
b. Nose symmetrical and midline
c. Nose asymmetrical and proportional to facial features
d. Nose symmetrical with purulent drainage

7. Nurse Severus is assessing a patient who has been taking antibiotics for 10 days. Oral assessment
is important because of the increased risk for which of the following?
a. Pharyngitis c. Glossitis
b. Anosmia d. Fungal infection

8. Nurse Justine is evaluating a patient with suspected sinusitis. He palpates the cheekbones to
check tenderness of which sinus?
a. Frontal c. Ethmoid
b. Maxillary d. Sphenoid
9. Throat assessment of an elderly client reveals difficulty in swallowing. Nurse Mae would
document this as:
a. Odynophagia c. Polyphagia
b. Trismus d. Dysphagia

10. When Nurse Sharlene assesses an 80-year old patient with pneumonia, what is the priority
assessment?

a. Breath sounds c. Respiratory rate

b. Airway patency d. Percussion sounds

11. Nurse Ven Jan is assessing a client with emphysema (alveolar hyperinflation). Which of the
following are expected findings during examination of the thorax? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
a. AP: lateral ratio = 1: 2 c. Decreased breath sounds
b. Hyperresonance d. Increased fremitus

12. A 45-year old man has been admitted to the hospital with suspicion of pulmonary embolism.
Which of the following symptoms should the nurse report to the primary health practitioner
immediately?
a. Sharp chest pain c. RR= 20 cycles per minute
b. Dyspnea d. Productive cough

13. A 35-year old female came with pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis and cough. Chest X-ray revealed
small tubercles in the lungs. The phlegm culture showed rod-shaped mycobacterium bacilli.
During health history taking, Nurse Edric would expect to obtain the following information
relevant to this diagnosis:
a. Allergy to medication c. Profession in coal mining
b. Positive to Mantoux test d. Use of cocaine

14. Which of the following is a potential cause of stridor?

a. Upper airway obstruction c. Pleural effusion
b. Obstructive lung disease d. Pneumothorax

15. What is the classic auscultatory finding in a patient with constriction in the airways secondary to
environmental allergies?
a. Pleural friction rub c. Expiratory wheeze
b. Coarse crackes d. Vesicular breath sound

16. When performing a respiratory assessment on a patient, the nurse notices a costal angle of
approximately 90 degrees. This characteristic is:
 a. Observed in patients with kyphosis
b. Indicative of pectusu excavatum
c. A normal finding in a health adult
d. A normal finding in a patient with a barrel chest

17. During an examination of the anterior thorax, Nurse Calv is aware that auscultation on the trachea
would elicit:
a. Vesicular sounds c. Tracheal sounds
b. Bronchovesicular sounds d. Bronchial sounds

18. When assessing for tactile fremitus, the nurse recalls that it is normal to feel tactile fremitus most
intensely over which location?
a. Between the scapulae C. Over the lower lobes, anterior thorax
b. 5TH intercostal space, MCL d. Fifth ICS, midaxillary line

19. Nurse Beyonce is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a student nurse.
Which statement by the student reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?
a. “It is reduced with consolidation of the lung tissue secondary to pneumonia.”
b. “It indicates that air is present in the subcutaneous tissue”
c. “The vibrations are transmitted to the chest wall”
d. “You need a stethoscope to assess intensity of sounds over the chest wall”

20. During percussion, Nurse Andrei knows that a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe most
likely results from:
a. Shallow breathing c. Increased lung tissue density
b. Normal lung tissue d. Decreased adipose tissue

21. Nurse Dylan is observing the auscultation technique of Nurse Matthew. The correct method to
use when progressing from one auscultatory site on the thorax to another is ___________
comparison.
a. Side to side c. Posterior to anterior
b. Top to bottom d. Interspace by interspace

22. When auscultating the lungs of an adult patient, Nurse Jerico notes that low-pitched, soft breath
sounds are heard over the posterior lower lobes, with inspiration longer than expiration. The nurse
interprets that these sounds are:
a. Normally auscultated over the trachea
b. Bronchial breath sounds and abnormal in that location
c. Vesicular breath sounds and expected in that location
d. Bronchovesicular breath sounds and normal in the location
23. Nurse Macabenta is auscultating the chest of Patient Ronquillo. Despite her excitement, she
employs the correct technique by:
a. Instructing the patient to take deep, rapid breaths
b. Instructing the patient to breathe in and out through the nose
c. Firmly hold the diaphragm of the stethoscope against the patient’s chest
d. Use the palmar surface of her hands to feel the vibrations on the chest wall

24. Nurse Coleen is percussing over the lungs of patient Nickole with pneumonia. She knows that
striking over an area of atelectasis (lung collapse) will reveal:
a. Dullness c. Resonance
b. Tympany d. Hyperresonance

25. During auscultation of the lungs, Nurse Nico expects decreased to absent breath sounds in which
situation?
a. Presence of adventitious breath sounds c. In conditions of consolidation
b. In conjunction with whispered pectoriloquy d. Obstruction of the bronchial tree

26. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic for evaluation of a cold. She tells Nurse
Trizia that he has had “a runny nose for a week.” When performing the physical assessment, the
nurse notes that the child has nasal flaring and sternal and intercostal retractions. The nurse’s next
action should be to:
a. Assure the mother that these signs are normal symptoms of a cold
b. Recognize that these are serious signs, and contact the physician after connecting a nasal
cannula
c. Ask the mother if the infant has had trouble with feedings
d. Perform ma complete cardiac and respiratory assessment because these are probably
indicative of early heart failure

27. When inspecting the anterior chest of an adult, Nurse Patrice should include which assessment?
a. Diaphragmatic excursion c. Shape of the chest wall
b. Symmetric chest expansion d. Presence of breath sounds

28. A patient has a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). During the
assessment, Nurse Jasmine will most likely observe which of these?
a. Unequal chest expansion c. Trapezius and SCM atrophy
b. Increased tactile fremitus d. Equal AP:transverse diameter ratio

29. A teenage patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of an inability to breathe
and a sharp pain in the left side of his chest. The assessment findings include cyanosis, tachypnea,
tracheal deviation to the right, decreased tactile fremitus on the left, hyperresoance on the left,
and decreased breath sounds on the left. Nurse Almira interprets that these assessment findings
are consistent with:
A. Bronchitis c. Pulmonary edema
B. Pneumothorax d. Emphysema
30. During palpation of the anterior chest wall, the nurse notices a coarse, crackling sensation over
the skin surface. On the basis of these findings, the nurse suspects:
a. Tactile fremitus c. Bronchophony
b. Crepitus d. Friction rub

31. Nurse Cantil performs an admission assessment on an adult client admitted through the
Emergency Department with a myocardial infarction. The nurse charts “turbulent sound heard
over the right carotid artery.” How should this documentation be corrected?
a. Does not need to be corrected
b. “Thrill heard over right carotid artery.”
c. “Split sound auscultated over right carotid artery”
d. “Right carotid bruit auscultated.”

32. During an interview with Nurse Magday, a client complains of a fatigue that seems to get worse
in the evening. Which of the following causes of fatigue would explain this pattern?
a. Depression c. Cardia arrhythmia
b. Decreased cardiac output d. Muscular exertion

33. In order to palpate an apical pulse when performing a cardiac assessment, where should Nurse
Ladringan place the fingers?
a. Left MCL at the 5th ICS c. left MCL at the 3rd ICS
rd
b. Right of the MCL at the 3 ICS d. right of the MCL at the 5th ICS

34. The client has a diagnosis of severe septic shock. Which finding would indicate the client is
experiencing low cardiac output?
a. Bradycardia; hypertension c. Bradycardia, hypotension
b. Tachycardia, hypotension d. Tachycardia, hypertension

35. The area know as Erb’s point is the third site of auscultation on the precordium. Where is it
located?
a. 3rd right rib space c. 3rd left rib space
th
b. 4 left rib space d. 4th right rib space

36. The nurse understands that when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated what occurs?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
a. Increased cardiac output
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Unchanged blood pressure
 d. Decreased blood pressure
e. Increased heart rate

37. Understanding pressures in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta is fundamental to
understanding heart sounds. Place the following in order of pressures and sounds through one
cardia cycle.
1 Aortic valve closes
2 Mitral valve closes
3 S3 and S4 may be heard if pathologic ventricular compliance exists

38. Nurse Rudio palpates a client’s carotid arteries, finding the strength of the pulse to be too
bounding. Which score should the nurse record?
a. 3+ c. 4+
b. 2+ d. 1r

39. A client complains of difficulty sleeping, stating he has to sit up with the help of several pillows
and cannot breathe when lying flat. This client has a condition known as what?
a. Tachypnea c. Dyspnea on exertion
b. Orthopnea d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

40. Which characteristic of the apical pulse should Nurse Keith expect to find in the client diagnosed
with left ventricular hypertrophy?
a. Displaced c. Diminished
b. Bounding c. Weak

41. Nurse Fiona, a nurse manager in a cardia unit should immediately intervene when observing
which staff nurse’s assessment technique? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
a. Palpation of the point of maximal impulse on the chest
b. Inspecting bilateral jugular veins
c. Palpating carotid pulses simultaneousuly
d. Palpating the epigastrium on a patient with suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm

42. What nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a client admitted with heart failure?
a. Ineffective airway clearance c. Risk for denial na meron syang iba
b. Acute pain d. Ineffective tissue perfusion

43. Nurse Estrada is assessing a client who has an elevated cholesterol level. To reduce the mean
total blood cholesterol and LDL levels, whould would be important to teach this client.
a. Eat low-cholesterol, low-carbohydrate meals
b. Eat high protein, low-fat meals
c. Eat high protein, low-carbohydrate meals
 d. Eat low-fat, low cholesterol meals

44. While performing an admission assessment, the nurse ausultates a high-pitched, scratching, and
grating sound at the left lower sternal border. Nurse Geraldo should know that this would be
documented as:
a. A cardiac murmur secondary to regurgitation
b. A pericardial friction rub due to pericarditis
c. A pleural friction rub due to a pneumothorax
d. A pericardial friction rub due to pericardial effusion

45. The first heart sound (S1) is best heard with the diaphragm over the :
a. Aortic area c. Tricuspid area
b. Pulmonic area d. Mitral area

46. The second heart sound is heard best at: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
a. Base of the heart c. Over the semilunar valves
b. Apex of the heart d. Over the atrioventricular valves

47. Which of the following assessment findings indicated left -sided heart failure? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY
A. Crackles c. Bipedal edema
B. Cough d. Jugular vein distention
48. Hypertension and arteriosclerosis increase workload of the heart because they increase: SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY
a. Peripheral vascular resistance c. Central venous pressure
b. Preload d. Afterload

49. Which of the following conditions would cause regurgitant murmurs?

a. Aortic insufficiency c. Both A and B
b. Tricuspid incompetence d. Neither A nor B

50. A prolonged PR interval reflects delayed transmission of cardiac impulses from the sinoatrial
node to the Bundle of His. This is manifested by:
a. Tachycardia c. Tachyarrhythmia
b. Bradycardia c. Normal sinus rhythm

50. Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?
A. Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag.
B. Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container.
C. Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container.
D. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorates the sputum.
 51. The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen for culture is:
A. Early in the morning
B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
C. After aerosol therapy
D. After chest physiotherapy

52. Nurse Julian will include all interventions when preparing a patient for a MRI procedure except?
A. offer ear plugs or music
B. inform the patient to remain still throughout the procedure
C. ensure that patient is not wearing metal such as zippers or jewelry
D. ensure that the patient is shaved completely, and also catheterize the patient

53. Which of the following is the normal side effect of barium swallow?
A. Diarrhea for few days.
B. Bowel will be white/gray for few days.
C. Vomiting for one day

54. Tests that are performed to identify both the nature of the invading organisms and their susceptibility
to commonly used antibiotics.
A. Cholangiography
B. Biopsy
C. Papanicolau Test
D. Culture and sensitivity (C&S)

55. The client has a urinary health problem. Which procedure is considered a non-invasive and indirect
visualization?
a. Intravenous pyelography c. Retrograde pyelography
b. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) d. Cystoscopy

56. When assisting with a bone marrow biopsy, Nurse Sharlene should take which action?
a. Assist the client in a right side-lying position after the procedure
b. Observe for signs of dyspnea, pallor, and coughing
c. Assess for bleeding an hematoma formation for several days after the procedure
d. Stand in front of the client and support the back of the neck and knees

57. For a lumbar puncture, which position should Nurse Uri place the client in?
a. Lateral with head bent toward the chest and knees flexed onto the abdomen
b. Lying prone, with knees drawn up toward the abdomen
c. Sitting bent over from the waist with legs extended
d. Supine with knees pulled toward the chest

58. Nurse Mercida needs to collect sputum specimen to identify presence of tuberculosis (TB). Which
nursing action(s) is/are indicated for this type of specimen. Select all that apply.
a. Collect the specimen in the evening
b. Send the specimen immediately to the laboratory
c. Ask the client to spit in a urine container.
d. Offer mouth care before and after collection of the sputum specimen
e. Collect the specimen for 3 consecutive days

59. The community nurse, Nurse Alyssah, who is practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would
target which groups for educational efforts?
A. Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties.
B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities.
C. Women working in careers outside the home.
D. Women working in the home.

60. During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and
treatment, Nurse Tungcab asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the
following questions are most appropriate at this time, except?
A. How long have you used substances?
B. How often do you use substances?
C. How do you get substances into your body?
D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?

61. In CAGE Self-Assessment Tool, how many “yes” means it is highly likely that a problem exists
A. One yes
B. More than one yes
C. Four yes
D. All of the above

62. An elderly African-American woman with traditional beliefs has been admitted to an inpatient care
unit. A culturally sensitive nurse should:
A. perform a physical examination
B. recognize and accept different beliefs about health
C. identify high-risk patients for various diseases
D. apply statistical trends of various ethnic and cultural groups.

63. Which is a common mistake made by health care professionals when collecting data about ethnic
and cultural considerations of a patient?
A. acknowledging the practice of folk or herbal remedies.
B. adapting health care concepts to meet the needs of individuals of other cultures
C. assuming data about the patient based on skin color or ethnic group
D. overestimating the ability of individuals from diverse cultures to understand health care concepts

64. What is the verbal and behavioral system of culture, when it is transmitted from one generation to
the other?
A. Culture is learned
B. Culture is shared
C. Culture is adapted
D. Culture is universal

65. A nurse is assessing a woman whose religious beliefs do not allow blood transfusions. She has
severe anemia, is very weak, and has altered mental status. What should the nurse do to provide
culturally competent care to this woman?
A. Examine his or her feelings about the role of religious beliefs in making decisions about life.
B. recognize that he or she cannot provide care to patients whose religious beliefs endanger their lives.
C. try to convince the patient to have a blood transfusion to save her own life.
D. determine whether the patient is competent to make her own decision about health care.

66. A nurse is caring for a woman who has just been pronounced dead. Her adult children are in the
room. Which statement by the nurse indicated culturally competent care?
A. "Which funeral home would you like notified of your mother's death?"
B. "We will be moving her to the morgue in about 30 minutes."
C. "Would you like some time alone with your mother for any specific ceremonies?"
D. "Here are some of her personal belongings that were in the drawer."

67. The nurse in a prenatal clinic is performing an assessment on a pregnant client. When it is noted
that clumps of hair are missing from the client's scalp, the nurse should ask what assessment
question?
A) Have you ever been the victim of a crime?
B) What do you know about the problem of domestic violence?
C) Do you feel safe in your home setting?
D) Can you tell me if anyone recent attacked you?

68. Which of the following would the nurse do first when collecting subjective data from a client when
domestic violence is suspected?
A) Discuss legal reporting requirements.
B) Talk about limits of confidentiality.
C) Create a safe environment.
D) Have a witness to the conversation.

69. When assessing a client for possible abuse, which of the following would most likely suggest that
the client is a victim of abuse?
A) Repeated emergency department visits for injuries
B) Poor or no prenatal care
C) History of alcohol abuse
D) Failure to gain weight in pregnancy

70. The nurse has identified that a female client desires to leave her abusive husband and move with
her children to her parents' house. Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing
diagnosis?
A) Readiness for enhanced family processes
B) Grieving related to loss of ideal relationship
C) Disturbed personal identity related to moving to parent's house
D) Impaired parenting related to loss of relationship

71. . A group of students is reviewing the events associated with the cycle of violence. Which
statement by the students demonstrates understanding of the topic?
A) It occurs in a predictable pattern.
B) There are five phases in the cycle.
C) During phase 2, the victim can often stop the abuser.
D) Criticism is the defining part of phase 3.
 72. . A nurse is interviewing a client who is a suspected victim of abuse. Which of the following
practices should the nurse avoid during this phase of assessment?
A) Using direct questions about being injured
B) Displaying a concerned, empathetic approach
C) Interjecting often to clarify information
D) Emphasizing the nurse's availability to talk
73. A nurse is interviewing a child who is suspected of being abused. Which of the following would be
most appropriate?
A) Ask questions that are highly detailed.
B) Use direct, nonleading questions.
C) Offer the child a reward for answering questions.
D) Use simple yes and no questions regardless of the child's age.

74. A client tearfully admits to the nurse that her husband beats her when he drinks alcohol excessively.
How should the nurse best respond to the client's statement?
A) Thank you for implicating your husband in this illegal behavior.
B) It took a great deal of courage for you to tell me that.
C) I will take action to make sure that this never happens again.
D) Now that this is out in the open, you can begin to rebuild your life.

75. A shared, learned, and symbolic system of values, beliefs, and attitudes that shapes and influences the
way people see and behave in the world is defined as
a. Society c. Culture
b. Community d. Spirituality

76. Even if daily prayers or other religious practices are not part of a patient’s life routine, they often take
a central position during life transitions, such as the loss of a loved one, an accident, or serious illness. A
related nursing diagnosis might be
a. Spiritual distress
b. Impaired social interaction
c. Readiness for enhanced spiritual well-being
d. Social isolation

77. It is important to identify similarities and differences among the cultural beliefs of the patient, health
care agency, and the nurse to
a. get proper diet c. communicate with family
b. perform spiritual consult d. avoid making assumptions

78. Seeking understanding of patients’ culture-based health care practices is essential to nursing because
each culture has its own traditional values and beliefs about health illness that
a. have things that need to be avoided
b. affect the body image and habits that may lead to becoming overweight
c. may affect patients’ adherence to treatments
d. use various health methods that might be harmful

79. The patient’s family should not be present with the patient during the interview about family violence
because:
a. The patient may feel uncomfortable speaking openly with a relative present, especially if that person is
contributing to the patient’s stress
b. The patient may not answer questions related to the family member that could be perceived as
insensitive and inappropriate
c. The family member may be ashamed or embarrassed by the patient’s actions or statements and try to
withhold or change the facts
d. The family member may be a perpetrator of abusive behavior, and thus the patient may be hesitant to
honestly answer questions

80. “Do you have any thoughts of wanting to kill or harm yourself?” is a common question to assess for
suicidal ideation because it
a. is blunt and patient cannot refuse to answer
b. will cover both suicidal and parasuicidal thoughts
c. is subtle, and patients will not know how to answer
d. will encourage patients who perform self-harm to stop cutting

81. Signs and symptoms that are “red flags” for violence include which of the following?
a. Stating that everything is just fine
b. Displaying mood and behavior changes
c. Expressing sadness over loss
d. Wanting to have family involved

82. The patient has pain of a short duration with an identifiable cause. This is referred to as
a. acute pain c. neuropathic pain
b. chronic pain d. complex pain

83. To identify the location of pain, the nurse asks the patient
a. how long he or she has had pain
b. to rate the intensity of the pain on a scale from 0 to 10
c. to point to the painful areas
d. to describe the quality of pain

84. With which of the following types of patients is the nurse most like to use the FACES pain scale?
a. Children c. Older adults
b. Patients with dementia d. Unconscious patients

85. Which of the following is the rationale for the nurse to reassess the patient’s pain after treatment?
a. To pinpoint the pain’s location c. To establish the efficacy of treatment
b. To measure the pain’s duration d. To make changes to the patient’s pain goal

86. Which of the following is a barrier to pain assessment?

a. The nurse believes that patients suffer if undermedicated
b. The nurse focuses on pain relief as a primary end to the assessment process
c. The nurse chooses treatment that will positively affect the patient’s care
d. The nurse has difficulty accepting the patient’s self-report as valid

87. Which of the following represents the nurse’s documentation of a patient with normal mood?
a. Pleasant or appropriate to situations c. Fearful but mildly humble
b. Grandiose or strongly confident d. Sad and tearful during conversations

88. Patient Joshua DL has been drinking Jose Cuervo for a decade and exhibits signs and symptoms of
liver disease. What tool would the nurse use to assess him?
a. MMSE c. Wong-Baker Face Scale
b. CAGE Questionnaire d. Geriatric Depression Scale
89. An abdominal paracentesis is performed to obtain fluid specimen and to relieve pressure on the
abdominal organs secondary to:
a. Renal disease c. Thyroid disease
b. Liver disease d. Cardiac disease

90. Which of the following is considered abnormal in a urinalysis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
a. Albuminuria c. Acidic urine pH
c. Glycosuria d. Ketonuria

91. A male patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of hard, irregular, non-tender mass on his chest
under the areola. Upon examination, Nurse Mary notes that the mas is immobile and suspects:
a. gynecomastia c. Paget’s disease
b. benign lesion d. carcinoma

92. Gynecomastia may occur in an older male secondary to:

a. testosterone deficiency c. trauma
b. lymphatic engorgement d. decreased activity level

93. It is important to examine the upper outer quadrant of the breast because it is
a. more prone to injury and calcifications
b. where most breast tumors develop
c. where most of the suspensatory ligaments attach
d. the largest quadrant of the breast

94. A 23 year-old nulliparous woman is concerned that her breasts seem to change in size al month long
and they are very tender around the time she has her period. The nurse should explain to her that
a. Nonpregnant women usually do not have these breast changes and this is a cause of concern
b. Breasts often change in response to stress, so it is important to assess her life stressors
c. Cyclical breast changes are normal
d. Breast changes normally occur during pregnancy and she should have a pregnancy test

95. Peau d’orange appearance is highly suggestive of which of the following?

a. Breast Cancer c. Mastitis
b. Gynecomastia d. Benign breast disease

96. The correct position in which to place the patient to palpate the breasts is:
a. left lateral position with arm over the head c. supine with arm over head
b. sitting forward with hands on hips d. supine with arms at side

97. What additional information does Nurse Ferrer need to gather when a female client complains about
breast tenderness?
a. Family history of breast cancer c. Specific time during the menstrual cycle
b. Personal history of breast cancer d. Daily consumption of alcohol

98. Nurse Piocos is counseling a 35-year old woman about her risks of breast cancer. The woman is single,
without children, and works a 12-hour day ICU nurse manager. She is a smoker, does not regularly
exercise, and is on oral contraceptives (Diane). What are her most important risk factors for breast cancer?
a. No natural children, long work days, and no regular exercise
b. No natural children, socioeconomic status, and oral contraceptives
c. Single, socioeconomic status, and oral contraceptives
d. No regular exercise, long work days, and oral contraceptives

99. When teaching the breast self-exam, Nurse Enciso informs a client that the best time to conduct BSE is:
a. At the onset of the menstrual period
b. On the 14th day o the menstrual cycle
c. On the 4th tho 7th day of the cycle
d. Just before the menstrual period

100. When examining a breast, what would you consider a concerning symptom? SELECT ALL THAT
APPLY.
a. pendulous breast c. sudden nipple inversion
b. unusual nipple discharge d. skin retraction