Free PDF

Bank Exams
2023

Winner's
Kit

Complete Guide For Your Banking Prep.

What’s there in it?

Vacancy-Trend Study Plan

Cut-off Trend Topper’s Tips

Important Topics Prelims Practice

Paper
DI (Mains)
Practice Questions

Covers All Major Banking Exams

 Table of Contents
Bank Exams 2023 - Winner's Kit............................................................................................. 2
Why should you prepare for Banking exams? .................................................... 2
Most Popular Banking Exams ....................................................................... 4
SBI PO and SBI Clerk ...................................................................................................... 4
IBPS PO and Clerk Exam Details .................................................................................... 4
IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam Details ........................................................................... 4
Cut-Off Trends- Last 5 years ........................................................................ 5
SBI PO Prelims Previous Years Cut off ...........................................................................6
SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Years Cut off ........................................................................ 7
IBPS PO Previous Year Cut off ....................................................................................... 8
IBPS Clerk Previous Year Cut off .................................................................................... 9
IBPS RRB PO Previous Year Cut-off .............................................................................. 10
IBPS RRB Clerk Previous Year Cut off ........................................................................... 11
Important Topic Analysis ............................................................................. 12
Listen from the Toppers? .......................................................................... 13
How can you get started with the Preparation? ................................................. 14
Key Highlights of Personalized Mentorship Program: ................................................... 15
3-Month Study Plan for Banking exams ......................................................... 16
Prelims Practice Paper & Solutions................................................................ 17
DI Practice Questions & Solutions ............................................................... 18
 Bank Exams 2023 - Winner's Kit
In India, there are several banking exams that are conducted by various organizations such as
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), and State Bank
of India (SBI) to recruit candidates for various positions in banks. These exams typically include a
written test (preliminary and main examination) followed by an interview. Some of the most
popular banking exams in India include

1. The IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam: This exam is conducted by the IBPS to
recruit candidates for the post of Probationary Officer in various public sector banks.
2. IBPS Clerk Exam: This exam is also conducted by the IBPS to recruit candidates for the
post of Clerk in various public sector banks.
3. SBI PO Exam: This exam is conducted by the State Bank of India to recruit candidates
for the post of Probationary Officer in the bank.
4. SBI Clerk Exam: This exam is conducted by the State Bank of India to recruit candidates
for the post of Clerk in the bank.
5. IBPS RRB PO Exam: This exam is conducted by the IBPS to recruit candidates for the
post of Officer Scale-1 in the various Regional Rural banks.
6. IBPS RRB Clerk Exam: This exam is conducted by the IBPS to recruit candidates for
the post of clerk in the various regional rural banks of India.

These exams typically have a rigorous selection process that includes a written test, an
interview, and a medical examination. The written test usually includes questions on reasoning,
quantitative aptitude, general awareness, and the English language. The banking exam is still
considered one of the most secure and respectable jobs. Banking employees' number of benefits
other than their basic pay, as there is a number of allowances for the employees.
Why should you prepare for Banking exams?
Before getting into the preparation for a particular exam, one should know about the benefits
it holds. Here, we will talk about the benefits and perks you will receive after clearing the
banking exam.
Overall, banking jobs in India can be a great career choice for individuals who are interested
in working in the financial sector, are good with numbers, and have strong communication
skills.

Most Popular Banking Exams

Every year lakhs of aspirants appear for different banking exams in India with the dream of
becoming a banker. Different institutes such as IBPS, RBI, SBI, etc conduct different types
of banking exams. Here, we will know about the most popular bank exams in India.

SBI PO and SBI Clerk

Criteria SBI PO SBI Clerk

Educational Bachelor’s degree in any discipline Bachelor’s degree in any discipline

Qualifications from a government-recognized from a government-recognized
university. university.

Age Limit Minimum Age Limit: 21 years Minimum Age Limit: 21 years
Maximum Age Limit: 30 years Maximum Age Limit: 28 years

Selection Prelims, Mains and Interview Prelims and Mains

Process

IBPS PO and Clerk Exam Details

Criteria IBPS PO IBPS Clerk

Educational Bachelor’s degree in any discipline Bachelor’s degree in any discipline

Qualifications from a government-recognized
university.
Candidates must be proficient in
writing and speaking the local
languages of the State/UT.
from a government-recognized
university.
Candidates must be proficient in
writing and speaking the local
languages of the State/UT.

Age Limit Minimum Age Limit: 20 years Minimum Age Limit: 20 years
Maximum Age Limit: 30 years Maximum Age Limit: 28 years

Selection Prelims, Mains and Interview Prelims and Mains

Process

IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam Details

Criteria IBPS RRB PO IBPS RRB Clerk

Educational Bachelor’s degree in any discipline Bachelor’s degree in any discipline

Qualifications from a government-recognized from a government-recognized
 university. university.
Candidates must be proficient in Candidates must be proficient in
writing and speaking the local writing and speaking the local
languages of the State/UT. languages of the State/UT.

Age Limit Minimum Age Limit: 18 years Minimum Age Limit: 18 years
Maximum Age Limit: 30 years Maximum Age Limit: 28 years

Selection Prelims, Mains and Interview Prelims and Mains

Process

Prelims Cut-Off Trends- Last 5 years

Previous year cut-off trends have been mentioned below for the various banking
examinations. As you can see from the previous year's data the cut-off has increased
drastically same as the difficulty level of the exam. Similarly, other banking exams have also
increased their cut-off with the increasing competition and the number of vacancies.

SBI PO Prelims Previous year cut-off

Category 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018

GEN 59.50 53.40 58.50 54.11 50.79

SBI Clerk Prelims - Previous Years Cut off
Check the previous year's cutoff for SBI Clerk in the table below.

State/UT 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018

Uttar Pradesh 77.5 81.25 71 72.25 69.25

Delhi - 83 76.25 71.25 71.25

Bihar - – 68.75 76.25 66.5

Punjab 80.75 75.5 77.5 76.25 71.5

Tamil Nadu 62.25 61.75 62 61.25 60

Meghalaya - – – – 50.75

West Bengal 78.50 79.75 67.5 73.25 66.5

Madhya Pradesh 75.75 81.75 68.75 73.5 66.25

Andhra Pradesh - – 68 74.75 71

Himachal Pradesh - 80.25 66 71.75 68.75

Uttarakhand 78.75 81.75 69.75 75.25 71

Chhattisgarh 72.75 76.5 68.75 57.5 67.25

Maharashtra 65.5 66.25 59.75 62.5 57

Gujarat 72.25 64.5 56.75 65.5 57.5

Rajasthan 75 77.75 68.75 71 69

Jharkhand - 69.25 68.25 75 69.5

Haryana - 79.75 72.75 75.25 70.5

Kerala 68 69 69.75 78 69

Odisha 77 82 68.25 73.5 62.75

Telangana 69 73.75 66 68.5 68

Assam 69.25 68.5 – 57 51.25

Karnataka 64.50 64.25 58.75 48.5 63

J&K 77 – – 81.75 –

Andaman Nicobar - 66.25 – – –

Arunachal Pradesh - 69.25 – – –

Sikkim - 72.5 – – –
IBPS PO Previous Year Cut off - Prelims

Category 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017

GEN 49.75 50.5 58.75 59.75 56.75 42.75

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Cut off - Prelims

State (UR) 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017

Andhra Pradesh 76.5 71 78 66.25 67.25 73.5
Assam 80.75 68 – 63 – 70.75
Bihar 87.75 76 71.25 65 73.5 74.75
Chandigarh - 62.75 – 71.5 66.75 –

Chhattisgarh 81.25 74 – – – 70.25

Delhi 84.50 77.25 77 71.75 71.75 76.75
Goa - 62.5 53.75 67 – 67.75

Gujarat 81 72 72 – 67.75 67
Haryana 85.50 78.5 – 68.5 73 76
Himachal Pradesh 86.50 78.5 72 62.25 73 75

J&K - 72 77.5 – – 76
Jharkhand 84.75 79.25 75.75 73 74 74.25
Karnataka - 67.25 65.75 53.25 (ews) 66.25 61.25

Kerala 85.5 78 77.25 73.5 77

Madhya Pradesh 85 77 77.75 70 71.25 74.25
Maharashtra 75.50 70.25 69.75 61.5 63.25 64.5

Manipur - 69.75 – – – –
Odisha 87.50 77 75 71.5 72.75 76.5
Puducherry - – – – – –

Punjab 83.25 75.5 75.25 66.25 73.25 74

Rajasthan 86.25 81.5 78.25 71.25 73 73.25
Sikkim - 59.25 – — – –

Tamil Nadu - 67.75 71 (OBC) 57.75 57.75 53

Telangana - 65.75 74.25 61 58.25 70
- 59.25
Tripura – (OBC) – – –
Uttar Pradesh 84 77 73.5 68.25 74 76.25
 Uttarakhand 89.50 81.25 78.5 76 – 78.75
West Bengal 86 79 61.5 70.75 73.5 77.25

IBPS RRB PO Previous Year Cut-off – Prelims

State Name 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018

Andhra Pradesh 53.50 52.5 52.75 58.5 52.5
Assam 49.5 45.75 – 41.5 –
Bihar 56.75- 56.25 48 58 45
Chhattisgarh 48.5 43.25 55.5 –
Gujarat 55.75 57.25 59.75 43.5 57
Haryana 61.75 59.5 60.5 64.5 57

Himachal Pradesh 59.75 57.5 – 59.75 59.75

Jammu & Kashmir 51.25 47 52 55.25 47.25
Jharkhand 59.25 55 – 59.5 51.5
Karnataka 36 44.75 – 46.25 44.25
Kerala 58.25 57.75 – 61 –
Madhya Pradesh 55.25 54.25 – 54.7 –
Maharashtra 51.75 53.75 – 56 47.5
Punjab 60.50 60.25 – 63.5 54.75
Odisha 60.25 58.5 62.75 55.75 50.5

Rajasthan 60.25 60.75 66 58.5 50.5

Tamil Nadu - 50.5 – 55.25 43.25
Telangana - 51 – 54 59
Uttar Pradesh 62.75 54.5 47 58.75 50
Uttarakhand 62.50 60.75 – 65 54
West Bengal 58.25 56.5 52 55.25 48.5
IBPS RRB Clerk Previous Year Cut off - Prelims

State 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018

Bihar 70 73 75.5 74.25 70.25

Chhattisgarh - 71 70.5 75.5 67.75
Gujarat 72.75 76.75 78.25 63.25 69.75

Haryana 75.50 75.75 78.25 76 76.25

Himachal Pradesh 72.25 74.25 76.25 71 77.5
Jammu and Kashmir 64.50 72 73.5 – 70

Jharkhand 72.25 76.25 – 58.5 69.75

Karnataka 67.25 70.75 – 65.25 66.25
Kerala 76 77 – 75 73.5
Madhya Pradesh 70.25 73.75 66.75 68.25 70.5
Maharashtra 68.25 72.75 67 69.25 69.75
Odisha 77 78.5 79.75 73.75 71.25
Punjab 75.25 76.5 78.5 77.5 74.75
Rajasthan 75 76.75 78.75 75.25 73
Tamil Nadu 61.25 70.5 71 68 61.75
Telangana 61.50 69 73 68.5 67.75
Tripura 67 – 71.25 48.75
Uttar Pradesh 76.50 76.5 73 74 70.75
Uttarakhand 75.50 77.5 – 76.75 –
West Bengal 74.75 75.75 77.75 74.75 75.25
Important Topic Analysis – For Preliminary Exam
It is important to know about the important topics which are of high weightage. We have
listed all the important topics for all the major banking exams. This analysis is based on the
previous year's exam analysis of different exams. Check the details below.

Exam Subjects
Name
General English Reasoning Quantitative Aptitude

SBI PO Reading Puzzles and Arithmetic

Comprehension Seating Simplification
Cloze Test Arrangement Data Interpretation
Sentence Numeric Series Quadratic Equation
Correction Syllogism Number Series
Error Detection Direction Sense
Phrase Alphanumeric
Replacement Series

SBI Reading Puzzles and Arithmetic

Clerk Comprehension Seating Simplification
Cloze Test Arrangement Data Interpretation
Sentence Numeric Series Quadratic Equation
Correction Syllogism Number Series
Error Detection Direction Sense
Sentence Alphanumeric
Rearrangement Series

IBPS Reading Puzzles and Simplification

PO Comprehension Seating Data Interpretation
Cloze Test Arrangement Number series
Sentence Numeric Series Quadratic equation
Correction Syllogism
Para Jumbles Direction Sense
Alphanumeric
Series

IBPS Reading Puzzles and Simplification/approximation

Clerk Comprehension Seating Arithmetic
Cloze Test Arrangement Data Interpretation
Error Detection Syllogism Quadratic Equation
Word Usage Inequality
Alphanumeric
Test
Coding
Decoding

IBPS Reading Puzzles and Data Interpretation

RRB Comprehension Seating Quadratic Equation
PO Cloze Test Arrangement Simplification/approximation
Error Detection Syllogism Arithmetic
Word Usage Inequality
 Alphanumeric
Test
Coding
Decoding

IBPS Reading Puzzles and Arithmetic

RRB Comprehension Seating Data Interpretation
Clerk Cloze Test Arrangement Quadratic Equation
Error Detection Syllogism Simplification/approximation
Word Usage Inequality
Alphanumeric
Test
Coding
Decoding
Listen from the Toppers?
How can you get started with the Preparation?
Before starting the preparation for any government exam, candidates should be properly
aware of the exam details. Candidates must be aware of their weaknesses and strong points
to create a proper preparation strategy for the exam. To guide candidates through this,
Oliveboard has come up with one of the best “Personalized mentorship Programs for Bank
Exams.”

Key Highlights of Personalized Mentorship Program:

1:1 Mentorship:
• 1:1 Mentorship with dedicated Super Mentors
• Dedicated Faculty Mentors for continuous support
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• Access to study groups with fellow aspirants
• Customized Study plans & progress tracking

Interview Preparation & Mock Interviews:

• 6 Mock Interviews with ex-IBPS/SBI panel
• Live classes for Interview preparation
• Personalized coaching by Mentors

Live Classes & Mock Tests:

• Access to all 3,000+ Live Classes
• 2,000+ Mock Tests for all Bank, Insurance Exams
• Sectional and Topic Tests
• High-level DI, Reasoning and English Tests
• Daily Live Group Practice Sessions
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Physical Books:
Set of 5 Top Selling Books for all Bank & Insurance Exams
• Absolute Reasoning
• DI Decoded
• English Simplified
• GK Blast
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 3-Month Prelims Study Plan For Banking exams

Subjects
Weeks
English Reasoning Quant

Week Reading Comprehension Logical Reasoning Number Systems

1 and 10 Vocab Per Day • Learn the basic • To solve
• Reading concepts of logical questions
Comprehensions reasoning. about the
has the most • Solve practice number
weightage in the questions to system,
English section of understand the candidates
any banking exam. methods. need to have a
• With consistent • Attempt topic-wise basic
practice, candidates mock tests and knowledge of
can easily score practice with difficult important
good marks on this questions to examine division rules.
topic. your preparation. • With the
• Remaining topics proper
need to be practiced understanding,
daily candidates can the practice
do 10 Idioms & should also be
phrases in a day in the required
and in the week amount.
they can easily learn • Attempt a
70 new idioms and topic-wise and
phrases. sectional mock
test and solve
the previous
year's
questions.

Week Cloze Test and 10 Vocab Alphanumeric Series Ratio & Proportion
2 Per Day • This topic consists of and Percentage
• Cloze Test is a mix numerical series, • To solve the
of passages and the alphabet series, ratio and
fill-in blanks. It alphanumeric series, proportion
basically tests the and alphanumeric questions,
reading and symbol sequence candidates
problem-solving series. must be aware
skills of a candidate. • Have in-depth of the
• Candidates need to knowledge of the proportion
read newspapers to basic concepts of all formula.
work on their its all types. • Same goes
vocabulary and • After completing the with the
ability to understand topic, attempt topic- percentage, as
the context for the wise mock tests, and the knowledge
passage. practice sets. of basic
• Attempt the topic- formulas is a
wise mock tests and must to solve
make sure to
 practice the these
remaining topic on questions.
the daily basis. • Attempt a
topic-wise and
sectional mock
test and solve
previous
year's
questions

Week Para Jumbles and 10 Ranking/Direction/Alphabet Time & Distance and

3 One-Word Substitutions Test Work & Time
per day • This is one of the • Quant are all
• In Para Jumbles, most important topics about practice
candidates need to of the reasoning and the
put the jumbled section. formulas that
sentences in the • Clear your basic need to be
correct order. concepts of followed in
• Candidates must Horizontal/Vertical order to get
learn the basics of ranking, direction- the right
para jumbles and based puzzles, answers.
practice with at least series, and data • Attempt a
5 para jumbles interpretation based topic-wise and
daily. on directions. sectional mock
• Attempt the topic- • Attempt the topic-wise test and solve
wise mock test and mock test and try to previous
practice one-word solve the questions year's
substitutions per from the previous questions
day. year's papers.

Week Fill in the blanks and 10 Data Sufficiency Sequence & Series
4 One Word Substitutions • Data sufficiency • Start with
per day questions are learning the
• In Fill in the blanks, basically situation basic concepts
candidates need to based for which and the
fill the blank spaces candidates need to formulas.
with the provide sufficient • Attempt a
grammatically data. topic-wise and
correct answers. • Start with sectional mock
• To solve these understanding the test and solve
questions fluently, basic concepts and the previous
candidates need to tips to solve the year's
have a clear questions. questions
concept regarding • Attempt a topic-wise
the grammatical mock test and solve
rules. the practice
• Attempt the topic- questions.
wise mock tests and
solve the questions
of high difficulty.

Week Multiple Meaning and 10 Coded Inequalities Mensurations:

5 Phrasal Verbs per day Cylinder, Cone, and
Sphere
 • “Multiple meanings” • Learn the basic • Mensuration
refers to the same concepts of coded are all about
word having inequalities. formulas and
different meanings. • Solve practice the standard
In the exam, questions to method to
candidates need to understand the solve
choose the correct methods. problems.
meaning of the • Attempt topic-wise • Learn the
words. mock tests and standard
• Best way to excel in practice with difficult formulas and
this topic is to read questions to examine practice daily.
newspapers, your preparation. • Attempt topic-
articles, and online wise and
available materials sectional mock
to enhance your tests and solve
knowledge and the previous
learn the meaning of year's
new words. questions.
• Attempt the topic-
wise mock test and
solve 10 phrasal
verbs every day in a
week to be in
practice for the
same.

Week Paragraph Completion Seating Arrangement • Revise all the

6 and 10 Phrasal Verbs per • This section consists topics you
day of linear, circular, and have covered
• In Paragraph rectangular/square in the earlier
completion, seating weeks.
candidates need to arrangements. • Solve practice
add he • Every baking exam questions and
grammatically has at least 2 try to solve
correct sentences in questions on this more
order to complete topic for which questions from
the paragraphs. candidates need to the previous
• Candidates need to clear the basic year's papers.
clear their basic concepts. • Attempt a
concepts in order to • Attempt topic-wise topic-wise and
be fluent with the mock tests to have a sectional mock
questions from this better idea of your test and solve
topic. preparation level. the previous
• Attempt the topic- year's
wise mock test and questions
practice 10 phrasal
verbs per day.

Week Vocabulary/Idioms & Puzzle Profit and Loss

7 Phrases/Antonyms & • Puzzle is one of the • Start with the
Synonyms topics of reasoning basics and
• These topics are carrying the maximum solve the
basic to the English weightage.
 section of any • Puzzles are of various practice
banking exam. types namely floor- questions.
• To give your best in based, box-based, • Attempt a
these topics, direction-based, blood topic-wise and
candidates need to relations-based, and sectional mock
practice daily and calendar based. test and solve
learn new words • Attempt a topic-wise the previous
and meanings with mock test and try to year's
time. solve a difficult level. questions
• Attempt a topic-wise
mock test and solve
questions from the
previous year's
question papers.

Week Sentence Improvement Syllogism SI/CI and Surds and

8 and 10 Idioms and • Learn the basic Indices
Phrases per day concepts of Syllogism • Start with the
• In Sentence and start practicing basics and
Improvement, with easy questions. solve the
candidates need to • In Syllogism, practice
correct the candidates need to questions.
grammatical choose the correct • Attempt a
mistake in the statement with topic-wise and
spelling or sentence respect to the sectional mock
of the given statement. test and solve
question. • These questions may the previous
• Start with learning often become year's
the basics and solve confusing for the questions
easy questions to candidates.
gain fluency over Candidates should
the basics. attempt the topic-wise
• Attempt a topic-wise mock test and solve
mock test and solve the previous year's
the previous year's questions.
questions.
• Solve 10 Idioms &
Phrases per day in
a week.

Week Word Association and 10 Blood Relations Permutation,

9 Idioms & Phrases per day • This is one of the Combination, and
• In word association, least complicated Probability
candidates need to topics in the • Start with the
choose two correct reasoning section. basics and
options that either Although, there is one solve the
have the same or more type of blood practice
opposite meaning. relations i.e. coded questions.
• To solve these blood relations. • Attempt a
questions, • Candidates can easily topic-wise and
candidates need to excel in this topic with sectional mock
have knowledge of regular practice. Also, test and solve
make sure to take the previous
 the words and their topic-wise mock year's
meanings. tests. questions
• Attempt a topic-wise
mock test and
practice 10 idioms
and phrases on the
daily basis.

Week Error Spotting and 10 Input/Output Mixtures &

10 Antonyms/Synonyms per • Learn the basic Allegations
day concepts of • Understand
• In Error Spotting, Input/Output. the basic
candidates need to • Attempt topic-wise concept of
find the grammatical mock tests and solve mixture and
errors in the given questions from allegations. A
sentence or para. previous year's mixture is a
• If you have a basic papers. combination of
concept of the eight • Analyze your mock two or more
speeches of test and work on the substances,
grammar, it weak topics. whereas an
becomes an easy allegation
task to spot the involves
errors. combining
• Attempt a topic-wise different
mock test and proportions of
practice at least 10 the same
antonyms/synonyms substance.
per day. • Attempt the
topic-wise
mock test and
solve the
previous
year's
question
papers.

Week Verbal Ability and 10 Coding-Decoding Simplifications

11 Antonyms/Synonyms per • This topic consists of • Start your
day various forms of basic
• Verbal ability refers coded questions for preparations
to the passages and which candidates with addition
is considered to be need to do daily and
the simplest topic of practice. subtraction.
English grammar. • Attempting topic-wise • Apply the
• With consistent mock tests will help BODMAS
effort and candidates in system and
continuous practice enhancing their practice
candidates can preparation. questions on
easily solve these the daily basis.
questions. • Attempt the
• Also, attempt the topic-wise
topic-wise mock test mock test and
and practice 10 solve the
 antonyms/synonyms previous
per day. year's
question
papers.

Week • Revise all the topics • Make sure to do the • Revise the
12 to keep things fresh revision of the syllabus
in your mind. syllabus thoroughly. thoroughly.
• Solve previous • If you have made any • Quant is all
year's question short or rough notes, about the
papers and make go through them and knowledge of
sure to attempt the have a shallow read. basics and
sectional and topic- • Analyze your practices so
wise mock tests. performance in all the make sure to
• Don’t try to learn mock tests you have remember
new things in the attempted earlier. important
last week, take a formulas.
rest and give your • Take rest and
best in your exams. keep your
mind calm in
order to
perform best
in the
examination.

It is important to note that this is a general study plan and can be adjusted to suit individual
needs. Additionally, consistency and discipline are key to success in any exam, so make
sure to stick to a regular schedule and take regular breaks to prevent burnout.
Also, you should allocate more time to the areas where you are weaker, and don't hesitate to
seek help if you needed.

We hope this guide adds value to your preparation for upcoming exams. We wish you the
best.
Prelims Practice Paper
Among the options choose the correct order of
words that is required to make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. If no
(Clerk Exams) change is required, mark 'No correction required'
as the answer.
Companies in New York have been those
(A) to return (B) to the office than slower (C) in
1. Match the statements from the first column with
other big cities like Dallas and Los Angeles.
statements from the second column and find the
pair(s) which will be contextually and
grammatically correct. a) CAB
b) CBA
c) BCA
A. No single rule can d) BAC
I. in the mechanical
accommodate the variety e) No correction required
application of a universal
and complexity of
principle.
situations in
II. which humans are 4. In the following question, a sentence is given
B. A lie that saves a life required to act and the with three words marked as (A), (B) and (C).
or even simply eases expectations they are Among the options choose the correct order of
called upon to meet. words that is required to make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. If no
C. Moral agency cannot III. a friend's suffering change is required, mark 'No correction required'
consist simply might be permissible as the answer.
a) Only A-II Climate change is requiring (A) the habitats of
b) B-II and C-III endangered species and shifting (B) conservation
c) A-II and B-III scientists to think (C) outside traditional park
d) B-III and C-II boundaries.
e) A-II, B-III and C-I
a) BCA
b) CAB
2. Match the statements from the first column with c) CBA
statements from the second column and find the d) BAC
pair(s) which will be contextually and e) No correction required
grammatically correct.
5. In the following question, a sentence is given
A. We look to our I. he at least found solace in with three words marked as (A), (B) and (C).
shoes to act as a knowing that his wife back at Among the options choose the correct order of
connection rather home was holding a torch for words that is required to make the sentence
than lost virtue grammatically and contextually correct. If no
B. The beach is one II. valuation and denigration change is required, mark 'No correction required'
of the few places are equally involved. as the answer. Future astronauts find (A) water on
the moon may not need to go into the
C. There is in the most treacherous (B) craters in its polar regions
III. a barrier between our
worship of shoes a to seeking (C) it.
physical ground and our
two-sidedness in
human world.
which a) CBA
a) Only A-II b) BAC
b) B-II and C-III c) ACB
c) A-II and B-III d) BCA
d) A-III and C-II e) No correction required
e) A-II, B-III and C-I

6. In the question below, a sentence is given with

3. In the following question, a sentence is given four words highlighted in bold. One of the
with three words marked as (A), (B) and (C). highlighted words may either be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context. Find out the word a) Thanked
that is wrongly spelt or inappropriately used. If b) Accomodating
there is no error, choose (e) as your answer. c) Hectic
I was trying to be strange and funny d) Schedule
but because of that, I met the write people in e) All are correct
school and started performing at events.

a) Strange 10. In the following question, a sentence is given

b) Because with three words marked as (A), (B) and (C).
c) Write Among the options choose the correct order of
d) Performing words that is required to make the sentence
e) All are correct grammatically and contextually correct. If no
change is required, mark 'No correction required'
as the answer.
7. In the question below, a sentence is given with The decision (A) comes two months after the
four words highlighted in bold. One of the government links (B) the game along with more
highlighted words may either be wrongly spelt or than 100 other apps with banned (C) to China.
inappropriate in the context. Find out the word
that is wrongly spelt or inappropriately used. If a) BCA
there is no error, choose (e) as your answer. b) ACB
There are certain hurdels in building a robust e- c) CBA
commerce sector, which need to be removed first. d) CAB
e) No correction required
a) There
b) Hurdels
c) Robust 11. Match the statement from column 1 with
d) Removed column 2 and find which of the following pair of
e) All are correct statements given in the options make contextually
and grammatically correct sense.

8. In the question below, a sentence is given with COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2

four words highlighted in bold. One of the
highlighted words may either be wrongly spelt or D. the existence of
A. We must uphold
inappropriate in the context. Find out the word whatever good has no
values of higher planes
that is wrongly spelt or inappropriately used. If meaning.
there is no error, choose (e) as your answer.
Swati has mispelt a number of words on her B. If we condemn
E. lead to tangible
Spanish test and needs to practise more. ourselves to suffer and
achievements.
feel damned,
a) Mispelt F. to overcome
b) Number C. Honest application
deficiencies and
c) Test and focused action
inadequacies.
d) Practise
e) All are correct a) B-E and C-F
b) A-D and B-E
c) A-E and C-F
d) C-E and A-F
9. In the question below, a sentence is given with
e) C-D
four words highlighted in bold. One of the
highlighted words may either be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context. Find out the word
that is wrongly spelt or inappropriately used. If Directions :Read the following passage carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
there is no error, choose (e) as your answer.
She thanked Mrs. Mathur for accomodating her in
spite of a hectic schedule. For generations, the standard way to learn how to ride
a bicycle was with training wheels or a tricycle. But in
recent years, many parents have opted to train their
kids with balance bikes, pedalless two-wheelers that c) Gabrielle Adams is a social psychologist.
enable children to develop the coordination needed for d) Results of experiments said vast majority of people
bicycling - a skill that is not as easily acquired with an chose to remove rather than augment.
extra set of wheels. e) Leidy Klotz is an engineer at the University of
Virginia.
Given the benefits of balance bikes, why did it take so
long for them to replace training wheels? There are
plenty of other examples in which overlooked 13. Which of the following is NOT one of the
solutions that involve subtraction turn out to be better instances in which majority of people follow
alternatives. In some European cities, for example, conventional approach of 'addition of features' to
urban planners have gotten rid of traffic lights and tackle the problem?
road signs to make streets safer - an idea that runs I. Puzzle solving
counter to conventional traffic design. II. Bicycling
III. Traffic lights
Leidy Klotz, an engineer at the University of Virginia,
noticed that minimalist designs, in which elements are a) Only II
removed from an existing model, were uncommon. So b) Only III
he reached out to Gabrielle Adams, a social c) Both I and III
psychologist at the university, to try to figure out why d) Only I
this was the case. The two researchers hypothesized e) Both I and II
that there might be a psychological explanation: when
faced with a problem, people tend to select solutions
that involve adding new elements rather than taking 14. According to the passage, which of the
existing components away. following words would be the synonym of the
word 'archive'?
The researchers first carried out a set of observational
studies, assessments without a control group, to see a) transfer
whether this bias existed at all. In one, they asked 91 b) fetch
participants to make a pattern symmetrical by either c) delegate
adding or removing coloured boxes. Only 18 people d) records
(20 percent) used subtraction. In another, the team e) redirect
scanned through an archive of ideas for improvement
submitted to an incoming university president and
found that only 11 percent of 651 proposals involved 15. What does the statement "a skill that is not as
eliminating an existing regulation, practice or program. easily acquired with an extra set of wheels" about
bicycling mean?
To determine why people tended to choose additive I. People continue investing in things for which
solutions, the team dug deeper by conducting a series time, money or effort has already been spent.
of eight experiments with more than 1,500 individuals. II. The expertise to form balance over a bicycle is
In one experiment, people were asked to stabilize the hard to learn with training wheels.
roof of a Lego structure held up by a single block that III. Training wheels are efficient to develop the
rested atop a cube-shaped base. Some participants coordination needed for bicycling.
were told they could add new blocks for 10 cents
apiece or get rid of blocks for free. Almost two thirds of a) Only II
people in the cued group ended up choosing to b) Only III
eliminate the single block rather than adding new c) Both I and III
ones, compared with 41 percent of those who had not d) Only I
received the prompt. e) Both I and II

12. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the

given passage?
a) In some European cities urban planners have
removed traffic lights and road signs.
b) A total of eight experiments were carried out to
determine why people choose additive solutions.
16. Which of the following is likely to be false,
from the given passage?
a) People often limit their creativity by continually
adding new features to a design rather than removing
existing ones.
b) Our brain typically overlooks the brilliant strategy of c) C
'subtraction of features' when solving problems. d) D
c) People tend toward adding new features even when e) No error
subtracting would clearly be better.
d) The bias against subtractive solutions generalizes
across cultures and it develops over time. 21. In the question below, a sentence is given,
e) We tend to not consider subtractive solutions as divided into five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
much as additive ones. the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an
error in it. You are required to identify the parts
that are grammatically incorrect and choose the
17. According to the passage, which of the option accordingly.
following words would be the synonym of the In front of the gate (A) / of the plaza, vehicles is
word 'prompt'? parked (B) / in a haphazard manner (C) / since
yesterday. (D)
a) secret
b) indication a) A
c) discourage b) B
d) hinder c) C
e) restrain d) D
e) No error

18. Which of the following is not one of the

experiments discussed in the given passage?
a) Stabilising the roof of a Lego structure.
b) Task involving modifications in itineraries.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Improvement suggestions submitted to the new
president of a university.
e) All (a), (b) and (d)
22. In the question below, a sentence is given,
divided into five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an
error in it. You are required to identify the parts
that are grammatically incorrect and choose the
option accordingly.
Though the past few years, (A) /Bangladesh has
constructed (B) /roads and brought (C) / modern
telecommunication networks. (D)

19. Which of the following approach has been a) A

regarded as the conventional one in the passage? b) B
c) C
a) The mind prefers subtractive methods for problem- d) D
solving. e) No error
b) It is a traditional approach to choose method of
subtraction.
c) Both (a) and (b) 23. In the question below, a sentence is given,
d) Opting for additive strategies over subtractive ones. divided into five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
e) All of the above the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an
error in it. You are required to identify the parts
that are grammatically incorrect and choose the
20. In the question below, a sentence is given, option accordingly.
divided into five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of Another concern raised by environmentalists (A) /
the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an have been the quick process of (B) / approvals
error in it. You are required to identify the parts and cutting of trees, (C) / some of which are 80 to
that are grammatically incorrect and choose the 90 years old. (D)
option accordingly.
The culture diversity on campus (A) / and greenery a) A
around the city (B)/ aligned perfectly (C) / with my b) B
requirements. (D) c) C
d) D
a) A e) No error
b) B
24. In the question below, a sentence is given,
divided into five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an
error in it. You are required to identify the parts
that are grammatically incorrect and choose the
option accordingly.
In spite of the demand for (A) / online
examinations, there have (B) /also be protests (C) /
against using such services. (D)
other animals, including flocks of birds, to create a
subtle yet innate, powerful order that is actually
___D___ effective. The people who looked at their
phones walked differently. Distracted people also did
not move smoothly. They took big steps sideways or
dodged others in a way that the researchers rarely
saw when there were no distractions. The ___E___
pedestrians in the experiment induced that behaviour
in others as well.

a) A 26. ___A___
b) B
c) C a) show
d) D b) hides
e) No error c) reveals
d) tell
e) publication
25. In the question below, a sentence is given,
divided into five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an 27. ___B___
error in it. You are required to identify the parts
that are grammatically incorrect and choose the a) especial
option accordingly. b) field
While soft skills have always (A) /added to one's c) subjectively
profile and offered (B) /a competitive edge, they d) perimeter
are (C) /more important now then before. (D) e) branching

a) A
b) B 28. ___C___
c) C
d) D a) intuition
e) No error b) heredity
c) inherently
d) acquired
Directions: In the passage given below there are e) natural
blanks which are to be filled with the options given
below. Find out the appropriate words in each case
that can most suitably complete the sentence 29. ___D___
grammatically and contextually.
a) quite
We're all guilty of going out for a stroll - whether it's for b) invalid
exercise or for buying groceries - and then mindlessly c) absolute
unholstering our phones to check the latest news alert d) complete
or to scroll Instagram. Well, a fascinating new study e) incompetent
___A___ why gazing down at your phone while
walking in a public space among other people isn't just
a bad idea for your safety and for your mental health, 30. ___E___
but it also may disrupt the world around you in ways
that may surprise you. Scientists in the age-old
a) mindful
___B___ of crowd psychology have long worked to
b) distraction
understand how human beings move and interact
c) alert
when they come together in large groups. They've
d) inattentive
observed how crowds don't move randomly when they
e) carelessly
collide in places such as football stadiums, parks,
shopping malls, but create ___C___ patterns. Using
visual cues, we humans operate in groups much like
31. The ratio of the length of a rectangle and side e) None of the above
length of a square is 4:7 and the ratio of their
perimeters is 1:2. What is the ratio of area of
rectangle to area of the square? 36. Imran started a business with a capital of Rs
15000. Three months later, Amit joined with a
a) 2:7 capital of Rs 21,000. After another 3 months, Imran
b) 1:7 invested Rs 3,000 more while Amit withdrew Rs,
c) 12:49 6000. At the end of 8 months, Piyush joined with a
d) 11:49 capital of Rs 15000. In what ratio their profits get
e) 10:49 divided at the end of the year?

a) 66 : 51 : 20
32. What value will come in place of question mark b) 66 : 20 : 53
(?) in the following questions? c) 55 : 51 : 20
2660 ÷ 95 = ? + 22 d) 66 : 51 : 23
e) None of these
a) 3
b) 11
c) -4 37. Garima's age 3 years ago is five times of Ajay's
d) -3 age after 8 years and sum of ages of Ajay, Garima
e) 6 and Anu after one year is 107 years. If Anu is 4
years younger than Garima, then what is the
present age of Anu?
33. What value will come in place of question mark
(?) in the following question? a) 48 years
58/264 x 88/348 x ? = 11 b) 51 years
c) 54 years
a) 188 d) 49 years
b) 202 e) None of these
c) 204
d) 198
e) 210 38. The time taken by a boat to go 'x' km
downstream is equal to that time taken by the boat
to go (x - 40) km upstream. If the ratio between the
34. What value will come in place of question mark downstream and upstream speed of boat is 5: 4
(?) in the following question? respectively, then find the value of 'x'?
45% of 800 - 35% of 320 = ?
a) 240 km
a) 248 b) 160 km
b) 148 c) 180 km
c) 268 d) 200 km
d) 278 e) 150 km
e) 168

39. Find the next term in the series.

35. The ratio of time taken by A and B together to 147, 168, 189, 210, 231, ?
B alone to do a piece of work is 3: 5. What is the
ratio of A's efficiency to A's and B's together a) 241
efficiency? b) 255
c) 236
a) 3: 7 d) 252
b) 2: 3 e) 261
c) 3: 2
d) 2: 5
40. Find the next term in the series. 45. At what rate of interest, does a sum of money
4, 24, 64, 124, 204, ? become nine fold in 2 years when the interest
earned is compounded every year?
a) 207
b) 266 a) 100%
c) 304 b) 150%
d) 263 c) 200%
e) 235 d) 300%
e) None of these

41. Find the next term in the series.

38, 57, 95, 133, 209, ? 46. The marked price and selling price of an article
are Rs.350 and Rs.200 respectively more than the
a) 221 cost price of that article. If the profit percent on
b) 251 that article is double the discount percent, then
c) 225 find the cost price of the article?
d) 215
e) 247 a) Rs.800
b) Rs.700
c) Rs.500
42. What value will come in place of question mark d) Rs.200
(?) in the following question? e) None of these
145 x 10 = ? - 160 x 10

a) 3020 47. In the following questions two equations

b) 3010 numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
c) 3030 both the equations and choose the correct option.
d) 3050 I. x2 +26x +165 = 0
e) 3070 II. y2 +38y +345 = 0

a) x < y
43. What value will come in place of question mark b) x > y
(?) in the following question? c) x ≤ y
30/3 - 7 x 9 + ∛64 = ? d) x ≥ y
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
a) -37
b) -49
c) -61 48. In the following questions two equations
d) -33 numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
e) -41 both the equations and choose the correct option.
I. x2 +28x +171 = 0
II. y2 -9y -136 = 0
44. What value will come in place of question mark
(?) in the following question? a) x < y
(0.064)104 ÷ 0.1646 = (0.4)? b) x > y
c) x ≤ y
a) 211 d) x ≥ y
b) 208 e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
c) 214
d) 220
e) 205 Directions: Study the data given below and answer
the following questions:

Below pie chart shows the percentage distribution of

the expenditure incurred in manufacturing furniture.
 e) None of these

53. Labour cost on the furniture is how much

percentage less than the polishing cost?

a) 5%
b) 33%
c) 20%
d) 25%
e) None of these

49. If for a certain number of furniture, the

54. Find the next term in the series.
carpenter is to be paid Rs. 30600 as polishing
12, 43, 105, 198, 322, ?
cost, then what will be the Labour cost to be paid
for this furniture?
a) 421
b) 512
a) Rs. 19450
c) 477
b) Rs. 21200
d) 522
c) Rs. 22950
e) 490
d) Rs. 26150
e) None of these
55. What value will come in place of question mark
(?) in the following questions?
50. What is the central angle of the sector
(?)2 + 63 = 252 - 9
corresponding to the expenditure incurred on
Labour cost?
a) 20
b) 28
a) 15°
c) 4
b) 24°
d) 32
c) 54°
e) 24
d) 48°
e) None of these
56. Two trains running at a speed of 100 km/hr and
75 km/hr move towards each other starting from
51. What is the ratio of raw material cost to
stations A and B simultaneously. If the faster of
painting cost?
the two trains traveled 100 km more than the
slower train when they meet, then what is the
a) 5: 6 distance between station A and B?
b) 3: 2
c) 4: 5
a) 700 km
d) 5: 4
b) 800 km
e) None of these
c) 650 km
d) 750 km
e) Can't be determined
52. If 2750 sets of furniture are sold and the freight
cost is Rs. 41250, then what should be the selling
price of a furniture set so that the manufacturer
57. Find the next term in the series.
can earn a profit of 25%?
13, 20, 29, 40, 53, ?
a) Rs. 187.50
a) 57
b) Rs. 191.5
b) 56
c) Rs. 175
c) 68
d) Rs. 180
d) 75
e) 85 a) 85.5
b) 76.25
c) 66
58. What value will come in place of question mark d) 53.75
(?) in the following question? e) 42.5
202 - 8⅓ + 81¼ = ?

a) 422 63. What will come in place of question mark (?) in

b) 395 the following equation?
c) 380 (24 × 82 ÷ 8) ÷ ? = 6
d) 410
e) 401 a) 41
b) 45
c) 36
59. In the following questions two equations d) 32
numbered I and II are given. You have to solve e) 48
both the equations and choose the correct option.
I. x2 +x -6 = 0
II. y2 -11y +18 = 0 64. What would come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following question?
a) x < y 2% of 800 × ? = 224
b) x > y
c) x ≤ y a) 18
d) x ≥ y b) 14
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established c) 12
d) 16
e) 13
60. A jar contains 140 L of mixture of petrol and
diesel. If 35 litres of petrol is added to the mixture,
then ratio of quantity of petrol to that of diesel in 65. In the given question, two equations I and II
the jar become 5: 2, then what is the initial ratio of are given. Solve both the equations and answer
quantity of petrol to that of diesel in the jar? accordingly.
I. x2 - 9x + 20 = 0
a) 9: 5 II. 2y2 - 16y + 24 = 0
b) 8: 3
c) 11: 7 a) if x < y
d) 7: 2 b) if x ≤ y
e) 13: 4 c) if x > y
d) if x ≥ y
e) if x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be
61. What will come in the place of question mark established
(?) in the given expression?
75÷0.5 x 0.2 =?
Directions [Set of 2 Questions]: There are six
a) 75 members in a family across two generations. E is the
b) 25 sister of G. S is the son of O. K is the father of A. E
c) 30 does not have a daughter. G is the sister-in-law of K.
d) 15 Each child had either both or none of his parents alive.
e) None of these
66. How is O related to E?

62. What value should come in place of the a) Brother

question mark (?) in the following question? b) Sister
12 + 12 ÷ (12 + 12 ÷ 3) = 30% of ? c) Brother-in-law
d) Sister-in-law
e) Wife c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
67. How is A related to G?

a) Son 71. Answer the questions on the basis of the

b) Brother information given below
c) Daughter Statements: S < F, V ≥ D, F < V
d) Nephew Conclusions: I. F < DII. S > D
e) Niece
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
68. Using 3rd, 4th, 9th and 11th letter of the word c) If either conclusion I or II is true
'INSPIRATIONAL', a meaningful word is formed. d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
What will be the last letter of the word? If no e) If both conclusions I and II are true
meaningful word can be formed, then mark 'X' and
if more than one meaningful word is possible then
mark 'Y'. Directions: Seven people lived in an apartment with 7
floors such that each floor was numbered from 1-7
a) X where 7 is the topmost floor and 1 is the lowermost
b) Y floor. Each person lived on a different floor. Only one
c) S person lives between E and G. D lived below A. A and
d) N B are not immediate neighbours. Three people live
e) P between B and E. G lived immediately below D on an
even numbered floor. F lived above C but below A.

69. In these questions, the relationship between 72. How many people live between C and B?
two elements is shown in the statements. These
statements are followed by two conclusions. Read a) 1
the statements and given answer. b) 3
c) 4
Statement: L<M<N, O>N>P d) 2
Conclusions: e) None
I. O>M
II. P>L
73. On which floor does E lives?
a) If only conclusion I follows.
b) If only conclusion II follows. a) 3rd
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. b) 6th
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. c) 2nd
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. d) 4th
e) None of these

70. In these questions, the relationship between

two elements is shown in the statements. These 74. How many people lived between F and A?
statements are followed by two conclusions. Read
the statements and given answer. a) 0
b) 3
Statement: T>V>B, V<Q, T>H c) 2
Conclusions: d) 4
I. H<V e) 1
II. Q>B

a) If only conclusion I follows. 75. The number of people living below D is same
b) If only conclusion II follows. as the number of people living above?
a) G 80. The letter ___ has equal number of symbols on
b) F its either side. Fill in the blanks with the correct
c) E option.
d) B
e) C a) U
b) T
c) K
76. Which of the following is odd from the rest on d) None of the given
the basis of their arrangement? e) L

a) A
b) B 81. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
c) C way based on their positions in the string. Find
d) D the odd one out.
e) F
a) ∑⋆A
b) θKL
Directions : Consider the alphanumeric string given c) 6∆♣
below consisting of letters, numbers and symbols and d) ⇇LT
answer the questions that follow based on the given e) @U4
steps:

82. In the following question, three statements are

given and two conclusions are given below these
77. How many such symbols are there which are statements. Choose the option which shows the
immediately preceded by a consonant and conclusions which logically follow from the given
immediately succeeded by a vowel? statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
a) Two Only a few abdomens are guts.
b) None Some guts are limbs.
c) Three All limbs are arms.
d) More than three
e) One Conclusions:
I. Some guts are arms.
II. Some arms are limbs.
78. Which of the following numbers is immediately
preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a) Both I and II follow
a symbol? b) Only II follows
c) Only I follows
d) Either I or II follows
a) 6
e) Neither I nor II follows
b) 4
c) 8
d) 7
e) Both 6 and 8 83. In the following question, three statements are
given and two conclusions are given below these
statements. Choose the option which shows the
conclusions which logically follow from the given
79. How many letters are there to the right of the
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
smallest number in the string?
Statements:
Only a few person are human.
a) 5 No human is an individual.
b) 4 Only a few characters are individuals.
c) 7
d) 15 Conclusions:
e) 10 I. Some characters are not human.
II. All person are characters.
a) Both I and II follow
b) Only II follows
c) Only I follows
d) Either I or II follows
e) Neither I nor II follows
Directions: Six people in a room had different weight.
Three people had their weights in between Raghu's
weight and Mike's weight. Raghu was heavier than
Mike. Nandu, who was immediately heavier than
Ashu, was not immediately lighter than Raghu. Disha
is heavier than Bina but Disha is not the heaviest. No
two persons had the same weight.
84. Who among the following is lighter in weight
than Ashu?
South, but not necessarily in the same order. People
in row 1 are facing the people in row 2.
B sits at middle position of the row. Q faces E, who
sits third to the right of C. P sits third to the right of N,
who is not an immediate neighbour of O. The person,
who faces B, is not an immediate neighbour of Q. D
faces neither P nor M.
87. Who among the following is seated opposite to
P?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) None of the above

a) Nandu
b) Disha 88. Which among the following is true regarding D,
c) Raghu based on the given information?
d) Bina
e) More than one of the above a) D is an immediate neighbour of C.
b) D faces N.
c) Only three people are seated between D and A.
85. How many people is/are heavier than Disha? d) More than one person seated to the right of D.
e) All are true.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1 89. Who among the following is seated second to
d) 5 the left of P?
e) 3
a) O
b) N
86. If in the number 3685742439, the digits are c) M
arranged in decreasing order from left to right, d) Either N (or) O
then which is the third number to the right of e) Q
eighth number from the right end?

a) 4 90. If the members of the first row changes their

b) 7 positions alphabetically from the left side of the
c) 3 row, then how many of them will remain
d) 2 unchanged?
e) 5
a) 1
b) 2
Directions : Study the following information and c) 0
answer the following questions: d) 3
e) 4
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing
five each, such that they are equidistant from each
other. In row 1, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting, facing 91. Who among the following sits second to the
towards North, but not necessarily in the same order. right of the person who is facing B?
In row 2, A, B, C, D and E are sitting, facing towards
a) M e) Only two persons attend coaching before G
b) O
c) P
d) N 96. In each of the questions below are given some
e) None of the above statements followed by some conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance from commonly
Directions : Seven friends attend coaching on known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
different days of the week starting from Monday to decide which of the given conclusions logically
Sunday. follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
A attend coaching before Wednesday. Two persons Statements:
attend coaching between A and B. The number of All pans are caps.
persons who attend coaching after B was the same as No cap is a can.
the number of persons who attend coaching before G. All cans are autos.
Two persons attend coaching between E and G. One
person attends coaching between C and G. D attend Conclusions:
the coaching before F. I. Some autos are cans
II. No can is pan.
92. Who among the following attends coaching on
Thursday? a) If only Conclusion I follows.
b) If only Conclusion II follows.
a) F c) If either Conclusion I or II follows.
b) E d) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
c) B e) If both Conclusions I and II follow.
d) D
e) C
Directions :The given questions are based on the five
3-ltter words which are as follows:
93. How many persons attend coaching between B
and C? FAN PIN WET POT GUN

a) Two 97. If each consonant in each word is changed to

b) One the next letter as per the English alphabet series,
c) None then how many words will have 2 or more vowels
d) Three (either same or different)?
e) More than three
a) 2
b) 1
94. Who among the following attends coaching c) 3
immediately after G? d) 4
e) 5
a) A
b) E
c) D 98. If the first letter of each word is replaced by C,
d) B then how many meaningful words can be formed
e) F after the replacement?

a) 3
95. Which of the following statement is true? b) 1
c) 2
a) C attend the coaching immediately after A d) 4
b) One person attends coaching between D and F e) 5
c) Other than the given options
d) E attend the coaching before Saturday
99. If all the alphabets of all the words are 14 - d
collectively arranged in alphabetical order, then
which is the 10th letter from the left end? 15 - a

a) T 16 - d
b) P
c) G 17 - b
d) N
e) O 18 - b

19 - d
100. If all the words (left to right) are written side
by side without a gap, and then the vowels are 20 - a
dropped then which of the following alphabet will
be 5th from the right end?
21 - b
a) P
22 - a
b) N
c) W
d) T 23 - b
e) None of these
24 - c
------------------------------------------------------------------------
25 - d

Explanation/Solution:-
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTIONS
26 - c
1-e
27 - b
2-d
28 - e
3-b
29 - a
4-d
30 - d
5-a
31 - c
6-c
32 - e
7-b
33 - d
8-a
34 - a
9-b
35 - d
10 - b
36 - a
11 - d
37 - d
Explanation/Solution:-
38 - d
12 - d
39 - d
13 - d
40 - c Explanation/Solution:-

41 - e G is the sister-in-law of K. K is the father of A.

42 - d

43 - b

44 - d
E is the sister of G.
45 - c

46 - b

47 - d

48 - a

Explanation/Solution:-

49 - c

50 - c

51 - d

52 - a

53 - d S is the son of O.

54 - c As there are six members, so case 2 is not valid.

55 - a

56 - a

57 - c

58 - e E does not have a daughter. So, A is a male.

59 - c

60 - a

61 - c

62 - e 66 - c

63 - a 67 - d

64 - b 68 - b

65 - e 69 - a
70 - b 3
71 - d 2 E
1
Explanation/Solution:-

D lived below A. G lived immediately below D on an Case 1b:

even numbered floor.
FLOOR PERSON
Case 1:
7
FLOOR PERSON 6 E
7 5 D
6 4 G
5 D 3
4 G 2 B
3 1
2
F lived above C but below A. A and B are not
1 immediate neighbours.

Case 2: So case 1a is invalid.

Case 1b:
FLOOR PERSON
7 FLOOR PERSON
6 7 A
5 6 E
4 5 D
3 D 4 G
2 G 3 F
1 2 B
1 C
Only one person lives between E and G. Three people
live between B and E. So case 2 is invalid.
72 - e
Case 1a:
73 - b
FLOOR PERSON
74 - b
7
75 - b
6 B
5 D 76 - b

4 G Explanation/Solution:-
77 - a 86 - a

78 - e Explanation/Solution:-

79 - c B sits at middle position of the row.

80 - d The person, who faces B, is not an immediate

neighbour of Q.
81 - c
Q faces E, who sits third to the right of C.
82 - a

83 - c

Explanation/Solution:-
P sits third to the right of N, who is not an immediate
Three people had their weights in between Raghu's neighbour of O.
weight and Mike's weight. Raghu was heavier than
Mike. Therefore, only M is left, who can be seated in the
1st row.
Case 1:

Case 2: D faces neither P nor M.

Only A is left who can be seated in the 2nd row.

Nandu, who was immediately heavier than Ashu, was

not immediately lighter than Raghu.

Case 1: 87 - a

88 - b

89 - c

Case 2: 90 - a

91 - c

Explanation/Solution:-
Disha is heavier than Bina but Disha is not the
heaviest. So case 2 is invalid. A attend coaching before Wednesday. Two persons
attend coaching between A and B.

Case 1 Case 2
Days Person Person
84 - d Monday A

85 - c Tuesday A
Wednesday 94 - c

Thursday B 95 - e
Friday B
96 - e
Saturday
Explanation/Solution:-
Sunday
97 - e
The number of persons who attend coaching after B
was the same as the number of persons who attend 98 - c
coaching before G. Two persons attend coaching
between E and G. 99 - b

Hence, case 1 is invalid. 100 - d

Case 2
Days Person
Monday
Tuesday A
Wednesday G
Thursday
Friday B
Saturday E
Sunday

One person attends coaching between C and G. D

attend the coaching before F.

Case 2
Days Person
Monday C
Tuesday A
Wednesday G
Thursday D
Friday B
Saturday E
Sunday F

92 - d

93 – d
DI Questions for Mains
more than the average of distance between home and
office of persons P, Q and R while the speed of person
S is 15 km/hr which is 5 km/hr less than the speed of
person T. Time taken by person T to reach office from
home is 3 hours.
Directions : Read the given information in the paragraph
carefully and answer the following questions:
Q1. What is the difference between Fare amount if
person P goes to office from home by Ola Mini and Fare
There are two Cab services in Bangalore: Ola and Uber
amount when he returns from office to home by Uber
and there are two types of cabs of each cab services:
Micro?
Mini and Micro.
A) Rs.243
Fare of Ola is calculated as the sum of Base Fare, extra
charges and taxes while the fare of Uber is calculated as
B) Rs.261
the sum of Base fare and Taxes.
C) Rs.282
Below given formulas are for calculating the fare for Ola
and Uber of both types (Mini and Micro): D) Rs.295
Ola: E) None of these
Fare of Ola vehicles = Base Fare + 5% GST on Base ========================
Fare + Extra charges + 20% GST on extra charges
Q2. A person U starts from Delhi at 8:00 AM and
Base Fare for Ola Mini = Rs.5 * Total distance travelled reaches Agra at 6:00 PM on the same day, From Delhi
(km) + Rs.20 * Total time taken in (hours) to point A he books Ola Micro that runs with speed 25
km/hr and from point A to Agra he books Uber Mini
Base Fare for Ola Micro = Rs.10 * Total distance
that runs speed 20 km/hr. Ratio of distance between
travelled (km) + Rs.30 * Total time taken in (hours)
Delhi to point A and distance between A to Agra is 5: 4
respectively, then what is the total amount of fare paid
Extra charges = 25% of Base Fare
by person U?
Uber:
A) Rs.3650
Fare of Uber vehicles = Base Fare + 5% GST on Base
B) Rs.2950
Fare
C) Rs.4250
Base Fare for Uber Mini = Rs.10 * Total distance
travelled (km) + Rs.20 * Total time taken in (hours)
D) Rs.3045
Base Fare for Uber Micro = Rs.15 * Total distance
E) None of these
travelled (km) + Rs.20 * Total time taken in (hours)
========================
Five persons P, Q, R, S and T of a company uses any
one of these cabs for travelling from their home to Q3. If person T books a private cab while returning from
Office and distances of their home from office is office to home and charges of private cab is mentioned
different. Following information is also known: below, then how much less amount he pays to private
than the amount that he pays when he goes to office
Person P covers the distance between home and office
from home by Uber Mini?
on a vehicle that travels with average speed of 20
* Fare for private cab = Base Fare + Taxes
km/hr and takes total 1.5 hours. Ratio of time taken by
* Base Fare for private cab = 8 * Total distance (km),
person P to that by person Q to reach office from home
and Taxes = 25% of Base Fare.
is 5: 4 while the speed of vehicle in which person Q is
travelling is 5 km/hr less than that of vehicle on which A) Rs.72
person P travels. Ratio of distance between home and
office for persons Q to that for person R is 3: 4 and B) Rs.81
time taken by R to reach office from home is 1 hour.
Distance between home and office of person S is 21 km C) Rs.93
D) Rs.104 ========================

E) None of these Q6. What is the number of employees who like exactly
two kind of coffee?
========================
A) 80
Directions : Study the data carefully and answer the
following questions. B) 90

In a company three kind of coffee such as café Mocha, C) 100

Americano and café Cubano like by the employees.
Total number of employees working in the company is
800 and 42.5% employees does not like coffee.
The number of employees who like café mocha is 10
less than the number of employees who like café
Cubano and number of employees who like all three
kind of coffee is 5% of total employees. The number of
employees who like café mocha and americano but not
café Cubano is half of the number of employees who
like all three kind of coffee and number of employees
who like café mocha and café Cubano but not
americano is 10 less than the number of employees
who like only americano. The number of employees who
like americano and café Cubano but not café mocha is
10 more than the number of employees who like café
mocha and americano but not café Cubano. Number of
employees who like only café Mocha is 10 more than
the twice of employees who like only americano.
Q4. The number of employees who like only Americano
is what percentage of the number of employees who
like Café mocha and café Cubano but not americano?
D) 110
E) 120
========================
Directions: Study the data carefully and answer the
following questions:
Six students M, N, O, P, Q and R give two tests. In first
test, total number of questions are 100 and in second
test, total number of questions are 200. There are three
sections A, B and C in first test and two sections X and
Y in second test. Section A, B and C consist of 35, 15
and 50 questions respectively. Section X and Y consist
of 150 and 50 questions respectively.
Below graph shows the number of questions attempted
by six students M, N, O, P, Q and R in first test and 18
times of the percentage of marks obtained by them in
first test.

A) 120%

B) 110%

C) 125%

D) 100%

E) None of these

========================

Q5. What is the difference between the number of

employees who like Americano and café mocha?

A) 50

B) 60

C) 70

D) 80 Below graph shows the number of questions attempted

by six students M, N, O, P, Q and R in second test and
E) 90
five times of percentage of marks obtained by them in
second test.
and equal to 12 wrong answers then -2 marks for each
wrong answer and there are more than 12 wrong
answers then -4 marks for each wrong answer. In
section Y, if there are upto 2 wrong answers then -2
marks for each wrong answer, if there are more than 2
and less than equal to 6 wrong answers then -4 marks
for each wrong answer and there are more than 6
wrong answers then-8 marks for each wrong answer.

For example

In section X if student attempted 10 wrong answers, the

negative marks is calculated as follows

4 * (- 1) + 6 * (- 2)

In section Y if student attempted 10 wrong answers, the

negative marks is calculated as follows

2 * (- 2) + 4 * (- 4) + 4 * (- 8)

Marks percentage in first test = (total marks obtained in

Below table shows the number of questions attempted section A, B and C) / 360 * 100
by M, N, O, P, Q and R in section A, section B and
section X. Marks percentage in second test = (total marks
obtained in section X and Y) / 1000 * 100
First test Second test
Q7. What is ratio of total marks obtained by N to total
marks obtained by R in both tests?
Section a Section b Section x
A) 301: 299

M 28 11 65 B) 311: 290

C) 311: 299
N 22 6 110
D) 301: 290

O 31 12 118 E) None of these

========================
P 28 10 60
Q8. What are the average marks obtained by O, P and
Q in section A and C together if number of wrong
Q 21 7 140 questions attempted in section A and C by O is 18 and
8, by P is 16 and 6 and by Q is 4 and 8 respectively?

R 25 8 110 A) 96

B) 97
Note- There is 4, 8 and 2 marks for each correct answer
and 1, 2 and 0.5 negative marking for every wrong C) 98
answer in section A, B and C respectively in first test.
D) 99
There is 4 and 8 marks for each correct answer in
section X and Y respectively in second test. In section X, E) None of these
if there are upto 4 wrong answers then -1 mark for each
wrong answer, if there are more than 4 and less than ========================
Q9. Marks obtained by N in section X in second test is
what percentage more or less than marks obtained by
M in same section in second test if M and N attempted
5 and 10 wrong questions in section Y in second test?

A) 162.50%

B) 164.25%

C) 166.66%

D) 168.75%

E) None of these
Aman and Ankita together can complete the work in
======================== 200/13 days, with the help of Binita, they can complete
the work in 100/9 days. Ankita and Sushma together
Q10. Which of the following sequence is correct for can complete the work in 50/3 days. Tapan and Anjana
total marks obtained by all six students in section A and together can complete the work in 12 days. Kamini and
C together in first test if M, N, O, P, Q and R attempted Madan together can complete the work in 15 days.
6, 3, 4, 2, 1 and 4 wrong questions respectively in
section B in first test? Q11. Aman started the work and Binita and Anjana
joined him every third day. In this way they worked for
A) O>P>M>Q>R>N 9 days and left. Find the time taken by Bhuvan to
complete the remaining part of the work.
B) M>O>P>Q>R>N
A) 32 days
C) P>O>M>Q>R>N
B) 36 days
D) O>M>P>Q>R>N
C) 44 days
E) M>Q>P>O>R>N
D) 40 days
========================
E) None of these
Directions : Study the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below: ========================

The following pie chart represents the percentage-wise Q12. Time taken by Suman and Kamini to complete the
distribution of part of a work completed by five boys. work together is approximately what percent of the time
taken by Tapan, Ankita and Sushma to complete the
work together.

A) 139%

B) 133%

C) 123%

D) 143%

E) 147%

========================

The following bar graph represents the time taken by Q13. Madan and Bhuvan started the work and left after
them to complete their respective part of the work. 10 days. Ankita and Suman started the remaining part
of the work but Ankita left 1 day before the completion
of the work and Suman worked till the completion of
the work. Find the number of days for which Ankita Average of male kid Percent of female
worked. Days and female kid passengers that
passengers are kid
A) 159/17 days

B) 163/21 days Monday 3 ----

C) 165/22 days
Tuesday ---- 30%
D) 164/19 days

E) None of these Wednesday 2 ----

========================
Thursday 5 75%
Directions : Read the data given below carefully and
answer the questions:
Friday ---- ----
A bus runs on five different days from Monday to Friday
and it has certain number of passenger seats. Total Q14. Total amount of fare collected form the bus on
seats in the bus is 45 out of which ratio of seats Monday is Rs.3195, then what is the ratio of male kids
reserved for male and female is 5: 4 respectively. 20% to female kids in the bus on Monday?
of male seats and 25% of female seats are reserved for
emergency and can't be booked by any means. A) 6: 5
Note: Male passengers can sit only in the seats booked B) 5: 4
for male passengers and vice versa.
C) 3: 4
· Fare for one adult male and one adult female
passenger is Rs.120 and Rs.100 respectively. D) 1: 1
· Fare of one male Kid and female kid is 75% of fare of E) 2: 3
one male adult and female adult respectively.
========================
· To calculate the maximum fare the emergency seats
are also considered. Q15. If out of total passengers in the bus on Tuesday,
approximately 26.67% are kids, then total fare
Average number of male and female passengers in bus collected from the bus on Tuesday is what percent of
on Monday is 15 while male passengers in the bus on maximum fare amount that can be collected from the
Tuesday is 2 more than the male passengers in the bus bus?
on Monday. Total number of female passengers in bus
on Tuesday and Wednesday is same which is same as A) 67.5%
the total number of male passengers in the bus on
Friday. Total number of male passengers in bus on B) 72.5%
Thursday is 2 more than the total number of male
passengers in the bus on Friday while total number of C) 63.5%
female passengers in the bus on Thursday is 4 less than
male passengers in the bus on that day. Total number D) 75%
of passengers (male + female) in the bus on Thursday is
same as the number of male passengers in the bus on E) 48.5%
Tuesday. Total number of female passengers in the bus
on Friday is 15 while the average number of female ========================
passengers in the bus on all the five days is 11 and
average number of male passengers in the bus on all Q16. If total fare collected from the bus on Wednesday
the five days is 14. is 41.8% of maximum fare that can be collected from
the bus, then what is the difference between male kid
passengers and female kid passengers in the bus on Levis. Each person uses only one brand clothes. Each
Wednesday? person like only one color among four different colors
i.e., red, grey, white and blue.
A) 0
Following equation is used for calculating the number of
B) 3 persons who like two given colors among people live in
all given buildings:
C) 5
For red: R = 2X - 2.5Y
D) 4
For grey: G = 2.5X - 3Y
E) can't be determined
Where, X and Y represents the number of males and
======================== females respectively in each building and value of X and
Y will be different for each building.
Q17. If average number of female kid passengers in the
bus on Wednesday and Thursday is 3, then what is the Code: Number of users in building B and building C are
average of total fare collected from the bus on in the ratio 3: 2 respectively. Total 1780 users are there
Wednesday and Thursday together? out of which 250 from building E. Users from building D
are twice of users from building C and users in building
A) Rs.2150 A are 20 less than number of people who like red color
in building D.
B) Rs.2025
Nike: Users in building B are 6% of total population of
C) Rs.3275 given locality and are 200 more than the number of
users in building E. Total number of users are 30 less
D) Rs.2125 than total number of users of Adidas. Number of users
in A and C are in the ratio 5: 4 respectively.
E) Rs.1850
Adidas: Number of users from building C and D are in
======================== the ratio 9:10 respectively. Number of users in building
B are 50 more than the number of people who like grey
Q18. Out of total passengers in the bus on Friday, 40% color from same building. Users in building A are 80
are kids and ratio of male kids to female kids is 1: 4. If less than the number of females in same building. 270
'x' more passengers boarded to the bus on that day out users are in building E.
of which one is kid and remaining are adults. Total fare
collected from the bus on Friday is increased by Rs.570 Levis: Total 2270 users are there out of which 300 live
from the original fare, then what is the value of 'x'? in building C. Users in building D are 4 times the
number of people in building C who like white color.
A) 5 Users in building B are 45 more than the number of
people in building E who like red color.
B) 4
Following data is also given:
C) 1
Number of people in building A who like white and blue
D) 3 color are in the ratio 3: 1 respectively and 150 people
in building A like white color which is 100 less than the
E) 2 number of people in building C who like same color.
Number of people who like white and blue color in
======================== building E are 300 and in building B are 1000. Total
4500 people are there in locality who like white and
Directions : Study the following information carefully blue color and 550 people in building C like blue color.
and answer the related questions.
Q19. If 350 people from building A like grey color and
There are total 8000 people in a locality who live in 5 the ratio of people who like red and grey color in
different buildings A(10%), B(25%), C(15%), D(35%) building B are in the ratio 2: 3 respectively, then what
and remaining in E. All of them use different brand will be the difference between total number of Adidas
clothes among four types i.e. Code, Nike, Adidas and users from building A and B?
A) 410 C) 66.5%

B) 420 D) 58.5%

C) 430 E) 60.5%

D) 440 ========================

E) 450 Q23. In building E, 66%, 45% and 52% Code, Nike

========================
Q20. If there are 1200 females in building D, then what
will be the respective ratio of total number of Code
users in building A and D together to the total number
of Levis users in building C and E together?
A) 19: 17
B) 22: 19
C) 28: 23
D) 33: 29
E) 39: 35
========================
Q21. If the ratio of number of Levis users in building A
and B are in the ratio 5: 14 respectively, then total
number of females in building E are approximately what
percent of total population of given locality?
A) 4%
and Levis users are females and total number of male
users of Code, Nike and Levis in building C are 24 more
than total number of male users of same brands in
building E. If there are total 800 users of Code, Nike
and Levis in building C, then what will be the difference
between number of male users of same brands in
building E and number of female users of same brands
in building C?
A) 84
B) 88
C) 90
D) 86
E) 92
========================
Directions : Study the following information carefully
and answer the related questions.
The following charts represent the database of a health
camp held in two states during the two different years.

B) 6%

C) 8%

D) 10%

E) 12%

========================

Q22. If males in building C are 200 more than females

(Note: Values given in percentage for state P for a
in same building and number of people who like white
particular year are out total population of state P in that
color in building B are 200 less than the number of
year and values given in percentage for state Q for a
people who like blue color in same building, then
particular year are out of total population of state Q in
number of people in building C who like grey color are
that year.)
approximately what percent of number of people in
building B who like white color? Q24. if the number of sick people recommended for
immediate treatment from state P in 2013 is 1344 less
A) 62.5%
than the previous year, then what is the value of 'C'?
B) 54.5%
A) 6
B) 7 B) 10226

C) 8 C) 13524

D) 9 D) 11426

E) 10 E) 14388

======================== ========================

Q25. If A - H - E = 61132 - 1200F and B + G = 2(F - Q28. If 20237 people from state Q in 2012 and 2013
15), then how many people visited health camp in state taken together who found sick did not recommend for
P is 2012? immediate treatment, then what is the difference
between number of sick people recommended for
A) 81900 immediate treatment from state Q in 2012 and number
of people who were not sick according to test report in
B) 78750 state P in 2013?

C) 77700 A) 40652

D) 79800 B) 39862

E) 80850 C) 36572

======================== D) 38142

Q26. In 2012 the ratio of number of people found sick E) 41882

according to test report in state Q and number of
people found sick according to test report but did not
recommend for immediate treatment from state P is 1:
1. If population of state Q is increased by 15% in 2013
than previous year and number of people who visited
health camp but did not complete their health check-up
test in state Q in 2013 are 74676 less than the number
of people visited health camp from state P in same year,
then what is the average of number of people from
state P who did not visit camp in 2012 and 2013
together?
========================
Directions : There are five mixtures P, Q, R, S and T of
three liquids Oil, Petrol and Kerosene. Pie chart given
below shows the distribution (degree) of total amount
of Oil in those five mixtures and line graph given below
shows the per cent more/less amount of Petrol and
Kerosene with respect to the amount of Oil in those five
mixtures.

A) 22350

B) 23850

C) 24750

D) 25650

E) 26250

========================

Q27. Average of number of people completed their

health check-ups tests from state Q in 2012 and 2013
taken together is 63063. How many people from state
Q visited health camp but did not complete their health
check-up test in 2013?

A) 15682
 B) (38/117)

C) (37/117)

D) (23/121)

E) None of these

Q29. When mixture P and Q are mixed in the ratio 4: 5

to form a final mixture, then different between amount
of Oil and Petrol in the final mixture becomes 12 litres,
then what is the total amount of newly formed mixture?

A) 172 litres

B) 151 litres

C) 162 litres

D) 144 litres

E) None of these

========================

Q30. In what ratio mixtures P and R must be mixed to

form a final mixture so that in the final mixture, amount
of Oil and Petrol is same while the amount of Kerosene
is 15 litres less than that of Petrol and total amount of
final mixture is 105 litres?

A) 5: 2

B) 7: 3

C) 6: 5

D) 8: 5

E) 4: 3

========================

Q31. When 'X' litres of mixture S is mixed with '156'

litres of mixture T to form mixture A, then ratio of Oil,
Petrol and Kerosene in the mixture A becomes 76: 75:
83, then what will be the part of Oil in total amount of
mixture B if '156' litres of mixture S is mixed with 'X'
litres of mixture T to from mixture B?

A) (45/119)
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTIONS Fare of Ola Micro = 1400 + 5% of 1400 + 350 +
20% of 350 = Rs.1890

Q1 - B Base Fare for Uber Mini = 10 * 100 + 20 * (100/20) =

Rs.1100
Explanation/Solution:-
Fare of Uber Mini = 1100 + 5% of 1100 = Rs.1155
Fare amount when person P goes to office from home
by Ola Mini = Base Fare + 5% GST on Base Fare + Total Fare = 1890 + 1155 = Rs.3045
Extra charges + 20% GST on extra charges
Q3 - C
Base Fare for Ola mini = 5 * 30 + 20 * 1.5 = Rs.180
Explanation/Solution:-
Extra charges = 25% of 180 = Rs.45
Base Fare for Uber Mini = 10 * 60 + 20 * 3 = Rs.660
Fare amount = 180 + 5% of 180 + 45 + 20% of 45
Fare of Uber Mini for person T when goes to office =
= 189 + 54 660 + 5% of 660 = Rs.693

= Rs.243 Base Fare for private cab = 8 * 60 = Rs.480

Fare amount when person P return from office to home Taxes = 25% of 480 = Rs.120
by Uber Micro = Base Fare + 5% GST on Base Fare
Fare for private cab when person T returns from office =
Base Fare for Uber Micro = 15 * 30 + 20 * 1.5 = 480 + 120 = Rs.600
Rs.480
Required difference = 693 - 600 = Rs.93
Fare amount = 480 + 5% of 480 =
Explanation/Solution:-
= 480 + 24
Let areas in Venn-diagram be a, b, c, d, e, f, g and h.
= Rs.504

Required difference = 504 - 243 = Rs.261

Q2 - D

Explanation/Solution:-

Let distance between Delhi to point A and distance

between point A to Agra is '5x' and '4x' respectively.

According to the question:

(5x/25) + (4x/20) = 6:00 PM - 8:00 AM = 10 hours

(2x/5) = 10

x = 25

Distance between Delhi to point A = 5x = 125 km

Distance between point A to Agra = 4x = 100 km
Base Fare for Ola Micro = 10 * 125 + 30 * (125/25) =
Rs.1400
Extra charges = 25% of 1400 = Rs.350
Total number of employees working in the company is
800
Number of employees who does not like coffee = h =
800 * 42.5/100 = 340
Number of employees who like coffee = 800 - 340 = => 2(10 + 2b) + b + d = 370
460
=> 5b + d = 350 ---(5)
So, a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 460 ---(1)
Adding equation (3) and (5), we get
The number of employees who like all three kind of
coffee is 5% of total employees => b = 60 and d = 50

g = 5/100 * 800 = 40 So, a = c = 130

The number of employees who like café mocha is 10

less than the number of employees who like café
Cubano

So, (a + d + e + g) = (c + d + g + f) - 10

=> a + e = c + f - 10 ---(2)

The number of employees who like café mocha and

americano but not café Cubano is half of the number of
employees who like all three kind of coffee

So, e = 1/2 * g = 1/2 * 40 = 20

The number of employees who like café mocha and café

Cubano but not americano is 10 less than the number
of employees who like only americano

So, d = b - 10
Q4 - A
=> b - d = 10 ---(3)
Explanation/Solution:-
The number of employees who like americano and café
Cubano but not café mocha is 10 more than the number Required % = 60/50 * 100 = 120%
of employees who like café mocha and americano but
not café Cubano Q5 - E
So, f = 10 + e = 30 Explanation/Solution:-
From equation (2), we get Required difference = (130 + 20 + 40 + 50) - (60 +
30 + 40 + 20) = 90
=> a + 20 = c + 30 - 10
Q6 - C
=> a = c
Explanation/Solution:-
And, Number of employees who like only café Mocha is
10 more than the twice of employees who like only Required total = 20 + 50 + 30 = 100
americano.
Explanation/Solution:-
So, a = 10 + 2b ---(4)
Tabulating data-
From equation (1), we get

a + b + c + d + 20 + 30 + 40 = 460 First test

=> 2a + b + d = 370

From equation (4), we get

 Numbe Numbe Numbe O 160 (264/5)% 528 118 42
r of r of r of
Total
questio questio questio
questio
ns ns ns P 90 (178/5)% 356 60 30
n Tota
Percent attemp attemp attemp
attemp l
age ted in ted in ted in
ted mar Q 175 (208/5)% 416 140 35
marks section section section
(maxim ks
A B C
um =
(maxim (maxim (maxim
100) R 140 (236/5)% 472 110 30
um = um = um =
35) 15) 50)
Q7 - B
(735/1
M 75 147 28 11 36 Explanation/Solution:-
8)%
Marks percentage in first test of N = 450/18 = 25%
(450/1
N 60 90 22 6 32 Marks percentage in first test = (total marks obtained in
8)%
section A, B and C)/360 * 100

=> 25 = (total marks obtained in section A, B and

(820/1
O 90 164 31 12 47 C)/360 * 100
8)%
=> total marks obtained in section A, B and C = 25 *
360/100
(805/1
P 80 161 28 10 42
8)%
=> total marks obtained in section A, B and C = 90

Marks percentage in second test of N = 266/5 =

(670/1
Q 50 134 21 7 22 53.2%
8)%
Marks percentage in second test = (total marks
obtained in section X and Y)/1000 * 100
(540/1
R 65 108 25 8 32
8)%
=> total marks obtained in section X and Y = 53.2 *
1000/100 = 532
Second test Total marks obtained by N in both test = 90 + 532 =
622
Number
Number Marks percentage in first test of R = 540/18 = 30%
Total of
of
question questions Marks percentage in first test = (total marks obtained in
questions
attempte Total attempte section A, B and C)/360 * 100
Percentag attempte
d mark d in
e marks d in
(maximu s section X => total marks obtained in section A, B and C = 30 *
section Y
m= (maximu 360/100 = 108
(maximu
200) m=
m = 50)
150) Marks percentage in second test of R = 236/5 = 47.2%

Marks percentage in second test = (total marks

M 110 (216/5)% 432 65 45 obtained in section X and Y)/1000 * 100

=> total marks obtained in section X and Y) = 472

N 150 (266/5)% 532 110 40
Total marks obtained by R in both test = 108 + 472 =
580
So, required ratio = 622: 580 = 311: 290
Q8 - D
Explanation/Solution:-
Marks obtained by O:
In section A = (31 - 18) * 4 - 18 * 1 = 34
In section C = (47 - 8) * 2 - 8 * 0.5 = 74
Total = 34 + 74 = 108
Marks obtained by P:
In section A = (28 - 16) * 4 - 16 * 1 = 32
In section C = (42 - 6) * 2 - 6 * 0.5 = 69
Total = 32 + 69 = 101
Marks obtained by Q:
In section A = (21 - 4) * 4 - 4 * 1 = 64
In section C = (22 - 8) * 2 - 8 * 0.5 = 24
Total = 64 + 24 = 88
Required average = (108 + 101 + 88)/3 = 99
Q9 - D
Explanation/Solution:-
Marks obtained by M:
Total marks obtained in second test = 432
In section Y = 40 * 8 - 2 * 2 - 4 * 3 = 304
So, in section X = 432 - 304 = 128
Marks obtained by N:
Total marks obtained in second test = 532
In section Y = 30 * 8 - 2 * 2 - 4 * 4 - 8 * 4 = 188
So, in section X = 532 - 188 = 344
So, required % = (344 - 128)/128 * 100 = 168.75%
Q10 - B
Explanation/Solution:-
Marks obtained in section A and C together in first test:
By M = 147 - (5 * 8 - 6 * 2) = 147 - 28 = 119
By N = 90 - (3 * 8 - 3 * 2) = 90 - 18 = 72
BY O = 164 - (8 * 8 - 4 * 2) = 164 - 56 = 108
By P = 161 - (8 * 8 - 2 * 2) = 161 - 60 = 101
By Q = 134 - (6 * 8 - 1 * 2) = 134 - 46 = 88
By R = 108 - (4 * 8 - 4 * 2) = 108 - 24 = 84
So, correct sequence is M (119) > O (108) > P (101) >
Q (88) > R (84) > N (72)
Explanation/Solution:-
Time taken by Aman to complete 20% of the work = 8
days
=> Time taken by Aman to complete 1% of the work =
8/20 days
=> Time taken by Aman to complete 100% of the work
= 8/20 x 100 = 40 days
Time taken by Bhuvan to complete 15% of the work =
9 days
=> Time taken by Bhuvan to complete 1% of the work
= 9/15 days
=> Time taken by Bhuvan to complete 100% of the
work = 9/15 x 100 = 60 days
Time taken by Suman to complete 10% of the work = 3
days
=> Time taken by Suman to complete 1% of the work =
3/10 days
=> Time taken by Suman to complete 100% of the
work = 3/10 x 100 = 30 days
Time taken by Tapan to complete 25% of the work = 5
days
=> Time taken by Tapan to complete 1% of the work =
5/25
=> Time taken by Tapan to complete 100% of the work
= 5/25 x 100 = 20 days
Time taken by Madan to complete 30% of the work =
12 days
=> Time taken by Madan to complete 1% of the work = => 1/Kamini = 1/15 - 1/40
12/30 days
=> 1/Kamini = (8 - 3)/120
=> Time taken by Madan to complete 100% of the
work = 12/30 x 100 = 40 days => 1/Kamini = 5/120

Now, => 1/Kamini = 1/24

1/Aman + 1/Ankita = 13/200 Q11 - B

=> 1/40 + 1/Ankita = 13/200 Explanation/Solution:-

=> 1/Ankita = 13/200 - 1/40 Let, required time = n days

=> 1/Ankita = (13 - 5)/200 9/40 + 3/40 + 3/30 + n/60 = 1

=> 1/Ankita = 8/200 => 12/40 + 1/10 + n/60 = 1

=> 1/Ankita = 1/25 => 3/10 + 1/10 + n/60 = 1

1/Aman + 1/Ankita + 1/Binita = 9/100 => 4/10 + n/60 = 1

=> 13/200 + 1/Binita = 9/100 => 2/5 + n/60 = 1

=> 1/Binita = 9/100 - 13/200 => n/60 = 1 - 2/5

=> 1/Binita = (18 - 13)/200 => n/60 = (5 - 2)/5

=> 1/Binita = 5/200 => n/60 = 3/5

=> 1/Binita = 1/40 => n = 60 x 3/5

1/Ankita + 1/Sushma = 3/50 => n = 36 days

=> 1/25 + 1/Sushma = 3/50 Q12 - E

=> 1/Sushma = 3/50 - 1/25 Explanation/Solution:-

=> 1/Sushma = (3 - 2)/50 Let, time taken by Suman and Kamini to complete the
work = m days
=> 1/Sushma = 1/50
And time taken by Tapan, Ankita and Sushma to
1/Tapan + 1/Anjana = 1/12 complete the work = n days

=> 1/20 + 1/Anjana = 1/12 m x (1/30 + 1/24) = 1

=> 1/Anjana = 1/12 - 1/20 => m x (4 + 5)/120 = 1

=> 1/Anjana = (5 - 3)/60 => m = 120/9

=> 1/Anjana = 2/60 => m = 40/3 days

=> 1/Anjana = 1/30 And

1/Kamini + 1/Madan = 1/15 n x (1/20 + 1/25 + 1/50) = 1

=> 1/Kamini + 1/40 = 1/15 => n x (5 + 4 + 2)/100 = 1

=> n = 100/11 days Male passengers in the bus on Tuesday = (x + 2)

Required percentage = (40/3)/(100/11) x 100 Let female passengers in the bus on Tuesday and
Wednesday is 'y' each.
= 146.67%
Male passengers in the bus on Friday = y
= 147% approx.
Male passengers in the bus on Thursday = (y + 2)
Q13 - C
Female passengers in the bus on Thursday = (y + 2) - 4
Explanation/Solution:- = (y - 2)

Let, Ankita worked for n days. According to the question:

10/40 + 10/60 + n/25 + (n + 1)/30 = 1 (y + 2) + (y - 2) = (x + 2)

=> ¼ + 1/6 + (6n + 5n + 5)/150 = 1 2y = x + 2

=> (11n + 5)/150 = 1 - ¼ - 1/6 x = (2y - 2)

=> (11n + 5)/150 = (12 - 3 - 2)/12 Male passengers in the bus on Monday = x = (2y - 2)

=> 11n + 5 = 150 x 7/12 Female passengers in the bus on Monday = (30 - x) =
30 - (2y - 2) = (32 - 2y)
=> 11n = 175/2 - 5
Male passengers in the bus on Tuesday = (x + 2) = 2y
=> n = 1/11 x (175 - 10)/2
Female passengers in the bus on Friday = 15
=> n = 165/22
According to the question:
Explanation/Solution:-
[(32 - 2y) + y + y + (y - 2) + 15]/5 = 11
Total seats in the bus = 45
30 + y + 15 = 55
Male seats in the bus = 45 * (5/9) = 25
y = 10
Female seats in the bus = 45 * (4/9) = 20
let male passengers in the bus on Wednesday = z
Male seat reserved for emergency = 20% of 25 = 5
And,
Female seat reserved for emergency = 25% of 20 = 5
[(2y - 2) + 2y + z + (y + 2) + y]/5 = 14
Fare for one male adult = Rs.120
6y + z = 70
Fare for one female adult = Rs.100
z = 70 - 60
Fare for one male kid = 75% of 120 = Rs.90
z = 10
Fare for one female kid = 75% of 100 = Rs.75

Maximum amount of fare that can be collected from the Total Male Total Female
Days
bus on any day = (25 * 120) + (20 * 100) = Rs.5000 passengers passengers

Sum of male and female passengers in the bus on

Monday = 15 * 2 = 30 Monday (2y - 2) = 18 (32 - 2y) = 12

Let male and female passengers in the bus on Monday

is 'x' and '30 - x' respectively.
 Total fare collected from the bus on Tuesday = [15 *
Tuesday 2y = 20 y = 10 120] + [5 * 90] + [7 * 100] + [3 * 75] = 1800 + 450
+ 700 + 225 = Rs.3175
Wednesday z = 10 y = 10 Maximum fare amount that can be collected from the
bus = Rs.5000
Thursday (y + 2) = 12 (y - 2) = 8 Required percent = (3175/5000) * 100 = 63.5%

Q16 - A
Friday y = 10 15
Explanation/Solution:-
Q14 - D
Total kid passengers in the bus on Wednesday = 2 * 2
Explanation/Solution:- =4

Sum of male and female kids in the bus on Monday = 3 Let male kid and female kid passengers in the bus on
*2=6 Wednesday is 'x' and '4 - x' respectively.

Let male and female kids in the bus on Monday = 'x' Male adult passengers in the bus on Wednesday = (10 -
and '6 - x' respectively. x)

Male adults in the bus on Monday = (18 - x)
Female adults in the bus on Monday = 12 - (6 - x) = (6
+ x)
Total fare collected form the bus on Monday = [(18 - x)
* 120] + [x * 90] + [(6 + x) * 100] + [(6 - x) * 75] =
3195
2160 - 120x + 90x + 600 + 100x + 450 - 75x =
3195
Female adult passengers in the bus on Wednesday =
10 - (4 - x) = (6 + x)
Total fare collected from the bus on Wednesday = [(10 -
x) * 120] + [x * 90] + [(6 + x) * 100] + [(4 - x) * 75] =
41.8% of 5000
1200 - 120x + 90x + 600 + 100x + 300 - 75x =
2090
5x = 10

5x = 15 x=2

x=3 Male kids in the bus on Wednesday = x = 2

Required ratio = x: (6 - x) = 3: 3 = 1: 1 Female kids in the bus on Wednesday = (4 - x) = 2

Q15 - C Required difference = 2 - 2 = 0

Explanation/Solution:- Q17 - B

Total passengers in the bus on Tuesday = 20 + 10 Explanation/Solution:-

Total kid passengers in the bus on Tuesday = 26.67% Female kid passenger in the bus on Thursday = 75% of
of 30 = 8 8=6

Total male kid passengers in the bus on Tuesday = 8 - Female kid passenger in the bus on Wednesday = 6 - (2
30% of 10 = 5 * 3) = 0

Total male adult passengers in the bus on Tuesday = Total kid passengers in the bus on Wednesday = 2 * 2
20 - 5 = 15 =4

Total female adult passengers in the bus on Tuesday = Male kid passenger in the bus on Wednesday = 4 - 0 =
10 - 3 = 7 4
Male kid passenger in the bus on Thursday = (2 * 5) - 6 Then, 800 = 2X - 2.5Y + 2.5X - 3Y + 150 + 50
=4
9X - 11Y = 1200
Total fare collected from the bus on Wednesday = [6 *
120] + [4 * 90] + [10 * 100] + [0 * 75] = 720 + 360 For building B:
+ 1000 + 0 = Rs.2080
Total population = 25% of 8000 = 2000
Total fare collected from the bus on Thursday = [8 *
120] + [4 * 90] + [2 * 100] + [6 * 75] = 960 + 360 + White + blue = 1000
200 + 450 = Rs.1970
Then, 2000 = 2X - 2.5Y + 2.5X - 3Y + 1000
Required average = (2080 + 1970)/2 = Rs.2025
9X - 11Y = 2000
Q18 - A
For building C:
Explanation/Solution:-
Total population = 15% of 8000 = 1200
Since, only 15 female passengers can sit in the bus and
there are already 15 female passengers in the bus on White + blue = 150 + 100 + 550 = 800
Friday. So, 'x' boarded passengers should be male.
Then, 1200 = 2X - 2.5Y + 2.5X - 3Y + 800
Male adults boarded in the bus on Friday = (x - 1)
9X - 11Y = 800
Total kids in the bus on Friday before boarding of 'x'
passengers = 40% of (10 + 15) = 10 For building D:

Male kid passengers in the bus = 10 * (1/5) + 1 = 3 Total population = 35% of 8000 = 2800

Female kid passengers in the bus = 10 * (4/5) = 8 White + blue = 4500 - 200 - 1000 - 800 - 300 =
2200
Male adult passengers in the bus = (10 - 2) + (x - 1) =
(7 + x) Then, 2800 = 2X - 2.5Y + 2.5X - 3Y + 2200

Female adult passengers in the bus = 15 - 8 = 7 9X - 11Y = 1200

Total original fare collected the bus before boarding of For building E:
'x' passengers = [8 * 120] + [2 * 90] + [7 * 100] + [8 *
75] = 960 + 180 + 700 + 600 = Rs.2440 Total population = 15% of 8000 = 1200

Total original fare collected the bus after boarding of 'x' White + blue = 300
passengers = [(7 + x) * 120] + [3 * 90] + [7 * 100] +
[8 * 75] = 2440 + 570 Then, 1200 = 2X - 2.5Y + 2.5X - 3Y + 300

840 + 120x + 270 + 700 + 600 = 3010 9X - 11Y = 1800

120x = 600 Let total users in Nike = n

x=5 Then, total users in Adidas = n + 30

Explanation/Solution:- So, 8000 = 1780 + n + n + 30 + 2270

Total population = 8000 n = 1960

For building A: Code:

Total population = 10% of 8000 = 800 Total users = 1780

White = 150, blue = 150 * 1/3 = 50 E = 250

B = 3C/2 Then, X = 1200, Y = 800

D = 2C Now, Adidas uses from building A = females in building

A - 80
A = (2X - 2.5Y)for building D - 20
= 300 - 80 = 220
Nike:
Adidas users from building B = (2.5X - 3Y)for building
Total users = 1960 B + 50

B = 6% of 8000 = 480 = 1000 * 3/5 + 50

E = 480 - 200 = 280 = 650

A = 5C/4 Therefore, difference = 650 - 220 = 430

Adidas: Q20 - E

Total users = 1960 + 30 = 1990 Explanation/Solution:-

C = 9D/10 For building D:

B = (2.5X - 3Y)for building B + 50 Y = 1200

A = females in building A - 80 Then, 9X - 11 * 1200 = 1200

E = 270 X = 1600

Levis: Now, for Code:

Total users = 2270 Number of Code users in building A = (2 * 1600 - 2.5 *

C = 300
D = 4 * (150 + 100) = 1000
Then, E = 1200 - 250 - 280 - 270 = 400
B = (2X - 2.5Y)for building E + 45
Q19 - C
1200) - 20 = 180
Now, 1780 = 180 + (3C/2) + C + 2C + 250
C = 300
Then, D = 2 * 300 = 600
Now, number of Code users in building A and D
together = 180 + 600 = 780

Explanation/Solution:- For Levis:

For building A: Number of Levis users in building C and E together =

300 + 400 = 700
350 = 2.5X - 3Y
Therefore, ratio = 780: 700 = 39: 35
And, 9X - 11Y = 1200
Q21 - B
Then, X = 500, Y = 300
Explanation/Solution:-
For building B:
Levis users:
9X - 11Y = 2000
A = 5B/14
And, 2X - 2.5Y = 1000 * 2/5
Then, 2270 = (5B/14) + B + 300 + 1000 + 400
B = 420 Data given in all individual questions for the given
graph is interrelated, so, we will determine the value of
Now, for building E: all unknown variables by using data given in respective
questions.
420 = (2X - 2.5Y) + 45
From first question:
2X - 2.5Y = 375
The number of sick people recommended for immediate
And, 9X - 11Y = 1800 treatment from state P in 2013 are 1344 less than the
previous year. Then,
So, X = 750, Y = 450
1344 = C% of A - 6% of 117600
Therefore, percentage = (450/8000) * 100 = 5.625%
= 6% (approx.) A * C = 840000...(i)

Q22 - A From second question:

Explanation/Solution:- A - H - E = 61132 - 1200F...(ii)

For building C: B + G = 2(F - 15)...(iii)

X = 200 + Y From third question:

Then, 9(200 + Y) - 11Y = 800 It is given that population of state Q is increased by

15% in 2013 than previous year. Then,
Y = 500, X = 700
E = 115% of 98000 = 112700
Then, number of people in who like grey color = 2.5 *
700 - 3 * 500 = 250 E = 112700

For building B: In 2012 the ratio of number of people found sick

according to test report in state Q and number of
Number of people in who like white color = (1000 - people found sick according to test report but did not
200)/2 = 400 recommend for immediate treatment from state P is 1:
1. Then,
Therefore, percentage = (250/400) * 100 = 62.5%
15% of 98000 = (22 - C)% of A
Q23 - D
1470000 = 22A - AC
Explanation/Solution:-
Then, from (i), we have
Number of female users of Code, Nike and Levis in
building E = 66% of 250 + 45% of 280 + 52% of 1470000 = 22A - 840000
400
A = 105000
= 499
Then, C = 840000/105000 = 8
Number of male users of Code, Nike and Levis in
building E = 250 + 280 + 400 - 499 = 431 C=8

Number of female users of Code, Nike and Levis in Number of people who visited health camp but did not
building C = 800 - 431 - 24 = 345 complete their health check-up test in state Q in 2013
are 74676 less than the number of people visited
Therefore, difference = 431 - 345 = 86 health camp from state P in same year. Then,

Explanation/Solution:- 74676 = F% of 117600 - (78890 - G% of E)

74676 = 1176F - 78890 + G% of 112700

1176F = 153566 - 1127G...(iv) Q24 - C

From fourth question: Explanation/Solution:-

Average of number of people completed their health Value of C = 8

check-ups tests from state Q in 2012 and 2013 taken
together is 63063. Then, Q25 - A

2 * 63063 = B% of 98000 + G% of E Explanation/Solution:-

126126 = 980B + G% of 112700 Number of people visited health camp in state P is

2012
980B + 1127G = 126126...(v)
= 78% of A
From fifth question:
= 78% of 105000
20237 people from state Q in 2012 and 2013 taken
together who found sick did not recommend for = 81900
immediate treatment. Then,
Q26 - E
20237 = 15% of 98000 - D + (20 - 9)% of E
Explanation/Solution:-
20237 = 14700 - D + 11% of 112700
Average of number of people from state P who did not
D = 6860 visit camp in 2012 and 2013 together

From equation (iii), (iv) and (v), we get = ((100 - 78)% of A + (100 - F)% of 117600)/2

B + G = 2(F - 15) = (22% of 105000 + (100 - 75)% of 117600)/2

1176F = 153566 - 1127G = 26250

F = (153566 - 1127G)/1176 Q27 - C

980B + 1127G = 126126 Explanation/Solution:-

B = (126126 - 1127G)/980 Number of people from state Q who visited health camp
but did not complete their health check-up test in 2013
Then, ((126126 - 1127G)/980) + G = 2 * (((153566 - = 78890 - G% of E
1127G)/1176) - 15)
= 78890 - 58% of 112700
G = 58
= 13524
B = (126126 - 1127 * 58)/980 = 62
Q28 - A
B = 62
Explanation/Solution:-
F = (153566 - 1127 * 58)/1176 = 75
Number of sick people recommended for immediate
F = 75 treatment from state Q in 2012

Now, from equation (ii), we get = D = 6860

A - H - E = 61132 - 1200F Number of people who were not sick according to test
report in state P in 2013
105000 - H - 112700 = 61132 - 1200 * 75
= 68680 - H
H = 21168
= 68680 - 21168

= 47512

Therefore, difference = 47512 - 6860 = 40652

Explanation/Solution:-
[(4/15) - P]: [P - (4/12)] = 4: 5
Let total amount of Oil in all the five mixtures together
= 360x (4/3) - 5P = 4P - (4/3)

9P = (8/3)
Ratio (Oil:
Mixtures Oil Petrol Kerosene Petrol: P = 8/27
Kerosene)
By the rule of alligation:

125% of 75% of
P 90x 90x = 90x = 4: 5: 3
112.5x 67.5x

125% of
150% of
Q 60x 60x = 4: 5: 6 [(5/15) - Q]: [Q - (5/12)] = 4: 5
60x = 90x
75x
(5/3) - 5Q = 4Q - (5/3)
75% of 9Q = (10/3)
50% of
R 72x 72x = 4: 3: 2
72x = 36x
54x Q = 10/27

Ratio Oil, Petrol and Kerosene in the final mixture = 8:

75% of 125% of 10: (27 - 8 - 10) = 8: 10: 9
S 108x 108x = 108x = 4: 3: 5
81x 135x Total amount of newly formed mixture = 12 * (27/2) =
162 litres
150% of 75% of Q30 - E
T 30x 30x = 30x = 4: 6: 3
45x 22.5x Explanation/Solution:-

Total amount of final mixture = 105 litres

Q29 - C
Let amount of Oil, Petrol and Kerosene in final mixture
Explanation/Solution:-
is 'x', 'x' and 'x - 15' litres respectively.
Part of Oil in mixture P = 4/12
x + x + (x - 15) = 105
Part of Petrol in mixture P = 5/12
x = 40
Part of Oil in mixture Q = 4/15
Ratio of Oil, Petrol and Kerosene in final mixture = x: x:
(x - 15) = 40: 40: (40 - 15) = 8: 8: 5
Part of Petrol in mixture Q = 5/15
Part of Oil in mixture P = 4/12
By the rule of alligation:
Part of Oil in mixture R = 4/9

Part of Oil in final mixture = 8/21

By the rule of alligation: 2011:

Let total bottles manufactured = 100a

Total unsold bottles = 20% of 100a = 20a

Ratio in which mixtures P and R must be mixed = [(4/9) Total sold bottles = 100a - 20a = 80a
- (8/21)]: [(8/21) - (4/12)] = (4/63): (4/84) = 84: 63 =
4: 3 Total bottles sold at 50% profit = 75% of 80a = 60a

Q31 - C Total bottles sold at 20% profit = 80a - 60a = 20a

Explanation/Solution:- 2012:

Part of Oil in mixture S = 4/12 Let total bottles manufactured = 300b

Part of Oil in mixture T = 4/13 Total unsold bottles = 16(2/3)% of 300b = 50b

Part of Oil in mixture A = 76/234 Total sold bottles = 300b - 50b = 250b

By the rule of alligation: Total bottles sold at 50% profit = 60% of 250b =
150b

Total bottles sold at 20% profit = 250b - 150b =

100b

2013:

Let total bottles manufactured = 100c

[(4/13) - (76/234)]: [(76/234) - (4/12)] = X: 156
Total unsold bottles = 12.5% of 100c = 12.5c
48 - (152/3) = (76X/234) - (4X/12)
Total sold bottles = 100c - 12.5c = 87.5c
(8/3) = 2X/234
Total bottles sold at 50% profit = 50% of 87.5c =
X = 312
43.75c
Let part of Oil in mixture B = 'B'
Total bottles sold at 20% profit = 87.5c - 43.75c =
43.75c
By the rule of alligation:
2014:

Let total bottles manufactured = 100d

Total unsold bottles = 10% of 100d = 10d

Total sold bottles = 100d - 10d = 90d

Total bottles sold at 50% profit = 40% of 90d = 36d

[(4/13) - B]: [B - (4/12)] = 1: 2
Total bottles sold at 20% profit = 90d - 36d = 54d
(8/13) - 2B = B - (1/3)

3B = 37/39

B = 37/117

Explanation/Solution:-
 Sold at Sold at
Total Total
Years 50% 20% Unsold
manufactured Sold
profit profit

2011 100a 80a 60a 20a 20a

2012 300b 250b 150b 100b 50b

2013 100c 87.5c 43.75c 43.75c 12.5c

2014 100d 90d 36d 54d 10d