2022 PHASE 1 PAPER 1 | 2

PHASE 01
PAPER 01

YEAR
2022

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 2022 PHASE 1 PAPER 1 | 4

(a) 2040 (d) 2025

(b) 2027 (e) 2032
General Awareness (c) 2030

Q.7)
Q.1)
What does ‘Le’ stand for in the full form of ALeRTS
Which among the following is the largest oil company in the
committee, which was formed by SEBI for regulatory and
world by market capitalization in October 2021?
technological solutions?
(a) Saudi Aramco, Saudi Arabia
(a) Leading (d) Landmark
(b) Exxon Mobil, US
(b) Litigate (e) Leveraging
(c) PetroChina, China
(c) Label
(d) Chevron, US
(e) BP, UK
Q.8)
Which of the following is not an Edtech company in India?
Q.2)
In December 2021, India and Bangladesh had announced to
(a) Unacademy (d) Ekeeda
celebrate ‘Maitri Diwas’ on ______?
(b) Vedantu (e) Upgrad
(c) Cred
(a) 15th January (d) 10th November
(b) 6th December (e) 20th March
Q.9)
(c) 12th February
Which edition of the Winter Olympics is being hosted in
Beijing?
Q.3)
As per the Economic Survey of 2021-22, which sector was
(a) 24 (d) 37
least affected by Covid - 19 in 2021-22?
(b) 27 (e) 35
(c) 32
(a) Mining
(b) Agriculture and Allied Services
Q.10)
(c) Construction
What is India’ s rank in the Henley Passport Index, released
(d) Manufacturing
in January 2022?
(e) Services
(a) 101 (d) 120
Q.4)
(b) 97 (e) 67
Lakshadweep, which consists of ___ islands, is a beautiful
(c) 83
place with lush green vegetation?
Q.11)
(a) 25 (d) 20
Who among the following has won the Padma Vibhushan
(b) 43 (e) 52
Award for the year 2021 in the Public Affairs category?
(c) 36
(a) Donald Trump (d) Boris Johnson
Q.5)
(b) Justin Trudeau (e) Shinzo Abe
In February 2022, Sukla Mistry was appointed as the first
(c) Scott Morrison
female member on the board of _______, India’s largest oil
refinery?
Q.12)
Which of the following is a loss-making general insurance
(a) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd
company in 2021?
(b) Oil and Natural Gas
(c) Bharat Petroleum
(a) National Insurance Company
(d) Oil India Limited
(b) Oriental Insurance Company Limited
(e) Indian Oil Corporation
(c) New India Assurance Co. Ltd
(d) Only I and II
Q.6)
(e) Only III
By which year does India aim to achieve 500 GW of non-
fossil energy generation capacity in accordance with the
Q.13)
Panchamitra targets?
How much extension does the Union Budget of 2022-23
provide to the startups for availing the tax incentives?

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(a) 31 August 2022 (d) 31 March 2023 share does services sector’s exports hold?
(b) 30 September 2025 (e) 30 April 2022
(c) 31 December 2024 (a) $200 billion (d) $100 billion
(b) $250 billion (e) $300 billion
Q.14) (c) $50 billion
Senegal has proved itself as one of the strongest football
teams of Africa by winning Africa Cup of Nations (AFCON) Q.20)
after defeating ____ in February 2022? MIKE campaign of Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was
(a) Namibia (d) Cameroon launched for which animal’s conservation?
(b) Algeria (e) Egypt
(c) Botswana (a) Cheetah (d) Rhinoceros
(b) Tiger (e) Migratory Birds
Q.15) (c) Elephants
____ new airports will be established under the PM Gati
Shakti plan in five states of Central India which are Uttar
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and
Chhattisgarh, as announced by the Union Civil Aviation
Minister in February 2022?

(a) 15 (d) 12
(b) 16 (e) 10
(c) 20

Q.16)
‘Never Scan A QR Code to Receive Payments’ - a consumer
awareness campaign has been launched by which of the
following organization?

(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(e) Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India

Q.17)
How much amount has been allocated for the hospitality
sector in the Emergency Credit Line Extension Scheme in
the Union Budget 2022-23?

(a) Rs 50,000 crores (d) Rs 15,000 crores

(b) Rs 45,000 crores (e) Rs 30,000 crores
(c) Rs 20,000 crores

Q.18)
The Central Board of Direct Taxes has introduced the
concept of POEM from 2017-18 assessment year to ensure
the residency of a company for the purpose of tax collection.
What does ‘P’ stand for in the abbreviation of POEM?

(a) Placement (d) Primary

(b) Priority (e) Place
(c) Personal

Q.19)
Out of the USD 650 billion target of exports announced by
the Union Minister of Commerce for 2021-22, how much

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(a) increase (d) placate

(b) heal (e) soothe
English (c) decrease

Q.22)
Instructions for Q.21 to Q.25 Which of the following is not a benefit of coconut as per the
Read the passage and answer the following questions: passage?

(a) It helps in curing urinary infections.

In the Ayurvedic tradition, the coconut tree is called (b) It increases blood in the body.
kalpavriksha, or a tree that fulfils all wishes. If you think about (c) It builds antibodies to fight heart diseases.
it, you realize that each and every part of the coconut is useful. (d) It makes human skin radiant.
It gives us refreshing water, and its flesh is packed with vitamins (e) It builds immunity in human body.
and minerals. The old fruit gives us oil, its outer shell is used
to make artefacts, while the husk is used as compost and also Q.23)
stuffed into bedding. What is the tone of the passage?

Traditionally we know that mature coconuts (from which the (a) Nostalgic (d) Informative
oil is extracted) should be consumed in moderation. But people (b) Humorous (e) Pessimistic
mostly drink coconut oil that is extracted from the mature fruit. (c) Sentimental
I believe that findings from modern science must be viewed
parallelly with the knowledge from our ancestors. In Ayurveda Q.24)
the tender (young) and middle-aged coconuts are considered the Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the
best for consumption because they are healing and nourishing word ‘moderation’?
for the body. Once the coconut becomes old it’s heavy to digest.
Old coconut is also heating (ideal for winter), while the young (a) unconsciously (d) reasonable limits
fruit is cooling (perfect for summer). While a mature, hard nut (b) fasting (e) anxiety
has its benefits, it must be consumed in small quantities. There (c) difficulty
is also no reference in Ayurveda that suggests that plain oil
should be consumed. It’s better to cook with coconut oil because Q.25)
it will enhance the quality of food, making it easy for the body Which of the following statement is/are true?
to assimilate and digest it.
1) The author completely disregards modern scientific facts.
2) ‘Sweet’ is the most nourishing taste in Ayurveda.
Coconuts are both sattvic (balanced) and alkaline. Therefore,
3) A coconut has many uses and hence is called kalpavriksha.
they keep the mind calm and centred. Coconut water is cooling
and is a natural diuretic, so it flushes out bacteria and therefore (a) Only 1 (d) Only 2 and 3
helps to cure urinary infections. The middle-aged coconut in (b) Only 3 (e) Only 1 and 3
particular builds up all seven dhatus in the body (plasma, blood, (c) Only 2
muscles, fat, marrow, bone, reproductive fluid).

The primary taste of coconut is sweet, and in Ayurveda this
is the most soothing and nourishing taste. Coconuts increase
kapha in the body; therefore, they can definitely cause weight
gain if eaten in excess. However, kapha is also responsible
for immunity and strength, and for giving us luminous skin
and hair. So, they’re ideal for those who want to increase their
vitality.
Instruction for Q.26 to Q.27
In each of the following questions, five words are
underlined and are numbered as 1,2,3,4, and 5.
The positions of some highlighted words may be
incorrect and need to be exchanged with another
highlighted word to make the sentence correct.
Find the words that need to be exchanged.

Coconut is good for all seasons as it pacifies vata (dryness in Q.26)

winter) and pitta (heat in summer). The only rule is that just like Efficiency in the allocative (1) of resources or allocation (2)
ghee it must be eaten with warm food and drink because it is a efficiency refers to allocation of resources (3) in a manner
saturated fat. that the resulting (4) product mix is the best possible (5)
outcome.
Q.21)
Which of the following options is opposite in meaning to the (a) 1-2 (d) 1-3 and 2-4
word ‘pacifies’? (b) 2-3 (e) 2-3 and 1-4
(c) 1-2 and 2-3

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Q.27)
In an underdeveloped(1) country like India, many
resources(2) are lying unused, opportunites(3) and idle due
to lack of untapped(4) and incentives(5) for their utilisation.
(a) 1-2 (d) 4-5
(b) 2-3 (e) 1-5
(c) 3-4
Instruction for Q.28 to Q.29
The underlined part in the sentences given below is
grammatically incorrect. Pick out the best suitable op-
tion to correct the sentence.
Q.28)
A report by the American Academy for the Advancement
of Science has concluded that much of the currently
uncontrolled dioxins to which North Americans are exposed
comes from the incineration of wastes.
(a) much of the currently uncontrolled dioxins from which
North Americans are exposed comes
(b) much of the currently uncontrolled dioxins that North
Americans are exposed to come
(c) much of the dioxins that are currently uncontrolled and that
North Americans are exposed to comes
(d) many of the dioxins that are currently uncontrolled and
North Americans are exposed to come
(e) many of the currently uncontrolled dioxins to which North
Americans are exposed come
Q.29)
A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year as The
Adventures of Huckleberry Finn were published, reveals
that Twain provided financial assistance to one of the first
Black students at Yale Law School.
(a) A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year as The
Adventures of Huckleberry Finn were published,
(b) A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year of
publication as The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn,
(c) A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year that The
Adventures of Huckleberry Finn was published,
(d) Mark Twain wrote a letter in the same year as he published
The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn that
(e) Mark Twain wrote a letter in the same year of publication as
The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn that
Instruction for Q.30 to Q.31
Rearrange the following sentences 1,2,3,4,5,6, etc. in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
Q.30)
1) Property deals, bullion and jewellery purchases financial
market transactions rigging of markets through entities
claimed to be constituted.
2) Of black money into the legitimate financial system
through instruments such as convertible debentures.
3) About a third of India’s black money transactions are
believed to be in real estate, followed by manufacturing
and shopping for gold and consumer goods.
4) Or the informal banking route are coming the common
methods used for generating black money
5) Convertible debenture are instruments through which an
investor exchanges the funds he had lent, into equity at
later date thus making them legitimate shareholders of the
company.
6) For non- profit motive differing tax rates in different tax
jurisdictions under – invoicing are money laundering using
the hawala.
7) Investment in hundreds of unlisted companies are the
government’s scrutiny are they as used to funnel thousands
of crores of rupees.
Option:
(a) 3164725 (d) 4567321
(b) 3456217 (e) 7612345
(c) 6754231
Q.31)
1) Financial assistance from the centre to the states for
implementing planned development has been the hallmark
of Indian planning and development process
2) India is a federation with functions and finances that are
constitutionally segregated between the union and its states
3) The two most important institutions determining the levels
of these transfers are the finance commission and The
Planning Commission
4) Most broad-based taxes are assigned to the centre while
most expenditure functions are assigned to states.
5) The resultant vertical imbalance necessarily has to be
resolved through intergovernmental transfers.
6) The expenditure to revenue ratio of Indian states is higher
than that of most other fiscal federations.
(a) 543621 (d) 432561
(b) 246513 (e) 654321
(c) 345621
Q.32)
Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences:
1) Joe and Liza had been married for over a year.
2) After six months of living together, they realized that they
did not agree with each other in several issues.
3) There was no compatibility among them.
4) They were advised to see a marriage counsellor.
 2022 PHASE 1 PAPER 1 | 8

geologists are still debating whether the flood was gradual or

(a) 2 (d) 3 created a cataclysm.
(b) 1 and 2 (e) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (a) whether the flood was gradual or created a cataclysm
(b) if the flood was gradual or created a cataclysm
(c) about whether the flood was gradual or cataclysmic
Instructions for Q.33 to Q.36 (d) whether the flood was gradual or cataclysmic
Fill in the blank with the correct options. (e) whether the flood was gradual or it created a cataclysm

Q.38)
Development administration need not be ….(33)…. with
A majority of the international journalists surveyed view
administrative development or growth. It is by now widely
nuclear power stations as unsafe at present but that they
….(34)…. that development administration is public
will, or could, be made sufficiently safe in the future.
administration with a difference. Its focus is on government
– influenced change towards the ….(35)…. of progressive
(a) that they will, or could,
social, economic and political objectives. Development as
(b) that they would, or could,
Montgomery put it “is usually ….(36)…. as an aspect of
(c) they will be or could
change that is desirable, broadly predicted or planned and
(d) think that they will be or could be
administered or at least influenced by governmental action.”
(e) think the power stations would or could
Q.33)
Q.39)
Fill in the blank?
Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences:
(a) assessed (d) involved
1) Dubai has embraced western ways.
(b) equated (e) evolved
2) The Islamic fundamentalists are enraged over this.
(c) conceived
3) Dubai was once a haven of gold smugglers and pearl
divers.
Q.34)
4) It is racing to realize a vision of itself as the Singapore of
Fill in the blank?
the Middle East.
(a) acknowledged (d) contributed
(a) 1 (d) 3
(b) developed (e) isolated
(b) 1 and 2 (e) 3 and 4
(c) assessed
(c) 2 and 3
Q.35)
Q.40)
Fill in the blank?
Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences:
(a) containment (d) output
1) The economy of India moving up towards inflation
(b) purpose (e) attributed
2) Inflationary pressures lead to the tightening of monetary
(c) attainment
policy
3) Deflation is a situation where the prices fall
Q.36)
4) Indian economy needs stable monetary and fiscal policy
Fill in the blank?
Options:
(a) conceived (d) utilised
(b) appraised (e) exploited
(a) Only 1 (d) Only 2
(c) pointed
(b) Only 3 (e) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
Instructions for Q.37 to Q.38
In the questions given below, choose the grammatically
correct option to replace the underlined part of the
sentence.

Q.37)
A little under a million years ago, the briny waters of the
Baltic Sea began flooding daily into the cold North Atlantic:

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(a) Rs 5640 (d) Rs 2820

(b) Rs 4935 (e) Rs 4230
Quantitative Aptitude (c) Rs 9870

Q.41) Q.47)
Find the missing term in the below series: Consider the below two equations:
17, 21, 51, 169, 701, _____
x2 – 13x + 36 = 0
(a) 3541 (d) 3651 3y2 – 29y + 18 = 0
(b) 3641 (e) 3451
(c) 3461 (a) x > y
(b) x < y
Q.42) (c) x ≥ y
Find the missing term in the below series: (d) x ≤ y
12, ____ , 545, 2729, 10919 (e) The relation between x and y can’t be established

(a) 60 (d) 84 Q.48)

(b) 80 (e) 72 Consider the below two equations:
(c) 90
2x2 – 5x – 12 = 0
Q.43) y2 – 11y + 30 = 0
Speed of boat downstream is 50% more than upstream.
Total time to travel 48 km up and 36 km down is 6 hours. (a) x > y
What is the speed of boat downstream? (b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(a) 16 (d) 15 (d) x ≤ y
(b) 21 (e) 12 (e) The relation between x and y can’t be established
(c) 18
Q.49)
Q.44) Consider the below two equations:
An amount of ‘P’ rupees in invested in Scheme ‘A’ at
compound interest of 20% p.a. for a period of 2 years. The 3x2 – 16x + 21 = 0
amount of interest received from this invested is reinvested y2 – 13y + 42 = 0
in another scheme ‘B’ for 2 years at 15% p.a. simple
interest. The amount received from scheme ‘B’ finally after 2 (a) x > y
years is Rs 1430. Find ‘P’. (b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(a) Rs 10833 (d) Rs 2700 (d) x ≤ y
(b) Rs 2500 (e) Rs 910 (e) The relation between x and y can’t be established
(c) Rs 3250
Instructions for Q.50 to Q.54
Q.45)
Study the information given below and answer the
A does one half work and B does 3/4 work in the same time.
questions that follow:
Difference between number of days taken by A and B to
work alone to complete the work individually is 4 days. How
many days will B take? The ratio of number of units manufactured of
A, B and C is 5 : 6 : 7. The number of units manufactured
(a) 8 (d) 10 of D is 200. The ratio of number of units sold of A, C and D
(b) 12 (e) 16 is 6 : 8 : 5. The number of units sold of A is 60% of the total
(c) 6 units manufactured of A and that of B is 50% of total units
manufactured of B.
Q.46) 240 units of C are sold.
B invests double the money invested by A and triple the
money invested by C. The ratio of period of investment Q.50)
between A, B and C is 1:2:3. Difference between profit The number of units of E manufactured are 50% more than
received by A and C is Rs 1410. Find total profit. number of units manufactured of A and number of units of
E sold are 25% less than the number of units sold by C. Find

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 2022 PHASE 1 PAPER 1 | 10

the difference between the number of units manufactured of A 200 2:3

E and number of units sold of E.
B 300 3:2
(a) 230 (d) 260 C 420 3:4
(b) 240 (e) 270 D 360 5:7
(c) 250 E 280 2:5
Q.51)
Q.56)
What is the ratio between number of units manufactured
The number of colored TVs sold in city A is what percentage
of A and B together and number of units sold of C and D
of black & white TVs sold in cities B, D and E together
together?
approximately?
(a) 22 : 13 (d) 18 : 31
(a) 29% (d) 15%
(b) 12 : 13 (e) 11 : 6
(b) 24% (e) 14%
(c) 33 : 31
(c) 20%
Q.52)
Q.57)
What is the average of units manufactured of A, B and C?
Find the difference between Black and White TVs sold in
cities A and C together and colored TVs sold in cities B and
(a) 320 (d) 350
E together?
(b) 340 (e) 370
(c) 360
(a) 100 (d) 40
Q.53) (b) 80 (e) 120
Number of units sold of B is what percentage more than (c) 60
number of units unsold of A?
Q.58)
What is overall ratio of black and white TVs sold to colored
(a) 200% (d) 150%
TVs sold in all the five cities together?
(b) 100% (e) 75%
(c) 50%
(a) 63 : 89 (d) 67 : 89
Q.54) (b) 67 : 83 (e) None of the above
What is the difference between number of units (c) 69 : 83
manufactured of C and D together and number of units sold
Q.59)
of A and B together?
What is the ratio of black & white TVs sold in city D to
colored TVs sold in city c?
(a) 240 (d) 250
(b) 260 (e) 230
(a) 4 : 5 (d) 3 : 4
(c) 270
(b) 5 : 8 (e) 5 : 7
Q.55) (c) 6 : 7
In a mixture, the ratio of milk to water is 25:2. From this
Q.60)
mixture, 27 litres is taken out and 35 litres of pure milk is
Total colored TVs sold in A, C and E together is what
added. Quantity of milk in final mixture is 15 times that of
percentage of the total black & white TVs sold in B, D and E
water. Find the initial quantity of milk.
together?
(a) 100 litres (d) 250 litres
(a) 137% (d) 98%
(b) 150 litres (e) 50 litres
(b) 73% (e) 110%
(c) 200 litres
(c) 122%

Instructions for Q.56 to Q.60

Consider the below data regarding total number of TVs
sold in different cities and ratio of black & white TVs
sold to colored TVs sold in those cities:

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 11 SEBI PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

Q.66)
If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the third,
Reasoning fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word “GRIEVIOUSLY”,
then what will be the first letter of that word? If no such
Q.61) word can be formed, then choose X as the answer and if
In the number “963514728”, how many pairs of numbers more than one word can be formed, then choose Y as the
have exactly the same distance between them as is there in answer.
actual whole numbers? (Note: The letters can be used only once.)

(a) 3 (d) 6 (a) L (d) X

(b) 4 (e) 7 (b) E (e) Y
(c) 5 (c) V

Q.62) Q.67)
Find the odd one out? If CONCEPT is coded as DPOBFQU and FAILURE is
coded as GBJKVSF, how will the word LIBERTY be coded?
(a) OQRM (d) VXYT
(b) GIJF (e) JLMH (a) MJCDSUZ (d) KHADQSX
(c) DFGB (b) MJCFSUZ (e) MJADQUZ
(c) KHAFQSX

Instructions for Q.63 to Q.65

Study the information given below and answer the Instructions for Q.68 to Q.70
questions that follow: Study the information given below and answer the
questions that follow:

There are an uncertain number of people standing in a row

facing north. Two people stand between A and B.
D stands sixth to the left of B and eighth from the extreme
left end of the row. C stands fourth to the left of D.
There are five people standing between C and E.
F stands to the immediate left of E. The number of people
standing between F and D is same as the number of people
standing between E and G. H stands seventh to the right of
G and third from one of the extreme ends.
S scored higher marks than Q but lower than U.
P scored higher than S but lower than R and U.
T scored higher than R. The third lowest marks are 56. R
scored 12 marks more than P.
U scored less than 69 marks.
Q.68)
As many people scored more than R as less than

Q.63) (a) P (d) T

How many people in total are standing? (b) Q (e) U
(c) S
(a) 18 (d) 21
(b) 19 (e) 22 Q.69)
(c) 20 If Q + R = 111 and P + T = 137, then find out Q + T.

Q.64) (a) 124 (d) 125

Who is third to the left of A? (b) 127 (e) 123
(c) 121
(a) B (d) C
(b) E (e) D Q.70)
(c) H Which of the following can be the possible score of S?

Q.65) (a) 54 (d) 51

Who is to the immediate left of G? (b) 48 (e) All of these
(c) 55
(a) F (d) B
(b) E (e) C
Instructions for Q.71 to Q.74
(c) D
Study the information given below and answer the
questions that follow:

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 2022 PHASE 1 PAPER 1 | 12

Six events take place over three months; two events in each
month on the dates 9th and 13th. The three months are May,
July and September.
Event A occurs on a prime numbered date and in the
month with 31 days. Two events take place between A and
Uttarakhand. Kerala event takes place immediately after
Uttarakhand. As many events take place before C as after
Kerala. One event takes place between C and Rajasthan.
No event takes place between Rajasthan and E. The event E
does not take place in Rajasthan. Tripura event takes place
before Punjab. Event C does not happen in Tripura. Event
D takes place after B but before F. One event takes place in
Karnataka.
Q.71)
How many events take place after Uttarakhand?
immediate neighbor of N. The one who likes Delhi sits to the
immediate left of M. P and L are not adjacent to each other.
R, who is not an immediate neighbor of N, sits second to the
left of S, who likes Mumbai. P likes Agra and sits opposite
to L. O is an immediate neighbor of L. N sits second to the
left of L. Q likes Pune. M likes Kolkata and sits opposite to
the one who likes Jaipur. L sits two places away from M.
The one who likes Kolkata sit adjacent to the one who likes
Patna. O likes Delhi.
Q.75)
Who among the following likes Patna?
(a) L (d) S
(b) R (e) Can’t be determined
(c) N

(a) 0 (d) 3 Q.76)

(b) 1 (e) 4 How many people are sitting between Surat and M when
(c) 2 counted from left of M?

Q.72) (a) 0 (d) 3

Find the odd one out? (b) 1 (e) 4
(c) 2
(a) E – D (d) A – Punjab
(b) Karnataka – Rajasthan (e) B – E Q.77)
(c) D – Tripura Who among the following are immediate neighbours of the
person who likes Pune?
Q.73)
Which of the following event took place on 9th July? (a) L and N (d) M and L
(b) L and S (e) S and O
(a) Rajasthan (d) Tripura (c) S and N
(b) Uttarakhand (e) Karnataka
(c) Punjab Q.78)
N likes which city?
Q.74)
Which of the following are correct? (a) Surat (d) Mumbai
(b) Patna (e) Kolkata
1) Event B not in Punjab (c) Jaipur
2) Kerala event takes place on 13th September
3) C was not the first event in the year Q.79)
The Supreme Court in July 2013 struck down a particular
(a) 1 and 3 are correct (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct provision of the Representation of People’s Act as
(b) 1 and 2 are correct (e) Only 2 is correct unconstitutional and gave a landmark judgment that MPs
(c) 2 and 3 are correct and MLAs will face immediate disqualification from holding
the membership of the Parliament and state legislature if
they are convicted in criminal cases and get punishment of
Instructions for Q.75 to Q.78 two years or above.
Study the information given below and answer the
questions that follow: Which of the following is the main conclusion that can
be drawn from the given passage?
Eight persons named L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting
around a circular table facing the center. (a) The Supreme Court wants to show its power to the
Each of them likes a particular city amongst Agra, Delhi, Government of India.
Jaipur, Kolkata, Mumbai, Patna, Pune and Surat. No two (b) The Supreme Court wants to clean the political system of the
persons like the same city. country.
R does not like Delhi. The one who likes Mumbai is an (c) The Supreme Court wants to correct the provisions of the
Representation of People’s Act.

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 13 SEBI PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

(d) The Supreme Court is acting the guardian of the Constitution ===========ANSWERS=============
to protect the Constitution of India.
(e) None of these.
General Awareness
Instructions for Q.80
Study the information given below and answer the Q.1) (a)
questions that follow: Explanation:

This is a company-specific question. All the company-specific

In making decisions about important questions, it is
news released during the six months prior to the exam date are
desirable to be able to distinguish between “Strong”
important. For covering such news, you can rely on Spotlight
arguments and “Weak” arguments in so far as they relate to
magazine which is tailor-made for banking exams only or you
the question.
can choose newspapers or any other magazine as well. But
“Strong” arguments are those which are both important and
make sure that you don’t choose on multiple sources because
directly related to the question.
that will land you in trouble.
“Weak” arguments are those which are of minor importance
and also may not be directly related to the question or may
Q.2) (b)
be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Explanation:
Each question below is followed by two arguments
numbered 1 and 2.
If you observe the pattern of SEBI, NABARD, RBI, and other
You have to decide which of the argument is a strong
banking exams, then you will notice that there are one or two
argument and which is a weak argument.
questions from the ‘important days’ topic. This highlights
the importance of covering the crucial days. Now-a-days, the
Q.80)
examiner asks the questions from India-specific important
days. Gone are the days when only international days held
Statement:
importance. Now, your syllabus’s breadth has increased. So, you
need to put more efforts to remember the days and their themes.
Should the Government of India supply free electricity to the
You can create your own short notes and revise from them again
farmers?
and again to retain these facts for a longer period.
Arguments:
Q.3) (b)
Explanation:
1) No. Government should not provide free electricity to
anybody.
This is a question from the Economic Survey. Budget,
2) Yes. The farmers are not in a position to pay for the
Economic Survey, and national reports etc. are important from
electricity.
the exam’s perspective. You can create short notes of the facts
(a) If only argument 1 is strong. given in these voluminous documents to remember them.
(b) If only argument 2 is strong.
(c) If either 1 or 2 is strong. Q.4) (c)
(d) If neither 1 nor 2 is strong. Explanation:
(e) If both 1 and 2 are strong.
This question falls under the category of static general
awareness, making it imperative to include in your preparation.
To tackle static general awareness, you can refer to resources
like Lucent’s book, Manorama’s yearbook, and more. It’s crucial
to bear in mind that consistent revision is key to retaining a
wealth of factual information.

Q.5) (e)
Explanation:

This question is from the appointments section. All the latest

appointments prior to the exam are important. This question
is the evidence of how high the level of difficulty is in this
examination. Questions are not restricted to the news itself,
rather the questions are being asked from in-depth information

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