OCTOBER 19, 2021 | LEGAL MEDICINE EXAM

1. In Dactyloscopy, what are plastic prints?

A) These are fingerprints which are readily visible.
B) These are fingerprints which have been made on a soft surface.
C) These are fingerprints which have three dimensional characteristics.
D) These are fingerprints which are invisible to the naked eye.

2. Which of the following determines if the sample of blood is of human origin or not?
A) Precipitin Test - determines whether blood is of human or not (along with semen-Biological test of
Farnum)
B) Kastle-Mayer Test - aka phenolphthalein test - Positive turn pink
C) Magnus Test - test for cessation of heart and circulation. ligature applied base of finger
D) Takayama Test or Hemochromagen crystal. Positive to any substance containing hemoglobin.
E) None of the choices

3. In a case of rape, 15 ml of semen was recovered in the vaginal vault. This indicates multiple episodes of
assault because the amount of recoverable seminal fluid in ml per ejaculation is?
A) 1-2
B) 2-6
C) 7-10
D) 11-16

4. What type of analysis can be utilized to identify the perpetrator if he leaves Marks OF Cain?
A) Forensic serology
B) Forensic odontology
C) Forensic footwear analysis
D) Forensic dactylography

Marks of Cain - Bite mark

5. A patient sued a doctor for P 25 million pesos. What type of liability is this?
A) Criminal
B) Civil - involves money
C) Administrative
D) Ethical
E) None of the choices

6. A doctor was subpoenaed by the court to testify on his findings on a patient that was brought to the ER. In
this case, what type of witness is the doctor?
A) Expert witness - testify on implications of findings
B) Ordinary witness - testify on findings
C) Corroborating witness
D) Hostile witness
E) None of the choices

7. What is the quantum of proof required in Criminal cases?

A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Absolute Evidence
C) Preponderance of Evidence - Civil
D) Substantial Evidence - usually used in administrative?
E) None of the choices
8. If the sperm collected in the vagina was done after 48 hours, what is the expected morphology of the
sperm?
A) Sperm cells with intact tails and acrosome
B) Sperm cells with intact tails without acrosome
C) Sperm cells without tails
D) Sperm cells with dual heads
Sperm can only last in the vagina in 24-48 hrs
no tails if beyond 48 hours

9. Bloody fingerprints are what type of fingerprints?

A) Patent
B) Latent
C) Plastic
D) Real - fingerprints intentionally left

10. In an unidentified grave, a shirt found with the bones had brownish colored stains. A presumptive test
known as Adler test was used on the sample. What is the reagent used in this test?
A) Leucomalachite Green
B) Benzidine - Adler test, more sensitive
C) Phenolpthalein - Kastle-Mayer test
D) Mercury Hydroxide
E) Periodic Acid Schiff Reagent

11. The fingerprints found in the murder weapon were visualized using a powder that has a high affinity for
what substance:
A) Sweat
B) Apocrine residue
C) Chloride Ions
D) Sodium Ions

12. Under PD 1575, a dentist is required to submit records of his patients to the NBI after ___ years of last
follow up.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Medical records:
OPD - 10 yrs
Admission- 15
Psychiatric - 25
Medico legal - forever

13. Which of the following involves tying a string around the finger of a patient to determine whether there was
still active circulation
A) Magnus Test
B) Icard's Test - Injecting fluorescein dye , dead = yellow
C) Winslow's Test - Detects for respiration, plate of mercury over the chest
D) Diaphanous Test - transillumination of the hand
14. A body was found and it was noted that it was severely burned and that the extremities of body was noted
to be in a flexed position and the hands clenched. This type of position is known as?
A) Cadaveric spasm
B) Pugilistic attitude
C) Rigor Mortis
D) Algor Mortis
E) Calor Mortis

15. A body was found at an abandoned lot in Fairview. On autopsy, it was found that the soft viscera of the
body become putrefied.At what time after death does this occur?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 1 month -skeletonized
D) 6 weeks
E) 4 months

16. A patient was brought to the ER in respiratory distress. In 2 hours, patient died of community acquired
pneumonia high risk due to COVID. When does he have to be buried?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours - unembalmed

17. This is a purplish discoloration at the back and other dependent portions of the body occurring after death?
A) Post mortem muscular irritabilty first stage of muscle death
B) Post mortem lividity
C) Algor Mortis
D) Loco Mortis
E) Cadaveric spasm

18. A person is presumed dead for all purposes in which of the following circumstances except?
A) A person on board a vessel lost during a sea voyage after 4 years
B) A person in the armed forces who has been missing for 4 years - circumstance is that, the person
should be in war
C) A person who has been missing for 10 years - in Family Code, for remarriage, the spouse should be
missing for minimum of 7 years.
D) A person who has been in danger of death under other circumstances such as illness and has not been
seen for 4 years
E) A person over 75 years of age who has been missing for over 5 years

19. According to the Code of Sanitation, how many meters from away either a river or a source of water can a
burial be done?
A) 25 meters
B) 50 meters
C) 75 meters
D) 100 meters
E) 150 meters
20. What is the cause of Rigor Mortis?
A) There is complete consumption of ATP causing rigor
B) There is loss of the exchange pumps causing cellular rupture
C) There is coagulation of muscle protein causing stiffening.
D) There is a loss of intracellular integrity due to enzyme degradation
Eyelids - first stiffen, Large muscles- last due to large storage of glycogen

21. At what time is rigor mortis complete fixed in a tropical country like the Philippines?
A) 3 hours - starts, also the time of onset of postmortem lividity.
B) 6 hours
C) 9 hours
D) 12 hours
E) 15 hours

22. Pedro accidentally left a scalpel inside the stomach of a 3-day old child which resulted to the death of the
baby. He may be criminally charged with:
A) Violation of the medical act of 1959
B) Violation of the medical malpractice law
C) Murder
D) Reckless imprudence - unintentional
E) Physical injury
F) Parricide
G) Infanticide - intentional

Death if Unintentional
● recklessness, negligence - Reckless imprudence
● Accident - Exempting circumstances

Death if Intentional - HOMICIDE

Age
● less than 3 y/o - infanticide
● <18 - Child Abuse (RA 7610)
Relationship
● Legitimate ascendant or descendant - Parricide
● Partner abuse - (RA 9262) VAWC
● Death under special circumstances
Moral Vilesness - MURDER
● Abuse of superior strength - matanda
● Treachery, evident premeditation
● Drown, Fire, Explosives, use of motor vehicle or any event with use of great ruin
● Torture
Tumultuous affray - unknown killer

23. This is a modification of the putrefactive process when the deceased is found in a fluid medium with an
absence of putrefactive bacteria.
A) Marbolization
B) Maceration- environmental taconomy- change of environmental condition
C) Mummification - in desert
D) Saponification - in cold area with low oxygen tension
E) None of the choices
24. The problem of illegal drugs has been present since the 1900s. This can be seen in the inclusion of Article
190-194 of the Revised Penal Code which was based from the Old Spanish Code. Of the following drugs,
which is included in the original prohibition?
A) Marijuana
B) Manila Hemp
C) Opiate derivatives
D) Hallucinogenic mushrooms
E) Methampethamine

25. This is a form of asphyxia which uses a ligature that force other than the weight of the body.
A) Hanging - weight of the body
B) Suffocation - blocking of airway
C) Traumatic chest asphyxia
D) Strangulation

26. If a gun shot wound shows evidence of burns at the point of entry. How far was the shooter from the victim?
A) 3 inches - in pistol, flame in pistol shot will only reach within 3 inches from the barrel
B) 6 inches
C) 12 inches
D) 24 inches

27. What causes the formation of a large temporary cavity in gun shot wounds?
A) Shock wave
B) Bullet fragmentation
C) Hydrostatic wave - fluid filled cavity
D) Permanent Laceration

28. A dead body is recovered in a field is found to have burn marks which was described as branching tree-like
lesions. The most likely cause of death could be due to?
A) Torture injury
B) Lightning injury - aka. arboreal burns, Lichtenberg
C) Injuries due to bomb blast
D) Road traffic accident
E) None of the choices

29. What causes the presence of a oily blackish substance that can readily be removed by cleaning with an
operating sponge?
A) These come about due to the complete burning of gunpowder
B) These are brought about by the fouling of the barrel.
C) These is brought a misfire of the gun
D) This is brought about by the difference in the amount of gunpowder in the bullet.
E) This is brought about by the difference in the lengths of the barrel of the weapon
Stippling/tattooing-incomplete burning - "hindi agad matanggal"

30. If a patient is discharged by the attending physician after two weeks of hospital stay and was a medical
certification for a further 21 days of rest. If he were to file a case against the assailant who caused the
injuries, what crime did the assailant commit?
A) Slight Physical Injuries - 0 -10 days
B) Less serious Physical Injuries - 11-29 days
C) Serious Physical Injuries - >=30 days
D) Mutilation - chop of essential or non essential organ for reproduction
E) Serious Physical Injuries inflicted in a tumultuous affray
31. In what type of injuries is Champaigne d’ocume commonly seen?
A) Wet drowning
B) Dry drowning
C) Hanging
D) Strangulation
E) Burns
Wet drowning
External examination: Champaigne d'ocume, Edema aquosum, Emphysema aquosum
Internal examination: washerwoman’s hand and feet

32. What is the most common fractures seen in motor vehicle trauma?
A) Skull fracture
B) Tibial fracture - tibial plateau
C) Pelvic fracture
D) Acetabular fracture
E) Clavicular Fracture

33. A patient was involved in a suicide and was admitted to the ICU where he was GCS 3. After 10 days, he
remained comatose and the EEG was isoelectric. Assuming all of the following relatives are present at the
hospital, who is the most qualified to sign the organ donation form?
A) Spouse
B) Son or daughter - of legal age, 2nd
C) Parent - 3rd
D) Brother or sister - 4th
State - last

34. What form of physical injuries does not result to hematoma formation?
A) Vehicular trauma
B) Electrical trauma
C) Mauling
D) Sports related trauma
E) Industrial accidents

35. A projectile that was recovered from the shooting incident showed that there were markings along its side
that was used by Firearms and Explosives division to identify the gun which fired the bullet. What causes
these marks?
A) The ignition of the propellant inside the chamber
B) The action of the firing pin on the percussion cap or primer
C) The passage of bullet along the grooves that are found inside the barrel of the gun - Rifling marks
D) The forceful action of the ejector on the rim of the cartridge
E) None of the above

36. This is a knife wound to the abdomen which produced a communication between the inner and outer
portion of hollow organs. This type of injury is known as?
A) Superficial
B) Penetrating - solid organs
C) Perforating
D) Eviscerating - lumabas yung organs
E) None of the choices.
37. If there was only a findings of an abrasion collar at the point of entry. The distance of the shooter is most
probably?
A) Withing 15 cms
B) Within 30 cms
C) Within 45 cms
D) Within 60 cms
E) More than 60 cms.

Contusion collar aka. contusion collar/ contusion abrasion collar

38. Possession of dangerous drugs is penalized under the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act. However,
possession of a large quantity gives rise to the presumption of an intent to distribute and carries a penalty
of life imprisonment to death. Which of the following is not considered by the law as a large quantity?
A) 10 grams of morphine
B) 10 grams of opium
C) 10 grams of methamphetamine - 50 gms
D) 10 grams of marijuana resin
E) 10 grams of MDMA or Ecstasy
500 gms - marijuana leaf

39. What are the rights of a patient who is made the recipient of a kidney upon the death of the organ donor?
A) immediately schedule the surgery
B) refuse to accept the donated organ
C) do either option
D) do neither

40. The difference between antemortem and postmortem burns vesicles which favors the finding that the burns
are antemortem burns is/are?
A) Tissue beneath the vesicle is dry, hard and yellow
B) Protein and chloride in vesicle
C) Presence of erythema
D) Fluid in the vesicle is scanty
E) All of the above

41. A robbery holdup gone wrong resulted to the victim dying of gunshot wounds. CIDG requested the crime
lab to conduct an autopsy on the victim. The crime lab noted a blackening of the point of entry with some of
the blackish residue being coming off easily while some was strictly adhering to the skin. What is the nature
of the blackish substance adhering into the skin?
A) Incompletely combusted gunpowder
B) Completely combusted gunpowder
C) Gun oil from the barrel
D) Metal fouling from previous firing
E) Carbon deposits from previous firing of the weapon

42. This condition occurs usually with fractures and dislocation and causes an increased pressure in a closed
space that results to an irreversible ischemic damage?
A) Pulseless Extremity
B) Compartment Syndrome
C) Iatrogenic arterial injury
D) Hydrostatic Syndrome
43. This is a phenomenon wherein muscle cells were noted to have pores on the cell membrane usually noted
in electrical injury. These are known as?
A) Sublimation
B) Deposition
C) Metallization - metal of the is volatilized and the particles are driven into the epidermis
D) Electroporation
E) Rhabdomyolysis - muscle cells rupture causing kidney injury

44. This is an aggressive, impulsive and angry behavior of drivers when confronted by demanding conditions
on the road
A) Serious Anxiety Disorder
B) Road rage
C) OCD
D) Mania
E) Bipolar Disorder

45. This is an example of a psychedelic drug?

A) Coca leaf
B) Phenobarbital
C) Opium - hypnotic
D) Psilocybin
E) None of the choices

46. Upon discharge of the firearm, which part of the bullet is ejected out of the barrel?
A) Shell Casing
B) Propellant
C) Primer
D) Projectile
E) Breech

47. What is the Gettler’s test?

A) This is test which measures plasma chloride in the left and right sides of the heart - fResh water -
Right heart, SaLt water - Left heart
B) This is test which measures plasma Magnesium in the left and right sides of the heart
C) This is a test which measures diatoms
D) This is a test which measures immersion artifacts
E) This is a test specific gravity of blood.

48. This is an injury that is brought about by traction between the upper cervical spine and the atlanto occipital
junction common seen in vehicular accidents?
A) Whiplash associated injury
B) Bumper fractures
C) Seatbelt contusions
D) Flail Chest
E) None of the above

49. What is a drug used in narcoanalysis?

A) Hyoscine hydrobromide - truth serum
B) Sodium pentothal or Sodium amytal
C) Scopolamine
D) Hyoscine n-butyl bromide
50. A victim of a gunshot wound to the head is noted to be deeply comatose. What is a possible protocol to
determine brain death so that he can become eligible for organ donation?
A) Harvard Criteria
B) Yale Criteria
C) Columbia Criteria
D) Oxford Criteria
E) PNA Criteria

Additional criteria - weaning of ventilator to look for absence of spontaneous breathing

51. What is the gold standard for forensic substance identification?

A) Electrophoresis
B) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
C) X-ray diffraction
D) Neutron Activation
E) Gas Chromatography -Mass Spectrometry - confirmatory test for drug

52. X was caught by his wife having an affair with his patient’s daughter. She sues in the Professional
Regulations Commission, what type of liability is involved in the case that they are filing?
A) Criminal
B) Civil
C) Administrative
D) Ethical
E) Moral

53. During a family get together after MGCQ was announced, Boy had an argument with his maternal uncle.
The fight escalated and ended up with Boy stabbing and killing him. What crime did Boy commit?
A) Murder
B) Homicide
C) Parricide
D) Infanticide
E) Death under exceptional circumstances

54. During a pelvic exam of a victim claiming to be a virgin and that the alleged rape happened the night
before, it was found that she had healed hymenal laceration with sharp coaptible borders without
congestion. This is contrary to her statement that she was a virgin at the time of the assault several hours
prior to consult because:
A) This type of finding is noted for lacerations 2-3 weeks old
B) This type of laceration is noted for individuals who are in a virgin state.
C) This type of laceration is found in individuals after 4-10 days after an assault.
D) It is not contrary because the findings are consistent with the time of incident

55. Y wanted to have Mr. and Mrs. X acknowledge him as their son. He went to Court and was told to bring
proofs of filiation to prove his case. Which of the following are valid proofs of filiation:
A) Act of birth
B) Possession of status, whether continuous or interrupted - should be continuous
C) The child is born within 301 days after the death of the father - 300 days
D) A 99.999% match in the DNA of Y and Mr X. -Mr. and Mrs. X
56. In which of the following offenses is it required that sexual intercourse must occur?
A) Rape
B) Consented Abduction - no sexual act, becomes simple seduction if with act
C) Qualified Seduction
D) Abuse against chastity - proposition, harassment to perform act

57. Lino refuses to see patients other than close friends and family. What inherent right of a physician covers
the situation contemplated?
A) Right to limit the practice of his profession
B) Right to avail of hospital services
C) Right to choose his patients
D) Right to receive just compensation
E) Right to determine appropriate treatment

58. Nymphomania is the excessive sexual desire in women. The similar condition in men is known as what?
A) Satyriasis
B) Pygmalionism - sexual desires to statutes
C) Irrumation - (fellatio) female agent receives the penis of the man into her mouth
D) Narcissism - extreme admiration and love of one’s self
E) Coprolalia - need to use obscene language

59. Sodium amytal which is a drug used in deception detection is also considered a poison in large doses. It is
under what classification?
A) Tranquilizers
B) Agrochemical Poisons
C) Irrespirable Gas
D) Stimulants
E) Paralysant

60. This literally translates to “The Thing speaks for itself”.

A) Res Ipsa Loquitur - aka doctrine of common knowledge
B) Stare Decisis
C) Hierarchy of Courts
D) None of the choices

61. Under the Medical Act of 1959, which is NOT a ground to revoke the certificate of registration of a
physician?
A) Gross negligence
B) Aiding in any criminal abortion
C) Issuing a false medical certificate
D) Fraud in acquisition of citizenship - of a certificate of registration

62. Which of the following adequately describes the nature of a doctor patient relationship
A) Consensual
B) Fiduciary
C) Both
D) Neither

63. The anti-hospital detention law covers which type of patients?

A) Ward patients
B) Semi-private patients
C) Private room patients
D) All of the choices
64. The following are rights of data subjects EXCEPT
A) Right to be forgotten
B) Right to be furnished a copy of his data
C) Right to be informed of the processing of his data
D) Right to amend his data in case of inaccuracies
E) Right to access his data

65. According DOH Circular 70 Series of 1996, how long shall Psychiatric records be kept?
A) 15 years - In patient
B) 25 years
C) 10 years - OPD
D) After the case has been closed with finality
E) Permanently - Medicolegal

66. This is a common imputation to hospitals whenever they are sued for the negligent acts of their nurses.
A) Independent Contractor Defense
B) Borrowed servant Defense
C) Implied waiver theory
D) Respondeat Superior - command responsibility
E) Captain of the Ship Doctrine

67. The right to regulate the practice of medicine by the State is based on:
A) Police Power of the State
B) Executive Power
C) Judicial Power
D) Legislative Power
E) Eminent Domain Power

68. Which of the following rights arose from the right of the patient to self-determination?
A) Right to Informed Consent
B) Right to Privacy
C) Right to a second opinion
D) Right to Humane Treatment

69. The Right to Refuse Treatment because of religious belief does not apply to:
A) Children -the belief of parents does not automatically apply to the belief of the children
B) Devout Believers
C) Conscientious Objectors
D) Jehovah's Witnesses
E) All of the above

70. A public official was brought to the hospital unconscious. He had suffered a stroke and was brought to the
hospital. Which is valid?
A) The attending physician should immediately issue a medical bulletin thru a news conference for
transparency.
B) The medical director should immediately issue a medical bulletin transparency to the media
C) The medical director and attending physician should immediately issue a medical bulletin transparency
D) The Department head cannot issue a medical bulletin.
71. Which of the following is classified as a personal disqualification to practice medicine?
A) Immoral or dishonorable conduct
B) Knowingly issuing a false medical certificate
C) Issuing any statement or spreading rumors derogatory to the character and reputation of another
physician
D) Performance or aiding in any criminal abortion
E) All of the choices are correct
B,C,D - are actions

72. Which of the following is not an admission requirement to a College of Medicine pursuant to the Medical
Act of 1959?
A) Bachelor’s Degree in Science
B) Certificate of Good moral Character
C) Birth Certificate
D) NMAT
E) All of the choices are correct

73. Which of the following regulates medical education in the Philippines?

A) CHED
B) DECS
C) PRC
D) CHED and DECS
E) DECS and PRC
F) CHED and PRC
G) CHED, DECS, and PRC

74. The code of ethics was enacted by:

A) Congress
B) Senate
C) DOH
D) PRC
E) None of the choices - PMA

75. The cost of the procedure to repair the injured colon of a patient that was negligently cut during an
appendectomy would be in the nature of which type of damages:
A) Moral damages -if for the physical suffering
B) Exemplary damages - sample by the court
C) Actual damages
D) Nominal damages
E) Liquidated damages

76. During admission, the son of a patient was informed that the hospital no longer had available beds with
side rails. The son still insisted that the mother be admitted despite the absence of railings to protect the
her from fall. If the mother was to suffer a fall from the said bed, what doctrine will be applicable:
A) Assumption of risk
B) Continuing negligence -if not informed
C) Contributory negligence
D) Common knowledge - Res ipsa loquitor
77. When was the primary law that regulates the practice of medicine enacted?
A) 1932
B) 1959
C) 1965
D) 1969

78. Which of the following best characterizes the nature of the practice of the medical profession?
A) it is a privilege
B) it is a natural right
C) it is an acquired right
D) it is a lifetime guarantee

79. Who of the following foreign physicians not registered in the Philippines are NOT required to ask for
authorization to practice medicine in the Philippines from the Board of Medicine?
A) Those attached to international bodies assigned to perform certain definite work
B) Those employed as exchange professors
C) Commissioned medical officers of the US Armed Forces participating in joint military activities
D) None of the above

80. Which of the following is considered a power of the Board of Medicine?

A) Issue a sub poena
B) Contempt power
C) Reinstate a physician whose license has been revoked.
D) All of the choices
E) None of the above

81. The physician's ancient oath is called the ______________.

A) Socratic Oath
B) Aesculapian Oath
C) Hippocratic Oath
D) Healer's Oath

82. Suppose a physician’s license to practice was revoked, how many years does he have to wait before he
can apply for reinstatement?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years - provided that he shown exemplary
C) 3 years
D) 4 years

83. Principle of bioethics derived from the latin maxim primum non nocere:
A) Beneficence
B) Non-maleficence “First, do no harm”
C) Fidelity
D) Justice

84. Medical jurisprudence includes the study of _________ in relation to the practice of medicine.
A) Laws
B) Legal opinions
C) Decisions from competent authority
D) All of the above
85. Under the Code of Ethics of the Medical Profession, the primary objective of the practice of medicine is
____________
A) to be a friend of mankind
B) service to mankind
C) earning a living to support the physician and his family
D) promoting the health products industry to contribute to economic growth

86. When a physician is making a referral, the proper protocol includes the following EXCEPT _________
A) forwarding a clinical abstract
B) securing first the permission of the primary physician before referring
C) specification of the purpose of the referral
D) a proposal on the sharing of professional fees

87. Under the Code of Ethics of the medical profession, what should be the first consideration in determining a
physician’s professional fees?
A) financial status of the patient
B) time consumed with the patient
C) nature of the case
D) professional standing and skill of the physician

88. What is the standard that should guide a physician if he should decide against full disclosure to his patient
of the latter's condition?
A) doctor's personal interest
B) common good
C) best interest of the patient's family
D) best interest of the patient

89. The Reciprocity Rule is an exemption to which of the following?

A) Certificate of Registration requirement to practice of medicine
B) Age requirement to take the Board exams
C) Filipino citizenship requirement to take the Board exams
D) The taking of a board examinations

90. What is the degree of prudence that any physician must exercise in dealing with his patients?
A) ordinary care and diligence
B) extraordinary care and diligence
C) utmost care and diligence of a very cautious person
D) special care and diligence

91. That which, in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces the
injury, and without which the result would not have occurred:
A) Ultimate cause
B) Immediate cause
C) Substantial factor
D) Proximate cause

92. The head surgeon is responsible for everything that goes wrong within the four corners of the operating
room:
A) doctrine of res ipsa loquitur
B) captain-of-the-ship doctrine
C) doctrine of contributory negligence
D) doctrine of assumption of risk
93. Clears the defendant from liability when applicable:
A) rescue doctrine
B) doctrine of contributory negligence
C) doctrine of continuing negligence
D) doctrine of efficient intervening cause

94. Which of the following records requires disclosure as provided by law:

A) Birth and death certificate - 48hrs to be submitted death cert, 30 days - Birth cert
B) Physician’s order sheet
C) Medical certificate
D) Medical records

95. This is commonly referred to as package fee

A) fee for service
B) retainer fee
C) simple contractual fee
D) contingent fee
E) straight fee

96. Juan refers a patient to a specialist and receives a share in the consultant’s fee. This is referred to as:
A) dichotomous - fee-splitting
B) retainer fee
C) simple contractual fee
D) contingent fee
E) commissioner’s fee

97. A Isolation facilities is a minimum requirement in which of the following hospitals

A) Level 1 hospital
B) Level 2 hospital
C) Level 3 hospital
D) Level 4 hospital
E) Level 5 hospital

98. At least 2 residency training programs is a minimum requirement in which of the following hospitals
A) Level 1 hospital
B) Level 2 hospital
C) Level 3 hospital
D) Level 4 hospital
E) Level 5 hospital

99. Violation of the anti-hospital deposit law may be punished by

A) Fine
B) Imprisonment
C) Removal of hospitals license to practice medicine
D) All of the choices
E) Fine and / or imprisonment

100. Which is true regarding patient’s right to refuse necessary treatment:

A) When the law prescribes a particular treatment, the patient has no right to refuse treatment
B) The right to refuse treatment includes the right to die - not a protected right
C) Doctors are allowed euthanasia if the medical treatment are futile and hopeless
D) The bill of rights under the 1987 Constitution provides patients with this right