CT216: Introduction to Communication Systems Winter 2024

Midterm Exam 2
MCQ Answer Key

Date : Saturday 23rd March, 2024, from 2pm to 4 pm

Total Marks : 65
Notes: : All questions are scored (no optionals).

Name: Student ID:

1 Fill In the Blanks:

Instructions
▷ There are total 13 questions in this section that carry total of 39 marks.
▷ There is no negative marking in this section.

Questions
1. (2 points) What is the trade-off involved in the design of a quantizer?
Reducing D requires increasing R and vice versa.

2. (3 points) Why is the DPCM is expected to be better in optimizing this trade-off compared to the PCM?

DPCM reduces the range of variations which the quantization needs to accommodate. Therefore, D can
be reduced using same value of R or R can be reduced with the same value of D.
3. (3 points) Why can the advantage that the DPCM provides not be achieved using the PCM with a
linear compressor? Why a highly nonlinear compressor is used for the PCM instead?
Reducing the range of variations which the quantization needs to accommodate is beneficial only if the
signal power does not change. If the signal power is reduced by the same amount, the numerator of
QSNR reduces, and it cancels out the benefit obtained by reducing the denominator, i.e., D, of QSNR.
Therefore, the linear compressor is of no use. Note that this is different from the DPCM for which
the original speech signal is never linearly compressed. Instead the range of variations is reduced by a
predictor (either using a single sample or using multiple samples).
▷ A nonlinear compressor is needed to uniform-alize the PDF of the speech signal. After the PDF is made
(atleast approximately) uniform, the optimal design of the quantizer can use the standard, off-the-shelf,
and cheaper, uniform quantizer instead of specially-designed and more expensive non-uniform quantizer.

4. (1 point) What are the two common types of distortions that arise with the Delta Modulation (DM)?
Slope Overload and Granular noise.

1
 5. (3 points) Describe an enhanced version of the DM approach that is used to reduce the severity of these
distortions that affect the DM.
An Adaptive Delta Modulation which uses a variable step size. Step size is made smaller if the slope
(time derivative) of the analog signal becomes near zero, and step size is increased if the slope becomes
high.

6. (3 points) Assume a quantizer with L levels is used to quantize an analog signal with uniform PDF.
Derive an expression for the average Signal to Quantization Noise Ratio (SQNR) for this quantizer as a
function of L (do not just state the expression, provide a mathematical derivation of this expression).
See the lecture slides.
7. (2 points) Show, using the expression derived above, that the average SQNR in dB increases by 6 dB
for each additional bit used by the quantizer.
See the lecture slides.
8. (4 points) Is it possible1 to define a prefix-free binary code for an alphabet of L = 4 symbols whose
codeword lengths are {n1 , n2 , n3 , n4 } = {1, 2, 2, 3} bits? If yes, provide the definition; else explain why
not.
No, Kraft’s Inequality is violated. 2−1 + 2−2 + 2−2 + 2−3 = 1.125 which exceeds maximum value of 1
according to Kraft’s Inequality.
9. (4 points) Output string of any random source is asymptotically nearly certain to belong to the typical
subset. Given this property of a random binary source, derive an approximation (as N → ∞) for the
binomial coefficient N


k in terms of binary entropy function Hb (p) = −p log2 p − (1 − p) log2 (1 − p). State
the value of p to be used in this approximation.
k
By taking p = , we can approximately size the surviving set in two alternate ways as follows:
N
 
N ×Hb (p) N
2 ≈
k

Right hand side of the above formula equals the number of different binary strings of length N bits in
which k bits are 1’s. Left hand side of the above formula counts the size of the typical set when the
k
DMS has a probability of p = . As N → ∞, both the sets become the same.
N
10. (1 point) “Volume” V (N, tc ) of a Hamming Sphere of radius tc is defined as the number of (binary)
codewords of length N bits whose Hamming weight (i.e., number of ones) is less than or equal to tc bits.
What is the expression for V (N, tc ).
tc  
X N
V (N, tc ) = .
k
k=0

11. (5 points) To ensure that the designed code has a maximum guaranteed error correcting capability of
tc bits, prove that the rate of the code r = K/N (where K is the length of the binary message bit block
that is encoded) should satisfy the following:

log2 (V (N, tc ))
r ≤1− (1)
N

ˆ To ensure the error correction capability of tc bits, the Hamming spheres of size V (N, tc ) around
each of 2K codewords should remain non-overlapping.
1 Hint: use of a binary tree (such as the one used in proving Kraft’s Inequality) may help you think through this problem.

2
 ˆ Since the total number of the binary strings of length N is 2N , we have the following:

2K × V (N, tc ) ≤ 2N
⇒ K + log2 (V (N, tc )) ≤ N
⇒ K ≤ N − log2 (V (N, tc ))
log2 (V (N, tc ))
⇒ r1 − (2)
N

12. (4 points) Perfection versus Efficiency. Sometimes perfection and efficiency do not go together. Effi-
ciency of a channel code of rate r for BSC(p) is defined as
r
. (3)
1 − Hb (p)

Give an example of a block code which is perfect but it is typically highly inefficient as the code length
N increases? For what value of p would this block code become efficient?

ˆ Repetition code of rate r = 1/N is perfect but it is highly inefficient unless p is close to 0.5.

13. (4 points) Fig. 1 shows a portion of trellis diagram corresponding to bit indices n − 1 and n for a
convolutional code. States at n − 1 in Fig. 1 are marked with the path metrics calculated by Viterbi
Algorithm at n − 1. The branches are labeled with the output bits generated by the convolutional
encoder if it traverses the particular branch. Suppose the received bits at index n are 010. Populate the
states at index n shown in Fig. 1 (write your answer on Page 5 next to Fig. 1) with the updated path
metrics calculated by Viterbi Algorithm. Given only the updated path metrics at n, if you are asked to
correct the received bits 010, write below what would your answer be.
110

2 Multiple Choice Questions:

Instructions
▷ An OMR sheet is provided on the last page. Fill the bubble corresponding to the correct option.
Following will not be graded:
→ Tick marks or partial filling of the bubble, or filling up more than one bubble
→ Do not use a pencil to fill the bubble – the answer bubbled in with pencil, even if it is correct,
will not be graded.
▷ Marks for a correctly answered question are indicated for each question. If the question is answered
incorrectly, negative marking will apply, with negative one-fourth of the marks awarded to that answer.
▷ This is MCQ Set or Answer Key of IV.

▷ There are total 12 questions in this section that carry a maximum of 26 marks.

Questions

Version I II III IV
Question 1

3
 Version I II III IV
Answer (a): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.75 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (b): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.75 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (c): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts 3 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (d): 2 pts 3 pts -0.75 pts 3 pts
Question 2
Answer (a): -0.5 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (b): -0.5 pts -0.5 pts 2 pts 2 pts
Answer (c): 2 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (d): — 2 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Question 3
Answer (a): -0.5 pts 3 pts -0.25 pts 3 pts
Answer (b): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts 1 pt -0.75 pts
Answer (c): 2 pts -0.75 pts -0.25 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (d): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.25 pts -0.75 pts
Question 4
Answer (a): -0.5 pts 2 pts -0.75 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (b): 2 pts -0.5 pts 3 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (c): -0.5 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (d): -0.5 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts 3 pts
Question 5
Answer (a): 3 pts 2 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (b): -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (c): -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (d): -0.75 pts — 3 pts 2 pts
Question 6
Answer (a): -0.25 pts -0.5 pts 3 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (b): 1 pt -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (c): -0.25 pts 2 pts -0.75 pts 2 pts
Answer (d): -0.25 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts —
Question 7
Answer (a): -0.75 pts 2 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (b): -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (c): 3 pts -0.5 pts 2 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (d): -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts 2 pts
Question 8
Answer (a): 3 pts -0.25 pts 2 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (b): -0.75 pts -0.25 pts -0.5 pts 2 pts
Answer (c): -0.75 pts 1 pt -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (d): -0.75 pts -0.25 pts — -0.5 pts
Question 9
Answer (a): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts 2 pts 3 pts
Answer (b): -0.5 pts 3 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (c): 2 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (d): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts
Question 10
Answer (a): -0.75 pts -0.75 pts 2 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (b): -0.75 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts 2 pts
Answer (c): -0.75 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Answer (d): 3 pts 3 pts -0.5 pts -0.5 pts
Question 11
Answer (a): 3 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.25 pts

4
 Version I II III IV
Answer (b): -0.75 pts 2 pts 3 pts 1 pt
Answer (c): -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.25 pts
Answer (d): -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.25 pts
Question 12
Answer (a): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts 2 pts 3 pts
Answer (b): -0.5 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (c): 2 pts -0.75 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts
Answer (d): -0.5 pts 3 pts -0.5 pts -0.75 pts

Figure 1: Fill up the question marks when the received bit sequence is 010 (refer to Problem 13 of FITB
section).

Figure 2: Two quantization schemes: mid-tread versus mid-rise (refer to Problem ?? of the MCQ section).

5
Figure 3: Fill the entire circle with ball-point pen (pencil marking will not be graded). Write your name
and student ID