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Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT- VI 111VERSION
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
A1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 4. A charged particle expe riences

1. Force on a current carrying closed loop
(Radius = R) in a uniform magnetic
field (B) which is at an angle 30o with
the normal will be
magnetic force in the presence of
magnetic field. Which of the following
statement is correct?
1) The particle is stationary and
magnetic field is perpendicular

1) zero 2) The particle is moving and magnetic

field is perpendicular to the velocity

2) 2 RiB 3) The particle is stationary and

3) 2 3 RiB
4) RiB
2. A proton is projected with a uniform
velocity v along the axis of a current
carrying solenoid, then
1) the proton will be accelerated along
the axis
2) the proton path will be circular about
the axis
3) the proton moves along helical path
4) the proton will continue to move with
velocity v along the axis
3. When a magnetic field is applied on a
stationary electron, it
magnetic field is parallel
4) The particle is moving and magnetic
field is parallel to velocity
5. A charge q moves with a velocity 2ms 1
along  x-axis in a uniform magnetic
field B   ˆi  2jˆ  3kˆ  T , then charge will
experience a force
1) in z-y plane 2) along –y axis
3) along +z axis 4) along –z axis
6. Ionized hydrogen atoms and  -
particles with same momenta enters
perpendicular to a constant magnetic
field, B. The ratio of their radii of their
paths rH : r will be
1) 1 : 4 2) 2 : 1
3) 1 : 2 4) 4 : 1
7. Assertion : Magnetic force can not
change kinetic energy of a moving
charge
Reason : Magnetic force can not
change velocity vector.

1) remains stationary 1) Both assertion and reason are true

2) spins about its own axis
3) moves in the direction of the field
4) moves perpendicular to the direction
of the field
and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the corre ct
explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true and reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 2 Brilliant
8. Given below are two statements: 10.
Statement I : Biot-Savart’s law gives
us the expression for the magnetic field
strength of an infinitesimal current
element  Id  of a current carrying
conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart’s law is
analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square
law of charge q, with the former being
related to the field produced by a scalar
11.
source, Id while the latter being
produced by a vector source, q
In light of above statements choose the
most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct and
Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect and
Statement II is correct
9. A current I is flowing through the loop.
12.
The direction of the current and the
shape of the loop are as shown in the
figure. The magnetic field at the centre
0 I
of the loop is times
R
STUDY CENTRE
The magnetic field at the centre of a
circular coil carrying current I ampere
is B. If the coil is bent into smaller
circular coil of n turns, its magnetic
field at the centre is B'. The ratio
between B' and B is
1) 1 : 1 2) n : 1
3) n2 : 1 4) 2n : 1
An inductor coil stores 32 J of magnetic
field energy and dissipates energy as
heat as 320 W, when a current of 4A
is passed through it. The self
inductance L and resistor R of the coil
are
1) L  2H, R  4
2) L  4H, R  5
3) L  4H, R  20
4) L  0.5H,R  20
A long solenoid of 50 cm length having
100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A.
The magnetic field at the centre of the
solenoid is   0  4  10 7 T mA 1 
1) 6.28  104 T 2) 3.14  104 T

3) 6.28  105 T 4) 3.14  105 T

13. Two parallel infinitely long current

carrying wires are shown in figure. If
resultant magnetic field at point ‘A’ is
 MA  R, MB  2R, DMA  90o  zero. Then determine current I

5
1) , but out of the plane of the paper
16

5
2) , but into the plane of the paper
16

7
3) , but out of the plane of the paper
16
1) 50 A 2) 15 A
7
4) , but into the plane of the paper
16 3) 30 A 4) 25 A
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
14. The force between two parallel current 18. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points
carrying wires is independent of A and B along its axis at distances of
24 cm and 48 cm on the opposite sides
1) their distance of separation as shown in figure.
2) the length of the wires

3) the magnitude of currents

4) the radii of the wires

15. A current loop in a magnetic field Ratio of magnetic fields at these points
will be
1) can be in equilibrium in two
orientations, both the equilibrium 1
states are unstable 1) 8 2)
2
2) can be in equilibrium in two
3) 3 4) 4
orientation. One is stable and the other
is unstable. 19. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a
magnetic field requires W units of work
3) experiences a torque whether the
to turn it through 60 o. The torque
field is uniform or non-uniform in all
needed to maintain the needle in this
orientations
position will be
4) can never be in equilibrium
orientation 1) 3W 2) W

16. A galvanometer of resistance 100 is  3

converted to a voltmeter of range 10 V 3)  W 4) 2 W
 2 
by connecting a resistance of 10 k .
The resistance required to convert the 20. An iron rod of length L and magnetic
same galvanometer to an ammeter of moment M is bent in the form of a
range 1 A is semicircle. Now its magnetic moment
will be
1) 0.4 2) 0.3
2M
3) 1.2  4) 0.1 1) M 2)


17. A voltmeter of resistance 20000  reads M

5 volt. To make it read 20 volt, the 3) 4) M

extra resistance required is
21. A bar magnet has length 3 cm, cross-
1) 40000  in parallel sectional area 2 cm 2 and magnetic
moment 3 A m 2 . The intensity of
2) 60000  in parallel magnetisation of bar magnet is

3) 60000  in series 1) 2  105 A / m 2) 3  105 A / m

4) 40000  in series 3) 4  105 A / m 4) 5  105 A / m

FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
22. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is 26. Whe n an additional re sistance of
subjected to a magnetising field of 1980 is connected in series with a
1200Am 1 . The permeability of the voltmeter, the scale division has 100
material of the rod is times larger value. Resistance of the
 0  4  107 TmA 1  voltmeter Rv is

1) 10
1) 2.4  104 TmA 1
2) 20 
2) 8.0  10 TmA
5 1

3) 30 
3) 2.4   10 5 TmA 1
4) 40 

4) 2.4   10 7 TmA 1 27. A susceptibility of a certain magnetic

material is 400. What is the class of
23. When the temperature of a magnetic the magnetic material?
material decreases, the magnetization
1) Ferromagnetic
1) decreases in a diamagnetic material 2) Diamagnetic

2)decreases in a paramagnetic material 3) Ferroelectric

3)decreases in a fe rromagnetic 4) Paramagnetic

material 28. Two identical circular coils A and B
are kept on a horizontal tube side by
4) remains the same in a diamagnetic
side without touching each other. If
material
the current in the coil A increases with
time, in response, the coil B
24. Time period of a freely suspended
magnet does not depend upon 1) is attracted by A

1) Length of the magnet 2) remains stationary

2) Pole strength of the magnet 3) is repelled

4) rotates
3) Horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field 29. The normal magnetic flux passing
through a coil changes with time
4) Length of the suspension thread
according to the equation   6t 2  5t  1 .
25. At Curie point, a ferromagnetic What is the magnitude of the induced
material becomes current at t = 0.253 s and resistance
10  ?
1) non-magnetic
1) 1.2 A
2) diamagnetic
2) 0.8 A
3) paramagnetic 3) 0.6 A
4) strongly ferromagnetic 4) 0.2 A
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
30. An electron moves on a straight line 34. The self inductance of a coil plays the
path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil same role as
adjacent to the path of electron. What
will be the direction of current, if any, 1) mass in mechanics
induced in the coil? 2) energy in mechanics

3) momentum in mechanics

4) force in mechanics

35. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil

of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux
linked with the coil is

1) 0.5 Wb 2) 12.5 Wb
1) The current will reverse its direction
as the electron goes past the coil 3) zero 4) 2 Wb
2) No current induced 36. The mutual inductance between two
coils depends upon
3) abcd
1) the medium between the coils only
4) adcb
2) the separation between the
31. In which of the following devices, the coils only
eddy current effect is not used?
3) medium, orientation and separation
1) electric heater
4)neither the medium nor the
2) induction furnace separation
3) magnetic braking in train
37. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200
4) electromagnetic damping V, 50Hz ac supply. The rms value of
the current in the circuit is, nearly
32. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When
a current of 4 A flows through it, the 1) 1.7 A
magnetic flux linked with each turn of
2) 2.05 A
the solenoid is 4  103 Wb . The self-
inductance of the solenoid is 3) 2.5 A

1) 2 H 2) 1 H 4) 25.1 A

3) 4 H 4) 3 H 38. A small signal voltage V  t   V0 sin t is

33. Two coils have a mutual inductance
0.005H. The current changes in the
first coil according to the equation
i  i m sin t where i m  10A and
  100rads 1 . The maximum value of
the emf induced in the second coil is
applied across an ideal capacitor C
1) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage
V(t)
2) Cu r r en t I(t ) leads volt age V(t ) by 180 o
3) Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90o

1) 5 2) 4 4) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does

not consume any energy from the
3) 2 4)  voltage source
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
39. In a LCR oscillatory circuit, find the 44. A long straight wire carries a current
energy stored in inductor at resonance of 32A. What is the magnitude of the
if voltage of source is 10 V, resistance field B at a point 20cm from the wire ?
is 10  and inductance = 1 H.
1) 3.2  10 4 T
1) 0.5 J 2) 2 J
2) 1.2  10 4 T
3) 4 J 4) 10 J

40. If an LCR series circuit is connected 3) 3.2  10 5 T

to an ac source, then at resonance the
voltage across
1) R is zero
2) R equals the applied voltage
3) C is zero
4) L equals the applied voltage
4) 1.2  10 5 T
45. Equal currents are flowing in two
infinitely long wires lying along x and
y-axes in the directions shown in
figure. Match the following two
columns

41. The potential difference across the

resistance capacitance and inductance
are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively
in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor
of this circuit is

1) 0.4 2) 0.5

3) 0.8 4) 1.0

42. An average induced emf of 0.2V appears

in a coil when the current in it is
changed from 5A in one direction to
5A in opposite direction in 0.2s. The 1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-s
self inductance of the coil is:
2) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-s
1) 1 mH 2) 2 mH
3) a-q, b-s, c-s, d-r
3) 3 mH 4) 4 mH
4) a-q, b-r, c-r, d-r
43. A step down transformer connected to
an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to CHEMISTRY
operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring
power losses in the transformer, what 46. If the rate of the reaction is equal to
is the current in the primary circuit? the rate constant, the order of the
reaction is
1) 4 A
1) 3
2) 0.2 A
2) 0
3) 0.4 A
3) 1
4) 2 A
4) 2
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
47. For a chemical reaction A  B , the
rate of reaction doubles when the
concentration of A is increased four
times. The order of reaction for A is
7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
51. For a particular gaseous reaction, a
graph was plotted as shown below. It
shows that the reaction of A is

1) Zero 2) One

3) Two 4) Half [A]

48. Which of the following is incorrect

about order of reaction?
t
1) It is calculated experimentally
1) Zero-order w.r.t A
2) It is sum of powers of concentration
in rate law expression 2) First-order w.r.t A

3) The order of reaction cannot be 3) Second-order w.r.t A

fractional
4) A non-integer order w.r.t. A
4) There is not nece ssarily a
connectio n betwee n orde r and 1
52. For the reaction, N 2 O5  2NO 2  O2 .
stoichiometry of a reaction 2
49. A catalyst increases rate of reaction d  NO 2 
by Given values are   k1  N 2 O 5 
dt
1) Decreasing enthalpy d  NO 2  d O2 
 k 2  N 2 O5  ,  k 3  N 2 O5 
2) Decreasing activation energy dt dt
Then the relation between k1, k2 and
3) Decreasing value of equilibrium k3 is
constant
1) k1 = k2 = k3
4) Increasing activation energy
2) 3k1 = k2 = 2k3
50. The temperature dependance of rate
3) 2k1 = 4k2 = k3
constant (k) of a chemical reaction is
written in terms of Arrhenius equation 4) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3
k  A.e  Ea / RT , Activation energy Ea of the 53. For a first-order reaction, t0.75 is 138.6
reaction can be calculated by plotting seconds. Its specific reaction rate
constant (in sec–1) is
1) log k vs T 1
1) 10–2 2) 10–4
1 3) 10–5 4) 10–6
2) log k vs
log T
54. For the first-order reaction half-life is
14s. The time required for the initial
3) k vs T concentration to reduce to 1/8th of its
value is
1
4) k vs 1) 21 s 2) 32 s
log T
3) 42 s 4) 142 s
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
55. The rate constant of a first-order 59. During the kine tic study of the
reaction: A  Products , is 60 × 10–4s–1. reaction, 2A  B  C  D , followe d
Its rate at [A] = 0.01 mol L–1 would be results were obtained

1) 60 × 10–6 mol L–1 min–1

2) 36 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1 Initial rate of

[A] [B]
formation of
3) 60 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 mol L1 molL1
D / mol L1 min 1
4) 36 × 10–1 mol L–1 min–1 I 0.1 0.1 6.0  10 3
II 0.3 0.2 7.2  10 2
56. The half-life of a chemical reaction at
III 0.3 0.4 2.88  10 1
a particular concentration is 50 min,
when the concentration of reactants IV 0.4 0.1 2.40  10 2
is doubled, the half-life becomes 100
min. Find the order
Based on the above data, which one of
1) Zero the following is correct?

2) First 1) Rate = k[A] [B]2

3) Second
2) Rate = k[A]2 [B]
4) Third
3) Rate = k[A] [B]
57. The reaction X  Product follows first-
order kinetics, 40 minutes, the 4) Rate = k[A]2 [B]2
concentration of X changes from 0.1
M to 0.025 M, then the rate of reaction 60. The aqueous solution containing which
when concentration of X is 0.01 M is one of the following ions will be
colourless?
1) 3.47 × 10–5 M/min
1) Sc3+
2) 1.73 × 10–4
M/min
2) Fe3+
3) 1.73 × 10–5 M/min
3) Fe2+
4) 3.47 × 10–4 M/min

58. The rate constant of a reaction is 4) Mn2+

1.5 × 107 s–1 at 27°C and 3 × 107 s–1 at
127°C. What is the value of activation 61. Which of the following pairs of ions
energy? (2.303 R  19 JK–1 mol–1) have same paramagnetic moment?

1)18.3 kJ mol–1 1) Cu2+, Ti3+

2) 1.287 kJ mol–1 2) Ti3+, Ni2+

3) 6.84 kJ mol–1
3) Ti4+, Cu2+
4) 3.42 kJ mol–1
4) Mn2+, Cu2+
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 9 Brilliant
62. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due
to
1) The appreciable shielding of outer
electrons by 3f electrons from the
nuclear charge
2) The appreciable shielding on outer
electrons by 5d electrons from the
nuclear charge
STUDY CENTRE
67. Which of the following statement is not
correct?
1) In lanthanide series ionic radius of
Ln3+ ion decreases
2) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
3) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same
because of lanthanide contraction

3) The same effective nuclear charge 4) La is actually an e le me nt of

from Ce to Lu transition series rather lanthanides

4) The imperfect shielding of outer 68. The basic character of the transition
electrons by 4f electrons from the metal monoxides follows the order
nuclear charge
1) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
63. What is the ge neral outer
configuration of the coinage metals? 2) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

1) ns2 np6 3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO

2) (n –1) d9 ns2 4) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO

3) (n –1) d10 ns1 69. The corre ct IUPAC name of the

complex,  Co  NH 3 5  CO3   Cl is
4) (n – 1) d10 ns2

64. The product formed on oxidation of I– 1) Pentaamminecarbonylcobalt(III)

chloride
with MnO 4 in alkaline medium is
2) Amminepentacarbonylcobalt(III)
1) IO 
2) I2 chloride
4

3) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III)
3) IO– 4) IO 3 chloride

65. When MnO 2 is fused with KOH, a 4) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III)

coloured compound is formed. The chloride
product and its colour is
70. Which of the following Lanthanoid ions
1) K2MnO4, dark green is diamagnetic?

2) KMnO4, purple (At no. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63,

Yb = 70)
3) Mn2O3, brown
1) Ce2+ 2) Sm2+
4) Mn3O4, black
3) Yb2+ 4) Eu2+
66. Which of the following shows maximum
number of oxidation states? 71. Which of the following oxidation states
is the most common among the
1) Mn 2) V lanthanides?

3) Cr 4) Fe 1) +4 2) +2 3) +5 4) +3
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 10
72. Which of the following statements
about the interstitial compound formed
by transition metal is incorrect?
1) They are chemically reactive
2) They retain metallic conductivity
3) They are much harder than the pure
metal
4) They have higher melting points
than the pure metal
73. Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises
in coordination compounds containing
ambidentate ligand.
Reason : Ambidentate ligand has two
different donor atoms.
1) Assertion and Reason both are
correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
but the reason is not the corre ct
explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is correct but reason is
incorrect
4) Assertion is wrong statement but
the reason is correct statement
74. When acidified K 2 Cr 2 O 7 solution is
added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes
to
1) Sn
2) Sn3+
3) Sn4+
4) Sn +
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
75. Assertion (A) : KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 are
intensively coloured compounds.
Reason (R) : Transition me tal
compounds having e le ctrons in d
orbitals are generally coloured due to
d-d transition.
1) If both assertion and reason are true
and the reason is the co rrect
explanation of assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the co rrect
explanation of assertion.
3) If assertion is true but reason is
false.
4) If both assertion and reason are
false
76. EDTA is a .......... ligand
1) Tetradentate
2) Hexadentate
3) Bidentate
4) Tridentate
77. In the spectrochemical series, the
magnitude of the crystal field splitting
is maximum for which ion?
1) F– 2) NO 2
3) CN– 4) Cl–
78. The complex ion [Co(en)2Cl2]+ exhibits:
1) Optical isomeri sm and linkage
isomerism
2) Cis-trans isomerism and optical
isomerism
3) Cis-trans isomerism and linkage
isomerism
4) Cis-trans isomerism only
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
79. Assertion : Complexes of MX6, MX5L 82. Which of the following has the highest
type (X and L are unidentate ligand) molar conductivity?
do not show geometrical isomerism.
1) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Reason : Geometrical isomerism is not
shown by complexes of coordination 2) Hexaaquachromium(III)bromide
number 6.
3) Tetraamminedichloroplatinum(IV)
1) Assertion and Reason both are chloride
correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion 4) Potassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true 83. Oxidation state of metal in me tal
but the reason is not the correct carbonyls is
explanation of assertion
1) +1 2) 0
3) Assertion is correct but reason is
incorrect 3) –1 4) +2
4) Assertion is wrong statement but 84. The hybridisation in [Co(NH3)6]3+ is
the reason is correct statement
1) sp3 2) dsp2
3
80. In the co mplexe s  Fe  H 2 O 6  ,
3) d2sp3 4) sp3d2
 FeCl6 
3 3
 Fe  CN 6  ,  Fe  C 2 O 4 3 
3
and ,
85. Among the following ions which one
more stability is shown by has the highest paramagnetism

1)  FeCl6 
3
1)  Cr(H 2 O) 6  2)  Fe(H 2 O)6 
3 2

3
2)  Fe  C 2 O 4 3  2
3)  Cu(H 2 O) 6  4)  Zn  H 2 O 6 
2

3
3)  Fe  CN 6  86. The magnetic moment of nickel ion in
2
 Ni  CN  4  is
3
4)  Fe  H 2 O 6 
1) 3.87 BM 2) 2.68 BM

81.  Co  NO 2  2  NH 3 4  Cl exhibits 2) 5.92 BM 4) 0

1) Linkage isomerism, ioni sation 87. The crystal field splitting energy for
isomerism and geometric isomerism octahedral  0  and  t  complexes
2) Ionisation isomerism, geometric is related to
isomerism and opticfal isomerism
4 1
3) Linkage isomerism, geometric 1)  t  0 2)  t  0
isomerism and optical isomerism 9 2

4) Linkage isomerism, ioni sation 4

isomerism and optical isomerism 3)  0  2 t 4)  0  t
9
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
88. The following reaction is first order BOTANY
with respect to A and first order with
respect to B. 91. The Bt endotoxin is coded by a
gene named
A  B 
 Pr oduct. Rate  k  A   B 1) ori 2) taq

3) lac 4) cry
I II
A 92.   I Antitrypsin is used to treat
B 1) Cystic fibrosis

2) Haemophilia
Relative rate of this reaction in vessel 3) Leukemia
I and II of equal volume is
4) Emphysema
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
93. The technique that is based on the
3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 4 principle of antigen – antibody reac-
tion is
89. The catalytic activity of the transition metals
and their compounds is ascribed to : 1) PCR 2) ELISA
1) Their chemical reactivity 3) ADA 4) RNAi
2) Their magnetic behaviour 94. The method of antisense RNA
technology can be used against
3) Their unfilled d-orbitals
1) Bacillus
4) Their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
states and their complexing ability 2) Meloidegyne

90. Match order of the reaction (in Column-I) with 3) Bollworm

the unit of rate constant (in Column-II)
4) Corn borer

95. The polio vaccine that is tested by

Column  I Column  II
using
A) Zero 1) L2 mol2s1
1) Bt maize
B) First 2) L mol1s 1
C) Second 3) mol L1s 1 2) alpha lactalbumin
D) Third 4) s 1 3) transgenic pig

4) transgenic mice
1) A  3; B  4; C  2; D  1
96. Bt cotton is resistant to
2) A  4; B  3; C  2; D  1 1) Necrosis

3) A  2; B  3; C  1; D  4 2) Mosaics

3) Rootknot
4) A  3; B  4; C  1; D  2
4) Boll Worms
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
97. Th e pro ce ss o f RN A i nt e r fe r e n ce 101. First gene therapy was done to cure :
(RNA i) has been used in the
development of plants resistant to 1) Diabetis

1) Nematodes 2) Haemophilia

2) Fungi 3) ADA deficiency

3) Algae 4) Muscular dystrophy

4) Weeds 102. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins

that control
98. Find out the mis-matching pair:
1) Cotton bollworms and cornborer
respectively
1 Humulin EliLilly 1986

2 First genetherapy ADA 1990 2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms

3 Rosie Transgenic cow 1997 respectively.
4 Army worm Dipterans Tobacco
3) Tobacco budworms and nematodes
respectively
1) 1 & 3 2) 1 & 4
4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms
3) 2 & 4 4) Only 1 respectively
99. An example of cellular defense 103. Which of the following gene is
mechanism is : responsible for the production of Bt
toxin for the control of cotton boll
1) GMO worms?
2) Production of Humulin
1) Cry I Ab 2) Cry I Ac
3) Gene therapy
3) Cry II Ab 4) Both 2 & 3
4) RNA interference
104. How many polypeptide chains are
100. Consider the following, and select the present in a mature insulin molecule
correct statement is

a) Bone narrow transplantation is one 1) 1 2) 2

of the remedial method of ADA
deficiency 3) 3 4) 4

b) Lactalbumin is the protein in human 105. Match the following

milk
a Agrobacterium 1 Inactive toxin
c) At present, 30 recombinant
therapeutics have been approved for b Bt. cotton 2 Plasmid
human use the world over c Insulin 3 ELISA
d E. Coli 4 Vector
1) Only a is true
e Molecular diagnosis 5 C-peptide
2) Only b is true

3) Both a & b are false abcde abcde abcde abcde

1) 2) 3) 4)
4) All are true 45321 41523 12345 54321
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
106. Bt toxin is pro duced by which
bacterium;
1) E. coli
2) Bacillus thuringiensis
3) Mycobacterium
4) Agrobacterium tumifacians
107. Which of the following is removed in
the maturation of proinsulin into
insulin
1) Hydrogen bonds
2) disulphide bonds
3) A peptide
4) C peptide
108. Miracle or Golden rice produces
1) Vitamin D
2) Vitamin B2
3) Vitamin E
4) Vitamin A
109. Eli Lilly, an American company pro-
duce insulin by introducing the DNA
sequences corresponding A and B in
the plasmid of E.coli in the year
1) 1883
2) 1983
3) 1980
4) 1990
110. Gene therapy means
1) Addition of faulty gene
2) Removal of normal gene
3) Addition of normal gene
4) Replacement of faulty gene by a
normal healthy gene
14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
111. Expanded form of GEAC
1) Genetic Engine ering Approval
Committee
2) Genetically Endangered Approval
Committee
3) Gene Extension Approval Committee
4) Genetic Engineering Approval Co-
operation
112. RNA interference (RNAi) techniques
involves
1) Destroying of specific DNA
2) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to
a complimentary tRNA molecule that
binds to and prevent translation of
mRNA
3) Duplicating of mRNA using a
complimentary ssRNA molecule
4) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to
a complimentary dsRNA molecule that
binds to and prevent translation of
mRNA
113. Which of these is used as vector in
gene therapy for SCID?
1) Adenovirus 2) Rhinovirus
3) TMV 4) Retrovirus
114. The largest nu mber of transgenic
animals existed are
1) Rabbit 2) Pig
3) Mice 4) Cow
115. The genetic de fect ade nosine
deaminase deficiency may be cured
permanently by
1) Introducing gene isolate from
marrow cells producing ADA into cells
at early embryonic stage
2) Enzyme replacement therapy
3) Periodic infusion of genetically
engineered lymphocytes having
functional ADA cDNA
4) Bone marrow transplantation
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
116. The novel strategy adopted to prevent 121. Prefix ‘Bt’ in Bt cotton stands for
the infestation of pests was based on
the process of 1) Barium treated cotton seeds

1) RNA interference 2) Bio-technologically produced using

restriction enzyme
2) DNA interference
3) Bigger-thread variety of cotton with
3) DNA transference better tensile strength

4) RNA transference 4) Variety of cotton having a toxin from

“Bacillus thuringenesis”
117. Mobile genetic elements are
122. Assertion : A crop expressing a cry
1) Primers gene is usually resistant to a group of
insects
2) Markers
Reason : Cry protein produced from
3) Transposons Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to
certain insects
4) Vectors
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
118. Which of the following is / are the and Reason is the correct explanation
biotechnological application in of Assertion
agriculture?
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
1) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic but Reason is not the correct explana-
stresses tion of Assertion

2) Reduced reliance on chemical 3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false

pesticides
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
3) Helped to reduce post harvest losses
123. Nematode specific genes were intro-
4) All of these duced in to tobacco plants in such a
way that it has to produce a
119. Rosie, the transgenic cow produce milk
with 1) ds DNA

1) Lactalbumin 2) ss DNA

2) Lactoferrin 3) ss RNA

3) Interleukin 4) ds RNA

4) Factor VIII 124. The human insulin consists of two

short polypeptide chains , chain - A
120. Patenting and selling Basmati rice by and chain – B are linked together
Ricetech of U.S.A. is an example of by

1) Biofertilizer 1) disulphide bond

2) Bioinsecticide 2) glycosidic bond

3) ph osph odiest er bon d
3) Bioprospecting
4) h ydr ogen bon d
4) Biopiracy
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

125. Bt toxin doesnot kill the bacillus, 128. Transgenic organisms are formed by
because
1) Crossing two hybrids
1) Bacillus has a specific gene to resist 2) Inducing mutation by chemicals
this toxin
3) Introducing foreign genes
2) Within the bacillus it exists as
4) Crossing genes of somatic cells of
inactive protoxin
same organism
3) Toxin is mature 129. Read the following statements
carefully and select the appropriate
4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a specific
option given below
sac
(i) Specific Bt toxin gene were isolated
126. The first step in production of insulin from Bacillus thuringiensis and incor-
using E.coli is porated into several crop plants such
as cotton
1) Isolation of mRNA transcribing for
insulin from pancreas cell (ii) Bt toxin gene has been cloned from
the plant and been expressed in bac-
2) Isolation of nucleotides transcribing teria to provide resistance to insects
for insulin from pancreas cell without the need for insecticide
3) Isolation of gene producing insulin (iii) Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals
from human DNA whose genes have been altered by
manipulation are called GMO.
4) Attachment of gene producing
insulin from human DNA to plasmid (iv) Using Agrobacterium vectors, ces-
using ligase tode specific gene were introduced into
the tobacco plant.
127. Match the following column -I with
(v) In gene therapy, genes are isolated
column -II and choose the correct
from the person’s cells and tissues to
option
treat a disease
1) (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Column - I Column -II 2) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
a vaccine 1 1990 3) (ii) and (iv) are incorrect
b insulin 2 E.coli 4) (iv) and (v) are incorrect
c gene therapy 3 1997 130. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
d Bt 4 mice
1) Alpha - 1 interferon is a human pro-
e Rosie 5 maize tein used to treat emphysema
2) In 1990, the first transgenic cow,
1) a-5, b-2, c-3, d-1, e-4 Rosie, produced human protein en-
riched milk
2) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5 3) Transgenic models exist for many
human diseases such as cystic fibro-
3) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-5, e-3
sis and phenyl ketonuria.
4) a-5, b-4, c-3, d-2, e-1 4) All except 3
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
131. Match the following column - I with 134. RNA interference occurs at
column - II and choose the correct
option 1) Transcriptional level

2) Post-transcriptional level
Column - I Column - II
a ELISA 1 early diagnosis 3) DNA replication level
b PCR 2 Basmati rice
4) Replication level
c biopiracy 3 insulin
d C peptide 4 Non pathogenic 135. A patent is granted for :
e Agrobacterium 5 Amplification of DNA
I. An invention
1) a-5, b-4, c-1,d-2, e-3 II. A microbial strain
2) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5 III. Process of generating a product
3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-4 IV. An improve ment in an e arlier
invention
4) a-1, b-5, c-2,d-3, e-4.
1) I, II, III
132. Assertion : ‘Cry’ proteins are named
so because they are crystal proteins. 2) II, III, IV
Reason : ‘Cry’ proteins are solubi- 3) I, III and IV
lized in acidic environment of insect
midgut and then release toxic core 4) I, II, IV
fragments after proteolytic action.
ZOOLOGY
1) Both asserti on and re ason are
correct and reason is the correct 136. Which of the following statements best
explanation for assertion describe the difference between sperm
formation in men and ovum formation
2) Both asserti on and re ason are in women?
correct but reason is not the correct
explanation for assertion 1) Sperm formation continues even in
old men, but ovum formation ceases
3) Assertion is correct but reason is in women around the age of fifty years.
incorrect
2) Sperm formation ceases in men
4) Both asserti on and re ason are around the age of fifty years, but ovum
incorrect formation continues throughout their
lifetime.
133. Engerix B is used to treat
3) Sperm formation and ovum formation
1) Hepatitis B
are both continuous process in men
2) HIV and women

3) Polio 4) Both sperm formation and ovum

formation cease around the age of fifty
4) Fever years is both men and women
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 18
137. In the process of spermatogenesis, the
stage where meiosis is involved in :
1) Spermatogonia division
2) Spermiogenesis
3) Secondary spermatocyte formation
4) Primary spermatocyte formation
138. If seminal vesicles are removed they
will affect:
1) Secondary sexual characters
2) Sexual behaviours
3) Sex recognition
4) Spermatozoa
139. Which of the following is true regarding
spermatogenesis?
1) It occurs in the epididymis
2) Spermatogonia are diploid cells
3) Spermatids give rise to secondary
spermatocytes
4) It is stimulated by the hormone
oxytocin.
140. Assertion: Menstrual cycle is
controlled by hormones secreted from
the hypothalamus, pituitary and
ovaries.
Reason : Ovulation occurs after a surge
in the levels of follicle stimulating
hormone.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
141. Assertion : Contraceptive pills works
by inhibiting ovulations and altering
the cervical mucus to prevent sperm
entry into the uterus.
Reason: Contraceptive pills are an
effective method for pre ve nting
pregnancy without any side effects.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and Re ason is the co rrect
explanation of Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false
142. During the menstrual cycle, which
hormone is re sponsible for the
preparation of the endometrium and
implantation of the embyro?
1) Follicle stimulating hormone
2) Luteinising hormone
3) Estrogen
4) Progesterone
143. Statement I:Sexually transmitted
infections can lead to infertility in both
male and females
Statement II : Untreated sexually
transmitted infe ctions can cause
damage to the reproductive organs,
leading to complications such as
infertility
1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
3) Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
4) Statement I and Statement II are
correct
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
144. Statement I: Fertilisation of the egg 146. Match the items in column A with the
usually occurs in the fallopian tube. items in column B. Each item in
column A may have multiple correct
answers in column B
Statement II: The fallopian tube
provides a conducive environment for
fertilisation by facilitating the
Column A Column B
movement of sperm and the egg
Hormonal changes
towards each other.
leading to the
1 Menstrual cycle A.
development of secondary
1) Statement I is correct but Statement sexual characteristics
II is incorrect
Forms an interphase
between mother and
2) Statement I is incorrect but 2 Fertilisation B. foetus for exchange of
Statement II is correct nutrients, oxygen and
waste product
3) Statement I and Statement II are Involves fusion of
3 Puberty C.
incorrect male and female gametes
4 Placenta D. Zygote formation
4) Statement I and Statement II are Regular discharge of
blood and mucosal tissue
correct E.
from the endometrium of
uterus
145. What is the curre nt scientific Serves to prepare the
F.
consensus regarding the fate of the uterus for pregnancy
first polar body produced during the
initial meiotic division?
1) 1  E, F; 2  C, D; 3  A; 4  B
1) It fuses with the secondary oocyte
to form a diploid zygote 2) 1  D, F; 2  B, C; 3  A, B; 4  C, E

3) 1  E, F; 2  C, D; 3  A, B; 4  C, D
2) The scientific consensus is
uncertain about whether it divides 4) 1  E, F; 2  C, D; 3  B,C; 4  B, D
further or degenerate 147. How would you rate the reversibility
of surgical contraceptive?
3) It remains in the ovary until 1) Easily reversible
fertilisation occurs.
2) Highly reversible

4) It divides into two smaller polar 3) Moderate reversiblity

bodies. 4) Low reversibility
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 20
148. Which act was e nacted by the
Government of India with the intention
of reducing the incidence of illegal
abortion and consequent maternal
mortality and morbidity?
1) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
act 1971
2) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
Amendment act 2017
3) Maternal Health Improvement act
2015
4) Reproductive Outcomes act 2020
149. The adoption of ‘one child norm’ among
young urban, working couples signifies
a shift towards:
1) Sustainable family planning
practices
2) The overall population growth in
urban areas
3) Tradition and cultural beliefs
4) Lack of access to reproductive health
services.
150. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
1. Estrogen – Growth of endometrium
during follicular phase
2. Progesterone – Maintanance of the
endometrium during pregnancy
3) Prolactin – Injected by doctors to
induce parturition
4) Oxytocin – Control the process of
childbirth
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
151. Select the incorrect statements from
the following:
a) The release of ovum from the ovary
is known as ovulation.
b) The primary oocyte completes the
first meiotic division to form the
secondary oocyte and the first polar
body before ovulation.
c) The fusion of the male gamete with
the secondary oocyte complete the
second meiotic division
d) Fertilisation of an ovum by multiple
spermatozoa leads to the formation of
more than one zygote.
1) Only ‘a’ is incorrect
2) Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ are incorrect
3) Only ‘d’ is incorrect
4) Only ‘c’ and ‘d’ are incorrect
152. Assertion : The release of oxytocin
during parturition induce uterine
contraction.
Reason: Oxytocin stimulate s the
smooth muscles of the uterus, leading
to the expulsion of the baby.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and Re ason is the co rrect
explanation of Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
153. Statement I : Menstrual phase marks 156. In the context of human reproduction,
the beginning of the menstrual cycle what are hCG and prolactin?
Statement II: The shedding of the
endometrial lining occurs when the 1) Female steroid hormones
levels of progesterone and estrogen
decline. 2) Hormones associated with
pregnancy and lactation
1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
3) Male reproductive hormones
2) Statement I is inco rrect bu t
Statement II is correct 4) Hormones associated with
3) Statement I and Statement II are oogenesis
incorrect
157. The function of the male sex
4) Statement I and Statement II are
accessory ducts is :
correct
154. Statement I:Sertoli cells in the testes 1) Maturation of sperms
secrete testosterone, which is
essential for sperm maturation. 2) Storage of sperms
Statement II: The epididymis is the
site of sperm production within the 3) Transport of sperms
male reproduction system.
1) Statement I is correct but Statement 4) All of the above
II is incorrect
158. Which of the following is not a factor
2) Statement I is inco rrect bu t affecting the effectiveness of natural
Statement II is correct contraceptive methods?
3) Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect 1) Knowledge and understanding of
natural contraceptive methods
4) Statement I and Statement II are
correct
2) Menstrual cycle regularity
155. Statement I : ART procedures are
primarily used for treating male 3) Certain hormonal conditions can
infertility and are not relevent for affect fertility signs and cycles.
female infertility cases.
StatementII: In cases of male 4) Past pregnancies
infertility, hormonal imbalance in the
female partner may contribute to the 159. Mature Graafian follicle is generally
inability to conceive. present in the ovary of a healthy
human female around
1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
1) 1–5 days of menstrual cycle
2) Statement I is inco rrect bu t
Statement II is correct 2) 18–28 days of menstrual cycle
3) Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect 3) 10–17 days of menstrual cycle
4) Statement I and Statement II are
correct 4) 3–5 days of menstrual cycle
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

160. Which stage of follicular development 163. What is the significance of the middle
is characterised by the presence of a piece in a sperm cell?
fluid filled antrum? 1) Protection of genetic material

1) Primary/ secondary follicle 2) Protecting the sperm from external

factors
2) Secondary/ tertiary follicle
3) Energy production for sperm motility
3) Tertiary/ Graafian follicle
4) Producing enzymes for fertilisation
4) Corpus luteum
164. Structurally the mammary gland can
be divided into
161. Which of the following is included in
intratesticular genital duct system? 1) Alveoli and ducts

1) Vas deferens 2) Glandular tissue and fat

2) Vasa efferentia 3) Skin and muscle

3) Epididymis 4) Endocrine and neural tissue

165. Which of the following structure is not

4) Ejaculatory duct
a part of the human penis?
162. Match the columns and choose the 1) Glans penis
correct option.
2) Special erectile tissue

3) Urethra
Column I Column II
4) Ureter
A. Primary oocyte 1 Mature ovum
166. Select the false statement from the
Formation of
B. 2 Seminiferous tubule following
spermatozoa
Arrested in 1) Each ovary is about 2 to 4 cm in
C. Ovulation 3 prophase I until length and is connected to the pelvic
wall and uterus by ligaments
puberty
Occurs after the 2) In adults, each testis is oval is shape
D. Ootid 4
LH surge with a length of about 4 to 5cm and a
width of about 2 to 3cm

3) The glandular tissue of each breast

1) A  3, B  2 , C  4 , D  1
is divided into 15 to 20 mammary lobes
containing cluster of cells called
2) A  3, B  2 , C  1, D  4 ampulla

3) A  4 , B  2 , C  3, D  1 4) Each fallopian tube is about 10 to

12 cm long and extends from the
periphery of each ovary to the uterus
4) A  1, B  2 , C  3, D  2
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
167. Which type of division takeplace during
second polar body formation?
1) Unequal first meiotic division
2) Unequal second meiotic division
3) Equational first meiotic division
4) Equational second meiotic division
168. After menarche, what is the form of
the gamete coming out of a females
ovary?
1) Secondary oocyte
2) Ootid
3) Primary oocyte
23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
171. In the embryonic developme nt o f
humans, the inner cell mass of
blastocyst give rise to;
1) Embryo
2) Placenta
3) Extra embryonic membrane
4) Foetal membrane
172. Cleavage in the fertilised ovum of
humans:
1) Starts as the zygote moves through
the uterus
2) Starts as the zygote moves through
the ampulla of the fallopian tube
3) Starts as the zygote moves through
the isthmus of the fallopian tube

4) First polar body 4) Starts as the zygote moves through

the ovary.
169. Identify the correct statement: 173. Which of the following is considered
the most important step to counteract
i) Sterili sation methods of
population explosion?
contraception prevent gamete
formation. 1) Increasing natural resources
2) Promoting smaller families through
ii) Pills are very effective with lesser
contraceptive methods
side effects and are well accepted by
the females 3) Relocating people to less populated
area
iii) Abortions co uld happen 4) Encouraging large families
spontaneously too
174. Statement I: After implantation,
iv) In ET techniques, embryos are finger like projection appear on the
always transferred into the uterus trophoblast called chorionic villi which
are surrounded by the foetal tissue
1) ii only 2) ii and iii and foetal blood
3) iii and iv 4) i and iv Statement II: The chorionic villi and
uterine tissue become interdigitated
170. What is the main physio logical with each other to form a structural
consequence of the LH surge in the and functional unit between foetes and
menstrual cycle? maternal body called placenta.
1) Trigger the release of the ovum from 1) Statement I is correct but Statement
the Graafian follicle II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but
2) Stimulate the development of the
Statement II is correct
endometrial lining
3) Statement I and Statement II are
3) Inhibit the secretion of FSH incorrect
4) Induce the formation of the corpus 4) Statement I and Statement II are
luteum. correct
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
175. Which of the following statement is 178. M atch the foll owing reprodu ctive
incorrect about a normal human health programmes with their
sperm? objectives

1) Plasma membrane envelops the

whole body of sperm Column I Column II
National family Control of sexually
2) At a concentration of 200 to 300 A. planning 1 transmitted
sperms in ejaculates will fertilise the programme infections
ovum
Adolescent
3) The sperm head contains an reproductive Promotion of small
B. 2
elongated haploid nucleus health family norms
programme
4) The acrosome is filled with enzymes National AIDS Promotion of
that helps fertilization of the ovum. C. control 3 adolescent
programme friendly services
176. At what stage of pregnancy can the first Promotion of
sign of a growing foetus be noticed by D. RCH programme 4 maternal
listening to the heart sound through
and child healths
a stethoscope?

1) First trimester
1) A  2, B  1, C  3, D  4
2) Second trimester
2) A  2, B  3, C  1, D  4
3) Third trimester
3) A  4, B  2, C  3, D  1
4) After parturition
4) A  3, B  1, C  4, D  2
177. The bulbourethral glands are 179. During the process of oogenesis, each
responsible for which of the following? primary oocyte get surrounded by more
layers of granulosa cells and theca
1) To produce testosterone layer, is called

2) To secrete sugar rich fluid to 1) Graafian follicle

nourish sperm. 2) Primary follicle

3) Secrete an enzyme to assist in egg 3) Secondary follicle

fertilisation 4) Tertiary follicle

4) Secretion helps in the lubrication 180. Incidents of RTIs are very high among
of the penis person in the age group of
1) 15 to 35 years
2) 15 to 45 years
3) 15 to 50 years
4) 15 to 24 years
 TEST ID
Batch : ODD BATCH
111
07- 02- 2024
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT- VI
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA BOOKLET CODE
P + C + B - Key with Hints
A1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS
1. 1 Force on current carrying loop in uniform magnetic field is always zero.
2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

5. 1

6. 2

7. 3 Magnetic force on moving charge is always perpendicular to its velocity. Also,

work done by magnetic force on a moving charge is zero.
8. 3 Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect because, the magnetic
field is produced by vector source Id and the coulomb’s force is produced by
scalar source q.
9. 4
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
10. 3
LI2
11. 3 Energy stored in Inductor U 
2
L
32   16 L=4H
2
Power dissipated P = I2R
320 = 16 × R R  20 
12. 1

13. 3

14. 4 The force between two parallel current carrying wires is independent of the
radii of the wires.
15. 2

16. 4

17. 3
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

18. 1

19. 1

2M sin  / 2
20. 2 M'

21. 4

22. 1

23. 4 The magnetization of a diamagnetic material is independent of the temperature.

24. 4 I
25. 3 At Curie temperature, ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
100V V 1980
26. 2  Ig  G  20 
1980  G G 99
27. 1
28. 3
29. 4
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

30. 1

31. 1 Electric heater works on the principle of JOule’s heating effect.

32. 2

33. 1

34. 1 The inductance in a coil plays the same role as inertia in mechanics.
35. 2

36. 3

37. 3
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

38. 4

39. 1

40. 2

41. 3

dI
42. 4 Induced emf   L
dt
10
0.2  L 
0.2
L  4  103  4mH
43. 2

44. 3

45. 2

CHEMISTRY
46. 2
47. 4
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
48. 3
49. 2
50. 1
51. 1

52. 4

53. 1

54. 3

55. 1

56. 1

57. 4
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

k2 E a  T2  T1 
58. 3 log   
k1 2.303 R  T1T2 
E a  100 
log 2 
19  300  400 
E a  6.84 kJmol1

59. 1

60. 1
61. 1
62. 4
63. 3
64. 4
65. 1
66. 1
67. 2
68. 2
69. 4
70. 3
71. 4
72. 1
73. 1
74. 3
75. 2
76. 2
77. 3
78. 2
79. 3
80. 2
81. 1
82. 4
83. 2
84. 3
85. 2
86. 4
87. 1
88. 2
89. 4
90. 1
FT24N/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
BOTANY
91. 4 100. 4 109. 2 118. 4 127. 3
92. 4 101. 3 110. 4 119. 1 128. 3
93. 2 102. 1 111. 1 120. 4 129. 3
94. 2 103. 4 112. 4 121. 4 130. 4
95. 4 104. 2 113. 4 122. 1 131. 4
96. 4 105. 2 114. 3 123. 4 132. 3
97. 1 106. 2 115. 1 124. 1 133. 1
98. 2 107. 4 116. 1 125. 2 134. 2
99. 4 108. 4 117. 3 126. 3 135. 3

ZOOLOGY
136. 1 145. 2 154. 3 163. 3 172. 3
137. 3 146. 1 155. 3 164. 2 173. 2
138. 4 147. 4 156. 2 165. 4 174. 2
139. 2 148. 2 157. 4 166. 3 175. 2
140. 3 149. 1 158. 4 167. 2 176. 1
141. 3 150. 3 159. 3 168. 1 177. 4
142. 4 151. 3 160. 3 169. 2 178. 2
143. 4 152. 1 161. 2 170. 1 179. 3
144. 4 153. 4 162. 1 171. 1 180. 4