Question Answer

is the coefficient of determination interpreted as the r square

percentage of variance in Y that can be explained by X

becomes more relevant as a diagnostic tool when used Adj R Square

in multiple regression as it penalizes adding the unnecessary
independent variables
deals with continuosly valued outcomes. Given some Estimation
input data it comes up with a value for some unknown
continuous variable such as income height or credit card
balance .The scrores here can also be used for classification

is an essential process where intelligent methods are Data Mining

applied to extract patterns
scales could simply be called label Nominal
(1-alpha) is known as Confidence level
(1-Beta) is also known as Power of test
___________ consists of examing the features of a newly Classification, Affinity grouping
presented object and assigning it to one of a predefined set of
classes
___________is the the proportion of each variables variance Communalities
that can be explained by the factors (e.g the underlying latent
continua)
__________is largely concerned with building models. A model directed data mining
is simply an algorithm or set values that connects a collection
of inputs to a particular target or outcome

_____explains correlation structure predictor variables by PCA

using a smaller set of linear combinations of these activities

_____is the task of segmenting a heterogeneous population clustering

into a number of more homogeneous subgroups

_____scales are numeric scales in which we know not only the Interval
order but also the exact difference between the values

___is a technique for insuring that the results uncovered in an Cross validation
analysis are generalizing to an independent unseen data set

A common method of evaluating how accurate model Mean-Squared Error (MSE)

estimation is proceeding for a continuous target variable is to
use the
A good sample data is All of these
A technique often applied as part of of data preparation for Normalization technique
machine learning
Alpha is also known as Producers Risk
An example of unsupervised method is ________ clustering
An observation is said to be if removing the Influential
observation substantially changes the estimates of coefficients

As (sigma population SD) decreases the margin of error gets Smaller

Bayesian classifiers is A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification
Beta is also known as Consumers Risk
Classification accuracy is Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory

Clean data is All of these

Cooks D&gt 4/n are considered Highly influential - A general rule of thumb is that any point with a Cook’s Distance over
4/n (where n is the total number of data points) is considered to be an outlier. It’s
important to note that Cook’s Distance is often used as a way to identify influential data
points.
Cooks D&gt 4/n are considered____ acceptable
Correlation all of the above
CRISP-DM was given by IBM
Data can be partitioned in types 3
Data mining is a naturally _________process iterative
Decimal scaling converts the data points to lie between Negative 1 to Positive 1

Descriptive analytics covers measures of All - Measures of Frequency: * Count, Percent, Frequency. ...
Measures of Central Tendency. * Mean, Median, and Mode. ...
Measures of Dispersion or Variation. * Range, Variance, Standard Deviation. ...
Measures of Position. * Percentile Ranks, Quartile Ranks.

EDA(Exploratory Data Analysis) uses All of these - Exploratory Data Analysis (EDA) is an approach to analyze the data using
visual techniques. It is used to discover trends, patterns, or to check assumptions with the
help of statistical summary and graphical representations.

Factor analysis is a technique that requires a -- sample Large sample size more than 10* Numbers of
size variable
For Hand Missing Value : Throw out the records with missing Can create a Bias for the sample
values
For testing slopes in multiple regression the - test is Anova
used
Frauds Defaults Crime Drop Outs kind of behaviors are usually Outliers
captured in of the data
Frequency distribution shows five classes : USA France US Misclassification issue in data
Europe and Japan. This is an example of
Graphical methods for identifying outliers are All of these
Homoscedasticity is known as Homogeneity of variation of errors
If determinant of correlation matrix is then there will be Equal to 0
computational problems with the factor analysis
If p-value is less than alpha we reject the NULL hypothesis
Imputations the process of replacing data with Missing
substitue values
In no target variable is identified as such . Instead data Unsupervised method
mining algorithm searches for patterns and structures among
all variables
In there is a particular prespecified target variable the Supervised method
algorithm is given many examples where the value of a target
variable is provied so that the algorithm may learn which value
of target variable are associated with which value of predictor
variable

In cross industry standard process , CRISP-DM approach Data understanding phase

"Exploratory Data Analytics" comes into
In k-fold cross validation All of these - Cross-validation is a resampling procedure used to evaluate machine learning
models on a limited data sample.

The procedure has a single parameter called k that refers to the number of groups that a
given data sample is to be split into.

In order to form a learning relationship with its customers a Notice, Remember, Learn and act on consumer data
firm must be able to
In____there is a particular prespecified target variable the supervised methods
algorithm is given many example where the value of the target
variable
Independence of observations serially correlated errors can be Durbin-Watson
tested using
It best to have confidence and small margin of error High

Karl Pearson correlation coefficient is a measure of Linear Association

Leverage is a measure of how an observation deviates Fair/Far
from the mean of that variable
Market basket is an example of _____is to determine which Affinity Grouping
things to go together
Measure of spread (variability) include All of these
the range (max-min) OR the interquartile range , The standard deviation , The mean
absolute deviation, All of these
MLDL has received the platinum rated green homes pre- IGBC - Indian Green Building Council
certification from
Multicollinearity is measured using Variance Inflation factor
Normality of error can be tested using Shapiro-wilk test
One of the method of dimesion reduction is Factor analysis
Overfitting results when the provisional model tries to account Every possible trend or structure in the training set
for
p value helps in Both of these/ statistical measure
Self organising maps are an example of Unsupervised learning
Standradize values i.e Z-score Change the Mean and SD of the disctribution to 0
and 1
Statistical methodology and data mining methodology have TRUE
some basic difference?
statisticians use to apply Occam's razor EDA
The of an estimator is measured by the SE Precision
The _______plot graphs the eigen value (variance) against the scree
factor number
The adequacy of sampling of Factor analysis is testing using Kaiser Meyer-Olkin Measure(KMO)

The assumption for the model between scale and scale Linear relationship and No auto-correlation
/dichotomous categorical) Y= a+b1x1+b2x2
The following four steps is also called ___1) identifying the Virtuous Cycle
problem 2) transforming data into information 3)taking action
4) measuring the outcome
The goal of __is to allow a corporation to improve its data mining
marketing sales and customer support operations through a
better understanding of its customer
The measure of adequacy of sampling for Factor analysis is Closer to 1
testing should be
The measure of central tendency resistant to the presence of median (mode)
outliers is
The measure of central tendency sensitive to the presence of Mean
outliers is
The sample standard deviation has in the denominator n-1

The standard deviation of an estimator is called the of Standard Error

the estimator
The test for null hypothesis that the orientation matrix has an Bartlett test of sphericity
identity matrix is known as
The unrotated factor loadings which are the correlations from -1 to +1
between the variable and the factor possile values range from

To check for normality we construct a which plots Normal probability plot

the
quantities of a particular distribution against the quantities of
the standard normal distribution

To find the irrelevant variables from the set of possible All of these
independent variables
To handle skewness the transformation not appropriate is Z-score

To learn from its customer data, companies use__to discover data mining
patterns and insights
To remember what its customers have done over time must be Data Warehousing
to capture customer interactions

VIF(variance inflation factor) is a cause of concern for Greater than 10

multicollinearity in regression if
What are the objectives of MLDL principle of sustainability
What does a beta of 0.478 mean This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent
variable increases by 0.478 units
What does a normal p-p plot help you to test Normality
What happens to the margin of error as "Z" decreases As Z gets Smaller, that means we have less confidence
When there is correlation among factors the _______rotation Oblique rotation
shall be used
When there is no or insignificant correlation between factors orthogonal
the _rotation shall be used
Which of the following distance measure do we use of Hamming Distance
categorical variables in k-NN?
Which of the following machine learning algorithm can be used k-NN
for imputing missing values of both categorical and continuous
variable
Which of the following principles was to be embodied in all the Sustainability
aspects of the campaign
Who distributed 1000 saplings to the residents of Mumbai Green Santa
during christmas
With scales it is the order of the values in what's Ordinal
important an significant but the differences between each one
is not really known
Z-scores All of these
A Z-score is a numerical measurement that describes a value's relationship to the mean of
a group of values. Z-score is measured in terms of standard deviations from the mean. If a
Z-score is 0, it indicates that the data point's score is identical to the mean score.

What do z scores tell you?

Z-score indicates how much a given value differs from the standard deviation. The Z-score,
or standard score, is the number of standard deviations a given data point lies above or
below mean. Standard deviation is essentially a reflection of the amount of variability
within a given data set.
 Question
Predictive models are used to -CS
No.of steps in PA process - CS
Used to make predictions about unknown future events -CS
Predictive Analytics is a branch of -CS

The type of variable that can take any numerical figure for calculation is classified as
Number of employees according to HRM is an example of

Advantages of Substantive analytical processes

Which of the following form the basis for frequency interpretation of probabilities

Which one of the statement is true regarding residuals in regression analysis?

for recorded observation, ratios measured by absolute variation are considered as

Identify the tech that enable fraud detection and predictive modelling
Analytical procedures compare one result to another. These comparisons may be with
all the following except:
Suppose the distribution of salaries in a company X has median $35,000, and 25th and
75th percentiles are $21,000 and $53,000 respectively.
Would a person with Salary $1 be considered an Outlier?
Which of the following graph can be used for simple summarization of data?
3D Diagrams are named so because
________ is rapidly being adopted for computing descriptive and query types of
analytics on Big data.
Which of the following function can be used for forecasting?
In a linear regression problem, we are using “R-squared” to measure goodness-of-fit.
We add a feature in linear regression model and retrain the same model.
Which of the following option is true?

A basic premise underlying the application of analytical procedures is that

Point out the wrong statement.
Which of the following is/are correct types of data?
How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model
(One independent variable)?

Which of the following is a property of likelihood?

_________ involves predicting a response with meaningful magnitude, such as
quantity sold, stock price, or return on investment.
__________ is proprietary tool for predictive analytics.
The perceptron is
it is collection of subject areas based on the needs of a given environment.It is created
in a decentralised way.It may be independent or dependent.
Which of the following are direct benefits of Business Intelligence?
analysis is the process of using discover and report influential patterns in data

what is data based knowledge

Internal state of neuron is called __________, is the function of the inputs the
neurons receives
diagrams used to represent grouped and ungrouped data is classified as

Suppose you have fitted a complex regression model on a dataset. Now, you are using
Ridge regression with tuning parameter lambda to reduce its complexity. Choose the
option(s) below which describes relationship of bias and variance with lambda.

Expectations are developed by identifying plausible relationships that are reasonably

expected to exist based on the auditor's understanding of the client and of the
industry. These relationships may be determined by comparisons with the following
sources
The sample statistics are denoted by the

some people call this as structured but not relational data.What are we talking about?
chi square test is

which of the following indicates how accurate results from a sample survey may be

Artificial neural network used for

kurtosis is always
Logistic Regression transforms the output probability to be in a range of [0, 1].
Which of the following function is used by logistic regression to convert the
probability in the range between [0,1].
Predicting with trees evaluate _____________ within each group of data.
regerssion models predict
in stem and leaf display diagrams used in exploratory stems are considered as
An ability to learn how to do tasks based on the data given for training or initial
experience.
the effectiveness of an analytical procedure is the function of the nature of the
account.Which of the following is not considered as the nature of the account?
The sum of the percent frequencies for all classes will always equal

Which of the following step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data?
Point out the correct statement.
partitioning clustering algorithms are
WHICH TECHNIQUE IS USED TO PREDICT CATEGORICAL RESPONSES?
normal distribution is also known as
Which of the following statement is true about partial derivative of the cost functions
w.r.t weights / coefficients in linear-regression and logistic-regression?
simplest class of analytics
line described by the regression equation attempts to
which of the following is not a characteristic of big data
Which of the following is preferred for text analytics?
In artificial Neural Network interconnected processing elements are called
To test linear relationship of y(dependent) and x(independent) continuous variables,
which of the following plot best suited

Let’s say, a “Linear regression” model perfectly fits the training data (train error is
zero). Now, Which of the following statement is true?
reporting does not involve

what does a typical bi environment comprise of

if the distribution known in the data model are called
Which of the following option is true regarding “Regression” and “Correlation” ?
Note: y is dependent variable and x is independent variable.
In a set of observations, the amount of variation can be shown in the form of figures
with the help of
Neuron can send ________ signal at a time.
branches of statistics include
In statistics out of 100, the marks of 21 students in final exams are as 90,
95, 95, 94, 90, 85, 84, 83, 85, 81, 92, 93, 82, 78, 79, 81, 80, 82, 85, 76,
85 then mode of the data is.
The mean of a sample is:
In a simple linear regression model (One independent variable), If we change the input
variable by 1 unit. How much output variable will change?
business intelligence allows huge data and reports to be read in a single graphical
interface
who among the following do you think would deal with the growing number of data
sources efficiently?
Variables whose measurement is done in terms such as weight, height and length
are classified as
supervised learning comprises
what is not a benefit of modelling

which of the following are benefits or use of bi

which phase of the data analytics lifecycle usually takes the longest
which one of the following is most likely to be used as a technique for qualitative
analysis
what does it mean to say there is error in our regression
how does better decision making by using a modelling process is achieved?

trend analysis is
A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as sample mean, is
known as a
What are the challenges to developing BI with semi-structured or unstructured data?
which of the following bi technique can predict value for a specific data item
attribute

Since the mode is the most frequently occurring data value, it

which of the following indicates a fairly strong relationship between x and y
of the following types of analytical procedure which one uses the most variables
the data being captured can be in any form or structure.Which characteristic of BiG
DAta are we talking about?
which of the following approach should be used to ask data analysis question
what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal
distribution
categories of measures of dispersion are classified as
type of variable which can take fixed integer values is classified as

in a five number summary which of the following is not used for data summarization

which of the following statement is not true of analytical procedures as substantive

tests
Which of these data types are favoured in market research
which one of the following techniques is most likely to be used in quantitative
analysis?

Since the poplulation size is always greater than the sample size then the sample
statistic

examples of variables in statistical phenomenon consists

Principal Component Analysis(PCA)

If vertical lines are drawn at every point of straight line in frequency polygon then by this way frequency polygon is transfor
the researcher identifies meaningful patterns in data.To which one of the following
does this refer?
Which of the following procedures do general analytical procedures not include?

Which of the following data is put into a formula to produce commonly accepted
results?
management turnover loss of market or licensed or supplier shortages and labour
problems are indicators of what type of problems?

in terms of dispersion difference, measurement of dispersion for available data is

classified as
 Answer
Identify risk and opportunities
6
Predictive Analysis
Advanced analytics

Continuous Variable
Discrete Variable
Substantive analytical procedures often enable auditors to focus on a few key factors that affect
the account balance.
Asymptotics
Sum of residual in regression is always zero. If the sum of residuals is zero, the ‘Mean’ will also be
zero

relative measures
all

Similar information about top-performing subsidiaries.

More information is required

Barplot
L*B*D

Hadoop
forecast

Individually R squared cannot tell about variable importance. We can’t say anything about it right
now.
plausible relationships among data may reasonably be expected to exist and continue in the
absence of conditions to the contrary.
Model based approach are reasonably inaccurate on real problems
semi structured and unstructured

2 coefficients

Ans - All
a) Ratios of likelihood values measure the relative evidence of one value of the unknown
parameter to another
b) Given a statistical model and observed data, all of the relevant information contained in the data
regarding the unknown parameter is contained in the likelihood
c) The Resultant likelihood is multiplication of individual likelihood
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Likelihood is the hypothetical probability that an event that has already occurred
would yield a specific outcome.

Regression
SAS
The perceptron is a single layer feed-forward neural network

data mart
Decision making
computational methods
Knowledge derived from data through the use of Business Intelligence Tools and the process of
Data Warehousing

activation or activity level of neuron

bar

In case of very large lambda; bias is high, variance is low

Data from various company divisions.

Roman letters

Semi Structured Data

a statistical significance test

significance tests
Ans - All
A. pattern recognition. B. classification. C. clustering. D. all of the above.
positive

Sigmoid
homogeneity
it can predict continuous target variable
leading digits

Adaptive learning

fixed vs variable characteristic

100

data Cleansing
Prediction with regression performs well when linear model is correct
squared error and k mean both
classification
Gaussian distribution

Both will be same

descriptive
Minimize the squared distance from the points
Variability
python
nodes or neurons

scatter plot

Ans - none
A. A. You will always have test error zero
B. B. You can not have test error zero
C. C. None of the above
predictive models
Ans - aLL
Data Visualization. Data warehouse; Data mart; OLAP TOOLS; All of the above
paramertic model
The relationship is symmetric between x and y in case of correlation but in case of regression it is
not symmetric.

absolute measures
one
applied and mathematical

85
computed by summing all the data values and dividing the sum by number of terms

by its slope

Dashboards

data scientist

continuous variables.
none (classification and regression both)
Modeling finds the right answers to incorrect or flawed problem statements.
With BI, firms can identify their most profitable customers and Quickly detect warranty-reported
problems to minimize the impact of
phase 2 - data preparation

NVivo
that we cannot predict the Y values perfectly.
the insight gained through the process.

Use of sophisticated statistical analysis, including artificial intelligence techniques, to examine large
volumes of data with the objective of indicating hidden or unexpected information or patterns.

sample statistic
unstructured data is stored in a huge variety of formats and there is a need to develop a
standardized terminology

predictive modelling

Ans - none - The mean, median and mode values will be distributed according to the skewness of
the distribution. Accordingly mode can be greater than or less than mean or mode.
A. can never be larger than the mean
B. is always larger than the median
C. is always larger than the mean
D. None of the above
Correlation coefficient = 0.9
Data mining
variety
a) Volume . b) Velocity . c) Variety
Find out the question which is to be answered

0.68
relative and absolute
Discrete Variable
mean
(min, 25% , median, max) - the 25th percentile is used to calculate inter quartile range

Tests of controls are concerned with evaluating whether controls are sufficiently effective to justify
reducing control risk and thereby reducing analytical review procedures.

Seems this true statement - Substantive analytical procedures often enable auditors to focus on a
few key factors that affect the account balance.
ratio data

multivariate analysis

Ans - None
a. can never be larger than the population parameter.

b. can never be equal to the population parameter.

c. can never be zero.

d. can never be smaller than the population parameter.

e. none of the above

all ( job satisfaction.

consumer behaviors.
leadership ability.
all of above.)
all

Histogram
analytics/analysis
Sequence tests.

Ans - Processed
(a) Raw

(b) Processed

(c) Synchronized

(d) All of the Mentioned)

cash flow
Ans - distance measures
( 1), average measures ; 2), distance measures ; 3), average deviation measures 4) availibility
measures)
 Question
In which of the following category of threats does project data become unavailable or unusable or
gets destroyed
tool developed by kaoru ishikawa
Which of the following tools is commonly used by risk analyst because of the convenience

what does the r stand for in smart goals

which of the following measures ascertains the probability that an activity is on the critical path
index
Adding a password to a system, making additions to project scope are examples of
Which of the following provide the probability statements which are essential in the decision
making process
Which of the following is the smallest level of a deliverable which cant be broken down further
________ is used in the field of medicine to check the behaviour of clinial risk models
What sort of data is income
Which of the following can be defined as a data analysis tool for sorting different objects into
groups …. Is minimal if they are from different groups
______ is the maximum possible time required to complete the activities of the project
In which technique activities are run simultaneously in order to shorten the duration of the project
activity

Which of the following WBS approach specifies location

Which of the following WBS approach specifies location

what type of skills must be present in a risk analyst to understand the financial aspects of the risk
and work on financial tools
which of the following types of forecasting assumes that the trend is linear through the historical
data points
Which represents shape of Function in Influence diagram

Which of the following is true

Which of the following methods assumes that what happened in the immediate past will happen in
immediate future
Which of the following helps businesses to helps to calculate the completion time of the entire
project

Which of the following is used to solve Linear programing(LP) problems in Microsoft Excel's Solver?

Which of the following is part of the CBA report

Under which group, Solver add in option can be found on the data tab in microsoft excel
Which of the following causes of uncertainities gives rise to a situation where the available….
 … of the scheduled activities that take the longest time to complete is known as
In which of the following does the failure of one event lead to the failure of another event
Which of the following is a example of measures of risk

In decision tree, decisions are represented by

Which of the following practices is followed when enabling a risk mitigating plan
_____ is an exploit in which multiple systems access the bandwith of the target system
which level is the project cost represented in the cost breakdown structure
____ measures size of error in percentage terms

_____ may represent a group of activities or an activity which forms a important part of a project
The results and recommendations of the BIA is then reported to

______ can help project managers to ascertain the best solutions to mitigate project risk
Standard Deviation of any distribution is always
Which of the following defines the degree of distribution to which it is uneven
Which of the following can be used to plot trend plots

The conditions that dictate the relationship between an employee and employer are based on the
Which of the following methods assigns exponentially decreasing weights as the observations get
older
What type of assumptions contradict the major principles of risk analysis , which is to provide a
unbiased report

Which of the following is a financial source of risk

Which of the following technique is used to evaluate potential financial, safety, regulatory, legal,
contractual risk to operations.

Which of the following component of linear programming is also known as coefficient or constant
In which year did Funtowicz and Ravetz develop NUSAP
In which year was IT Act amended to include the issue of privacy
The boundaries of a project are defined in
What are the limitations associated with budget constraints, time and access to information in risk
based approach….
In which structure the main deliverables of the project are placed at the top level which are further
decomposed into sub deliverables
Which of the following estimates is the shortest possible time within which the project can be
Which of the following analysis is conducted by a business to identify the gap between current and
required
 ______ is a graphical representation of the sensitivity of outcome of a model to independent
variables
_____ distributions have slender tails and a flat top.
Which of the following methods involves consultations with experienced professionals
belonging…..
In which century did Charles Darwin give theory of evolution
Which of the following indicates the combined effect of severity, occurrence and detection
what is the collection of objects(entities) that have certain properties (attributes) called

Which of the following components of linear programming states mathematically what is to be

maximized and what is to be minimized.
if the variables move in opposite direction, what is the correlation coefficient
Process of bringing steel to a optimal state by using a disciplined heating cooling schedule
Which of the following is included in plan of action and Milestones
Which of the following is a example of a milestone
Which of the following constraints put the upper limit on some functions of a decision variable
Which of the following statement is true for tornado diagram
in _______, the best likely estimate of each input variable is used to determine the outcome of the
analysis
Which of the following tools depicts a sequence of probabilistic events along with their
probabilities and impact of events
Risk related to ruling political party is called
Which method was invented by Olaf Helmer and Norman Dalkey
Which criticalities indicates less critical risk which may not lead to project failure but needs
immediate maintenance
In which of the following approaches one needs to have significant experience and skills to arrive
at effective decisions
Duration of the activity when it is crashed is called
while creating a Business plan, a bank identifies that the opportunity is risky. Therefore, …..

Which of the following statements are true

Which of the following is the main source of uncertainity
Which of the following steps of gap analysis includes reviewing automated security controls,
incident response plans and communication protocols
which of the following should be maintained within the allocated budget
What type of relationship is shown by ROC Curve
What is the other name for project scope
Which of the following cost is zero unless the project is completed late
Which of the following categories of NUSAP describes the sources of the numeral or its production
process
Which of the following depicts the status of a milestone at a time
Which of the following sensitivity measures/indices ascertains the relative importance of an
activity

To make employees aware of the use of safety equipment, you need to impart technical training….
 Which of the following issues can affect the perception of a project to the neighbouring public
Which of the following techniques carries out numerous experiments taking possible input Values
to determine the corresponding output values in the experiment

Additional Questions

CASE STUDY - Check in the end of sheet

Q1 - Type of data that Adobe requires for better management of it risk can be

Value placed at center of distribution series

Contract between service provider and customer defining the level of service to be provided

........risk analysis activity great for team building

When was Holf-Winter's mehod introduced

Which of the following state in Markov Chain is also known as stationary state

Degree of quadratic objective function

Which of the following is not a responsibility of risk analysis team

Which Letter denotes forecasting error

… Value defines location of distribution

… Value defines location of distribution

How can organization check if failure of 1 server down affects performance of other servers

Costs of design is an example of ----costs

Which type of approach the initial word of WBS element would comprise a verb, such as
construct,make,design,test

Which of the shape is used to depicts a function in influence diagram

 …....related to market risk

…...weakness in a project that project that makes it prone to risk is called

….Practices followed when enabling a risk mitgating plan

Document created during the early stages of project to log potential risks in a new project

Which of the following is intentional threat

Example of political causes of risk

Who determines the aim behind conducting risk analysis while planning a risk analysis

What is the price of product paid by organization for developing or implementing countermeasures
called

Following is a possible reason of project delay

…...SLA components that include process of montioring the performance and the person
responsible

in which format is data arranged in spreadsheet

which of the following statistical tools plots two variables along horizontal and vertical axis

Which of the following standards is used in gap analysis

.…. occurs when the asset does not perform its function at all
….. calculates the difference between the squares of the errors
if a wrong formula is entered, which error occurred in spreadsheet
….. in a risk model is the most common type of spreadsheet error
N refers to in NUSAP
Which of the following statement is true
 Which of the following statement is true
….. refers to a phenomenon in which the scope of a project increases
continuously and in an uncontrollable manner

Adjusting of project schedule according to resource availability

.…. means lack of reliability on
Pessimistic is denoted by letter
….. additional cost incurred for finishing an activity in less than
normal time.
….. mainly used when the dependent variable is dichotomous
(binary)
 Came in
exam for
Answer 2022 me

Interruption Yes Yes

Cause and Effect Diagram/Fishbone Yes No
Spreadsheets Yes Yes
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic/Relavant,
and Timely Yes No

Criticality Index Yes

Fabrication Yes No

Cumulative Percentiles No
Work package Yes Yes
ROC Curve No
Ratio Yes

Cluster Analysis Yes

Pessimistic Time Yes Yes

Fast tracking Yes Yes

Ans - organisational approach

Options - Verb based approach, organisational
approach, noun type approach, departmental
approach
Yes No
Location provides the container for all project data
and is used as the primary work division through a
location breakdown structure (LBS). No No

Financial acumen Yes No

Trend projection Method Yes Yes

Rounded Rectangle Yes Yes
While planning a risk analysis, an analyst needs to
determine the main aim behind Yes No

Naïve Method No

Schedule Risk Analysis Yes No

Simplex LP Yes No

All of these No
Analyze Yes
abundance of information Yes No
 Critical Path Yes Yes
Cascading Events Yes Yes
Redundancy in staff Yes No

Squares
Explaination -
A decision tree consists of three types of nodes:
Decision nodes – typically represented by squares
Chance nodes – typically represented by circles
End nodes – typically represented by triangles Yes No
Prioritize Countermeasures Yes No
Distributed Denial of Service Yes No
Level 1 Yes Yes
MAPE Yes
Ans - Milestone chart
options - Gantt chart, Milestone chart, Pie, Scatter
plot Yes No
Higher Authorities No
Ans - Feasiblity Test
options - P-I matrix, Iteration,Feasiblity Test, Threat
likelihood impact matrix yes No
Positive Yes Yes
Skewness Yes No
All of these Yes

Labour Law Yes No

Exponential smoothing methods No

Conservative Yes Yes

Ans - Stock Market Fluctuations

options - Goodwill loss, Poor productor or service
quality, change in the ruling party, stock market
fluctuations Yes Yes

Business Impact Analysis Yes Yes

Parameter yes Yes

1990 Yes No
2011 Yes
Project Scope Yes Yes

Frame Conditions Yes No

hierarchical tree structure Yes

Optimistic time Yes

Gap Analysis Yes No

 Tornado Diagram Yes No
Platykurtic No

Expert Judgement Yes No

Mid Nineteenth Century No
Risk Priority Number Yes No
System yes No

Ans - Objective function. …

options - Constraints. ...
Objective function. ...
Linearity. ...
Non-negativity. ... Yes No
-1 No
Annealing Yes No
All of the above Yes No
Project Kick off Yes No
<= Yes No
The risks are represented in descending order Yes Yes

Risk analysis No

Event Tree Yes Yes

External Risk Yes Yes
Delphi Technique No

Critical No

Backward Approach No
Crash Time Yes No
Avoid the risk Yes No
Implementing all countermeasures can be very costly
for an organization Yes No
Lack of information or data about the system No

Review the current security system Yes Yes

Costs Yes
Inverse No
All of these Yes Yes
Penalty cost Yes

Pedigree No
Coloured Triangle Yes Yes

Significance Index Yes No

Training Cost Yes

 Social Issues Yes No

Simulation

Qualitative and quantitative

The median is the middle value when the data are
ordered from least to greatest. Yes
service-level agreement (SLA) Yes
Ans - Brainstorming
options - Interviews, Delphi , Brainstroming,Group
discussion Yes
Ans - 1957
1955/56/57/58

A Markov chain with a countably infinite state space

can be stationary which
means that the process can converge to a steady
state. Yes

Ans - 2
options - 1/2/3/4

The team that works on assessing the risks associated

with any given meeting or event include both internal
and external professionals from a variety of your
stakeholder groups. Be all inclusive; have buy-in and
input from subject matter experts. Yes

Ans - e
F/A/e/r
Ans - Mean
Mode, Median,Standard Deviation, Mean
Yes
Location
The location is the expected value of the output
being measured.
cascading risk/effect

Ans - Direct
options - Indirect, Direct,Miscellaneous, others Yes
Ans - verb type approach
options - Noun type approach, verb type approach,
organizational approach, functional approach Yes

Ans - Rounded Rectangle

options - Rounded Rectangle,Rectangle,Oval,Hexagon Yes
check again - Interest Rate,Production, Employees, Ad Yes
Ans - Vulnerablity
options - Threat, Vulnerablity, Exploit,Danger Yes

Ans - prioritse countermeasures

options - Incorporate changes in scope, perform cost
benefit analysis only once, prioritse countermeasures,
exclude the existing countermeasure Yes
Ans - Risk Register
options - Risk Plan, Risk Register,Risk log, Risk
register& log Yes

Ans - modification in db by a disgruntled employee

options - Failure to update information, sudden
breakdown of of machine, hurricanes, modification in
db by a disgruntled employee Yes
Ans - change in tax slabs
options - Damage to market reputation, time and cost
overruns, inadquate fund, change in tax slabs Yes
Ans - Risk Analyst
options - CEO, Risk Analyst, Departmental Manager,
General Manager Yes
Ans - Initial purchase cost
options - Initial purchase cost, facility cost, training
cost, direct cost Yes

Ans - non availablity of quality resources at the right

time
options - Loss of goodwill, burden of additional cost,
non availablity of quality resources at the right time,
taxation Yes
Ans - Performance monitoring
options - Service description, Response time,
Penalties, Performance monitoring Yes
Ans - tabular
options - test, graphical,tabular,test and graphical Yes
Ans - Scatter plot
options - ROC Curve, Scatter plot, tornado diagram,
Pie chart Yes
Ans - All of these
options - COBIT,ISO,NIST,All of these Yes
Total failure Yes
MSD Yes
Accidental errors Yes
Input wrong data Yes
Ordinary Number Yes
Standard deviation is closely related with mean Yes
 The chart may become complicated
for a project having a large number of
milestones. Yes

Scope Creep Yes

Ans - All of these(check once from book)
Resource Levelling, resource Allocation, resource
Scheduling, all of these Yes
Uncertainty Yes
b Yes

Crashing cost Yes

Logistic Regression Yes

Cost Benefit Analysis Components

General description of the project.

List of alternative scenarios.
Identify Benefits and Costs.
Schedule Benefits and Costs.
Comparison of alternatives.
Sensitivity Analysis.
1. Which of the following steps comes after the target audience for an is selected?
a. Researching and selecting Keywords
2. Which button includes the Data Table command?
a. What-If Analysis
3. What dialog box allows you to change a field name in a Pivot Table?
a. Field Settings
4. Which of the following letters would you use to represent correlation coefficient?
a. r
5. Who among the following is responsible for the management of marketing analytics in a business organisation?
a. Marketing Director
6. Which of the following is the first step in the process of clustering a data set in K-means clustering?
a. Identify the centroids of each of the k clusters
7. What does the VLOOKUP function of Ms Excel do?
a. Finds related records
8. How many types of variables are included in regression analysis?
a. Two
9. ___________ are provided in the return of advertising space received at any event
a. Sponsorships
10. Which tool is used in business analyst?
a. MS Excel
11. What do you call the chart that shows the proportions of how one or more data elements relate to another
a. XY Chart
12. Which of the following component of advertising refers to the message or the visual created to attract the custom
a. Idea
13. Which of the following types of media an important marketing tool to inform potential customers about a busine
a. Social Media
14. Marketing Analytics comprises
a. All of these
15. What is the limit of general positioning of PPC ads?
a. 5-8 pages
16. Which of the following explains how the sales of two articles are related?
a. Association rules
17. Models is a representation of
a. All of these
18. Which of the following methods is effective in solving such issues where the outcomes can be either binomial or m
a. Logistic regression
19. Which of the following methods is used when the dependent variable is dichotomous?
a. Logistic regression
20. Which of the following social media channels is also known as a message board?
a. Forum
21. Which of the Excel features can help in determining the value of intercept and slope in logistic regression?
a. Data analysis
22. Which of the following is a reason for the popularity of social media channel?
a. All of the above
23. Which one of the following is typically used to plan a questionnaire?
a. Flow chart

24. Which of the following measures the implication of support on the sales of a product?
 a. Lift ratio
25. Secondary sources of data include
a. All of these
26. Who defined promotion as “the element in an organization’s marketing mix that serves to inform, persuade, and
a. W.J. Stanton
27. Which of the following conditions must be true for a logistic regression?
a. Both 1 and 3
28. The excel solver is a what-if analysis tool that
a. Depends on the use of scenarios
29. Who has defined marketing research as “is a systematic problem analysis, model building and fact finding for the
a. Philip Kotler
30. In which approach of clustering approach, all the data points are taken in one cluster at the beginning and they a
a. Divisive
31. For logistic regression, there must be an outcome variable with two results, i.e., ______ and ____
a. 0 and 1
32. Logistic regression is used when the dependent variable is dichotomous (binary)
a. Dichotomous
33. The box on the chart that contains the name of each individual record is called then ______
a. Legend
34. In which of the following stages of lifecycle of a customer does a brand creates a contact with the customer?
a. Reach
35. Which of the following is the simplest and oldest pricing strategy?
a. Cost-based pricing
36. In which of the following situations, logistic regression is most suitable for use?
a. All of the above
37. Which of the following is true for digital marketing?
a. It helps in reaching out to a wider range of audience spread across different geographic location
38. Which of the following can be though of as a monetary value of a relationship between a customer and a seller
a. Customer Lifetime Value
39. What does COUNTA() function do?
a. Counts non-empty cells
40. GUI modelling tool used for building, running, and analysing neural-networks is
a. SIMBRAIN
41. Which of the following can be used to discover the relation between objects even when it’s not apparent or when
a. Cluster analysis
42. PESTEL Comprises
a. All of these
43. Which of the following companies created OPEN forum in 2007 that comprised blogs?
a. AMEX
44. In the formula which symbol specifies the fixed columns or rows?
a. $
45. A clustering process is ______ if each data point belongs to a cluster either completely
a. Hard clustering
46. In which type of clustering, is probability used to indicate the likelihood of that point belonging to a particular clu
a. Soft clustering
47. Which of the following data collecting methods allows in-depth exploration of attitudes, behaviours, and belief
a. Case study
48. The histogram is used to display _______ that is divided into classes which are called bins
 a. Continuous Data
49. Which of the following is the most authentic source of data?
a. Web logs
50. Which of the following statements is true?
a. If the price is reduced by the competitors, the sales may be affected unfavourably.
51. Which of the following statements is associated with CLV?
a. It indicates whether the customer is beneficial for the firm or not.
52. Which of the following is correct?
a. 8
53. Which of the following ways can help a marketer to know opinions of their customers about the business?
a. Customer Polls
54. Excel displays the current cell address in the ______
a. Name Box
55. A systematic study of a problem by experts using scientific methods is called
a. None of these
56. Which of the following statements is true about secondary data?
a. Collecting secondary data is a less time-consuming process
57. Which of the following is calculated with the formula: revenues – variable and fixed cost – depreciation?
a. Profit before tax
58. Data collection methods for business analytics include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Present sales performance
59. The LEN function of MS Excel does
a. Counts the numbers of characters in a cell
60. What is possibility of two products being bought together known as?
a. LIFT
61. In a Solver solution stack is associated with
a. Target cells
62. The cell reference in Ms Excel for a range of cells that starts in cell B1 and goes over to Column G and down to row
a. B1:G10
63. Which of the following type of segmentation is used to evaluate the usage of a product among customer and diff
a. Behaviour-based segmentation
64. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Having critical comments is better than having no comments at all
65. A method of filtering the options available with respect to certain goods or services in the market using the collec
a. Collaborative filtering
66. _____ reflects the gradual shifts in the data and seasonality occurs due to seasonal factors
a. Trend
Case study question:
Transactio
Milk Bread Butter Beer Diapers
n ID
1 1 1 0 0 0
2 0 0 1 0 0
3 0 0 0 1 1
4 1 1 1 0 0
5 0 1 0 0 0

67. In the sample example dataset table of supermarket, what is the confidence for (bread)*(Milk)?
 a. 66.67%
68. Consider an example rule for the supermarket (butter, bread)*(milk) meaning that if butter and bread
a. Milk
69. In the sample example dataset table of supermarket, what is the lift for (milk, bread)*(butter)?
a. None of the above
70. In the sample example dataset table of supermarket, what is the Antecedent Support for (bread)*(milk)?
a.
 n a business organisation?

ns clustering?

ments relate to another

created to attract the customers?

al customers about a business?

es can be either binomial or multinomial?

n logistic regression?
 es to inform, persuade, and remind the product”?

ding and fact finding for the purposes control in the marketing of goods and services”?

at the beginning and they are split in the hierarchy?

__ and ____

tact with the customer?

geographic location
en a customer and a seller

hen it’s not apparent or when it is difficult?

belonging to a particular cluster?

es, behaviours, and belief

s about the business?

ost – depreciation?

o Column G and down to row 10

ct among customer and different?

n the market using the collective

butter and bread

t for (bread)*(milk)?
Case study
A1. What out of the following are the assumptions behind all this computation: All of the above
A3. 24 pallets per day
A2. Throughput time for this manufacturing process: 55 mins
A.4 Transportation

Total 66+70=136 MCQ’s and some imp question given in last.

1: The average number of products/ services produced per unit from a process is called --------
a—Utilization
b—Throughput
c—Service rate
d—Work-in-process

2: Which of the following is of least concern to an operations manager?

a—Cost
b—Quality
c—Wages of workers
d—Efficiency

3: Process capability Ratio is equal to

a—Design range Process Range
b—Process Range/Design Range
c—Design Range/Specified Range
d—None of the above

4: Which of the following is most important for a retailer in establishing a facility location.
a—Labor availability and costs
b—Construction and land costs
c—Utilities availability and costs
d—Proximity to concentrations of customers or constituents

5: Which of the options is not a pure planning strategy used for developing aggregate plans?
a—Varying utilization of the work force
b—Varying workforce size in response to output requirements
c—Varying size of inventory
d—Varying the compensation method

6: The desired output rate of an assembly line is 30 units per hour. The sum of times for all tasks
performed on the line is 1200 seconds for each product assembled. Which of the following statements is true?
a—The cycle time is 30 seconds per product
b—The theoretical minimum number of workstations is 10
c—If the solution calls for 12 stations, the efficiency is 80%
d-- If the solution calls for 11 stations, the efficiency is 80%

7: A supply chain is essentially a sequence of linked.

a—Customer and prospects
b—Supplier and manufacturer
c—Suppliers and customers
d—Warehousing and wholesaling units

8: Failure costs, which are a type of quality costs, can be divided into internal and external failure costs.
Which of the attached costs is not an internal failure cost?
a—Scrap costs
b—Downtime costs
c—Retesting costs
d—Cost of returned products

9: Families of products/services having similar characteristics or methods of production are called

a—Core competencies
b—Corporate strategy
c—Strategic business units
d—Functional strategy

10: Statistical process control uses which of the attached given charts to identify when a process has
gone out of control?
a—Run chart
b—Flow chart
c—Control chart
d—Pareto charts

11: If an organization follows the principles of supply chain management, it can attain a balance
between customers expectations and growth & profitability objectives. Which of the attached
statement is not a ‘principle’ of supply chain management?
a—Quality and performance management
b—Customize the logistics network
c—Enhance ability to meet customer requirements
d—Have a supply chain-wide technology strategy

12: In dry cleaning services the customer contact

a—Long/Intense
b—Long/Less Intense
c—Short/Intense
d—Short/Less Intense

13: Overall structure of a MRP consists of.

a—Bill of Materials
b—Master production schedule
c—Stock status
d—All of the above

14: A company is installing a dedicated production line and needs to determine how many drill presses
will be needed. Engineering estimates are that one drill press will be able to process 120 parts per hour.
Daily demand is 2,400 parts. The company operates
a—2 drills
b—3 drills
c—4 drills
d—5 drills

15: A sales and operation plan for manufacturing firm that centers on manufacturing rates and
inventory holding is
a—A staffing plan
b—A production plan
c—An operations plan
d—A process plan

16: The numerical difference between forecast demand and actual demand is called.
a—Standard deviation
b—Forecast error
c—Forecast variance
d—Forecast bias

17: --------------- refers to decreasing the total project duration after analyzing a number of alternatives to
determine how to get the maximum duration compression for the least cost.
a—Fast tracking
b—Crashing
c—Decomposition
d—None of the above

18: An assembly line with 28 tasks is to be balanced. The total amount of time required for all 28 tasks is 39 minutes. The line
of 400 units/day
a—1.39 minutes
b—11.54 minutes
c—1.125 minutes
d—0.89 minutes

19: Decisions about facility planning are complex and often difficult to organize because.
a—Multiphase decisions are involved
b—Decision models do not exist
c—Decision responsibility is usually diffused
d—Subjective factors make decision making impossible

20: You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate
a—18 days
b—15 days
c—16 days
d—17 days
21: Which one of the following statements is not true?
a—Services that do not involve high level of interaction with customers can be produced the way
products are manufactured.
b—A service is an act that does not produce a product.
c—Production systems for products and services are different from each other.
d—Products and services can be designed and produced in similar ways.

22: Tasks with Slack time of Zero are Called ----------------

a—Urgent
b—Critical
c—Delayed
d—None of the above

23: In a level production plan, if an opening inventory was 500 units, sales were forecasted at 800 units and the ending invent
a—500
b—800
c—1000
d—None of the above

24: Which types of controls are also called preliminary controls, and attempting to stop problem before they occur?
a—Corrective controls
b—Preventive controls
c—Concurrent controls
d—Time controls

25: Which of the attached options is not an aggregate planning decision option?
a—Promotion & advertising
b—Subcontracting
c—Layoffs
d—Building a new plant

26: Make to order process is characterized by

a—Activated on receipt of order
b—Maximum Inventory
c—Both 1 and 2
d—None of these

27: The value of exponential smoothing constant

a—Is always 0.2
b—Is always less than unity
c—Always lies between 0 and 1
d—Can take any positive value
28: Market and Competition Analysis will help in
a—Deciding which product to produce
b—Markets to compete
c—Quality
d—All of above

29: Which of the following tasks is not carried out by an operations manager?
a—Translates customer needs into products and services.
b—Adapts to global and environmental changes.
c—Manages cash flows and investments.
d—Uses technology to enhance productivity.

30: Which of the attached is not a major driver of supply chain performance?
a—Facilities
b—Inventory
c—Transportation
d—All of the above

31: For a given cycle time, assembly-line efficiency can be improved by

a—Speeding the line
b—Slowing the line
c—Decreasing the number of workstations
d—Increasing the number of workstations

32: The plans for the components, purchased materials, and workstations are developed in the.
a—Master production scheduling process.
b—Material requirements planning process.
c—Scheduling process.
d—Constraint management process.

33: When the average unit cost of a product/service decreases as the capacity and/or volume of
throughput increases, it is called ---------------.
a—Economies of scale
b—Diseconomies of scale
c—Cost cushioning
d—A nonphysical constraint

34: Which of the given alternatives best defines the process of continuous and relentless improvement
thru teamwork and employee participation?
a—Quality at the source
b—Kaizen
c—Quality control
d—Quality assurance

35: There are many factors affecting the ‘Efficient’ and ‘Responsive’ supply chains. Which, out the
attached pairs, is related to ‘Responsive’ supply chain?
a—Low cost, Responds quickly
b—High price, responds quickly
c—Standard product, responds quickly
d—Low levels of inventory, short lead time

36: Ships and weddings are examples of ----------- products and services
a—Make-to-order
b—Assemble-to-order
c—Make-to-stock
d—Project

37: Which of the following is not a major dimension of a services cape?

a—Facility layout
b—Signs and symbols
c—Ambience
d—Facilities Location

38: -------------- classifies parts into families so that cellular layouts can be formed.
a—Job enrichment
b—Job enlargement
c—Group technology
d—CRAFT

39: When ---------- causes are present, the process is said to be out of control.
a—Common
b—Special
c—Random
d—Cumulative

40: The timing and size of production quantities for each product in the product family is specified by
the.
a—Master production schedule.
b—Material requirements plan.
c—Resource plan.
d—Scheduling plan.

41: In an automobile, which of the following is not considered an order winning factor?
a—Self-parking capability
b—Voice-activated music system
c—Front-seat airbags
d—Collision-avoidance system

42: When break-even analysis is used for the facility location decision.
a—Fixed costs are kept constant across the alternatives
b—Both fixed and variable costs are estimated for each alternative
c—Variable costs are kept constant across all alternatives
d—Probabilities associated with estimated costs are found for each cost and alternative

43: ---------- forecasts are needed to plan for facility installation.

a—Long-range
b—Intermediate-range
c—Short-range
d—Demand planning

44: All activities lying on critical path have slack time equal to
a—0
b—2
c—1
d—None of the above

45: The quantity at which an order is placed for inventory replenishment is ------------
a—Safety stock
b—Reorder level
c—Buffer stock
d—Cycle stock

46: The financial approach to the management and control of quality is known as.
a—The cost of quality
b—Six sigma
c—Quality control
d—None of the above

47: Which is with respect to fixed-position layout?

a—Synonymous with project
b—High demand
c—Olympics is an example
d—Used for producing large products

48: Repeatable increase and decrease in demand over short periods of time are called ---------------
a—Trends
b—Seasonal patterns
c—Cyclical patterns
d—Irregular variation

49: JIT Scheduling can work only when a company produces -------------- products
a—Few
b—Large Variety of
c—Low Volume of
d—None of these

50: Slack Time is equal to

a—Latest Start minus Earliest start time
b—Time on Critical path
c—Standard Time
d—Optimistic time
51: The operations strengths a company can use as a competitive advantage could be: All of above

52: A company's ability to achieve market and financial superiority over its competitors is called
a—Operations strategy
b—Strategic planning
c—Competitive advantage
d—Competitive priority

53: The productivity improvement technique would include

a—Co Processing
b—Back Hauling
c—Both1 and 2
d—None of above

54: Which of the following is not competitive priority for most companies?
a—Speed
b—Flexibility
c—Innovation
d—Infrastructure

55: If annual demand is 12,000 units, the ordering cost is Rs.6 per order and the holding cost is Rs.2.50 per unit per year, which
a—576
b—240
c—220
d—280

56: Strategic Issues which a service company has to decide

a—Technology
b—Economies of scale
c—Capacity
d—All of above

57: A Supply Chain is Activated when a customer has -----------------

a—Placed the order
b—Made the Payment
c—Both 1 and 2
d—None of the above

58: In Job Specialization No of tasks in a Job is

a—Increased
b—Decreased
c—Remains same
d—None of the Above
59: Variation due to the natural variability of a process is called: Common or chance causes

60: Organizations need to produce outputs as per the market demand. But some organizations maintain a constant rate of pro
a—Varying work force size strategy
b-- Varying workforce utilization strategy
c—Varying size of inventory strategy
d—Back order strategy

61: Which of the given statement describes the general procedure steps for aggregate planning?
a—Determine demand, determine capacities, identify important policies, determine costs, develop plans
b—Determine capacities, determine demand, determine costs, develop plans, identify important
policies
c—Identify important policies, determine costs, determine demand, determine capacities, develop plans
d—None of the above

62: In fast mode transportation per unit Transportation cost is ------------- and safety Inventory is --------
a—High, Low
b—Low, High
c—High, High
d—Low, High

63: Which of the following is NOT a customary step in analyzing retailing facility location decisions.
a—Consumer behavior research
b—Market research
c—Environmental impact analysis
d—Revenue projections

64: According to which inventory system inventory is continuously checked and a new order placed
when the level of inventory reaches the recorder point?
a—Fixed order quantity system
b—Fixed period system
c—EOQ
d—None of the above

65: Capital Intensity is equal to

a—Total Value of equipment/Labor cost
b—Material Cost/Labor Cost
c—Labor Cost/Current Assets
d—None of these

66: ------------- is a specific task or operation required to do a project:

a—Event
b—Node
c—Slack
d—Activity

1—Efficiency, in capacity terms is the ratio of

a—actual output to effective capacity
b-- actual output to designed capacity
c-- actual capacity to effective capacity
d—Designed capacity to effective capacity

2—Which of the following is not related to Johnson Rule

a—It is used for job sequencing
b—It is applied for offloading the jobs
c—The aim of Johnsons rule is to minimize the flow time from the beginning of the first job until the finish of the last
d—Johnsons rule is used when there are n jobs to schedule on two machines

3: An order winner is -----------

a—a characteristic of a product or service that will contribute directly to winning business from
customers
b-- a characteristic of a product or service that a customer does not expect
c-- a characteristic present only in a high-quality product or service
d-- a characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as a minimum standard

4: A pc manufacturer who has acquired a hard disk manufacturer has performed

a—Downstream Integration
b—Upstream Integration
c—Horizontal Integration
d—None of the above

5: To produce high variety and low volume of products which type of process flow is used
a—Continuous
b—Project
c—Job-shop
d—Flow shop

6: Economic Order Quantity is where

a—Inventory carrying cost is zero
b—Holding cost equals ordering cost
c—Ordering cost is maximum
d—Holding cost is maximum

7: How Indian automobile industry has helped to reduce development cost of their product
a—Providing cheaper labour
b—Providing cheap raw material
c—Designing cost effective tooling
d—Designing components at low cost

8: When calculating inventory cost which of the following is not included as cost to place an order
a—Phone calls
b—Clerical cost
c—Calculating quantity to order
d—Taxes
9: During which phase of product life cycle completion becomes intense and high quality product is
demanded at low cost
a—Introduction
b—Growth
c—Maturity
d—Decline

10: Which of the following is not the characteristics of safe design

a—Should use costly components
b—Narrower tolerances result in better design and production quality
c—Design should use standard components
d—External dimensions of components should be such that they can be assembled together to make a product

11: Difference between time remaining until due date and remaining process time is called
a—Flow time
b—cycle time
c—Stack time
d—make span

12: Which of the following is most relevant for job shop layout
a—Job shop layout produces standard products
b—Automobile assembly is an example of job shop layout
c—All products have to be processed through all machines.
d—Similar machines are placed together in department in job shop layout

13: ______ forecasts are used introducing new products, have time horizon of 2-5 years and to establish
new facility
a—Long-range
b—Intermediate? Range
c—Short? Range
d—Demand planning

14: In time sequence, which of the following need to be accomplished first?

a-- Understand customer wants and needs
b-- Design and delver customer benefit package
c-- Build and leverage operations capabilities
d-- Hire creative engineers

15: Subcontracting
a—Is used when demand is more than capacity
b—Means firing of employees
c—Improves the utilization of machines
d—Means scheduling the workload on work centers

16: which one of the following would not generally be considered an aspect of operation management?
a—Work methods
b—Securing financial resources
c—Maintaining quality
d—Product or services

17: Who has been benefited from the productivity gains?

a—Workers
b—Management
c—Customers
d- All above

18: Kaizen means

a—Radical innovation
b—Inventory reduction
c—Continuous Improvement
d—Peventive Maintenance

19: Economics of scale means

a—Use of economic theory in manufacturing
b—Use of highly skilled manpower
c—purchasing inputs at competitive price
d—Cost reduction per unit of output

20: Which one of the following is more of a site factor than a community factor ?
a—Environmental Regulations
b—Pollution control
c—Zoning
d—Quality of life

21: Which of the following is not an order winning feature?

a—Key reason for purchasing a product
b—Product performance is just met
c—Excellent service record
d—Customer friendly features

22: Bill of Material can do the following

a—Help to compute material usage
b—Locate raw material supplies
c—Reduce product scrap
d—Reduce labor overtime

23: which one of the following quantifies service level of Dabbawallas

a—Customer satisfaction
b—Doing it right first time
c—Consistency in product / service quality
d—All above

24: Which one of the following is not an operation strategy

a—Product Leadership
b—Building financial resources
c—Customer satisfaction
d—Operational excellence

25: Using the Four Key Decision Loops in Professor Terry Hill’s Generic strategy Framework, which
statement is true?
a-- The four lops are highly integrated and require improvement cycles.
b-- The fist lop ties strategy to operations
c-- Operations has no input loop into corporate strategy or marketing strategy
d-- Infrastructure decisions must come before marketing decisions.

26: The ability of an organization to consistently meet its promises to the customer is called
a—Quality
b—Flexibility
c—Dependability
d—Speed

27: An order qualifier is ----------

a—A characteristic of a product or service that will contribute to winning business from customers
b-- A characteristic of a product or service that a customer does not expect.
c-- A characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as minimum standard.
d-- A characteristic present only in a high-quality product or service

28: which of the following is one of the categories of manufacturing inventory

a—Economic order inventory
b—Recorder oint
c—Just in time inventory
d—Work in progress

29: Triage by nurses in an emergency room would be an example of

a—Secluding
b—Sequencing
c—Appointments
d-- Shortest-processing-time rule

30: Firms maintain inventory for:

a—To maintain dependence of operations
b—To provide feeling of security to work force
c—To meet variation in product demand
d—To hedge against wage increase

31: which of the following is an input file necessary to run an MRP system
a—Bill of Material (BOM) file
b—Quality Management Report
c—Purchase Orders
d—Machine breakdown analysis
32: In India Suzuki migrated from capital intensive process concept to labor intensive concept because
a—High precision machines are available in India
b—Indian labor is cheaper
c—Indians cannot handle capital intensive projects
d—Capital intensive processes provide flexibility

33: What are the two key things that XYZ management did to achieve productivity gains ?
a—Increasing productivity without using additional resources
b—Increase in production with present resources
c—Emphasizing volume over quality
d—Increasing production using more overtime

34: Demand management of products includes

a—Order entry
b—Forecasting
c—Order commitment
d—All above

35: Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule (MPS) ?
a—Inventory record file
b—Aggregate Plan
c—Bill of materials
d—Planned order schedules

36: Inputs to a transformation process include all the following except

a—Material
b—People
c—Assembly
d—Information

37: Which one is true for statistical process control (SPC)

a—SPC is employed to control statistic of machine operations
b—SPC provides data for inventory management
c—SPC uses control charts to identify process correctness
d—SPC provides job scheduling statistics

38-- All of the following are common objectives of layout studies except
a-- Minimize delays in materials handling and customer movements
b-- Minimize the number of workstations
c-- Provide for good housekeeping and maintenance
d-- maintain flexibility

39-- Automobiles factories and hospitals laboratory work are example of

a—Projects
b-- Job shop
c-- Flow shop process
d-- Continuous flow process
40: What is the breakeven quantity of weekly production for this particular situation fixed cost rs 1.500 per week variable cost
a—200
b—500
c—600
d—300

41: which of the following would not usually be cited as a reason for locating in foreign countries?
a—Increased quality of output
b—Cheaper labor
c—Access to market
d—Availability of raw material

42: Process of converting input to output is called

a—Manufacturing
b—Servicing
c—Transformation
d—Scheduling

43: The biscuits production process is

a—Batch Type
b—Cellular flow
c—Project
d—Job Shop Type

44: DPMO for six sigma level quality is

a—66807
b—6210
c—233
d—3.4

45: Which of the following is not a method for evaluating location alternatives ?
a—Transportation Method
b—Center of Gravity Method
c—Waiting Line Analysis
d—Factor Rating

46: Which of the following forecasting methodologies is considered a time series forecasting technique ?
a—Delphi method
b—Exponential Averaging
c—Weighted moving average
d—Simulation

47-- Which of the following is not true regarding the difference between goods and services?
a-- Demand for services is easier to forecast
b-- Customers participate in many service
c-- Services cannot be stored as physical inventory
d-- Patents do not protect services

48: Dabbawallas are expert in loading and unloading of trays which type of technique, it is referred as in Supply Chain Manage
a—Pull supply chain
b—Push supply chain
c—Decentralized Supply Chain
d—None of above

49: Which one is not a measure of process performance

a—Run Time
b—Efficiency
c—Cycle time
d—Low absenteeism

50: Which of the following is not one of the basic types of forecasting?
a—Time series models
b—Depersonalizing data
c—Casual models
d—Force field analysis

51: Which of the following is not an issue dealt by an operations manager?

a—How much capacity would be required in months ahead
b—Choosing suitable location for a new facility
c—Which production/services should be offered
d—All are typical of operations decision

52: Main function of scheduling in operations management is

a—Inventory management
b—Allocation of available resources
c—Quality management
d—Job design

53-- A bank provides four sequential services to its customers. Over the last quarter, the reliability of
each of these services was 92%, 97%, 95% and 90%. What is their overall reliability?
a-- 0.97
b-- 0.935
c-- 0.763
d-- 0.74

54: Which of the following is not a production activity report generated by MRP?
a—Planning Report
b—Exception report
c—Planned order schedule
d—Bill of Materials report

55: Mobike is
a—Tangible product
b—A durable product
c—Uses raw material inputs
d—All above

56: which of the following is a fixed-order-quantity inventory model?

a—Economic order quantity model
b—ABC model
c—Periodic review system
d—Cycle counting model

57: Production flow analysis is the technique used to design

a—Group layout
b—Fixed position layout
c—Retail service office layout
d—Functional layout

59: In general, which forecasting time frame best identifies seasonal effects?
a—Short term forecasts
b—Quick time forecasts
c—Medium term forecasts
d—Long range forecasts

60: All of the following are possible reasons for using the first come first served rule in service systems
except
a—It is easy to apply
b—It guarantees the shortest throughput time
c—Viewed as fair by the waiting customer
d—Requires no computations

61-- In relating operations management and the customer benefit package (CBP), which is the current
timing sequence?
a-- Operating system process lead to customer needs and expectations, which lead to customer benefit
package.
b-- Customer benefit package leads to customer needs and expectations, which lead to operating
system processes.
c-- Customer needs and expectations lead to customer benefit package, which leads to operating
system processes.
d-- Customer needs and expectations lead to operating system processes, which lead to customer
benefit package.

62: A measure of capacity that generally does not include adjustments for preventive maintenance or unplanned downtime is
a—Effective capacity
b—Safe capacity
c—Potential capacity
d—Actual capacity
63: Which one is not true for hiring and firing strategy
a—It is a tool for aggregate planning
b—It increases employees? Motivation
c—Time is required for hiring and firing
d—It costs company for hiring and firing

64: The computer determines the amount of each ingredient needed, according to the quantity of
biscuits ordered using which source of information
a—Supply order
b—production order
c—Bill of material
d—Master production schedule

65: In time series data depicting demand which of the following is not considered a component of
demand variation?
a—Trend
b—Seasonal
c—Cyclical
d—Variance

66: Which of the following is a long-term capacity decision?

a—Increasing the plant capacity
b—Offloading certain jobs
c—Hiring contract labor
d—Inventory policy

67: How are productivity and quality related

a—Increase in a quality due to increase in production
b—Cost reduction due to fewer defectives
c—Quality makes product costly
d—Quality requires more supervision

68: The typical goal used when developing a process-oriented layout strategy is to
a—Minimize the distance between adjacent departments
b—Maximize the job specialization
c—Minimize the material handling cost
d—Maximize the number of jobs which can be performed on the individual machine

69: Which of these materials will have independent demand?

a—Ingredients
b—Flavourings
c—Biscuit Fillings
d—Final biscuit

70-- The typically layout of facilities in a hospital would be an example of ______ layout.
a—Product
b—Process
c—Cellular
d-- Fixed position

2. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(d) Products and services can be designed and produced in similar ways.

3. Which one of the following statements is true?

(d) It is difficult to protect services through patents.

4. Computer software is
(b) a non-durable product

5. Which of the following is not a major dimension of a servicescape?: facility location

6. A system design consisting of several parallel components that function independently of each other and where the
(b) redundancy

7. Which of the following is not an important issue in service encounter design?

(a) facility location

8. Which of the following steps is different for products and services? ( d) marketplace
evaluation

9. Which of the following is not part of failure-mode-and-effects analysis (FMEA)?

(b ) calculation of reliability of components

Chapter-5 1.
A company that produces a standardized product that has high demand, uses this type of process.: continuous flow

2. Dell computes rare examples of _____ products.

(b) Option
3. General purpose equipment, and multi-skilled employees are related to
(b) Job shops

4. A process map (flowchart)

( c) Is used as a baseline to describe how a process is performed

5. Resource utilization is lowest in

(a) A job shop
6. The average number of products / services produced per unit time from a process is called
______.: Throughput

7. The task that limits throughput of a process is called a ______.: Bottleneck

8. Which one of the following is not a major activity in designing a product-producing or

service-providing process?: Use the product life cycle for each product or service to create a future state process

9. The number of patents that a company files is related to its operational performance measure
in the category of
(c) innovation and learning
10. A performance measure should not be
(b) based on behavioral performance
Chapter-6 1.
Facility planning does NOT include: the quality control methods used in the facility

2. When break-even analysis is used for the facility location decision:

(b ) both fixed and variable costs are estimated for each alternative

3. Decisions about facility planning are complex and often difficult to organize because: multiphase decisions are in

4. Facility location decisions:

(a) typically involve trade-off decisions
(b) usually involve long and costly studies
(c) are sometimes determined by where customers are
(d) All of the alternatives are correct.

5. A washing machine manufacturer wants to build a new facility. The first location decision in a sequence of decisio

6. The national decision of where to locate a manufacturing facility today is affected by: All of the alternatives are c

7. Which of the following is NOT a factor in the site selection decision: climate

8. Which of the following is most important for a retailer in establishing a facility location:
(d) proximity to concentrations of customers or constituents

9. Which of the following affects the importance that each locational factor plays in location
decisions:
(d) All of the alternatives are correct

Q1. Payment is made for machinery purchases previously on credit. What effect does this transaction have on the acc
A1. Assets and liabilities decrease

Q2. Which of the attached is generally found in most JIT environments?

A2. Pull systems
Q3. What are the differences between manufacturing and services for aggregate planning?
A3. All of the above

Q4. Which of the attached statements is not a characteristic of a project?

A4. 1. Every project has a set of unique activities
2. A project is taken up to perform a particular task or attain a specific goal
3. a project consists of a various technical activities that are independent and unrelated
4. a project consists of various activities that need to be performed in a particular sequence to deliver the end product

Q5. In high price high demand products cycle inventory should be ______
A5. Disaggregated

Q6. The average amount of time jobs spend in a system under priority sequencing rule is called ______: Average flow time

Q7. All the given statements are true regarding Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) except:
A7. 1. WBS is a useful method of schedule development for the project manager
2. WBS lists the vendor/subcontractors associated with specific activities of the project
3. WBS illustrates how each activity of the project contributes to the whole project
4. WBS is initially developed with the limited idea available and is subsequently revised

Q8. Which of the given costs are not considered part of EOQ?
A8. Stock out cost

Q9. In production planning, the level of detail from highest to lowest is

A9. Aggregate plan, master production schedule, material requirement plan

Q10. A company is more vertically integrated if is __________ most of its functions.

A10. Performs

Q11. Which of the given statements is a quality function?: All of the above

Q12. The rule in which jobs are processed in the sequence of their arrival is known as: First-come-first-serve

Q13. In a transportation network design, a truck collects goods from various plants of the supplier and delivers them
Q14. “Exploding” the Bill of material means: converting the bill of materials into components and raw ma

Q15. Labour time standards are developed through: Work measurement

Q16. Many organizations hold safety stocks as part of their inventory. Which of the attached is a reason:

Q17. Logistics system is a coordinated design of an operational mechanism of: Procurement, production & physica

Q18. Which of the following statements is not true about services?

A18. 1. A service encounter can take place between a customer and a bank
2. a high customer contact service has high process efficiency
3. a seat in a theatre a perishable asset
4. demand for services is time-dependent

Q19. Which statement best describes Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A19. An organization – wide emphasis on quality as defined by the customer

Q20. When a company carries out break-even analysis for an outsourcing decision, the breakeven quantity is.
A20.
1. The ratio of fixed costs to difference between variable outsourcing cost and variable in-house production cost
2. the ratio of the difference between variable outsourcing cost and variable in-house production cost to fixed cost.
3. the product of the variable costs times the fixed cost
4. the product of the variable costs times the production quantity

Q21. Which of the given statement does not represent ordering cost?: Pilferage cost

Q22. Job shop is characterised by: Low volume/ Customised product

Q23. Decisions that concern the day-to-day activities of workers, quality of products and services, production and overhead co

24. iPods are examples of _____ products: Standard

25. Identify the forecasting method that can be used when data collection proves very expensive: exponential smoothing
25. Regular patterns in demand that take place over long periods of time are called _____.: Cyclical patterns
26. Labour standard is the expected output from ______ worker under _____ conditions. : average, average
27. In a single exponential smoothing method: Large values of alpha (a) place more emphasis on recent data.
28. An auto manufacturer would classify vehicles in various stages of production as: work in progress
29. In ________ a project we reduce activity time of critical activities to reduce the project time: crashing
30. In service organizations, capacity is mostly defined as: units of resources availability
31. Inventory holding costs represent cost incurred while inventories are stored in stores, which of the given is not related wit
32. Which one of the attached organizational structures is best suited for project management?: Matrix
33. ______ forecasts are needed to allocate budgets among businesses, decide number of employees, and schedule equipmen
34. Modern versions of ERP connect: The internal business process with customers, suppliers and other partners
35. Deisions regarding to the aggregate sales and operations planning involve/ Decisions relating to the aggregate sales and op
36. Six sigma is based on a simple problem solving methodology known as: DMAIC
37. In Material Requirement Planning: the availability of components is ensured via dependent requirements
38. Which of the given statements is not true about productivity?: increase in production leads to increase in productivity
39. With respect to PERT and CPM, an event: Marks the start and completion of a task
40. The Master Production Schedule (MPS) contains: All of the above
41. Features and benefits that differentiate one product from another are called: Order qualifiers
42. In aggregate planning, which one of the attached strategy looks to maintain a steady production rate and workforce level?
43. What are the differences between manufacturing and services for aggregate planning: All of the above
44. Which aspects of physical environment affect productivity and quality of output: all of these
45. Which of the given is a schematic representation of project activities and the logical relationship or dependence among th
46. Average safety capacity (%) is calculated as: 100% average resource utilization (%)
47. _______ is the process of estimating, routing and scheduling.: Planning
48. A bill of material (BOM) lists the: components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item.
49. In project mgt Forward Pass is _______: left to right
50. Productivity can be improved by: decreasing inputs while holding outputs steady
51. Which of the attached techniques should be made so that mistake does not occur: pokayokes
52. ERP consists of the following modules: All of the above
53. With reference to attributes customers use in evaluating the quality of products and services, a holiday package is high in:
54. During which phase of a product’s life cycle does low per unit production cost become the most important: Growth
55. Operations management has evolved in following sequence: c) efficiency, quality, customization, time-based competition
56. ___________ translates the aggregate plan into a detailed plan that specifies the exact time for production of each unit.: M
57. Qualifying factors are key benefits for a customer to: c) both 1 and 2
buy a product and consider buying
58. Regarding quality, which statement is false: Manufacturers of high quality products charge lower prices

59. The critical path of the network is the: Longest path through the network

60. The optimistic time is the __________time for completing a project: Maximum time

61. Which of the following transportation mode is used for digital products: The internet

62. What does the EOQ inventory model primarily attempt to minimize?: - Total inventory costs/ the number of items ordere

63. An example of highly customized service could be: lawyer/ school/ hospital/ retail

64. The ______ of a company are its unique strengths: strategy/ mission/ vision statement/ core competencies
65. Which of the following best defines a set of quality standards for international business with the major objective of promo

66. Using the ABC classification system for inventory, which of the given statements is a true statement?: The A items are of h

67. The term ‘vertical integration’ means: produce goods or services previously purchased

68. When a manufacturer develops an innovative product and then identifies a suitable target market and distribution channe

69. In ________________ systematic arrangements should be made so that mistakes do not occur at all. : Poka yoke

70. In line flow, a good example of make to order can be: hospital

71. Moving average model is applicable when _______ in the time series.: Only irregular variation is present

72. The operation strengths a company can use as a competitive advantage could be: quality/ size/ quick delivery/ all of above

73. Which of the attached option-measures provide information on the extent of forecast error in relative terms?: Mean Abso

74. Problems that are short term and cause sudden change in quality are called: accidental/ sporadic

75. There are many factors affecting the ‘efficient’ and ‘responsive’ supply chain. Which, out the attached pairs, is related to ‘r
a. low cost, responds quickly
b. high price, responds quickly
c. standard product, responds quickly
d. low levels of inventory, short lead time
76. what are the steps in supply chain?: Manufacturers- suppliers- wholesalers- retailers- consumers

77. The slowest form of transportation for shipping goods is: water

78. Which are the right stages of a supply chain?: c) suppliers, manufacturers, distributors, retail outlets, customers

1. Aircraft building and event management industries are example of

- Make to order
2. Production flow analysis is the technique used to design
- Functional
3. Eight hours of production time is available per day. Scheduled production rate is 120 units per
day. What is the required cycle time?
- 4 mins
4. What were the two key things that XYZ management did to achieve productivity gains?
- Increase productivity without using additional resources
5. Outsourcing is a decision with _______ implications.
- Strategic
6. The ability to change a product or service offering to suit customer's need is called
- Flexibility
7. Which of the following cannot be the cause of inventory reduction in XYZ company
- Fewer spares required for warranty repairs/ lower rejection rate/ Increase in productivity
8. Which of the following is not related to Johnson Rule
- Johnson’s rule is used when there are n jobs to schedule on two machines
9. How are productivity and quality related?
- quality requires more supervision
10. Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule(MPS)?
- Aggregate plan
11. Which of the following forecasting methodology is considered a time service forecasting
technique?
- Weighted moving average
12. An order winner is _____?
- A characteristic of a product or service that will contribute directly to winning business
from customers.
13. Efficiency, in capacity terms is the ratio of :
- Actual output to Effective Capacity
14. A TV manufacturer wishes to build a new factory. The first location decision in his decision
making process will be?
-Installing plant in specific of selected city
15. In practice __________time is not included in the utilization of the process :
- Set up
16. The ability of an organization to consistently meet its promises to the customer is called
- Dependability
17. Bill of material can do the following
- Help to compute material usage
18. Which one of the following quantifies service level of dabbawallas?
- All above
19. Which one is true for Statistical Process Control (SPC)
- SPC uses control charts to identify process correctness
20. Who has been benefited from the productivity gain?
- All of the above
21. All of the following are possible reasons for using the first come first served rule in service
systems except”
- It guarantees the shortest throughput time
22. Pick the statement about location decisions that is not true
- It is important to identify the optimal location
23. Make to assembly process
- Components are made to order and products made to stock
24. Which one of the following is more of a site factor than a community factor?
- Zoning
25. In general which forecasting time frame best identifies seasonal effects?
- Medium term forecasts
26. Which of the following is not an issue dealt by the operations manager?
- All are typical operations decisions
27. Efficiency ratio must be greater that utilization ratio because:
- Design capacity is larger than effective capacity
28. A PC manufacturer who has acquired a hard disk manufacturer has performed.
- None of the above
29. Difference between time remaining until due date and remaining process time is called
- Slack time
30. The typical goal used when developing a process oriented layout strategy is to
- minimize the material handling costs
31. Which of the following would not usually be cited as a reason for location facility in foreign
countries?
- Increased quality of output
32. Production flow analysis is the technique used to design
- Functional
33. When calculating inventory cost, which if the following is not included as costs to place order?
- Taxes
34. The ability to change a product or service offering to suit customer's need is called
- Flexibility
35. In time series data depicting demand, which of the following in not considered a component of
demand variation?
- Variance
36. Economies of scale means
- Cost reduction per unit of output
37. Pick the statement about location decisions that is not true
- It is important to identify the optimal location
38. Quality in service means
- Meeting customer perceptions/None of above
39. A PC manufacturer who has acquired a hard disk manufacturer has performed.
- None of the above
40. Which of the following does not fit with an efficient supply chain?
- Low contribution margin/ Highly predictable demand
41. Which of the following is a fixed order quantity inventory model?
- Economic order quantity model
42. The Dabbawallas taking lunch boxes from home and delivering at workplace are :
- Services
43. Difference between time remaining until due date and remaining process time is called
- Slack time
44. In the assembly line balancing , cycle time (the ratio of available production time to schedule
production ) is the
- maximum time that a product is allowed at each workstation
45. Which one is not connected to decision taken by Suzuki to make sourcing hub:
- Frugal engineering concepts of Indians
46. During which phase of product life cycle , completion becomes intense and high quality product
is demanded at low cost
- Maturity
47. How are productivity and quality related?
- quality requires more supervision
48. Which of the following is not an order winning feature?
- Key reason for purchasing a product
49. Kaizen means
- Continuous improvement
50. Which of these materials will have independent demand?
- Final biscuit
51. Average time between completion of units is known as
- Cycle time
52. Suzuki is able to reduce its manufacturing cost using
- Product engineering skills
53. Which of the following would not generally be classified as a regional factor in location
decisions?
- Moving expenses
54. The biscuits production process is:
- Batch type
55. Which one of the following would not generally be considered an aspect of operation
management?
- secure financial resources
56. Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule(MPS)?
- Aggregate plan
57. Make to assembly process
- Components are made to order and products made to stock
58. __________forecasts are used introducing new products, have time horizon of 2-5 years and to
establish new facility?
- Long range
59. Which of the following is not an Operation Strategy
- Building financial resources
ments is true?
asks is 39 minutes. The line runs 450 minutes per day. What must the cycle time be to achieve an output rate

4 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique?
units and the ending inventory was to be 200 units, how many units were produced?

efore they occur?

2.50 per unit per year, which of the given value is the optimal order quantity?
aintain a constant rate of production irrespective of demand. This strategy is known as:
the finish of the last
ake a product
1.500 per week variable cost rs3 per unit revenue rs 6 per unit.
d as in Supply Chain Management
e or unplanned downtime is called
f each other and where the system fails only if all the parallel components fail is an example of

ocess.: continuous flow

ate a future state process map.

ultiphase decisions are involved

on in a sequence of decisions might be: whether to build in Mexico or the U.S.

l of the alternatives are correct.

ransaction have on the accounting equation?

iver the end product

____: Average flow time

t-come-first-serve

upplier and delivers them to many customers. This system is commonly known as: Direct Shipping With Milk Runs
mponents and raw material requirements

attached is a reason: To take care of demand forecast variations

nt, production & physical distribution

 quantity is.

production cost
cost to fixed cost.

production and overhead costs known as…: Control decision

exponential smoothing
al patterns

recent data.

f the given is not related with holding costs?: material receiving cost

yees, and schedule equipment and other resources.: Intermediate range

d other partners
o the aggregate sales and operations planning involves: medium term forecasting

equirements
o increase in productivity

on rate and workforce level?: Chase strategy

ip or dependence among them?: Project network diagram

a holiday package is high in: Experience attributes
st important: Growth
on, time-based competition, service, sustainability
or production of each unit.: Master Production Scheduling

the number of items ordered/ the number of orders placed/ the safety stock

competencies
he major objective of promoting the development of standardization? : ISO 9001

ment?: The A items are of high money volume

rket and distribution channel. This is an example of: Push model of SCM

r at all. : Poka yoke

/ quick delivery/ all of above

relative terms?: Mean Absolute Percentage Error.

ttached pairs, is related to ‘responsive’ supply chain?:

outlets, customers
ith Milk Runs
Question

Billy beane is an example of a leader because he

One of the reasons for Beane's success is his ability to let employees know precisely what is expected of them, give specific
guidelines for playing
Other teams have an average payroll of 85 million. Beane's payroll for Athletics is only $33 million
By descibing Beane as ardent and controlling, his co-workers are using
The basic aim of any communication is to ensure that
A form of cognitive bias that causes one's perception of another to be unduly influenced by a single negative trait
In the OCEAN model, the personality dimension concerned with curosity, innovative thinking, and assimilating new informatio
is known as
When agents make requests based on their position and authority it is
The theory which says that people calculate effort to performance probabilities is known as
As per MBTI, which is not a bipolar personality dimention
The traits of intelligence, curosity, inquisitveness and learning approach is known as
If you are in stress you may

Team Building means

Which of the following statements is NOT accurate concerning listening
Trait leader theories focus on all the following except

Coaching means
Goals are most effective when they are
A mid level leadership competency model has three competencies

The highest levels of situational favourability most likely occur when

When two parties or individuals meet for mutual benefits or gains, this is known as
Directive, Supporting, Participative and Acheivement Oriented leadership are the leadership styles of
Which of the following is NOT a component of the leadership vision?

Once you delegate you

The traits of empathy, friendliness, interpersonal sensitivity or the need for affiliation is known as
The power of knowledge through their relative expertise in particular areas is known as
A willingness to confront one's own views and an invitation to other to do so too is known as
The first requirement for a team intervention to be successful is:
Trait theory of leadership attempt to

Body language is
The type of power which involves the potential to inflence others due to one's control over desired resources
One who innovate, develop, inspire, originate and have a long term view and ask what and why and challenges the status quo
called
The delegating Leadership style has
According to some leadership experts, leaderhip

According to the path-goal theory of leaderhip what leadership style involves being friendly and approachable to employees
Leaders who are new college hires most likely fall into which of the following quadrants of the credibility matrix
in the Autocratic process of decision making
Which managerial types have most likely gained insight into their dark-side traits and found ways to negate
What is weakest element of situational favourability

Contency theories of leadership in determining appropiate leader behaviour and style focus strongly on:
As a student you are developing power

In fielder's contingency theory the term refers to the degree to which leaders are able to hire fre reward and punish workers
It is most likely important to have specific goals for the purpose of
A Leader who adopts a logical framework in leading the team is known as
Aggression is
What is role of Personality Traits of Leadership
Because of narcissistic tendencies leaders often get a quite a bit done

Which of the following statements is most likely true about active listening
According to the path-goal theory which leader behavior is most likely characterized by remaining open and approachable to
followers
Leaders exhibiting participative leadership are most likely to
which of these is not a creativity killer

Which of the following statements about feedback is most likely FALSE?

Expert power is gained through specialized knowledge arising out of
The power base of the future will likely be:
When delegating an assignemtn which of the following question si LEAST relevant to address

Which of the following statements concerning dark-side traits is most likely FALSE?
A process for identifying and developing new leaders, who can replace old leaders when they leave or retire is known as
Which of the following statements about the path-goal theory is most likely FALSE?
the A-O-R Model is
The only school you learn Leadership from is a School of Hard Knocks
The process of inflencing a group towards accomplishing of it's goals is an action of
When a leader favours a consensual and collaborative process, and influence derives from relationships rather than position
power and formal authority
Leadership qualities can be developed through
What is the first step of effective delegation?
Diligent leaders are most likely to:
Selling syle of leadership is applicable when it is
For building credibility, you can

What is Abilene Paradox

Cheerleaders:

Paraphrasing means
Halo effect
GAPS Model is :
Influence is defined as :
Assume you are a senior accounts major.
Least likely cause a conflict in work groups
Creative Intelligence
Fielder -> misfit between leader and situation
which is leat likely imrpove a leaders feedback
power that one's form or official authority gives
Answer

has a strong desire to lead

Directive
Initiating structure
Trait theory
That others understand the message
Horn effect

Openness to experience
Legitimizing Tactics
Path Goal Thory
Optimism-Pessimism
Openness to experience
may have all the symptoms
the action or process of causing a group of people to work together
effectively
The best listeners are passive listeners
situational characterstics
the act of giving special training in a work-related activity generally by a
senior
challanging
Knowing and executing business operations well
leader-member relations are good, the task is structured, and position
power is high
Coalition Tactics
Path Goal Thory
Policies

Allow autonomy but monitor performance and give credit and not blame
Agreeableness
Expert Power
Double Loop learning
raising awareness about how teams really work.
focus on leaders physical attributes, personality, and abilities
is a type of nonverbal communcation in which physical behaviours as
oppo…
Reward power

Leader
low task/low relationship behaviour
is an interpersonal relation in which others comply because they want to.

Supportive leadership
Third
The leader solves the problem or makes the decision by him-herself
Competent Managers
Position power

the importance and characterstics of the situation as well as particular traits

Expert

Position power
Measuring progress
Rational Leader
is an effort to attain objective by attcking
Personality traits are useful and helpful for Leaership
Bold
Active listeners put the sender's message into their own words to improve
understanding

Supportive leadership
share work problems with followers
team building and team work
Research shows that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback
than their leaders think they do.
formal education or work experience
expert
How does the task relate to industry standards
Dark-side traits are usually apparent only when leaders are attending to their
public image
Succession Planning
If a task is very structured, informal authority decreases follower motivation levels
Action-Observation-Reflection Model
Myth
Leadership

Interactive Leadership
With Education, Training and Experience
Deciding what activity to hand over
frustrate their staffs through micro-management
High task High Relationship
Build Expertise and Trust
situation when a group makes a collective decision that is counter to the
thoughts and feelings of its individual members
people cetered
express the meaning of (something written or spoken) using different
words, especially to achieve greater clarity.
RM IMTC 522
1. "can you name five brands of tires?' is an example of what type of ____ question.: open-ended response
2. "What is your gender? ______ M ______ F" is an example of what type of question?: fixed alternative
3. __________refers to physical and mental changes that may occur when individuals over time.: maturation
4. _________data is readily available.: Secondary
5. ______are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.: Confidence limits
6. _____refers to the effect of a single independent variable.: main effect
7. A common test in research demands much priority on: All of the above
8. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a: Large sample
9. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular classroom: Differential Selection effect
10. A hypothesis is a: supposition
11. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifiers a characteristic of the population: a parameter
12. A process outcome or a variable that is predicted and or explained by other variable: dependent variable
13. A question that poses some problem or topic and asks respondents: open-ended response
14. A questionnaire that collects information that is valid is said to be: accurate
15. A researcher wants to study the members of the American Marketing Association and selects a sample from its membership list. The membership l
16. A telephone directory that lists the people in the phone book by their street address instead of their last name is called: Reverse directory
17. A variable that can take random values: Random variable
18. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n): Independent Variable
19. Aayush has a frequency table with the number of stores in three different categories: stand-alone, shopping center, and mall locations. Which stati
20. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flow chart: Research topic ,research problem , research purpose ,
21. All of the following are stages in the selection of a sample except: Analyze Data
22. Another name for perfect bell shaped distribution is: Normal Distribution
23. Another term for fixed-alternative questions is: Closed-ended
24. As a general rule Which is the best measure of central tendency: mean/ As as general rule , the __________is the best measure of central tendency
25. As sample size ___ random sampling error ____.: increases, decreases
26. Barbara received a phone call asking her to participate in a survey. She told the interviewer that she was too busy and could not participate. This is
27. controlled group condition is applied in: experimental group
28. data created recorded or generated by an entity other than the researcher's ___: external data
29. For a one-group t-test the degrees of freedom are: n-1
30. How many points should a rating scale have: Somewhere from 4 to 11 points
31. how often is the population census conducted: Every 10 Year
32. If Northwest Airlines selects randomly a set of 40 flights on a given day, and then selects randomly a group of ten passengers on each of these fligh
33. In Which of the following non-random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research p
34. In Which of type of research , there is a least concern for "generalizing" its findings: qualitative research
35. Inductive research is: from particular to general
36. internal validity refers to Which of the following: the ability to infer that a causal relationship between two variables.
37. ______ Is a single member of the population: element
38. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results: Discussion
39. Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as: Mutually Exclusive
40. one step that is not included in planning a research study is: Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
41. open-ended questions provide primarily ____ data: Qualitative data
42. people who refuse to co-operate are called: Non Respondent
43. qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except: it is typically used when a great deal is already known
44. random sampling error occurs during: Sampling
45. secondary/existing data may include Which of the following: All of the above
46. Suppose that a group of 100 consumers are asked to rate how much they liked the taste of a new soft drink on a 5- point scale (where 5 = good tas
47. Systematic errors are also called: Nonsampling errors
48. Systematic error is divided into Which two general categories?: Respondent error and administrative error
49. t test was developed by ____ in 1908: A Willian Seally Gosset
50. The biasness that frequently plagues self-administered questionnaires: Self selection bias
51. The feasibility of the research study should be considered in light of: All the above
52. The introduction section of the research plan: all of the above
53. the most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called: Mode
54. the people who answer survey questions are referred to as: Respondents
55. The process of drawing a sample from the population is known as__ : Sampling
56. The research participants are describing in detail in Which section of the research plan?: Research methodology
57. the step-by-step process by Which the research project is conducted and completed is known as: Research Process
58. The t-distribution has a mean of ___ and a standard deviation of ___.: zero, one
59. The type of sampling in Which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is sel
60. what is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable: third variable
61. When a company decides to send an Internet survey to all of its 127-member sales force to determine their morale. This is a ____.: census
62. When a research study is not conducted according to the plan in the proposal of the research study what kind of error: Systematic error
63. When a researcher has made the decision to conduct survey using the sample of population , the FIRST step in selection of the sample is to: Define
64. when a researcher wishes to analyze data that is nominal Which type of statistics is appropriate: Nonparametric
65. When a respondent is asked to place each shopping mall in a list of four local shopping malls in the order in Which she prefers to shop at each mall
66. when a respondent is given a set of 3" x 5" cards containing the current advertising slogan for a brand on each card and is asked to place the cards:
67. When sample size (n) is larger than ____, the t-distribution and Z-distribution are almost identical: 30
68. Which attitude component represents a person's awareness and knowledge of the matter: Cognitive
69. Which is not a measure of variability: Median
70. Which is the defining characteristic of experimental research: The manipulation of independent variable
71. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?: an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
72. Which of the following can be best described as a categorical variable: Religion
73. Which of the following is a qualitative variable: Religion
74. Which of the following is not a part of research proposal: Respondent data
75. Which of the following is not an example of non-random sampling technique: cluster
76. Which of the following represents how well some computed table or matrix of values matches some population or predetermined table or matrix o
77. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose: Seco
78. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency: Simple random sampling
79. Which of these is not a method of data collection: Experiment
80. Which one of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?: footnotes
81. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing it's findings?: QUALITATIVE research
82. Which study is used to compare different brands based on attributes: Factor analysis
83. Which test is applicable for sample size less than 30: t-test
84. Which type of error occurs when certain sample elements are excluded or when the entire population is not accurately represented in the samplin
85. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause and effect relationship?: Experimental research
86. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that independent and dependent variables are related and that the estimated strength of that re
87. A study indicates what or who should provide the data and at what level of aggregation is called: Unit of analysis
88. A non-random sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research
89. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ________: A Variable
90. Which type of research tries to verify a theory or to learn more about a concept and is not intended to solve a particular business problem?: basic
91. Which type of sampling error is primarily due to the nature of a study’s design and the correctness of execution?: Systematic sampling error
92. A questionnaire can be formed to gather responses about events and characteristics taking place in the: Past/ Present/ Future/ All of the above
93. Which of the following is among the points that the purpose of research usually satisfied: discovery/ hypothesis testing/ prediction/ all of the abov
94. Which of the following is a basic component of an attitude?: All of the above
95. In an experimental study the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the _______. : Independent variable
96. In a research study, a potential respondent who is not at home at either the first or second attempt to reach this person by phone is called a(n): no
97. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?: mixed research
98. Which of the following are the two types of research based on the specificity of its purpose?: basic and applied
99. Which scale has a meaningful zero?: ratio
100. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter: sampling error
101. “I love my job” is an example of which component of an attitude toward one’s job?: affective
102. Which of the following can be the target of survey research techniques?: all of the above
103. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a: Bar graph
104. A single element or group of elements that is eligible for selection via the sampling process is called: sampling panel
105. When the data are in ______ form, and the sample size is _______, the researcher should use parametric statistical procedures: interval, large
106. A research plan: all of the above
107. The number of observations minus the number of constraints or assumptions needed to calculate a statistical term is called: degrees of freedom
108. Which correlation is the strongest?: Minus 0.95
109. ________ is conducted to address a specific business decision for a specific firm or organization.: Applied business research
110. Which of the following refers to the way researchers go about using knowledge and evidence to reach objective conclusions about the real world?
111. What term is used by the market research industry to refer to diverse types of data offered by a single company?: single source data
112. In an experimental research, the following holds good except: It is rarely conducted in a controlled setting
113. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling: Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population pro
114. Which one of the following is not an example of a non-random sampling technique?: cluster
115. Which of the following sounds like a null hypothesis?: There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
116. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?: Purposive sampling
117. People who are unwilling to participate in a research project are referred to as: refusals
118. What is the mean of this set of numbers 4,6,7,9,2000000: 400005.2
119. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from: cross-sectional study
120. The difference between the sample result and the result of an accurate census is called: random sampling error
121. A type II error is known as: False negative
122. Which of the following refers to the extent that all information collected in a questionnaire addresses a research question that will help the decisio
123. When an extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable, it is called: A confoundin
124. A census taker often collects data through which of the following: Interviews
125. Research hypothesis are ______: 2 & 3 (a) Statements of predicted relationships between variables
b) Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted)
126. All of the following are important aspects of the business research process EXCEPT: making results publicly available
127. Which of the following represents a population parameter?: Sigma
128. A type III error is known as a……: False positive
129. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by educational researchers? – Checklists
130. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods?: Experimental
131. Techniques that use secondary data to select best location for retail and operations: Site analysis
132. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?: You can be 95% confident that your interval will include the population param
133. A survey can collect information using which of the following techniques?: all of the above (telephone, mail, F2f)
134. Quantitative research is best described by: an attempt to confirms the researcher's hypotheses
http://www.people.vcu.edu/~pdattalo/ReviewQsAns_609.htm

Test market is done-

a) Before launch of final product
b) After launch of final product
c) Its an on going process
d) None
How would you collect required data
a) By observation
b) By customer feedback through questionnaire
c) By informal questions to customers (short interviews)
d) All
Test marketing according to case will give green signal for
a) Nationally launching the product
b) Rehersal before launching product
c) Bring out possible errors, so that preventive steps can be taken
d) All
What data would you collect in test market
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Metadata
d) none
s membership list. The membership list is an example of a: sampling frame
is called: Reverse directory

enter, and mall locations. Which statistical test is appropriate for testing hypothesizes she might have regarding these frequencies?: Chi Square Test
earch problem , research purpose , research question, hypothesis

the best measure of central tendency: Mean

usy and could not participate. This is an example of a(n)_____.: nonresponse error

en passengers on each of these flights to participate in an in-flight survey, the passengers are best referred to as a ____.: secondary sampling unit
o identify other potential research participants?: Snowball Sampling

when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest

 a 5- point scale (where 5 = good taste and 1 = poor taste) and the mean rating was 4.2 with a standard deviation of 1.48. Suppose, further, that the standard error of the mean for

lation before the next member is selected is called: Sampling with replacement

orale. This is a ____.: census

of error: Systematic error
selection of the sample is to: Define the target population

hich she prefers to shop at each mall, this is an example of a ______ task.: ranking/ cognitive
card and is asked to place the cards: sorting

n or predetermined table or matrix of the same size?: goodness-of-fit (GOF)

person for a different purpose: Secondary data

ccurately represented in the sampling frame?: Sampling Frame Error

Experimental research
hat the estimated strength of that relationship is accurate: Statistical conclusion validity

t of characteristics for your research study is called_______: Purposive sampling

particular business problem?: basic research

n?: Systematic sampling error
Present/ Future/ All of the above
s testing/ prediction/ all of the above
pendent variable
his person by phone is called a(n): no contact

stical procedures: interval, large

term is called: degrees of freedom

e conclusions about the real world?: scientific method

y?: single source data

t always match their population proportions

mes in the population

ch question that will help the decision maker address the current business problem?: relevant
nt variable, it is called: A confounding variable

archers? – Checklists

val will include the population parameter

at the standard error of the mean for this study was 0.15. If you wanted to find the 95 percent confidence interval (two-tailed test), and if the Z-value at the 0.05 level of significan
Z-value at the 0.05 level of significance is 1.96, the confidence interval lies between _____.: 3.91 and 4.49