Each question below contains suggested responses.

Read the question stem carefully and select

the ONE BEST response to each question by shading the corresponding letter to the answer of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. Answer on the question paper will NOT be
considered.

1. In anesthesia machine check list all true EXCEPT:

A. Check O2 supply and reserve cylinders
B. Check electricity supply to the machine and monitoring equipments
C. Check machine before any anesthesia before each anesthetic administered
D. Check each flow meter through its whole ranges

2. Which color is the mostly affect pulse oxymeter?

A. White
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red

3. FEV (forced expiratory volume ) {of the forced vital capacity } is equal to :
A. 95%
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 50%

4. Patent flushed dyspnic hypotensive after given one unit of RBCs what you will give him
A. Adrenaline
B. Antiemetic
C. Antihistamine
D. Aminophylline

1
5. Ketamine hallucination is counter by giving :
A. Esmolol
B. Midazolam
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone

6. Suxamethonium phase II:

A. Can be reversed with neostigmine
B. Due to small dose
C. Caused by Rocuronium infusion
D. Due to cholinesterase abnormality

7. In M R which is less histamine release:

A. Suxamethonium
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium

8. Triggering factors of malignant hyperthermia include the following EXCEPT:

A. Desflurane
B. enflurane
C. halothane
D. thiopentone

9. which of the following can cause vagal stimulation and bradycardia:

A. anal surgery
B. peritoneal surgery
C. carotid manipulation
D. all of the above
2
10. The best IV induction agent for patient with cardiovascular disease is:
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketalar
D. Pethidine

11. Which of the following rotometer flow indicator is read in the middle
A. Bobbin
B. H float
C. Ball float
D. Skirfart float

12. All of the following predict difficult intubation in pregnant women EXCEPT:
A. Airway edema
B. Large breasts
C. Preeclampsia
D. Mallampati 3

13. Hypokalemia my cause all of the following EXCEPT :

A. Weakness
B. Muscle pain
C. Peaked T wave in ECG
D. Constipation

14. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agent is associated with high incidence
of nausea and vomiting?
A. Thiopental
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
3
 D. Propofol

15. Isoflurane which is false?

A. Is respiratory depressant
B. Cause tachycardia
C. Is associated with the development of convulsion
D. Cause of dose related depression in systemic vascular resistance

16. Atropine
A. Blocks the muscarinic effects of acetylcholine
B. Does not cross Blood Brain Barrier
C. Inhibits acetylcholine release
D. Cannot cause pyrexia

17. Many of clotting factors are produced in:

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Brain

18. Which of the following benziylisoquinolinium none depolarizing neuromuscular drugs

this class of drugs in that it does not cause release of histamine?
A. D-tubocurarine
B. Cisatracurium
C. Rocuronium
D. Atracurium

19. All of the following laryngoscopes are straight EXCEPT:

4
 A. Magill
B. Millar
C. Wisconsin
D. Bowen- Jackson

20. Which of the following materials will not ignite during laser surgery?
A. Rubber
B. silicone
C. Polyvinyl
D. Metal

21. Increase vagal tone causes :

A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradycardia
D. Increase cardiac out put

22. The late complications following partial thyroidectomy include :

A. Strider
B. Thyroid crisis
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Respiratory obstruction

23. Cigarette smoking is associated with:

A. Thyroid cancer
B. Bronchial cancer
C. Cervical cancer
D. bladder cancer
24. For safe storage of the compressed –gas cylinders:
5
 A. cylinder can be handled with oily hands
B. cylinder can be stored near flammable material
C. cylinder can be stored in extreme heat or cold
D. paper or plastic covers should be removed from the cylinder

25. One of the following drugs relax pregnant uterus:

A. Adrenaline
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Salbutamol

26. Phenytoin:
A. is a treatment of choice in status epileptics
B. loading dose is 7mg/kg iv
C. can be given via peripheral line
D. dose can be increased beyond the therapeutic level to achieve desirable response

27. Etomidate:
A. is useful in patient with limited cardiovascular reverse
B. it produces no pain on injection
C. it is not water soluble
D. it associated with allergic reaction

28. Which is following intravenous drugs can produce analgesia with small doses:
A. Midazolam
B. Etomidate
C. thiopental
D. Ketamine

6
29. Which of the following alarm would sound if anesthesia breathing circuit becomes
disconnected from the patient' endotracheal tube:
A. high pressure alarm
B. continuing pressure alarm
C. Subatmosphiric alarm
D. Minimum ventilation pressure alarm

30. The laryngeal mask airway LMA can use for all uses EXCEPT:
A. controlled ventilation is possible with it provided the inflation pressure does not
exceed 35 cm H2O
B. Size 1 is used for neonates <5kg
C. used in emergency management of failed intubation
D. Used during CPR

31. Hypothermia occurring during anesthesia and surgery is associated with all the
following effect EXCEPT:
A. Decreased blood loss
B. Decreased drug metabolism and clearance
C. Wound infection
D. Postoperative myocardial ischemia

32. Which is the most rare blood group:

A. A Rh+
B. AB Rh+
C. AB Rh-
D. B Rh-

7
33. In Capnography the CO2 tension can measured using:
A. Mass spectrometer
B. gas chromatography
C. Photoacoustic spectrometer
D. Raman scattering

34. Airway resistance:

A. Increases in asthma
B. Decreases in emphysema
C. Increases in paraplegic patient
D. Does not affect work of breathing

35. Which of the following muscle relaxants causes histamine release?

A. Rocuronium C. Atracurium
B. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

36. In CPR all of the following are used except:

A. Peripheral vein should be flushed by 20 ml of saline after each drug
B. Tracheal administration of lignocaine is possible
C. Central veins is reoffered for administration of drugs
D. When using adrenaline through tracheal tube the dose should be of the same dose of
the intravenous dose

37. Postoperative delayed recovery 45 min following induction of anesthesia with

Suxamethonium is due to:
A. Phase II desensitization
B. Acetylcholine block
C. Concurrent administration of opioids
D. Subclinical renal impairment
8
38. Concerning Esmolol, ONE is TRUE:
A. Is a beta adrenergic agonist
B. Is contraindicated in patient with AV- heart block
C. Has a half-life of 4 hours
D. Is more likely than propranolol to cause bronchospasm

39. Perfalgan:
A. Is a soluble inject able paracetamol
B. Used in children
C. It is a NSAID
D. It is an opioid

40. Propofol is administrated for sedation:

A. Increases heart rate
B. Produces anaxiolysis
C. Produces analgesia
D. may be used in patients with hepatic failure

41. The least reliable site for central temperature monitoring is the:
A. pulmonary artery
B. Skin of forehead
C. Distal part of esophagus
D. Nasopharynx

42. One of the following drugs least likely to cross placenta:

A. Lidocaine
B. Pethidine
C. Midazolam
D. Vecuronium
9
43. Ketamine:
A. #####Decreases intracranial pressure (ICP)
B. Cannot be given intramuscularly
C. Nor ketamine is more potent than ketamine
D. Respiratory depression may rarely occurs with induction doses

44. SA node is the pacemaker of the heart because of:

A. Location in the right atriumh
B. Neural control
C. natural akinase of Na
D. Natural akinase of Ka+

45. The number of oxygen molecules carried by one hemoglobin molecule:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

46. A size E compressed cylinder completely filled with N2O contains liters:
A. 1160
B. 1470
C. 1590
D. 1640

47. The predominate component of Baralime granules is:

A. Water
B. Silica
C. Barium hydroxide
D. Calcium hydroxide
10
48. Succinylcholine is contraindicated in routine tracheal intubation in children because of
an increased incidence of which of the following side effects:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Sever malygias

49. Which of the following muscle relaxants the most suitable for rabid intubation in
whom Succinylcholine is contraindicated
A. Mivacurium C. Doxacurium
B. Rocuronium D. Pipecuronium

50. The LEAST likely complication of laparoscopy includes:

A. Pneumothorax
B. Shoulder pain
C. Gas embolism
D. Left bundle branch block

51. All of the following factors stimulate release of catecholamine EXCEPT:

A. Painful stimuli
B. Hypothermia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypoxemia

52. Metoclopramide:
A. May cause extra pyramidal side effect
B. Relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter
C. Slow gastric empting
D. Reliably raise the gastric fluids PH
11
53. The following are powerful paramagnetic gases
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Halothane

54. Humidity can be measured by all EXEPT:

A. mass spectrometry
B. Chromatography
C. The dew point
D. biological organ length

55. A patient with FBS concentration of 100 ml/dl undergoing operation lasting for 4hrs
udder general anesthesia without intraoperative administration of glucose on
emergence the most likely finding will be:
A. marked hypoglycemia
B. Mild hypoglycemia
C. Normoglycemia
D. Mild hyperglycemia

56. Suxamethonium is contraindicated in:

A. Dystrophiamytonica
B. neonates
C. Congestive heart failure
D. acute intermittent porphyria

57. All of the following are safe to use in patient with malignant hyperthermia EXCEPT:
A. Halothane C. Propofol
B. Fentanyl D. Droperidol
12
58. Naloxone:
A. is a direct respiratory stimulant
B. may be used to reverse pruritus following spinal opioids
C. has agonist properties
D. reverses opioid- induced vomiting

59. In the recovery respiratory rate measurement are done routinely every:
A. 5 min
B. 10 min
C. 15 min
D. 20 min

60. Witch one of the following regarding spinal anesthesia is true:

A. It can be done only in sitting position.
B. Sterile technique is not mandatory.
C. Administration of 500 ml R/L before the block mandatory
D. It can cause severe hypertension

61. High concentration of O2 must be avoided in:

A. Asthmatic patent
B. (COPD) patient
C. Patient with atelectasis
D. Pneumonia

62. All of the following can be used to reduce the possibility of aspiration EXCEPT:
A. Dietary restriction
B. Lowering of ph
C. Cricoid pressure
D. Gastric emptying
13
63. The proper position for caesarean section is:
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Supine position with lift tilt
C. Lithotomy position
D. Flower s position

64. In caesarean section narcotic must be given :

A. Preoperatively
B. on induction
C. After the baby is out
D. Before the skin incision

65. One of the following is done during failed intubation:

A. Release cricoid pressure
B. Place the patient in head – up position
C. Maintain anesthesia with N2O, O2 and volatile agent
D. Wake the patient and call for help.

66. Post-anesthetic arrhythmias can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Residual anesthetic agent
B. Hypocapnia
C. Hypoxemia
D. Pain

67. Double lumen tube is used in:

A. Thoracic surgery
B. Abdominal surgery
C. Orthopedic surgery
D. Open heart surgery
14
68. The MOST common cause of damage to the eye during anesthesia is :
A. Improper position
B. Carelessness
C. Compression
D. Trauma

69. Patient should be discharged from the recovery room when the total post-anesthetic
score is:
A. 7 C. 9
B. 8 D. 10

70. The nasogastric tube in laparoscopic cholecystectomy is used to :

A. Deflate the stomach
B. Irrigate the wound
C. Feed the patient post operatively
D. None of the above

71. At what level should the blood sugar of diabetic patient be maintained?
A. Below 120 mg/ 100ml (6mmol/1)
B. Between 6 mmol and 10 mmol/1
C. Between 10mmol and 20 mmol/1
D. Above 20 mmol/1

72. The best IV induction agent for patient with cardiovascular disease is
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketalar
D. Pethidine

15
73. How long elective surgery should be postponed after myocardial infarction?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 2 years
D. Not at all

74. All of the following can be used for the treatment of local anesthesia toxicity: ®
A. Propranolol
B. Diazepam
C. Prilocaine
D. Ephedrine

75. Choose the correct statement about general anesthesia for caesarean section:
A. Ergometrine is contraindicated
B. Fentanyl is given usually before induction
C. Rapid sequence induction is used
D. Syntocinon is used to prevent vomiting

76. Shock syndrome is characterized by:

A. 10 % loss of blood volume
B. Hypotension, bradycardia and cold extremities
C. Hypotension, tachycardia and cold extremities
D. Hot extremities

77. The internal diameter of an endotracheal tube for an 8 years old child is:
A. 6 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 3.5 mm
D. 4 mm
16
78. Which of the following is NOT a known adverse effect of thiopentone?
A. Hypotension
B. Laryngospasm
C. Bronchospasm
D. Convulsion

79. One of the following can cause bronchospasm:

A. Deep anesthesia
B. IV hydrocortisone
C. Surgical stimulation
D. IV ketamine

80. The dose of local anesthetic agent used for Bier s block:
A. 10 cc of 3% Xylocaine
B. 30 cc of 0.5 % Xylocaine
C. 10 cc of 0.5 % Bupivacaine
D. 10 cc of 1 % Bupivacaine

81. Blood transfusion is indicated in young adult males if blood loss is:
A. 10 % of blood volume (500ml)
B. 20 % of blood volume ( 1000 ml )
C. More than 40 % of blood volume
D. 200 ml

82. The normal urine output is:

A. 500 ml/day
B. 1500 ml/day
C. 800 ml/day
D. 5 ml/kg/hr.
17
83. In cases of severe bleeding the MOST suitable intravenous fluid is:
A. Glucose 5 %
B. Saline 0.9 %
C. Ringer lactate
D. Hydroxyethyl starch

84. Choose the correct statement about induction of anesthesia:

A. Induction with IV anesthetic agent is usually smoother than induction with inhalation
agents
B. Inhalational induction is not preferred in children
C. Rapid sequence induction is not indicated in emergency surgery
D. Isoflurane is good for inhalational induction

85. The IV induction agent of choice in hypotensive patient during emergency surgery is:
A. Thiopental C. Midazolam
B. Ketalar D. Diprivan

86. The fluid requirement for the maintenance in the 1st 10 kg of child weight is
A. 4ml/kg/hr
B. 10 ml/kg/hr
C. 25 ml/kg/hr
D. 1 ml/kg/hr

87. Which one of the following is the MOST useful monitor in detecting correct placement
of an endotracheal tube?
A. Pluses oximetry
B. Blood pressure monitoring
C. Electrocardiogram
D. Capnogram
18
88. The induction for spontaneous breathing in anesthesia practice:
A. Long operation lasting more than three hours
B. Abdominal surgery requiring complete muscle relaxant
C. Short operation on extremities for healthy adults
D. Operation that require hyperventilation

89. Family history in preoperative is mandatory to detect:

A. Malignant hyperthermia
B. Cholinesterase abnormalities
C. Hemophilia
D. All of the above

90. The MOST serious anesthetic complication in the late pregnancy is:
A. Teratogenic effect
B. Spontaneous abortion
C. Regurgitation and vomiting
D. Hypoxia

91. Which one of the following is true regarding a patient with ASA II :
A. He is a normal healthy patient.
B. He is a patient with mild systemic diseases
C. He is a patient with sever systemic diseases
D. He is a moribund patient

92. The preoperative chest X-ray must be done for:

A. All patients above 50 years
B. All emergency cases
C. All patients scheduled for elective surgery
D. None of the above
19
93. The earliest manifestation of Endobronchial intubation is:
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. An increases in peak inspiratory pressure
D. None of the above

94. The best method of detecting esophageal intubation:

A. Capnography
B. ABGs (arterial blood gases)
C. CXR (chest X-ray)
D. Pulse oximetry

95. Treatment of laryngeal spasm includes:

A. Release of stimulation
B. Deepening the anesthesia
C. Administration of 100% O2
D. All of the above

96. The following are anatomical signs of difficult intubation EXCEPT:

A. Short neck
B. Receding lower jaw
C. Protruding teeth
D. Burn scar

97. Which statement about induction of anesthesia is true?

A. Inhalation induction is smoother than intravenous induction
B. Intravenous induction is smoother than inhalation induction
C. Inhalation induction is contraindication in children
D. Intravenous induction is contraindication in children
20
98. Inhalation induction is contraindicated in:®
A. Children
B. Eye surgery
C. Full stomach
D. All of the above

99. The short duration of action of Thiopentone is related to:

A. Metabolism
B. Redistribution
C. Degradation
D. None of the above

100. In case of regurgitation the patient should be placed immediately in:

A. Sitting position
B. Lithotomy position
C. Prone position
D. Trendelenburg position

101. Treatment of aspiration pneumonia include all of the following EXCEPT

A. 100% O2 C. Antibiotics
B. antiemetic D. Steroids

102. Which statement is true regarding the intra-arterial injection of sodium

Thiopentone?
A. The cannula should be removed immediately
B. The cannula should be left in place
C. Adrenaline 0.1 mg should be administered IV
D. None of the above

21
103. Laryngeal spasm occurs MOST commonly during:
A. Eye surgery
B. Ear surgery
C. Anal surgery
D. Abdominal surgery

104. Which intercostal space is used for aspiration of air from the pleura cavity?
A. 2ed intercostal space
B. 3ed intercostal space
C. 4th intercostal space
D. 5th intercostal space

105. Soda lime is:

A. Carbon dioxide absorbent
B. Nitrous oxide absorbent
C. Carbon monoxide absorbent
D. Use in maple son circuit

106. Heparin solution contains:

A. 500 units/ml
B. 5000 units/ml
C. 50 units/ml
D. 5 units/ml

107. Wright respirometer is located:

A. In the inspiratory limb of the breathing tube
B. In the expiratory limb of the breathing tube
C. Between the flow meter and the vaporizer
D. Between the fresh gas inlet and the inspiratory limb
22
108. Minute ventilation equals:
A. Tidal volume x peak airway pressure
B. Tidal volume x respiratory rate
C. Tidal volume x lung compliance
D. Patient weight x 10

109. Maple son “D“ circuit is called:

A. Ma gill circuit
B. Bain circuit
C. Jackson –Rees circuit
D. Water’s circuit

110. Ketamine:
A. Is not analgesic
B. Decreases secretion
C. Only given IM
D. Increases heart rate and blood pressure

111. Proposal is:

A. Colorless liquid
B. Causes pain on injection
C. A muscle relaxant
D. Antibiotic

112. Thiopentone:
A. Takes a long time for onset
B. Causes convulsion
C. Can be mixed with other drugs
D. Causes sleep in 30 seconds
23
113. Su:
A. Is a depolarizing muscle relaxant
B. Not used in emergency
C. Dose is 10mg/kg IV
D. Is safe in malignant hyperthermia

114. Atria:
A. Metabolized in liver
B. Not used in renal failure
C. Is depolarizing muscle relaxant
D. Causes release of histamine

115. Morphine:
A. Is the weakest of all opioid?
B. Is synthetic opioid
C. Used in dose of 0.1mg/kg
D. Dose not cause vomiting

116. Vector;
A. Is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant
B. Cannot be used in cardiac surgery
C. Causes release of histamine
D. Very quick in onset

117. Rocuronium:
A. Is short acting muscle relaxant
B. Has slow onset of action
C. Not used in emergency instead of Su
D. Can be used in rapid sequence induction
24
118. Fentanyl:
A. Is used in dose of 5 – 10 mg/kg
B. Is 100 times more potent than morphine
C. Release histamine
D. Not used in long surgeries

119. Sufentanil:
A. Is a sedative
B. Is used to prevent vomiting
C. Causes post-operative respiratory depression
D. Increases pain during surgery

120. Adrenaline:
A. Is not present in the body
B. Is not useful in cardiac arrest
C. Increases heart rate and blood pressure
D. Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

121. Atropine:
A. Increases secretion
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Is used as pre medication in children
D. Dose is 5mg/kg

122. Ephedrine:
A. Is a naturally occurring drug
B. Acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptor
C. Is not useful in cesarean section
D. It is not controlled drug
25
123. Narcon (Naloxone):
A. is used to reverse action of Morphine
B. Is a strong analgesia
C. Is a sedative
D. It has no side effect

124. In recovery room:

A. No monitoring is required
B. Patient is left unattended
C. Patient does not need any pain relief
D. Patient is closely monitored till wide-awake

125. Recovery position:

A. On the patient’s back
B. On patient’s abdominal
C. On left lateral (side) position
D. In sitting position

126. Drug to be kept in recovery:

A. Antibiotics
B. Spinal heavy Marcaine 0.5%
C. Atropine and other emergency drug
D. Propranolol

127. Intubation trolley should have all of the below EXEPT:

A. Different size of ET tube
B. Different size of laryngoscope blades
C. Suction catheter
D. Laryngoscopes without a good light
26
128. Intubation of tracheal in everyday practice confirmed by:
A. Chest X-ray
B. CT scan of chest
C. End tidal carbon dioxide
D. ECG

129. Foley’s catheter:

A. Used to measure central venous pressure
B. Used for oral suction of secretion
C. Used for draining of abscess
D. Used to measure urine out bout

130. The following agent reduces gastric acidity EXEPT:

A. ####### Sodium citrate
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Metoclopramide

131. Difficult intubation trolley contains the following items EXEPT:

A. Stilettes and bougies
B. Intubating LMA
C. Anesthetic drugs
D. Nasal and oral airways

132. The volume of stomach contents is reduced by :

A. Sodium citrate
B. Cimetidine
C. Atropine
D. Propranolol
27
133. The following drug should NOT be given in the presence of positive family history
of malignant hyperthermia:
A. Atracurium
B. Thiopentone
C. Suxamethonium
D. Propofol

134. The pest muscle relaxant that be given in renal failure patient is :
A. Suxamethonium
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium

135. Miller laryngeal blade size (1) is used to intubate:

A. Small babies
B. Adult males
C. Pregnant women
D. Obese patient

136. (EMLA) cream contains the following two local anesthetics: ®

A. Marcaine + Ropivacaine
B. Lidocaine + Prilocaine
C. Cocaine + Lidocaine
D. Lidocaine + Marcaine

137. The principle respiratory muscle is:

A. The diaphragm C. gluteus
B. Pectoral's D. Sternocleidomastoid

28
138. In case of severe hypotension due to dehydration the following drug/fluid can be
given:
A. D5W (dextrose)
B. Ringer lactate
C. Lasix
D. Phenoxy benzamine

139. The dose of Atracurium required to intubation adult patient is :

A. 1mg/kg
B. 0.5mg/kg
C. 1.5mg/kg
D. 0.1mglkg

140. According to the American society of anesthesiologist physical status

(ASAII)means:
A. Healthy patient
B. Patient with severe systemic disease
C. Moribund patient with threatening life disease
D. Patient with mild systemic disease

141. (1) par equals:

A. 1000cm H2O C. 500 cm H2O
B. 100 cm H2O D. 750 cm H2O

142. Function residual capacity (FRC) equals:

A. Total lung capacity + Tidal volume
B. Residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume + Residual volume
D. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
29
143. The following are pre-setting for pressure control ventilation EXEPT:
A. I/E ratio
B. Airway pressure
C. Frequency
D. Tidal volume

144. Physiologic dead space equals:

A. 1/2 tidal volume
B. 1/4 tidal volume
C. 1/3 tidal volume
D. 1/5 tidal volume

145. The term (P5O) means:

A. O2 tension at which hemoglobin is 50% saturated
B. O2 tension at sea level
C. O2 tension at 50 meter above sea level
D. O2 tension at 50% O2 concentration (Fi O2 =50%)

146. The normal (P5O) is:

A. 27 mm Hg
B. 50 m Hg
C. 90 mm Hg
D. 99 mm Hg

147. The blood unit can be diluted with the following fluid:
A. Lactated ringer
B. Normal saline (0.9%)
C. 1/2 normal saline (0.45%)
D. Dextrose (DSW)
30
148. The MOST dangerous cardiac arrhythmia is: ®
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Atrial premature contraction
C. Supra ventricular tachycardia
D. Ventricular fibrillation

149. The following drugs can be used to treat cardiac arrhythmia EXEPT:
A. Xylocaine 1 %
B. Amiodarone
C. Esmolol
D. Marcaine

150. The suitable endotracheal tube for thyroidectomy is:

A. RAE tube
B. Double lumen tube
C. Armored(reinforced) tube
D. Small size ordinary tube

151. The following are pre-setting for volume control ventilation except:
A. I / E ratio
B. Tidal volume
C. Airway pressure
D. Respiratory rate

152. the most common (EGG) lead used to monitor the heart during general anesthesia
is:
A. Lead I C. Lead aVR
B. Lead II D. Lead V6

31
153. The term (NPO) means:
A. Patient should fast
B. No drugs should be given
C. No premedication
D. No ( IV ) fluids should be given

154. Throat pack is usually inserted in the following case:

A. Mastectomy
B. Cleft palate repair
C. Spleenectomy
D. Open heart surgery

155. Injection of Suxamethonium to paraplegic patient causes the following:

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyponatermia

156. Etomidate is:

A. IV hypotonic
B. Analgesic
C. Muscle relaxant
D. Inhalation anesthetic

157. The following IV hypnotic has analgesic effect:

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Midazolam
D. Thiopentone
32
158. Modern anesthesia machines contain the following inhalation anesthetics except :
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ether

159. Modern anesthesia machines contain the following medical gas except :
A. Oxygen
B. Cyclopropane
C. Medical air
D. Nitrous oxide

160. The following drugs can be given through infusion pump except:
A. Insulin
B. Heparin
C. Antibiotics
D. Suxamethonium

161. The term (CPAP) means:

A. Positive air way pressure
B. Negative air way pressure
C. Continuous positive air way pressure
D. Positive air way pressure during inspiration

162. Labtalolis:
A. A vasopressor drug
B. A diuretic
C. A bronchial dilator
D. A hypertensive drug
33
163. In sickle cell disease the following hemoglobin is usually raised:
A. Hemoglobin A2
B. Carboxyl hemoglobin
C. Hemoglobin S
D. Hemoglobin A

164. The (IV) hypnotic that can be given through intramuscular injection is:
A. Propofol
B. Etomidate
C. Thiopentone
D. Ketamine

165. Ondansetron is: (Zofran):

A. Antiemetic
B. Anticoagulant
C. Antibiotic
D. Analgesic

166. Prolonged infusion of sodium nitroprosside causes:-

A. Chloride toxicity
B. Cyanide toxicity
C. Carbon monoxide toxicity
D. Hypokalemia

167. The best (IV) hypnotic for day case surgery is:
A. Propofol
B. Midazolam
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone
34
168. The treatment of choice for hypertensive patient due to hypervolemia is: ®
A. Hydralazine
B. Labetalol
C. Lasix
D. Esmolol infusion
169. Midazolam belongs to the following drug category:
A. Benzylisoquinoline
B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
C. Benzodiazepine
D. Tricyclic anti-depressant

170. In case of severe hypotension the following drug can be given:

A. Lasix
B. Captopril
C. Ephedrine
D. Atropine

171. The following (IV) hypnotic is not suitable for eye surgery:
A. Thiopentone
B. Diazepam
C. Ketamine
D. Etomidate

172. The best premedcant in pediatrics is:

A. Phenergan orally
B. Morphine (IM)
C. Ketamine (IM)
D. Midazolam orally

35
173. Heavy Marcaine 0.5% is used for
A. Epidural anesthesia
B. Spinal anesthesia
C. Peripheral nerve block
D. Brachial plexus block

174. Marcaine 0.5% contain:

A. Marcaine 50mg/ml
B. Marcaine 5mg/ml
C. Marcaine 0.5mg/ml
D. Marcaine 500mg/ml

175. In case of severe hypoglycemia the following fluid should be given :

A. Ringer lactate
B. Dextrose 5%+ 0.9%normal saline
C. Dextrose 50%
D. Normal saline

176. The following analgesic causes respiratory depression:

A. Paracetamol
B. Aspirin
C. Morphine
D. Ketoprofen

177. The term (COPD) means:

A. Chronic restrictive pulmonary disease
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Continuous positive airway pressure
D. Continuous positive end expiratory pressure
36
178. One of the following produces bronchodilator in asthmatic patient:
A. Propranolol
B. Atracurium
C. Morphine
D. Isoflurane

179. Which of the following is not one of the monitoring systems:

A. pulse oximetry
B. ECG lead II
C. CVP central venous pressure catheter
D. Electric diathermy

180. Dopamine:
A. Is naturally present in the body
B. Decrease blood pressure
C. Does not stimulates D1 and D2 receptors
D. used in treatment of diabetic patients

181. Atropine:
A. Decrees secretion
B. Increase abdominal colic
C. Cannot crosses BBB
D. Decrease heart rate

182. When endotracheal tube is introduced in esophagus

A. ETCO2 is the most diagnostic method
B. Detected by pulse oximetry
C. central venous pressure is decreased
D. Peripheral nerve stimulator is of great value
37
183. Ephedrine :
A. Is Vasopressor
B. Increase blood pressure
C. used in spinal shock
D. All of above

184. Non depolarizing muscle relaxants are reversed by:

A. cholinesterase inhibitors
B. succinylcholine
C. Pseudocholine esterase
D. Acetylcholine

185. Treatment of intra-arterial thiopentone injection is:

A. heparin
B. Subcutaneous Xylocaine
C. Potent analgesic
D. All of above

186. The proper patient position during laparoscopic abdominal operations is:
A. left lateral (side) position
B. Sitting position
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone position

187. Traction on extra ocular muscle leads to (oculucardiac reflex):

A. tachycardia
B. Supra ventricular tachycardia
C. Reflex bradycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
38
188. Pheochromocytoma ‫ ورم في الغده الكضريه‬manifested by®
A. sever malignant hypertension
B. sever hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Anemia

189. Which agent is the best antiemetic?

A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C. cimetidine
D. Ranitidine

190. Insulin is
A. anticoagulant
B. Analgesic
C. Antipyretic
D. Hypoglycemic

191. All of the following are Antihypertensive EXCEPT:

A. nitroglycerine
B. phenylephrine
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. phentolamine(regetine)

192. Mepredine (Pethidine) is:

A. Diuretic
B. Muscle relaxant
C. Hypnotic
D. Analgesic
39
193. Atracurium is metabolized in:
A. liver
B. Kidney
C. Blood
D. Nerve endings

194. The following inhalational anesthetic has pleasant smell:

A. Isoflurane
B. Enflurane
C. Halothane
D. Desflurane

195. Ketamine is used in

A. Induction of anesthesia in Asthmatic patients
B. Pediatric anesthesia
C. Shocked patients anesthesia
D. All of above

196. (FRC) means

A. Functional residual capacity
B. Forced residual capacity
C. Final renal concentration
D. None of above

197. Inadequate analgesia produces

A. hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperthermia
40
198. Propranolol is:
A. Alpha blocker
B. Beta blocker
C. Alpha agonist
D. Beta agonist

199. The following can be given through the endotracheal tube during CPR
A. Adrenaline
B. Lidocaine
C. Vecuronium
D. Thiopental

200. One of the following is not a diuretic:

A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Ropivacaine
D. Acetazolamide

201. The best to relieve status asthmatics is:

A. IV aminophylline
B. Atropine
C. Inderal
D. Subcutaneous adrenaline

202. Neostigmine reverses the action of :

A. succinylcholine
B. Naloxone
C. pancuronium
D. Mepivacaine
41
203. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAI) drugs:
A. Inhibit prostaglandin E
B. Block spinal nerve roots
C. Interrupt pain pathway in spinal cord
D. stimulate release of endorphin and encephalin

204. Inderal
A. produce bronchospasm
B. used in treatment of Thyrotoxicosis
C. used in treatment of tachycardia
D. All of above

205. You check vital signs during recovery every:

A. 15 min
B. 10 min
C. 5 min
D. 30 min

206. All the following are true about injection of spinal anesthesia except
A. Done on the sitting and supine position
B. Only median a broach is used
C. Tuohy needle is used
D. The needle sizes range from 20 – 29

207. Rapid sequence inductions (used with aspiration expectancy) is characterized by

A. 5 min of Preoxygenation
B. No use of manual ventilation
C. Cricoid pressure
D. All of these
42
208. To prevent aortocaval compression syndrome (in C.S) no need to:
A. Postpone the surgery
B. Pre load with 1 L of I.V fluid
C. Pout the patient in left lateral supine position
D. Use vaso pressers

209. All these are true about caesarean section except

A. Epidural is preferable
B. Opioids are used with induction
C. There is high risk of aspiration
D. Halothane can cause bleeding

210. Which is true regarding diabetes mellitus?

A. Always use dextrose for intra operative I.V fluids
B. The insulin dose should not be taken in the day of operation
C. Keep level between 120 – 200 mg\dl
D. Hypovolemia is preferred for them

211. Myocardial infarction is

A. Not expected in hypertensive patients
B. Diagnosed with nerve stimulator
C. A cause of surgery postponing and medical consultation
D. More common in pediatrics

212. A chilled of 6 years old should have EET with

A. 5.5 mm internal diameter (4+ age/4)
B. 17 cm cut length (14+ age/2)
C. No cuff (more than 10 years or 30 Kg)
D. All of these
43
213. The anticonvulsants induction agent with possibility of laryngeal and bronchial
spasm and hypotension is
A. Morphine
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Propranolol

214. which of the following is not good for the asthmatic patient
A. Deep anesthesia
B. I.V Hydrocortisone
C. Ketamine
D. Atracurium

215. which of the following is true regarding replacement of the blood loss
A. Blood transfusion should start when the loss is 20 % or 1 L
B. When crystalloids are used the same volume should be given
C. Blood products are not used
D. Colloids have the least efficacy

216. The benefits of the intra operative urine output measurement are
A. Diuretic therapy guidance
B. Ensure normal renal functions
C. Indicator of I.V fluids adequacy
D. All of these

217. The cylinder which is attached to anesthesia machine is:

A. G C. E
B. D D. F

44
218. Regarding induction of anesthesia with inhalational agents which true from the
following
A. Used in Slick's maneuver
B. Isoflurane is the agent of choice and it used in difficult intubation
C. Faster than induction with I.V agents
D. Common in adults

219. The accurate intra operative fluids is calculated depending upon

A. Fasting hours
B. Daily requirement
C. Intra operative loss (evaporation and bleeding)
D. All of these

220. One of the indications of muscle relaxants use is

A. Short operations
B. Hand surgery
C. Mechanical ventilation use
D. All of these

221. Main therapy of Scholine apnea (Succinylcholine prolonged respiratory arrest) is

A. Cholinesterase inhibitors
B. Family history
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. None of these

222. The packed RBCs concentration of hematocrite is:

A. 40% C. 70%
B. 60% D. 80%

45
223. A. 2 years – child with cerebral palsy with known gastroesophageal reflex is
scheduled to undergo iliopsoas release under general anesthesia. Which of the following
would be the most appropriate technique for induction general anesthesia in this
patient?
A. Inhalational Induction with sevoflurane followed by the mask anesthesia with cricoid
pressure
B. Induction with sevoflurane followed by tracheal intubation
C. Rapid – sequence induction with Thiopental and Scholine with followed by tracheal
intubation
D. Intravenous induction with propofol and atracurium followed by the tracheal
intubation

224. The hetastarch affect platelet by:

A. Dilute the platelets
B. Diluting the coagulating factor
C. Decrease the function of platelets
D. All of the above

225. The patient with full stomach is not longer at risk of aspiration
A. Once fully relaxed with non depolarizing muscle relaxant
B. After the stomach has been decompressed with a nasogastric tube
C. If he or she is going on the endotracheal tube prior to extubation
D. When rapid sequence induction is followed

226. Maintenance fluid requirements for a 24- K child are

A. 24ml/h
B. 30 ml/h
C. 54ml/h
D. 64ml/h
46
227. The typical 2- years-old child should be intubated with an endotracheal tube having
an internal diameter of
A. 3 mm
B. 3.5mm
C. 4.5mm
D. 5.5mm

228. Signs of inadequate anesthesia include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Eyelid movement
B. Pupillary constriction (miosis)
C. sweating
D. limb movement

229. The most important site of drug transformation is usually the

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. Spleen

230. Which of the following is not considered endocrine gland?

A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Adrenal gland

231. The most important goal in the treatment of diabetic patient undergoing anesthesia
is to
A. Keep blood sugar in normal range
47
 B. Prevent hyperglycemia
C. Prevent hypoglycemia
D. Prevent Ketoacidosis

232. Total body water in an adult constitutes

A. 60% of body weight
B. 40% of body weight
C. 30% of body weight
D. 20% of body weight
233. Body temperature may change intraoperative because of all the following EXCEPT
A. Exposure of the body surface
B. Intravenous fluids
C. Oxygen concentration
D. Humidity of inspired gas

234. The tracheal tube cuff must be preventing aspiration and must not inflate too much
to avoid tissue damage the pressure must be:
A. 5 mmHg
B. 20 mm Hg
C. 40 mmHg
D. 60 mmHg

235. Recognition of hypoxemia in the recovery room

A. Depends on the detection of cyanosis
B. Depends on the detection of apnea
C. Depends on the detection on circulatory Reponses
D. Is best monitored with pulse oximetery

236. In the recovery the adequacy of O2 measured by:

48
 A. Cyanosis
B. Pulse oximeter
C. Not measured

237. Adequacy of alveolar ventilation is determined measuring

A. Oxygen tension
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Carbon dioxide tension
D. Cardiac output

238. The principle muscle of aspiration is

A. Diaphragm
B. Intercostals
C. Abdominals
D. Scalenes

239. Humidification of inhaled air or gases is

A. More efficient with endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube in place
B. At is optimum with patient breathing through the nose
C. More efficient with an open system than a closed system
D. Increase with the administration of atropine

240. The position of tip of the CVP can be confirmed by all below methods Except :
A. X-ray
B. Pressure monitoring
C. Doppler monitoring while injection 1ml of air
D. Echocardiogram

49
241. When inserting a CVP line
A. Air embolism may occur
B. The tip should be placed in the right atrium
C. Use of external jugular vein causes many of major complications
D. The left side of neck is preferred

242. Regarding CVP, which of the following is false?

A. Catheter should be inserted into the right atrium
B. Causes increase in BP
C. It is used to measure fluids

243. In the circulation system, which of these parameters is important?

A. O2 consumption C. T.V
B. R.R D. C.V.P

244. The preoperative ECG can be used to detect all of the following EXCEPT
A. Chamber enlargement
B. Ischemic heart disease
C. Electrolyte disturbances
D. Valvular heart disease

245. Sinus bradycardia

A. Is serious arrhythmia when seen during anesthesia
B. Is an irregular rhythm
C. Always requires treatment
D. Is characterized by rate of 40-60 beats per minute

50
246. Technical difficulties in treating patients with morbid obesity include all of the
following EXCEPT :
A. Spuriously low blood pressure cuff reading
B. Difficulties venous access
C. Difficulties intubation and airway maintenance with mask
D. Difficulty with nerve block

247. The average unit of packed red cell, processed by centrifugation , has a hematocrit
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%

248. In a 12- years –old child the length of an endotracheal tube ( from the lips to the
trachea) should be :
A. 12 cm
B. 14cm
C. 16 cm
D. 18 cm

249. Uncuffed endotracheal tubes are usually preferred for children younger than age .
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 8 years
D. 10 years

51
250. Drugs considered suitable for anesthetized patients who are susceptible to malignant
hyperthermia include all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Lidocaine D. vecuronium
B. N2O
C. Halothane

251. Gastric emptying is decreased by all of the following EXCEPT :

A. Pain
B. Narcotics
C. Ethanol
D. Cigarette smoking

252. Which of the following medications may be efficacious for Treatment of nausea in
patients who have received spinal anesthesia ?
A. Droperidol
B. Oxygen
C. Ephedrine ( if hypotension)
D. Phentolamin

253. The most common reason for admitting out patients to the hospital following
general anesthesia is
A. Inability to void
B. Inability to ambulate
C. Surgical pain
D. Nausea and vomiting

52
254. The lower limb nerve which is the most commonly damaged during anesthesia is:
A. Femoral nerve
B. anterior tibial
C. greater sciatic
D. common peroneal nerve

255. Allergic reactions occurring the immediate peri-operative period are most
commonly attributable to administration of
A. Muscle relaxants
B. local anesthetics
C. Antibiotics
D. Opioids

256. All of the following is component of the post – Anesthetic Discharge Scoring System
(PADSS) used to evaluate suitability of a patient to be discharged from an ambulatory
surgical facility EXCEPT :
A. Drinking
B. Ambulation
C. Nausea and vomiting

257. The most sensitive early sign of malignant hyperthermia during general anesthesia
is
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Fever
D. Increased end – expired CO2 tension

258. A 3 – years - old child scheduled for tonsillectomy. Clear liquid may be consumed
up to how many hours preoperatively
53
 A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

259. Which of the following peripheral nerves is most likely to become injurer in patients
who under general anesthesia?
A. ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. radial nerve
D. Common peroneal nerve

260. Which of the following intravenous fluids can be used to decrease the viscosity of
packed RBCs?
A. D5W ( 5% dextrose in water )
B. D10 W ( 10% dextrose in water )
C. Normal saline
D. Lactated ranger

261. Which of the following is isotonic solution?

A. Dextrose 10%
B. Normal saline 0.9%
C. Dextrose water
D. Normal saline 1.8%

262. All of the following are the classic signs of hemolytic transfusion reaction in patients
under general anesthesia EXCEPT :

54
 A. Generalized bleeding
B. Hypotension
C. Hemoglobinuria
D. Fever

263. When we put the packet RBCs in room temperature, the platelet is:
A. Destroyed
B. Diluted
C. Malfunction
D. Increase platelets life span

264. The rational of storage of platelets at room temperature ( 22c) is

A. It maintains platelet count
B. It optimize platelet function
C. It reduce chance of infection
D. It reduce the incidence of allergic reaction

265. An infant of 10kg weight, the blood volume is:

A. 650 ml
B. 800 ml
C. 1100 ml
D. 1300 ml

266. Proper processing of platelet concentration ( to avoid future hemolytic transfusion

reaction ) before administration involves
A. Type and cross match
55
 B. ABO and Rh matching
C. Rh matching only
D. ABO matching only

267. Which of the following volatile anesthetics contain preservatives?

A. Sevoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Isoflurane D. Halothane

268. The reason desflurane is not used for inhalational induction in clinical practice is
because of
A. Its propensity to produce hypertension in high concentrations
B. Is propensity to produce airway irritability
C. Its propensity to produce tachyarrhythmias
D. Its propensity to produce nodal rhythms

269. During spontaneous breathing , volatile anesthetics

A. Increase VT and decrease reparatory rate
B. Increase VT and increase reparatory rate
C. Decrease VT and decrease reparatory rate
D. Decrease VT and Increase reparatory rate

270. The laryngeal mask airway

A. Protects against respiration
B. May prevent airway obstruction during monitoring anesthesia care
C. Requires rigid or flexible fiber – optic laryngoscope for proper placement
D. Permits positive pressure – ventilation

271. Venous air embolism can be detected by all the following EXCEPT :
A. Alternation in heart sound detected by the Precordial Doppler
56
 B. Decrease in expired carbon dioxide on capnometer
C. Increase in expired nitrogen measure by mass spectroscopy
D. Decrease in oxygen saturation indicated by oximeter

272. A Capnometer may detect

A. Exhaustion of carbon dioxide absorbent
B. Malfunction of an open scavenging system
C. Delivery of hypoxic gas mixture
D. Disconnection of wall oxygen supply

273. The suction port of fiber – optic bronchoscope may be used to do all of the following
except :
A. Administration of oxygen
B. Spray local anesthetic
C. Aspiration tracheal secretion
D. Ventilate the patient during bronchoscopy

274. Nasopharyngeal airways are contraindicated in the patient with these conditions
EXCEPT:
A. Nasal polyps
B. Infection of nasopharynx
C. The jaw wired shout
D. A very low platelet

275. When using Macintosh blade of laryngoscopy , the

A. Epiglottis is left directly
B. Laryngoscope is held in the right hand

57
 C. Blade insert the mouth on the right side
D. Tip is advanced into the vallecula

276. All of the following are true of the lithotomy position EXEPT:
A. The back is supine
B. The knee is flexed
C. The hips are flexed
D. The legs are internally rotated

277. lithotomy position is:

A. neck flexion
B. hip flexion
C. leg internal rotation
D. shoulder flexion

278. Overfilling of a vaporizer

A. Will cause the vaporizer not function
B. Will yield a concentration of agent lower than that dialed
C. Io not likely with modern vaporizers
D. Will decrease oxygen delivery

279. The indicator in carbon dioxide absorbent is:

A. Methylene blue
B. Ethyl violet
C. Bromthymol blue
D. Phenolphthalein

58
280. Electocautery machines do not cause ventricular fibrillation because the current
they deliver differs from the electric current supplied by wall electrical outlet
primarily by being
A. Direct current
B. Low voltage
C. Low in frequency
D. High in frequency

281. A mechanism used to reduced The pressure of a gas from a compressed gas
cylinder to a usable, nearly constant pressure is
A. A gage
B. A Flowmeter
C. An Indicator
D. A Regulator

282. An open waste gas scavenging system

A. Must have a negative – pressure relief valve
B. Must have a positive – pressure relief valve
C. Must connected to a source of vacuum
D. Does not need a reservoir

283. The position best tolerated by the surgical patient is the

A. Lithotomy position
B. Prone position
C. Horizontal Supine position
D. Trendelenburg position

284. The negative pressure leak test

59
 A. Is accomplished by the having the clinician apply mouth suction to the tubing
connected to the common gas outlet
B. Reliably finds leaks in the carbon dioxide absorber
C. Is only appropriate for anesthesia machines containing a check valve downstream
from the vaporizer
D. May detect internal vaporizer leak

285. In closed- circuit anesthesia , the one parameter that must be met is the
A. Tidal volume
B. Minute volume
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen consumption

286. The oxygen tanks on anesthesia machine are

A. G tanks
B. M tanks
C. E tanks
D. D tanks

287. Regarding intra-arterial BP monitoring we insert transducer and then connect tube
which is false:
A. air bubble must be removed from the tube
B. the tube must be of short length
C. tube lower resistance from inside
D. tube soft materials

288. Which of the following is not colloid solution?

60
 A. 5% albumin
B. 20% albumin
C. 6% heptastich
D. 7.5% sodium chloride

289. patients with PCO2 of 40mmhg and HCO3 of 24 m/ml the PH are:
A. Normal range
B. 7.3 and causes is respiratory
C. 7.3 and causes is metabolic
D. 7.5 and cause is metabolic

290. Renal blood supply is:

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 21%
D. 45%

291. Which of the following solutions is not colloid?

A. Albumin
B. Hetastarch
C. N.S
D. Dextran

292. Wrist drop may result in:

A. Radial nerve injury
B. Ulnar nerve injury
C. Median nerve injury
D. Musclocutanious nerve injury

61
293. In the patient full stomach which of this factor element the hazard of aspiration:
A. N.G tube
B. Rapid sequence induction
C. Metoclopramide
D. All of the above

294. Stage 2 anesthesia can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT :

A. Amnesia
B. Purposeless
C. Hypoventilation
D. Disconjugation

295. The term MAC refers to :

A. The minimum alveolar concentration
B. A measurement not affected by age
C. The maximum alveolar concentration
D. The maximum alveolar tension

296. In (TURP) the irrigation fluid level above the patient must not exceed.
A. 0.5 meter
B. 1.5 meter
C. 1 meter only
D. Just above the patient level

62