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Engneering Economics and Accountency-1
Engneering Economics and Accountency-1
Unit-111
Profitability statement.
Machine ‘A’ Machine ‘B’
Savings per annum:
Scrap 15,000 18,000
Wages 30,000 30,000
----------- ------------
35,000 48,000
Less; Estimated additional costs:
Indirect material 2,000 3,000
Maintenance 5,000 6,000
Supervision 3,000 6,000
----------- 10,000 --------------- 15,000
----------- ---------
Profits before tax. 25,000 33,000
Less taxes (30 % p.a) 7,000 9,900
------------- -----------
Cash flows after taxes (CFAT) 17,000 23,100
----------- -------------
-
Capital budgeting proposal illustrated:
A business needs a new machine and has to make a
choice between machine Y and machine Z. The initial cost and the
net cash flow over five years ( income less running expenses but
not depreciation) to the business have been calculated for each
machine as follows.
Table.
Initial cost Machine Y (Rs) Machine Z (Rs)
Net cash flow. 20,000 28,000
1 8,000 10,000
2 12,000 12,000
3 9,000 12,000
4 7,000 9,000
5 6,000 9,000
The shorter the length of the payback period, the better is the
project in terms of paying back the original investment. Particularly where the
future is uncertain, the companies favor this method. The earlier the original
investment is recovered, the better it is, in terms of safety and liquidity. |Where
the cash flows are uniform throughout, they are said to even. Consider this
example.
Example:
The cost of a project is Rs 50,000 the annual cash inflows for the next 4 years
are Rs 25,000. What is the buyback period for the project?
= 50,000 / 25,000
= 2 years.
If another project has 3 years, for example, it is better to choose the above
project because it has less payback period.
Where the cash flows are not uniform, they are said to be uneven. In
such a case take the cumulative cash inflows and see how much time it takes to
get back the original investment. Consider the following example.
Example:-2
The cost of project is Rs 50,000 which has an expected life of 5 years. The
cash inflows for next 5 years are Rs 24,000, Rs 26,000. Rs 20,000 Rs/ 17,000 and
Rss 16,000 respectively. Determine the payback period.
Table.
Table shows that the original investment can be recovered by the end
of the second year and hence the project has 2 years of payback period.
At times, the cash inflows may be different each year, but the total cash
inflows over the life of the project may be the dame. Sometimes, the buyback
period may be similar. In such a case, observe the timing of the cash inflows.
Choose the project which has higher cash inflows in the initial years. Check the
following example.
Example-3:
Two projects, costing Rs 20,000 each, have the following cash inflows. Both have
the same payback period. Which one do you choose and why?
Table.
Solution:
Table shows equal cash inflows and also the equal playback of two years. But
the timing of cash inflows is different. Project B yields Rs 12,000 as against Rs
8,000 by A. This has more value for next for years. Besides this, earlier cash
inflows are likely to prove more accurate estimates than later cash flows.
Table.
Determine accounting rate of return on (a) average capital (b) original capital
employed.
Average investment.
Solution:
The average cash inflows after taxes for CNC Machine-1 = 2,00,000 tjat os.
(6,00,000/3)
The average cash inflows after taxes for CNC Machine-2 = 2,25,000 that is (
9,00,000/4)
Average capital = ( Cost – Scrap) /2 + working capital + scrap
= ( 3,00,000 – 60,000) / 2 + 2,50,000 + 60,000
=1,20,000 + 2,50,000 + 60,000
= Rs 4,30,000
ARR for Machine-1 = Average annual profits after taxes / Average investment
Discounted cash flows are the future cash inflows reduced to their present
value based on a discounting factor. The process of reducing the future cash
inflows to their present value based on a discounting factor or cut-off return is
called discounting. Discounting is the obverse of compounding. To understand
this, let us see the following example.
Suppose your friend asks you to lend him Rs 1000 today and offers to
repay the same after one day or one year, do you lend him? What terms do you
put forth?
Solution:
Naturally, you would like to have the money as quickly as possible. You
may not ask any interest, if the money is repaid after one day. But, if the money
were to be repaid, after say one year, You would like to make it clear how much
interest is the to be paid along with the principal amount or Rs 1000. In case the
friend does not agree, you may not lend him at all.
The above example shows that money earns interest at a given rate which
is otherwise called time value. In other words, if you invest the same money in
any bank, your will get interest, at a a given rate, accursed on this Rs 1000. You do
not want to be deprived of this interest. Yes, why should you? If the friend is very
close, that is different. You may not ask any interest at all that is different thing.
Table.
The same can be looked at from a different point of view. We are going to
receive Ts 1,110 at the end of 2 year. What is its present value if it is growing at
10 percent per annum?
The answer is Rs 1000. The future value of Rs 1000 at the end of two years at
a rate of return of 10 percent per annum is Rs 1,210,
The present value of Rs 1210 received at the end of two years from now
discounted at 10 percent pre annum is Rs 1000.
V = Present value.
R2 = 1210
I = 10%
R= annual income.
Suppose, K = Rs24,000/-
R1 = Rs 6600 /-
R2 + Rs8680/-
R3 = 13,500/-
K = 6600 / (1.10) + 8680/ (1.10)2 + 13,500 / (1.10)3
K =Rs 24,000/-
In the above illustration the present value become Rs 24,000 which is equal to
the supply price. If the ‘r’ is taken as 10%, the percent value of the total income Rs
29780/- is greater than the supply price of Rs 24,000/-
From this, it is understood that when MEC is greater than rate of interest,
investment will increase, when interest is greater than MEC investment will
decreases. If both are equal investment becomes optimum.
Internal rate of return is that rate of return at which the present value of
expected cash flows of a project exactly equals the original investment. In other
words, it equates the present value of a given project with its outlay. This is the
cut –of point at which the income equals the expenditure or the investment
breaks even.
The net present value refers to the excess of the present value of future
cash flows over and above the original investment. IRR is denoted by’r’ . It is
computed as shown below.
Where C is the capital outlay, r is the internal rate of return and CFn is the cash
inflow at different time periods.
If we have scrap value and working capital adjustments, the above formula will
change to:
The shows IRR are that rate at which the different between the present value of
cash inflows and the original cost is equal to zero.
Evaluation of IRR:
The internal rate of retune is compared with the cost of the capital. If the
IRR, is more than the cost of capital, the project is profitable, otherwise it is not.
Where /there are two projects with different IRRs, sclect the project with higher
IRR.
Where cash inflows are eve, it is relatively easy to compute IRR based on a
factor located from the cumulative present value or Rs 1. It is explained as given
below.
Example:
A project costs Rs 1,44,000. The average annual cash inflows are likely to be Rs
45,000 for a period of 5 years. Calculate the IRR for the project.
= 1,44,000 /45,000
= 3.2
= 16 + { 3,330 / 6,615} x 2
= 16 + ( 0.5) x 2
= 16 + 1.0
= 17 %.
-------------------
Net present value refers to the excess of present value of future cash inflows
over and above the cost of original investmet.
Where PV cfat refers to the present value of future cash inflows after taxes.
The conceplt of NPV is a logical extension to the concept of present value. Here
the decision is based on the size of net present value. The projects wich higher
NPVs are selected. If the NPV is negative, that means the project is not profitable.
In other words, the NPV should always be positive and should be maximum. The
present value factor tables are used here to determine the present value of the
future cash inflows.
• From the PV factor table, identify the PV factors of Rs 1 for the given
discount rate ( PV)
• Multiply the cash flows ( both outflows and inflows) with the
corresponding PV factor to find the products DCF -= (PV) x ( CFAT).
• Find the sum of the products.
• If the sum is positive, that means, the project is profitable. In case of
projects with different NPVS, choose the project with the highest NPV
because, the higher the NPV, the higher is the profitability.
Interpretation:
NPV > 1. it means that the project earns more than the discount rate.
NPV = 1. It means that the project earns the same as the discount rate.
NPV < 1. It means that the project earns less than the discount rate.
Borrowings on Investment.
1) Examine the capital structure ratios or leverage ratios?
Interest coverage ratio =( Net profit before interest and taxes / fixed
interest Charges)
The more the number of times of coverage. the better is the solvency
position of the borrower.
Example:
= 70,000.
= 8 times.
Interest coverage ratio of 8 times means that the net profit earnings are 8
times to the fixed interest charges payable during the year.
This ratio explains whether the fixed assets have been bought
from the proprietors funds or not. By matching the long –term
investment with the long-term finance, it is possible to determine
whether the borrowing has been made to finance fixed assets. It is
not safe to use short term finance to buy long-term assets because
when the borrowing is to be repaid, there may be a problem as the
fixed assets cannot be readily converted into cash. The long-term
sources of finance can be used for buying current assets but no
short-term sources of finance can be utilized to acquire fixed assets.
This ratio shows the percentage of proprietors funds locked up
in fixed assets. Normally, for industrial establishments this can be 65
percent of the proprietor’s funds.
Ratio of Fixed assets to proprietors funds = (fixed assets /
proprietors funds ) x 100.
Example:
Compute ratio of fixed assets to proprietor’s fnds from the data
given in example.
From example: Fixed assets are = Rs 5, 75,000 and proprietors
funds are Rs 7, 00,000
Ratio of fixed assets to proprietors funds = ( 5,75,000 / 7,00,000 x
= 82.14%
Considering that this is industrial establishment,82 percent is on
very high side. A large portion of proprietor’s finds is blocked in fixed
assets. This is not desirable.