15/04/2024 Aakash" Medical/IIT-JEE|Foundations Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph.011-47623456 K ©) AIM - 720 (Adoauced INTENSIVE Wlascery for 120) MM : 720 csT-8 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Complete Syllabus of NEET Instructions : () There are two sections in each subject, ie, Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. ii) wy “ ) (wi) Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle, Dark only one circle for each entry, Dark the circle in the space provided only. cn the Answer sheet Use biue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material Choose the correct answer: SECTION- A 1. A2kg block is placed on a 3kg block wich in turn is placed on a 5 kg block. The whole system rests on a table. The normal force exerted on the 2 kg block by 3 kg block is (1) 30N 2) 20N @) SON (4) 35N 2. The displacement (x) of a particle moving in a straight line is given by x= 8 — 4. The velocity of particle at (= 1 sis (1) tems 2) ams" @) 4ms ()2ms* 3, The position of a particle moving on a straight line is given by x = 2 + 6f, The distance travelled by the object in third second is (where x is in metre and fis in second) (1) 36m (2) 20m P18 m (4) 10m-144 A patticle revolves in a horizontal circle with constant speed. The —angle__between instantaneous velocity and instantaneous acceleration of particle at any instant is (1) Less than 90° (2) Greater than 90° (3) Equal to 90° (4) Equal to zero The molar specific heat at constant volume for a monoatomic ideal gas is (Where R represents Universal Gas Constant) 3R o> @ = 7R oF ()2RAIM -729 CST-8_(Code-A) 6. A bob of mass m is attached to an inextensible | 11. Aparticle of mass 2 kg is moving in circle of radiys string of length / suspended from a_ vertical 4m in such a way that its centripetal acceleration ‘support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with at time fis given by 4°, where fis in second ang an angular speed « about the vertical. About the acceleration is in (m s*2). The power delivered to point of suspension: the particle by the force acting on it att=2sis (1) Angular momentum is conserved (1) 18w (2) 24W (2) Angular momentum changes in magnitude but (3) 32W (4) 64w not in direction 12. A spring stores 16 J of energy in a compression of (3) Angular momentum changes in direction but 4 mm. The additional work to be done to compress not in magnitude it further by 2 mm is (4) Angular momentum changes both in direction (1) 48 (2) 645 and magnitude (3) 964 (4) 1285 7. Awheeiis rotating at 1800 rpm aboutits own axis, | 13. A fory soienoid with 10 tums per cw carries a When the power is switched off, it comes to rest in current of 1A. The magnetic energy stored per 2 minutes. The angular retardation (assuming it to unit volume is be constant) of the += wheel_—in (1) 0.2m Jim? (2) 0.4m Jim? rad sis (3) 0.4 Jim? (4) 0.8x Jim? (1) 2x Qn 14, An emf E=220V2 sin(100t) V is applied to a ay 2 capacitor of 10 pF. The rms. current owing 2 4 through the capacitor is 8. tfan object in a satelite escapes to infinity, then (1) 22'mA (2) 220 ma (1) Total energy is positive (3)922/2 mA (4) 220/2 mA (2) Total energy is zero 16. The expression of excess pressure inside an air {G) Total energy is negative Bbuibte in iqud’ot rads rand surface tension T (4) Both (1) and (2) is given by 9. Ifa rubber ball is taken to the depth of 200 m ina ay 26 @ pod, its volume decreases by 0.1%. Ifthe density r r of the water is 1 * 10° kg/m? and 3r T g = 10 mis®, then the Bulk modulus of elasticity @) = Ms all 16. The quantity of heat required to raise the (1) 10° (2) 2 fie temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C is ©) 10° (4) 2x10 (1) 1 joule (2) 1 calorie 10. Which of the following set of physical quantities (3) Water equivalent (4) Thermal capacity neve difereny amensional formuta?. 17. Arvenging.absorbs 3000 J of hat from certain hot (1) Pressure, Young's modulus, stress reservoir and ejects 1500 J to a cold reservoir in (2) EMF, potential difference, electric potential every cycle. The net work done in each cycle (3) Heat, work done, torque would be (4) Electric dipole moment, electric field, electric (1) 1500 J (2) 3000 J flux. (3) 4500 J (4) Zero ‘Space for Rough Work (2)Alm -720 18: For the given adiabatic curve, the work done by | 24 If 250 MeV energy is released in the fission of a the gas will be single nucleus of 2X , the number of fissions per Pi second which are required to produce a power of 2kWis (yy 1108 (2) 310 (3) 5* 10" (4) 8 10 25, The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal v diodes in parallel, What is the current flowing in (1) Positive (2) Negative the circuit? ) Zero (4) Infinite 32 o, 19. Which of the following has zero average value in i KI a plane electromagnetic wave? D, 4a (1) Magnetic field (2) Electric field tt (3) Total energy density (4) Both (1) and (2) 20. In Young's double slit experiment, a minima is 1 obtained when the phase difference of 6a 20v superimposing waves is (1) 254 (2) 5A (1) Zero 2) 28 (3) 24 (4) 3A (3) 21 (4) 28x 26, The output of given logic circut is 21. light wave has a frequency of 5 « 10" Hz anda A wavelength 2 x 10-7 min a medium. The refractive & index of the medium is —) >— aa (22 @ 15 3 > 22, An object 4 em high placed at a distance of () AFB) AFG Q)AFBHC 20 cm from a concave mirror of radius of curvature (@) A-8-C (4) A-B+A-C of 60 cm. The size of the image is 27. Aparticle executing simple harmonic motion along (1) tem (2) 120m y-axis has its motion described by equation @) 4em (4) 100m y= Asinat + B. The amplitude of the given simple 23. Ki and Ke are maximum kinetic energies of harmonic motion is photoelectrons emitted when lights of wavelength (a Qe he int on a metalic 2s a respectively af ini eee wo EEE, ~ ra 28. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio 4: 1 @) K< produce interference. The ratio of maximum to 4 minimum intensity is equal to @ K=X (2st (24:4 3 @) 9:4 (4) 5:4 ‘Space for Rough Work @CST-8(Code-A) 29, ‘An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with dipole axis making an angle 0 with the direction of electric field. For dipole to be in Unstable equilibrium, 0 equals to Mx 2) (8) ze we AIM -729 33. Consider the following statements: A. The magnetic field of several sources is the vector addition of magnetic field of each individual source. B. A stationary charge can produce magnetic as, ‘well as electric field C. Ampere’s circuital law and Biot Savart law, both express the relation between magnetic field and current. 30. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 em is charged etter priser ey such that the potential on its surface becomes yc 2) Only A and B SIV Tepuerilaieconestiespwes | (WC || @) nya (acy (2) Sov horizontal overhead power line carries a current () Zero (#) 25 of 80 A in north to south direction. The magnitude 31. In the arrangement shown in figure, when the and direction of the magnetic field due to the switch ‘S'is opened, the galvanometer shows no current 2 m below the line deflection for | = 60 cm and when the switch is (1) 8x yT, towards east (2) 8x nT, towards west closed, the galvanometer shows no deflection for ea ead tag 1= 40 cm. The internal resistance of the 3 V cell is (2) aT towards Sart) 0.17, towards weet pales ‘A short bar magnet of magnelic moment M, at fl on distaficebn ts axis has magnet field equal to 100m 6 av 7 Ss 3 ai . Ov RISECTIONZ BIR 50S THe snoment of inertia of a square plate of mass mee @ 2a Wand ide a about an exis ex shown nutes 3 2° ¢ us za (4) Zero 32. The resistance of a conductor at 20°C is 6 qvand 7 at 80°C is 12 2. The temperature coeffidlent of resistance ef the conductor is neal, (1) 0.001 °c" (@) 0.003 °C" « ania (@) 001°C 9 @ 03°" 3) 28 a) ma os @ * ‘Space for Rough Work (4)AIM -720 37. Select the following: | The orbital velocity of a satellite Increases with the radius of the orbit, I. Escape velocity ofa particle from the surface of the earth depends on its mass. II, The time period ofa satelite does not depend con the radius of its orbit IV. The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to the square root ofthe rads ofthe orbit (1) tang (@) land iv (3) Litera tv (4) Lettare th 38. Which of the following data has minimum number of significant zeros? (1) 0.005005 (2) 0.002571 (3) 70.345 (4) 4.05 39. A body of mass 1 kg traveling with velocity (2i + j) mis is given an impulse of (6j) N's. The final velocity of body (in mis) will be incorrect statements from the 42, 43, (3) Zero (4) Same as that on the surface of charged solid sphere ‘Annetwork of resistors is connected to a 8 V battery with internal resistance of 1.0. If the current through 2 © resistor is 1 A, then terminal voltage of the battery is 20 R Loa! |} 4+ (ev (2) BV @) 5V (4) 3V Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the ground state by emitting a photon of wavelength do, then the principal quantum number of the excited state is (R is Rydberg constant) (1) 24] (2) 142) < (3) 2477 (4) +2 >» 40. The charge stored in 3 jF capacitor in the given circuits ev te 4 ur y 44. A half-wave rectifier is used to convert 'n’ Hz a.c (1) 4c (2) 8c into d.c, then the number of pulses per second (@) thc (4) 120 praseni in ihe rectified voltage i 41, Electric field inside the cavity of uniformly charged Ma ‘sphere is (2) nl2 (1) Non-uniform (3) 2n (2) Uniform (4) 4n ‘Space for Rough Work (5)CST-t(Codo-A) 45, The minimum distance between a real object and its reat image for concave mitror (focal length 1) is (yar (2) 2 (3) Zero af 46. In YOSE, if white light is used instead of a ‘monochromatic light then (1) The contrast between light and dark fringes will be more prominent (2) Ths central finge will become complately dark (3) The bright fringes will become dark and dark ‘ones will become bright (4) Fringes of different colours will be observed 47. Acapillary tube dipped in a liquid is tited as shown in figure and length of liquid in capillary tube is 5 om, The value of is. (1) 3em 2) Sem (3) 4em (4) 2em 48, A metal rod 4 m long has a circular cross-section -|\. of radius 1 cm. One end is kept at 100°C and thé other at 20°C, then the temperature at 50ém rom the hot end would be (thermal conductivity of metal is 491 Wm" K") - (1) 875°C (2) 30°C (3) 90°C (4) 40°C AIM -720 79. A series RLC circuit, driven with V = 200 V at frequency 50 Hz, contains an inductance with Xi = 50 (and a capacitance with Xc = 60 0 and ‘an unknown resistance R. If power factor is 0.8, then power consumed in the circuit is (1) 1200W (2) 1920 (3) 1800 W (4) 3600 W 50, A rod PQ of length 0.5 m and resistance 10 2 rotates about one end with anguler velocity 10 rad/s as shown in figure. Its other end touches a conducting ring of negligible resistance. Another resistance of 10 £2 is connected between centre and periphery. If there is uniform magnetic field B= 0.4 Texistin the space perpendicular to plane ‘Space for Rough Work (6)AIM 720 51 82. 53, 54, CST-8_(Code-A) SECTION- A Which one of the following algae shows diplontic life cycle? (1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Fucus State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and choose the correct option (a) Double fertilization is an event unique to angiosperms. (©) Coralloid roots show symbiotic association with Rhizobium for No-fixation, (©) Winged pollen grains are found in Pinus, ab o¢ (Eee Teen Qe oF oT Ove 2 @T oF oT Select the incorrectly matched pai. (1) Swiss cheese — Propionibacterium sharmanii (2) Peniciin — Penicitium notatum (3) Cyclosporin A - Trichoderma polysporum. (4) Statins ~ Candida tipolytica Which ofthe following statements is incorrect? (1) The process of maintaining the'Constancy of internal environment in the organisms is called homeostasis. (2) A stage of suspended development in, the organisms during stressful conditions is'called diapause, ‘ ) Thick-walled spores are formed in bacteria, fungi, and lower plants (algae) to overcome unfavourable conditions. (4) Majority of animals and nearly all plants can maintain constant internal environment, 55, Release of inorganic substances like COz, Hz0 and minerals from organic matter or humus during the process of decomposition is called (1) Mineralisation (2) Catabolism (3) Humification (4) Leaching In which one of the following options the two taxa * given are correctly matched with their organisms? Taxa Organism (1) Triticum and Convolvulaceae - Wheat (2) Diptera and Canidae = Housetly (8) Musca and Anacardiaceae - Mango (4) Chordata and Hominidae = - Man 57. Read the following statements (a-d). (2) Cell walls generally made up of amino acids and sugar. (b) Membrane bound organelles are absent (©) Nucledid or incipient nucteus is composed of naked ONA,/RNA and non-histone proteins. (6), Majority are heterotrophs, ic., they depend on ather organisms or on dead organic matter for food Regarding five kingdom classification, the given features are most likely associated with the kingdom (1) Monera (2) Protista ©) Algae (4) Fungi 58. Al ofthe given prokaryotes hav éitfent cell wall structures as compared to normal bacteria, except (1) Methanobacterium (3) Thermoproteus (2) Thermoplasma (4) Clostriaium ‘Space for Rough Work 7CST-8 (Code-A) 59. Which floral structure is usually colourful and responsible for attracting insects for pollination? (1) Calyx (2) Androecium @) Corolla (4) Bracts 60. Find the incorrect match w.rt. Placentation. (1) Axle = China rose (2) Basal - Sunflower (3) Free central = Argemone (4) Parietal — Mustard 61. How many of the given plants belong to Fabaceae? Gloriosa, brinjal, Aloe, Indigofera, Asparagus, belladonna, groundnut, arhar, mustard, moong, muliathi, Petunia, tobacco, sunhemp (1) Six (2) Eight (3) Seven (4) Five 62. Allof the following cells at maturity have nucleus, except (1) Sieve tubes (2) Slime moulds” 3) White blood cells (4) Fungal ces 63. Match the Column | and Column Il and select the correct option. XE Column | Column tt (a) SER (Nucleus (b) Lysosome (i) Detoxification 4 (©) Nucleoid (ii) Suicidal Gags“ / (@) Chromatin material (iv) Bacteria (1) aeCi, bei, civ), di) (2) aii), bi), (9, dv) ), ci), di) 64. Which layer of cell envelope in prokaryotes prevents them from bursting or collapsing? (1) Capsule (2) Cell membrane (3) Slime layer (4) Cell wall 65, 66, 67. 68, 68, 70, AIM-729 Four microspore mother cells after meiotic division in angiosperms wil form (1) 8 microspores (2) 4 microspores (3) 16 microspore tetrads (4) 4 microspore tetrads Meiosis | is the actual reductional division where the reduction in chromosome number occurs at (1) Anaphase | (2) Prophase | (3) Metaphase | (4) Telophase | Shortest phase of a typical cell cycle among the foliowing is (1) Interphase (2) M-phase (3) Gephase (4) Gr-phase Which of the following cells help in maintaining pressure gradient in sieve tubes? (1) Bulliform cells (2) Companion cells (3) Subsidiary cells (4) Lenticels Readpth@}following statements and select the correct option / < ASsertion, ia) t1@Sriwood is durable, hard and xe = resistant to “attack of microbes and insects. Reason (RY; Heartwood present in the peripheral region ofthe stem has deposition of organic coripdunds ike resins, tannins, gums and / atofmatic substances. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false Ditiérént pathways are followed by the plants in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This abiliy is called (1) Plasticity (2) Vernalisation (3) Photoperiodism (4) Development ‘Space for Rough Work (8)AIM -720 7” 72 73, 74, Inner layer of cell wall of pollen gra of is made up (1) Sporopolienin (3) Cellulose only (4) Pectin only In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement I: If the female parent bears unisexual flowers then emasculation is required. (2) Cellulose and pectin Statement II: Process of bagging is not necessary for the emasculated flowers to prevent contamination of its stigma (1) Only stat (2) Only statement tl is correct ement |is correct (3) Both statements | and Il are correct (4) Both statements | and Il are incorrect Match column-! with column-ll and select the correct option Column-t Column. (@) Maurice Wikins (i) DNA fingerprinting» technique (b) Taylor (ii) Semiconservative ~ nature of DNA replication (©) Marshall Nirenberg (ill) X-ray diffraction data of DNA (d) Alec Jeffreys (iv) Cellfree system for protein synthesis, (1) a-Gi), b-(i), civ), (i) (2) a(), bev), ei), di) (3) acid), beiv), ci), -() (4) ari), bl), c-), 4) Histche proteins (1) Are required for gene expression (2) Are of 7 types (3) Are organised to form nucleoid (4) Contains basic amino acids 75. 76. 77. 78. 79, csT-8_(Code-A) Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement Split, gene arrangement is characteristic of all prokaryotes. ‘Statement B: The coding strand in a transcription unit of DNA is used as a template to form an mRNA. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect Which of the following DNA sequences leads to the formation of given mRNA? 5'-UACGUACGUACGUAC-3° (1) 3-ATGCATGCATGCATG-5 (2) 3-GATCGATCGATCGAT-5 (3) 3-TACGTACGTACGTAC-5" (4) 3'TACGTACGTACTACC-5° The plants that show Kranz anatomy, also (1) Lack RUBisCO enzyme in their bundle sheath cell ES (2) Have primaty-COz acceptor as 4C ketose sugar (3) Form phosphoglycolate during CO> fixation (4) Show decarboxylation in bundle sheath cells External electron donor used during non-cyclic photophosphorylation is (1) HO (2) PQ (3) Plastocyanin (4) Cyt bef complex In the typical Mendelian monohybrid cross, law of dominance is used to explain (1) The expression of both the parental characters in the F; generation (2) The purity of gametes (3) The expression of only one of the parental characters in the Fz generation (4) The proportion of 3: 1 phenotypes obtained at the Fs generation ‘Space for Rough Work @csr. 80. 3_(Code-A) ‘Chromosomal complement 44 + XXY results in which type of disorder in humans? (1) Tumer's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Edwards syndrome (4) Down's syndrome 81. How many true breeding pea plant varieties were ‘selected by Mendel for his experiment? (1) Seven (2) Sixteen (3) Two (4) Fourteen Matcit tie Co'umn | with Column ti and choose the correct option, 22 Column | Column It (@) | Nutlisomic condition @ janet (b) © Trisomic condition | (ii) iy an+2 Monosomic condition 2n-2 (4) | Tetrasomic. condition @ © (1) (iv) @ i ao ww w om @ O Ww Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid (1) Is catalysed by lactate dehydrogenase (2) Takes place in cytosol of eukaryotic ces (3) Does not require Mg for reaction (4) Involves release of COz Which among the following “Evil Quartet” regarding biodiversity loss exemplifies cutting and clearing of Amazon rain forest for soyabean cultivation? w) 2n-t C) 0 (iv) (a) ) OY 0 83. 84, 85, 86, oF ' w yas KvIC AIM-720 (1) Over exploitation (2) Alien species invasion (@) Habitat loss and fragmentation (4) Co-extinetion Read the following statements and choose the correet option Statement |: Biodiversity hotspots have high degree of endemism Statement Il: Indo-Burma, Himalayas and Western ghats are sacred groves in India considered as ex-silu conservation strategy (1) Only statement lis correct (2) Only statement I is correct (3) Both statements | and Il are correct (4) Both statements | and Il are incorrect “SECTION=B Algin and carrageen are hydrocolloids that are obiained fom __ and _ algae respectively (1) Gieén Gnd Res @) Red and Green (@),Brown) fvand Rea (4) Red and Brown 87. _ The “ehnofegyS-e biogas production was a ogy 3), y1de andMAB (4) UNESCO 88.Redd ‘he following statements and select the 4 cborrect option. JAS ‘Statement A: Niche of an organism represents the range of conditions that it can tolerate, the resources it utilises and its functional role in ecological system Statement B: species In mycorrhiza, the interacting mplify commensalista:- 4.4 (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Only statement A is correct (3) Only statement B is correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect ‘Space for Rough Work (10)AIM -720 89, Which one of the following is the most limiting nutrient of marine ecosystem? (1) Phosphorus, (2) Nitrogen (3) Carbon (4) Sulphur 90. Read the following statements for a group of photosynthetic protists. Statement A: Most of hem have two flagella; one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall plates, Statement B: Very often, they undergo rapid ‘multiplication cause red tides of sea, Chocse the correct option vir’. the’ given statements A and 8 (1) Both statements A and B are correct for diatoms (2) Only statement B is correct for Chrysophytes (8) Only statement is correct for Dinoflagelates (4) Both statements A and B ate correct for Dinofiagellates 91, Select the correct option wit, region of root tip. which is present a few millimetres above the root cap. > (1) Cells undergo rapid elongation _ and enlargement and are responsible forthe growth of the root in length (2) The cells of this region gradually aiferentate and mature (9) The cells of this region are very’small,thin- walled and with dense protoplasm, (4) From this region some of the epidermal cells form very fine and delicate, thread-tke structures called roothairs. = oS 82, Read the following statements and choose the Statement A: Middle lamella holds the different neighbouring plant cells. Statement B: Ripening of fruits is due to solubilization of pectate compounds of middle lamelia 93, 94, 965, esT-8 (Code-A) (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect Cell cycle is divided into two basic phases, known as (1) Gi and S phases (2) Interphase and M phase (3) Sand Gz phases (4) Gy and M phases Identify the incorrect statement(s) about the anatomical features of monocot stem and choose the option accordingly (a) Xylem and phloem are jointly situated along the same radius of vascular bundles, and cambium is present in between xylem and phloem, (©) Vascular bundles which are present at the periphery are “_<, (2) Cortisol (3) Thyroxine “°° (4) Glucagon Which of the falléwing separates the left and the right atria in humans heart? (1) A thin muscular septum (2). A thick fibrous septum (8)’A thin fibrous septum (4) A tract of nerve fibres Which ofthe following is true for Bt toxin? (1) Itis an exotoxin and is released to the outside through body of insects. (2) Itis not digested in human gut but digested in insects (3) Insects ingest Bt toxins always in active forms. (4) Its presence in Bt cotton results in decreased consumption of chemical insecticides that are applied to cotton fields ‘Space for Rough Work (15)the AIM 729 Ta7_ Read the following statements | est-8 (code-A) 733. Select the incorr following (4) ANF: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (2) JGA: Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (3) ADH ; Anti Diuretic Hormone fect abbreviation from (a) GFR : Glomerular Flow Rate 134, The disease caused by Haemophis innuenzae among the following is (1) ADs (2) Ringworms (@) Generrtosa (4) Pneumonia 435, Select the incorrect statement for the enzyme used in PCR. (1) tis thermostable in nature (2) Itis isolated from Thermus aquaticus. {@) It gets denatured at a temperature just above 70°C (4) itis used in the primer extension step EE SECTION-B { ie 136. Match Column | with Column Il and select the’ correct option w.rt. humans. Column | Column I a. Tia and fibula (i) Axial skeleton’ b. Sternumand (i) Coxal bone’) occipital condyle ‘ ©. Clavicle and (ii) Appendicular scapula skeleton / § 4. Pubis end ischium (iv) Pectoral girdle (1) a(9, bp, ep, up (2) ati, (a, ei), a (9) atv, Bai, ct, 46) 4) afi, Biv, et, a Primary metabolites have identifaty, * fanetions and play important roles in norma physiology. b, Morphine and codeine are Secondan, metabolites that belong to the category gy lectins. ¢. Secondary metabolites do not have importan, roles in normal physiology of the host. Select the option that represents correct set statements. (1) aande (2) a,bande (3) aandb (4) bande Complete the analogy w.rt. glands and thei location in humans. Hypothalamus side of forebrain (1) Gella tursica 7 (2);Basalpart of diencephalon (3) ‘Between lungs*behind sternum Dy Kater gat ot kcney 139. Choose.the ‘odd one w.r.t. components of rib cage Inhumans. (a) vsenated anc Inthe light of the above statements, select the Correct option (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) @) (AYis true but (R) is false (4) Both (4) and (R) are false 112. All ofthe following cells are present outside the seminiferous tubules in human testes, except (1) Interstitial cells 2) Leydig cells (3) Immunologically competent cells (4) Sertoli cells 143, Which of the folowing structures in human male opens into urethra and raneports the sperms to the outside through urethra? " (1) Epicidymis (2) Vas detereh (3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Vas efferent Cartier the goer etrtrmaris end chal te, jncorrent one. (1) Variation due to mutation results in changed frequency of genes and alleles In ulure oananaie (2) An important evidence in favour of organi evoluton is the occurrence of, Homologous and vestigial organs. (9) Fitness is the end result ofthe abit adapt and get selected by nature nC (4) Variation in gene frequencies within populations ean eecur by chance ratnér tian pyPnatural selection. This is called genetic flow 145, A chemical synapse does not include (1) Pre-synaptic membrane (2) Post-synaptic membrane (@) Synaptic vesicles (@) Synaptic ciett 144, GST-8_(Code-A) 446, In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by (1) Vaccines (2) Enzyme replacement therapy (3) Chemotherapy (4) Radiotherapy 147. If in a hypothetical scenario, a gene encoding for Pegalactosidase is inserted in the pBR322 using the enzyme Sal | and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in E.coli, then (1) The recombinant host organism will show the resistance towards the tetracycline (2) The transformed recombinant colonies will give blue colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate (3) The non-recombinants will be resistant to the kanamycin (4) All the transformants will die in the presence of ampicillin 148. Select the incorrect match (1) Planatia - High regeneration capacity (2) Meandrina Calcified exoskeleton (3), Fasciola — Protonephridia for excretion (4) Adamsia~ Exhibits alternation of generation 149. The epithelium present in tubular part of nephrons is (1), Cubsidal epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium (3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Compound epithelium ~150. Read the given statements and select the correct option w.r. earthworm, Statement A: The dorsal surface of their body is distinguished by the presence of genital openings. Statement B: Their body js divisible into 3 regions-preciiellar, clitellar and postclitellar. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct ‘Space for Rough Work (17)GST-8 (Code-A) AIM 735 SECTION=A 151. Predict the correct product A and major product B in the following reaction. 153. Consider the following reaction sequence COOH (UAHA, (ay PSE, 8 (Major) wre CH,CH,C = CH384> AB (1) A: CHsCH2 - CH = CH-OH ‘Major product B is Oa B : CHsCH:CH:CHO OH (2) A:cH,-cH,-G=CH, a 2) ° w CHO B:CH,CH,-6-CH, (3) A:CH.CH=C-CH, @ 4) oH BCH, -CH,~¢- CH, 154, Consider the following statements i} a. Histidine is an essential amino acid. (4) A:CH,CH,~ C= GH b. Myosin is an example of globular protein on on ©. During denaturation of protein, primary i _structite remains intact, Bech E oil j The corer! statements are { Gus I ~ (2) 182. Match the reactions given in column’ with the | utente Se oe 2 2 os a name associated given in column Il aré.choose’] _ 20)" faandc we ene fie conentonewer “| 485: Match e6tumtrl with column I [Column 1 Jcouman Cl +C10; If2 mol of Cle reacts with an alkali (OH) then the total number of moles of CIO; ions produced is (1) 1 mot (2) 1.5 mol (3) 0.667 mot (4) 0.33 mol 164, Choose the incorrect statement: (1) Oxidation number of sulphur in tetrathionate ion is fractional (2)_The central’ carbon,atom in carbon suboxide is, in zero oxidation’ state (8) In CrOs, there are three peroxide linkages (4): FesO«is.ainixed oxide 165, Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): ‘Assertion (A): Silicon dioxide in its normal form is almost non-reactive. Reason (R): The bond enthalpy of Si-O bond is very high In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1).Both (A) and (R) are true but (Ris NOT the correct explanation of (A) (2) (AVis true but (R) is false (3) (A)is false but (R) is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) ‘Space for Rough Work (3)eST-8 (Code-A) 166. The possible set of four quantum numb valence electron of Gallium atom (2 = rs for the 1)is 1 () 4.2045 1 @ 51045 1 @ 440-5 1 @) BAe 167. Giver below are two statements ‘Statement I: Phosphoric acid disproportionates to ive phosphorous acid and phosphine Statement Il; Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Statement |s true but Statement Ils false (2) Statement lis false but Statement Ilig true “J (3) Both Statement | and Statement Il are tru (4) Both Statement | and Statement Il are false _/| 168. When copper is reacted with dilute HNOS It produces (1) Cu(NO2)2, NO, NzO and Hz0 (2) Cu(NOs)2, NzO and H20 (3) Cu(NOs)2, NOz and H2O (4) Cu(NOs)z, NO and Hz 169. The bond order of 2.5 is shown by () Oo (2) (3) 0; (4) 0; 170. Which of tne tollowing molecules will have permanent dipole moment? (1) SFe (2) BF (3) SiF« (4) XeFe AIM 729 171, Given below are two statements: Statement I: Solubility of a gas increases wi, increase in pressure of gas above liquid, Statement II: Solubility of a gas increases wiy, increase in temperature. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Both Statement | and Statement Il are true (2) Statement ls true but Statement Ils false (3) Statement | is false but Statement Il is true (4) Both Statement | and Statement Il are false 172. The weight of urea required to be dissolved in 8 960 g water to reduce the vapour pressure to of pure water is : (1) 133.33 (2) 266.79 (3) 1809 (4) 1809 173. Which one of the following pairs of gases contin the.samé number of molecules? (1),28 6 6f Ne and 16'9 of O2 (2) 18Yoof O2 atid 14 g of Ne og ABO nee £218) 32.9 6f Odand 7 g of No (86 pts: 2 (1G) 88 ofDzand 14 g of 174: BoronShas two stable isotopes '98(19%) and 7 RIOT). The average atomic mass of Boronis AW) 1080 KS @ 10.20 (3) 10.5u (4) 10.40 178. [Cr(NHs)e][CO(CN).] and [Co(NHs)e{Cx(CNbl & related as., (1) Linkage isomers (2) Coordination isomers (8) lonisation isomers (4) Solvate isomers 7 ‘Space for Rough Work (20)‘AIM -720, wet teases 176. Given below are two stateme nts: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelieg i as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Aniline do parent A eS Not undergo Friedel- assee (R): In Friedel-Crafts reaction, nitrogen of line in presence of AICI, acquires positive charge and acts as a strong deactivating group. Choose the correct option, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the Correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A)is false but (R) is tue 180, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false Given below are two statements: Statement |: The effective nuclear charge experienced by a valence electron in an atom will be less than the actual charge on the nucleus. ‘Statement Il: As we move from lithium to fluorine, effective nuclear charge decreases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement | and Statement Il are correct 177. Consider the following reaction D (2) Both Statement | and Statement are yet incorrect Rare Mg DAE y 2.2 oy diy incorre 1A) *CHy— GH CH (@) Statement | is correct but Statement It is The IUPAC name of compound A is incorrect (1) Bromoethane (2) 2-5romop fine (4) Statement! is“incorrect but Statement I is { rect (3) 1-Bromobutane (4) 1-Bromopropane TON LS Ba WRich cara the fe 181. if an extemal “gpposite potential greater than une fhe foloving ie ciel DSCNEZ 424 Vis appliedin he galvanic cel, then tee ae ib (1) N6 chémnical reaction takes place “ ol i (2), Elécirons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod aa # (3) Zn dissolves at anode and copper deposits at (3) H.C. SS CH (4) AIR cathode 479, Given below are two statements: one is labelled (Curent ee form 2 > as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as |” 182 Consider the reaction, Reason (R): ‘ow NH,HS(s) = NH,(g) +H,S(g) Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy of Qis less If Ke of the reaction is 256 then the total pressure negative than that of the succeeding element of at equilibrium will be hee ane | anon (1) 30.atm eason (R): Oxygen is most electronegative element in chalcogen family @) stem In the light of the above statements, choose the Cho correct answer from the options given below: (4) 18.atm Space for Rough Work a483. Which of the following pair constitutes 2 buffer solution? (1) CHsCOOH + CHsCOONa (2) HCI+ NaCl (3) H2SOu + NazSO« (4) Ba(OH)2 + BaClz 184. Identify the correct following (1) Cr is oxidising agent and Mn* is reducing statement among the agent (2) Third ionisation energy of Mn is higher than Fe (3) Cu**is less stable than Cu* in aqueous phase (4) Zn has highest enthalpy of atomisation in 34 series 185. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution with pH = 7 is (1) -0.4137V (2) 0.4137 V (3) -0.0591V (4) 0.0591 V SECTION -B Pag 186. The most suitable reagent for the’ following conversion is H.C. H yA CHy-C=C-CH> Se = co . H7 (sion SCH, (1) Zn/HCl (2) He, PdIC, quinoline (3) Nalliquid NH» (4) NaBHs 187. The compound which will evolve CO2 on reaction with NaHCOs is OH OH ON. ) @ - NO; OH OH (3) (4) “NZ Alt 735, 788. Which among the following is dehydrated p, easily in acidic medium? ost, a) Nou (4) OH 189. Correct increasing order of acidic strength of given compounds is COOH COOH.» COOH coon o” cH Ne % w i) @) Exs(Li) > Baa) > E(k) Reason (R): Energies of the orbitals in the same subshell increase with increase in Zen In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A)is true but (R) is false (3) (A)is false but (R) is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it? (1) ]Hate 2Fets) + SH:00 Given that standard heat of formation for H0() is Gens kd mol", The standard heat of formation {in ks mot) for FezOa(s) is (1) -751.8 (2) -8205 (3) 460.4 (a) 11005 Space for Rough Work (24)15/04/2024 MM : 720 ree Medical| IIT-JEE| Foundations CODE-A omnes €) cad Now Deli 1005, Ph, je: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Re Corporate office: AIM - 720 (Advanced INTENSIVE Mastery for T20) CsT-8 120. (2) 121. (4) 4122. (3) 423. (1) 124, (2) 425. (2) 426. (1) 427..(4) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (4) 431. (1) 492. (4) 133. (4) 134, (4) 135. (3) 136, (2) 437. (1) 138. (2) 139, (3) 440. (1) 141. (3) 142. (4) 143. (3) 444, (4) 145, (3) 446. (2) 447. (2) 148. (4) 149. (1) 4150. (4) 151. (2) 182. (2) 453. (3) 154, (3) 185, (4) 4156. (4) 457. (1) 188, (4) 4159. (1) 160. (1) Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. 161. (2) 162. (4) 163. (3) 164. (3) 165. (4) 166. (3) 167. (2) 168. (4) 169. (3) 470 (1) 171. (2) 472. (1) 173. (2) 174.(4) 175, (2) 176. (3) 177.2) 178. (1) 179. (2) 180. (3) 181. (4) 182. (2) 483. (1) 184. (2) 4185. (1) 186. (3) 187. (2) 188. (3) 189. (2) 190. (2) 191, (2) 192. (2) 193. (3) 194. (3) 195. (4) 196. (1) 197. (2) 198. (4) 199. (4) 200. (2) a)