1. You are taking the A Card Test?

a. True
b. False
2. Crankcase pressure regulators are used to limit suction pressure at the compressor?
a. True
b. False
3. Crankcase pressure regulators are to keep compressor from over loading when evaporator is at
a higher than design operating temperature.
a. True
b. False
4. Specific gravity of water has a rating of 1.
a. True
b. False
5. Refrigerants that are made up of two refrigerant that, when blended in the right proportions,
combine to make a third stable refrigerant, are called:
a. Blends
b. Azeotropes
c. Near Azeotropes
d. Mixtures
6. Which of the following refrigerants cannot be added to a system as a vapor?
a. R-134a
b. R-500
c. R-409a
d. R-22
7. Standard reciprocating refrigeration compressor, oil pressure safety controls measure the
difference in pressure between the;
a. Oil pump inlet and discharge pressures.
b. Oil pump discharge pressure and compressor head pressure.
c. Oil pump inlet pressure and compressor suction pressure.
d. Oil pump discharge pressure and compressor suction pressure
8. A motor’s speed is determined by:
a. Size
b. Voltage
c. Amperage
d. Number of motor poles
9. Three terminals in the compressor junction box are marked one, two, and three. Using an
ohmmeter, the resistance of the internal motor windings are: 1.5 ohms between one and two;
3.4 ohms between one and three; and 5 ohms between two and three. The common terminal is:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Inside the motor
10. If an R-134a refrigeration system is operating with a 22 PSIG suction pressure. What is the
evaporator superheat if the evaporator outlet temperature is 34 degrees F?
 a. 9 degrees F
b. 59 degrees F
c. 34 degrees F
d. 22 degrees F
11. Water cooled shell and tube condenser; if the water flow is reduced, the temperature difference
across the condenser will:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Correspond to the evaporator saturation temperature
12. The clearance volume of a compressor cylinder:
a. Increases as the compression ratio increases
b. Increases as the compression ratio decreases
c. Decreases as the compression ratio increases
d. Remains the same as the compression ration decreases
13. The clearance volume of a compressor cylinder is the:
a. Amount of refrigerant vapor the compressor cylinder will hold during each stroke
b. Volume by which the compressor is rated
c. Volume of the space between the bottom of the valve plate and the top of the piston
at the top dead center
d. The total volume of the cylinder when the piston is at the bottom dead center
14. A column of water one foot high exerts a pressure of:
a. .396 PSIG
b. .407 PSIG
c. .433 PSIG
d. .496 PSIG
15. The density of air is the:
a. Amount of moisture in the air
b. Amount of movement in the air per cubic foot
c. Weight of the air per cubic foot
d. Combination of the temperature and pressure of the air.
16. The dew-point temperature is the:
a. Temperature when the air is saturated with moisture
b. Temperature when the moisture begins to condense out of the air
c. Difference between the dry-bulb and wet-bulb temperatures
d. Temperature of the air at 50% relative humidity
17. If the resistance against the centrifugal blower is doubled, the cfm output decreases, and the
amperage draw of the motor:
a. Decreases slightly
b. Increases slightly
c. Stays the same
d. Overheats the motor
18. If the resistance against the propeller fan is doubled, the cfm output decreases, but the
amperage draw of the motor:
 a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Stays the same
d. Overheats the motor
19. A 240/24 volt – 40 VA transformer will supply up to _____ amperes from the secondary without
reduction.
a. 1.257
b. 1.50
c. 1.666
d. 1.841
20. Direct expansion three ton air conditioning evaporator will require approximately ____ of air
flow.
a. 400 CFM/Ton
b. 1,200 CFM
c. 1,200 CFM/Ton
d. Both A and B
21. The typical drop of fresh water through a water chiller evaporator is ___ degrees F.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
22. 38 gallons of water per minute are being circulated through a water cooled condenser. The rise
in temperature is 8 degrees F. What is the approximate load on the condenser?
a. 108,000 BTU/h
b. 152,000 BTU/h
c. 216,000 BTU/h
d. 180,000 BTU/h
23. Fuses and circuit breakers must always be wired;
a. In parallel with the load they protect.
b. Into a three phase circuit.
c. Into a single phase circuit.
d. In series with the loads they protect.
24. In a hot water hydronic system, what could prevent gravity circulation of hot water, when the
pump is off, by installing the pump discharge line;
a. Balancing cock.
b. Check valve.
c. Angle valve.
d. Butterfly valve.
25. In order to get accurate readings, a thermometer test well in a pipe line should be;
a. Filled with liquid, preferably oil or special heat transfer fluid.
b. Carefully kept empty of all matter.
c. Filler with water if the well is made of plain carbon steel.
d. Filler with sand if stalled at the bottom of a horizontal pipe.
26. Water, when used as a refrigerant, has a designation number code R-_____.
 a. 717
b. 718
c. 77
d. H2O
27. Refrigerant pressures can be used to indicate refrigerant temperatures because of the locations
where pressures are measured the principle which applies is the temperature-pressure
relationship of:
a. Liquid refrigerant.
b. Saturated refrigerant.
c. Subcooled refrigerant.
d. Superheated refrigerant.
28. An electronically actuated switch is:
a. One which is opened and closed manually
b. Activated by a change in pressure sensed by a diaphragm.
c. Activated by a change in temperature
d. Made up of a coil and iron plunger, the plunger is attracted to the coil when the coil is
energized.
29. The external equalizer line on an expansion valve performs the following function;
a. Equalizes the system pressure in the off cycle
b. Compensates for any pressure drop across the evaporator.
c. Equalizes the internal and external pressures in the expansion valve.
d. Collects any moisture that may be present at the expansion valve.
30. Which of the following could cause an abnormally high suction pressure when there is a clean
condenser coil and normal outdoor air fan operation.
a. A starved evaporator coil
b. Dirty air filters
c. Damaged compressor valves
d. A liquid line restriction
31. A 60 VA transformer has a 120 volt primary and a 34 volt secondary. What is the maximum
allowable secondary current?
a. 2.5 amps
b. 5.0 amps
c. 7.5 amps
d. None of the above
32. What is the device that removes the start capacitor from the electrical circuit when the
compressor motor comes up to speed.
a. Potential Relay
b. Run Capacitor
c. Disconnect switch
d. Primary limit
33. A centrifugal chiller drive motor can be overloaded at start up because ________.
a. Inlet condenser valve is closed
b. Chiller water flow is twice the design GPM
c. Discharge volute capacity valve is closed
 d. Compressor inlet guide vanes are open
34. Oil loss in a centrifugal chiller can be cause by ____.
a. Excessive load
b. Low load
c. Defective oil pressure relief
d. Defective economizer baffle
35. A centrifugal compressor “surge” is caused by _____.
a. Air
b. Low load
c. Restricted condenser water flow
d. Discharge vapor unable to condense in the condenser
36. When initially removing refrigerant 134a vapor from a centrifugal chiller (fresh water in
condenser and evaporator water tubes) to perform internal service. What pressure inside the
chiller should you stop the process.
a. 26 PSIG
b. 62 PSIG
c. 15 inches of vacuum
d. 30 PSIG
37. When is it safe to remove vapor from a refrigerant 134a centrifugal chiller with fresh water in
the condenser and evaporator tubes to 15 inches of vacuum?
a. When pressure of vapor does not rise after stopping procedure at 35 degrees F
saturation pressure
b. When low point of chiller stops frosting
c. After you have established chilled water flow
d. After 90% of the liquid is removed
38. Centrifugal chiller; high oil temperature (170 degrees F or higher) can be caused by?
a. High refrigerant suction pressure
b. Thrust bearing failure
c. Plugged oil filter
d. Low refrigerant
39. A purge on a low pressure centrifugal chiller (R-11, R-113 or R123) is required because?
a. Removal of air
b. Prevent surging
c. Portions of the chiller run in a vacuum
d. Prevent excessive oil in charge
40. A single stage centrifugal chiller usually has an economizer
a. True
b. False
41. Centrifugal chiller, high efficiency purges that use a separate refrigeration circuit operate at a
low saturation temperature in the evaporator coil. This coil is mounted inside a cylinder. This
cylinder is normally referred to as a “purge pot”. How does this purge pot removed non-
condensable?
a. Air is condensed by the low temperature
 b. Refrigerant vapor from the condenser portion of the chiller is drawn into the purge
pot, the refrigerant condenses thus separating from the non-condensable.
c. Non-condensable are trapped in the evaporator section of the chiller and released by a
regulating valve.
d. Liquid created by condensing refrigerant raises a level switch to return condensed
refrigerant to the chiller.
42. Centrifugal chiller, “Surging” can be caused by ______.
a. Non-condensable
b. Dirty condenser tubes
c. High condenser water inlet temperatures
d. All of the above
43. Burner combustion boiler application; measuring 02% instead of CO2% has advantages of ____-.
a. Confirming excess combustion air exist in the flue gas sample
b. O2% remains relatively constant for most fuels
c. O2% readings are more accurate than CO2%
d. Both A and B
44. Aiming of infrared sensors is critical. Why must they be aimed directly at the flame?
a. Since they see light, they can e fooled by the bright area surrounding the flame
b. Since they see heat, they can be fooled by the hot air surrounding the flame
c. Since they see heat, their sensitivity can be reduced by heat refractory.
d. Since they see heat, the can be fooled by hot refractory.
45. What component must be attached for a digital scroll to load and unload properly.
a. Low pressure control
b. Oil pressure control
c. CPR valve
d. Temperature sensor
46. Excess air is defined as?
a. Air needed for good efficient combustion of any fuel
b. Air needed to raise CO2 levels
c. Air needed to raise CO levels
47. Excess air from any source except that is provided for combustion, needs to be eliminated for
maximum efficiency.
a. True
b. False
48. What is considered a good draft on a gas fired burner
a. +.02 to +.04 WC
b. +.02 to -.04 WC
c. -.02 to +.04 WC
d. -.02 to -.04 WC
49. The block and bleed valve
a. Energizes with time delay from the main gas valves
b. Energizes at the same time as the main gas valves
c. Closes during the off cycle
d. Closes during the purge cycle
50. Low fire is a result of a low water condition
a. True
b. False
51. Gas pressure regulators have 100% shut off
a. Ture
b. False
52. A burner operating at its design BTU input has a low combustion efficiency at 75%. What should
be done to raise efficiency?
a. Increase the regulator setting
b. Leave gas and air mixture settings alone
c. Cut back on combustion air
d. Increase combustion air
53. Another term for “digital” can be?
a. Analog
b. Binary
c. Control
d. Direct
54. An output that has distinct on/off value is considered?
a. Analog
b. Broadcast
c. Binary
d. Normally open or closed
55. The fail safe position for a heating valve is?
a. Closed
b. Open
c. 50%
d. Pulsing
56. Which one is an analog input?
a. Economizer output (0-10 vdc)
b. Current sensor
c. On-off outdoor lighting sensor
d. Boiler enable
57. A pneumatic reverse acting thermostat will increase branch pressure with a temperature
a. Rise
b. Fall
c. Ratio
d. Gain
58. A pneumatic transmitter with a 200 degree F span, what is the throttling range if the
proportional band is set at 20%?
a. 10 degrees F
b. 15 degrees F
c. 40 degrees F
d. 20 degrees F
59. When a pneumatic receiver controller has its proportional band setting increased the throttling
range will?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Ratio by-pass
d. Remain static
60. The static tip sensing duct pressure on a VAV system should be located how far downstream of
the fan?
a. ¼ main trunk
b. ½ main trunk
c. 1/3 main trunk
d. 2/3 main trunk
61. Standard air pressure sent to pneumatic control panel is?
a. 40 PSI
b. 20-30 PSI
c. 7.5 PSI
d. 0-20 PSI
62. An “EP” switch is activated by?
a. Direct acting pressure
b. Electricity
c. Reverse acting pressure
d. Reverse polarity
63. A chiller is designed to have 500 GPM of chilled water flow at a pressure drop of 23 feet. You
measure an inlet pressure of 80 PSI and an outlet pressure of 72 PSI. The flow now is greater
than 500 GPM
a. True
b. False
64. Where is the point of no pressure change in a closed loop hydronic system?
a. At the pump section
b. At the compression tank
c. At the last heat exchanger
d. At the last flow regulator
65. Make up water is the most common source of air in a hydronic system.
a. True
b. False
66. With a pump suction pressure of 12 PSI and a discharge of 40 PSI the pressure drop equals?
a. 38’
b. 28’
c. 12’
d. 65’
67. A flame sensing strategy that takes advantage of the fact that hot gasses in a flame become
ionized and conduct electricity is called a;
a. Cad cell
b. Flame rod
 c. Thermocouple
d. Ion sensor
68. Diversion tees are used with a two pipe (supply and return) hot water baseboard system.
a. True
b. False
69. Hydronic circuits should be balanced to within what percentage of design?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 25%
70. Cavitation can destroy a centrifugal pump, is noisy and is caused by;
a. Inlet pressure that is too high
b. Inlet pressure that is too low
c. Outlet pressure that is too high
d. Outlet pressure that is too low
71. Fire tube boilers are a common equipment choice for hot water and low pressure steam
applications
a. True
b. False
72. Pressure drop can be defined as the power consumed by friction when fluid flows through a
hydronic system
a. True
b. False
73. An ice rink is considered a flooded system if;
a. Low pressure liquid refrigerant is distributed under the sheet of ice using a mechanical
pump
b. Condenser water is leaking into the refrigerant circuit
c. Expansion valves are overfeeding
d. Water is added to the playing surface
74. A medium temperature walk-in refrigeration unit’s low pressure control will not close at 0
degrees F ambient temperature, but operates normally above 20 degrees F outside air
temperature. The air cooled condenser is located on the roof. What could be the problem.
a. Compressor oil to cold
b. Refrigerant migrated to the condenser
c. Outdoor ambient switch holding unit on
d. Too cold for control to operate
75. Common practice in low temperature ammonia systems is to use hot gas defrost with the hot
gas entering the evaporator in the suction line and exiting the liquid line
a. True
b. False
76. A type of two-position control that provides for “intermediate” positions as well as the “all-on”
and “all-off” positions is the;
a. Timed two-position controls
b. Floating controls
 c. Deviation control
d. Percentage controls
77. Approach temperature is the difference between:
a. Condensing temperature and entering water temperature
b. Condensing temperature and leaving water temperature
c. Entering water temperature and leaving water temperature
d. Condensing temperature and liquid temperature
78. Where should flash gas be found in a normal operating direct expansion refrigeration system?
a. Leaving evaporator
b. Entering expansion valve
c. Leaving expansion valve
d. Entering compressor
79. Dehydration of a refrigeration system is considered complete when
a. Vacuum pump is quiet
b. System hold 500 microns for two hours
c. Vacuum is at 30 inches
d. Vacuum pump has run overnight
80. Evaporator pressure _____ a thermostatic expansion valve.
a. Closes
b. Opens
c. Offsets spring pressure on
d. Has no effect on
81. An inverted trap mounted above an air-cooled roof condenser on the hot gas discharge line
from the compressor below prevents
a. High pressure migration
b. Liquid draining to the compressor on the off cycle
c. Non-condensable accumulation
d. Gas trapping
82. Suction gas returning to the compressor with excessive superheat could result in;
a. Excessive refrigerant flooding to the compressor
b. Compressor cycling off on overload
c. Oil migration from the compressor
d. Low head pressure
83. “Open” transition starters
a. Are older style with “open style knife switches”
b. Remove electrical current from the motor while switching wiring configurations
c. Use open field transformers
d. Are only used on low start up torque motors
84. A part winding starter arrangement consists of?
a. A wye-delta contactor
b. Two contactors, one for low speed and one for high speed
c. Two across-the-line starters and a time delay
d. Solid state soft start contactor.
85. A latching relay or holding relay uses a set of its own contacts to hold electrical energy to the
relay coil after electrical energy is transferred to the coil by a separate switch, control or relay.
a. True
b. False
86. A latching relay uses a normally closed set of contacts to hold energy to the relay coil
a. True
b. False
87. A condenser fan cycling switch operates how?
a. Makes on fall to energize condenser fan contactor
b. Pulses fan circuit
c. Operation is substitute for a high pressure switch
d. Makes on rise to energize condenser fan circuit
88. Electrical pressure is read in _____.
a. Amps
b. Watts
c. Ohms
d. Volts
89. Additional subcooling of liquid refrigerant after leaving the condenser increases thermal
expansion valve capacity.
a. True
b. False
90. Capacity of a direct expansion is increased as compression ratio is increased.
a. True
b. False
91. What is the most common cause of direct expansion residential air conditioning systems
forming ice on the evaporator and suction piping.
a. Air flow reduced across evaporator
b. Low on refrigerant charge
c. Outside air damper full open
d. Excessive subcooling due to refrigerant overcharge
92. Hot gas capacity control is to be “field piped” on a direct expansion air conditioning split system.
How should the hot gas be piped into the low side to insure proper oil return to the compressor
and a safe superheat at the compressor suction?
a. Enter liquid line before expansion device
b. Should be factory installed. Can not be modified in the field
c. Hot gas piped from the compressor discharge directly to compressor suction
d. Enter the evaporator downstream of expansion device using a “side inlet tee” and
upstream of refrigerant distributor.
93. Application is a 134a refrigerant water chiller for comfort cooling. At what suction pressure
would hot gas regulator introduce hot gas into the evaporator?
a. 58 PSI
b. 29 PSI
c. 34 PSI
d. 20 PSI
94. What is Ammonia refrigerant saturation at 15 PSIG?
a. 15 F
b. 0 F
c. -15 F
d. -40 F
95. The preferred way to set a crankcase regulator is to;
a. 2lbs. higher than system design pressure
b. Set at design suction
c. Set at factory leave alone
d. Observe amp draw when system is running at higher than design suction pressure and
temperature
96. Compressor capacity decreases as;
a. Discharge pressure increases
b. Suction pressure decreases
c. Compressor speed decreases
d. All of the above
97. How does winter charging an air cooled condenser keep head pressure at a normal operating
pressure in low ambient conditions?
a. Reducing condensing area in condenser
b. Filler receiver and raises static head pressure
c. Reduce capacity of evaporator by flooding
d. Reduce flow of refrigerant
98. A time delay that bypasses an operating low pressure switch on start up for four minutes serves
what purpose?
a. Low condensing pressure in winter conditions will not create enough head pressure to
feed evaporator immediately on start up. Time delay allows compressor to building
up enough pressure to feed evaporator.
b. Provides positive pump out to avoid flooded starts
c. Prevents high pressure conditions from effecting low pressure heat absorption
d. Over rides ambient lock out
99. Suction pressure of an properly operating R-404A unit is 9 PSIG. What is the evaporator
temperature?
a. -32 F
b. -9 F
c. +42 F
d. +25 F
100. Off cycle defrost happens when?
a. Space temostat is satisfied shutting off compressor and evaporator fan brings space
temperature aire over coil to melt frost
b. Time clock de-energizes, liquid line solenoid and space temperature melts frost from
coil.
c. Hot gas defrost circuit energizes and melts ice on coil.
d. Both A and B
101. A boiler has a design of 250 GPM at a pressure drop of 15 feet from entering to leaving
water pressure. Actual pressure drop as observed on gauges is 65 PSIG entering and 55 PSIG
leaving the boiler. What is the GPM flow through the boiler?
a. Need to know pipe size
b. 111.607 GPM
c. 210.208 GPM
d. 310.208 GPM