REFRIGERATION ELEMENTS 1-100 A.

Smell of the ammonia being liberated from the

water
1. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in B. Color of the water turning green
an ammonia system? C. Color the water turning bluish
A. Litmus paper D. Change of bubbling sound of air to the cracking
B. Halide torch sound of ammonia
C. Sulfur stick
D. A and C 9. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can
be used to _________.
2. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by: A. Hot-gas defrost
A. Smelling the discharge water B. Pump air out of the system
B. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water C. Add refrigerant to the system
discharge D. Reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the
C. Adding oil of peppermint to the system and condenser
tracing the smell
D. Applying a soapy solution to the condenser heads 10. How is ammonia system purged so that operator will
and looking for bubbles not be overcome by the fumes?
A. Into a bucket of lube oil
3. A sulfur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will B. Back into the compressor
give off a ______. C. Into the bucket of water
A. Dense yellow smoke D. Into the atmospheric line
B. Dense red smoke
C. Dense white smoke 11. Thermal expansion valves are usually made of the:
D. Dense green smoke A. Diaphragm
B. Magnetic type
4. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper _________. C. Bellows type
A. Blue D. A or C
B. Green
C. Red 12. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one
D. Yellow should:
A. Install all new plates
5. In an ammonia system, the oil gauge must be kept: B. Clean the plates and renew worn out ones
A. Closed except when checking level oil C. Ground each plate to the shell
B. Open at all times D. Paint the plates with red lead
C. Close when machine is shut down
D. Open when machine is shut down 13. The scale trap is located between the:
A. Compressor and oil separator
6. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of: B. Expansion valve and evaporator coils
A. Brass C. King (liquid) valve and expansion valve
B. Bronze D. Evaporator coils and compressor
C. Iron
D. Copper 14. When the evaporator coils are located in the icebox,
the system is known as:
7. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located: A. Indirect system
A. On the discharge pipe of the condenser B. Direct system
B. On the discharge pipe of the compressor C. High-pressure system
C. In the compressor head D. Low-pressure system
D. A and B
15. The purge valve is located:
8. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of A. On the receiver discharge
water, one can tell when the air is out and ammonia starts B. In the highest part of the system
to come through by the: C. In the lowest part of the system
D. On the evaporator coils
16. The solenoid valve is: 24. A device used to keep moisture from passing through
A. A pressure-controlled stop valve the system is called:
B. A temperature-controlled stop valve A. Humidifier
C. A Freon-controlled check valve B. Dehydrator
D. None of the above C. Aerator
D. Trap
17. The thermal expansion valve is located between the:
A. Solenoid valve and the evaporator coils 25. The relief valve is located on the:
B. Charging valve and the solenoid valve A. Discharge side on the condenser
C. Receiver and the king valve B. Outlet of the evaporator coils
D. King valve and the solenoid valve C. Receiver tank
D. Discharge side of the compressor
18. The purpose of the scale trap is to:
A. Dissolved scale and dirt in the system 26. The dehydrator is used:
B. Remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant A. To remove moisture from the system
C. Remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the B. When adding refrigerant to the system
refrigerant C. To remove air from the system
D. Control the amount of scale going to the D. A and B
compressor
27. Which of the following is another name for the liquid
19. The oil separator (trap) is located between the: valve?
A. Compressor discharge valve and the condenser A. Freon valve
B. Receiver and the expansion valve B. King valve
C. Receiver and the king valve C. Shutoff valve
D. Condenser and the receiver D. Master valve

20. The charging connection in a refrigerating system is 28. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon
located: system, the joints must be:
A. Before the receiver A. Welded joints
B. Between the condenser and the receiver B. Finished joints
C. Between the receiver the king valve C. Ground joints
D. Between the king valve and the solenoid valve D. Soldered joints

21. The dehydrator is located between the:
A. Condenser and receiver
B. Receiver and the expansion valve
C. Condenser and the king valve
D. Receiver and the king valve
22. The charging valve is located between the:
A. King valve and the expansion valve
B. Evaporator coils and the compressor
C. Compressor and the receiver
D. Receiver and the condenser
23. The solenoid valve is located between the
___________.
A. Thermal expansion valve and the evaporator
B. Scale trap and the thermal expansion valve
C. King valve and the scale trap
D. Automatic and manual expansion valves
29. A device for holding open the suction valve and
drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it to
the suction line without compressing it is called _____.
A. Relief valve
B. Suction line by-pass
C. Cylinder unloader
D. Discharge line by-pass
30. The solenoid valve can be typed as a ___________.
A. Bellows valve
B. Bimetallic valve
C. Thermal valve
D. Magnetic soap valve
31. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is located:
A. Near the evaporator coil outlet
B. In the middle of evaporator coils
C. Near the evaporator coil inlet
D. On the bottom row of evaporator coils
32. The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of the C. Two piping system side by side, one with cooling
_________. water and one with refrigerant
A. Pilot-valve type D. None of the above
B. Bimetal type
C. Diaphragm type 40. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will:
D. Valve type A. Orange
B. Green
33. The expansion valve is located between the: C. Blue
A. Compressor and condenser D. White
B. Evaporator and compressor
C. Receiver and evaporator 41. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be
D. Condenser and evaporator detected with halide torch because it changes color with
slightest amount of Freon present. A large leak can be
34. The oil separator is located between the: detected easier by applying ____________.
A. Condenser and dehydrator A. Sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for
B. Compressor and condenser color change
C. Evaporator and compressor B. A soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to
D. Solenoid valve and thermal expansion valve hold the solution together, and watch for bubbles
C. A thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch
35. Zinc rods are found in the: for bubbles
A. Salt-water side of condenser D. A lighted candle at the joints and watch for leaky
B. Compressor crankcase spots blowing candle flame
C. Evaporator coils
42. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located:
D. Refrigerant side of condenser
A. Next to the king valve
36. A double-trunk piston is used to: B. In the compressor head
A. Prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerant C. On the discharge pipe between the compressor
and discharge valve
B. Absorb some of the side thrust
C. Prevent gas from getting to crankcase D. On the discharge pipe from the condenser
D. All of the above
43. The discharge pressure of the compressor should be:
A. The pressure which corresponds to a temperature
37. Which of the following gasket materials should be on
from 5F to 15F below that of the condenser
Freon system?
discharge
A. Asbestos
B. The pressure which corresponds to a temperature
B. Metallic
equal to that of the condenser discharge
C. Rubber
C. The pressure which corresponds to a temperature
D. A and B
from 5F to 15F higher than the condenser
discharge
38. Many pressure gauges on a Freon system have two
D. None of the above
dials or graduations on one gauge. The two dial
represent:
44. The purpose of relief valves on refrigeration machines
A. Suction and discharge pressure
is to:
B. Pressure and temperature A. By-pass the compressor when dehydrating
C. Liquid and gas pressure B. Prevent overloading in the iceboxes
D. Cooling water inlet and outlet temperatures C. Prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage
on the discharge side of the system
39. A double-pipe condenser has __________.
D. A and B
A. Two pipes for cooling water and one for
refrigerant
45. A leaky suction valve can usually detected by:
B. A small pipe inside a larger pipe, and the cooling A. A higher suction pressure
water passing through the small pipe and the
B. A fluctuating suction pressure gauge
refrigerant through large pipe
C. Closing in on the suction valve having no effect
on the suction pressure
 D. Any of the above C. Too much oil in crankcase
D. Any of the above
46. Too low suction pressure could be caused by:
A. Too much oil in the system 54. If the thermal expansion valve becomes inoperative,
B. Shortage of refrigerant gas the iceboxes will have to be controlled by the
C. Dirty scale traps _____________.
D. Any of the above A. King valve
B. Manual expansion valve
47. What do you call a system in which the evaporator C. Manual solenoid valve
coils are located in a brine solution and the brine is D. Solenoid valve
pumped through the icebox?
A. An indirect system 55. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of the
B. A double-evaporator system following?
C. A direct system A. Too much oil in the system
D. A low-pressure system B. Insufficient superheat
C. Too much superheat
48. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance D. Expansion valve hung up
work on it, be sure to:
A. Purge the system 56. Which of the following is the usual case of slugging?
B. Have spare parts ready A. Too much refrigerant in the system
C. Pump down the system B. Too much oil in the system
D. B and C C. Expansion valve not operating properly
D. Too much cooling water to condenser
49. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused
by: 57. What operates low-pressure cutout switch?
A. Scale A. Bellows
B. Congealed oil in the system B. Spring tension
C. Water in the system C. A magnet
D. Any of the above D. Water pressure

50. Excess frost on the evaporator coils: 58. Which of the following must be checked up if an
A. Does not affect the system automatic Freon system will not start up?
B. Takes load off compressor A. High-pressure cutout
C. Reduces efficiency of the plant B. Reset mechanism
D. Keeps the icebox cooler C. Low-pressure cutout
D. All of the above
51. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the
use of which of the following? 59. Which of the following is the probable cause of hot
A. Hollow sidewalls suction line?
B. Diffuser fans A. Insufficient calibration
C. Louver doors B. Too much refrigerant
D. Air vents to deck C. Insufficient refrigerant
D. Expansion valve closed too much
52. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be
opened for inspection every: 60. What do you call the device that is used as a
A. Six months low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a
B. Two years compressor?
C. Year A. Pressure controller
D. Three months B. Controller switch
C. Cutout
53. Some causes of a noisy compressor are: D. Cutout switch
A. Worn bearings, pins, etc
B. Slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
61. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the
compressor would be stopped by which of the following?
A. Automatic trip
B. Low-pressure cutout switch
C. Low-water cutout switch
D. High-pressure cutout switch
62. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to:
A. Cut out the compressor at a set pressure
B. Maintain a preset suction pressure to the
compressor
C. Maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the
compressor
D. Cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure
63. If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly fails:
A. An alarm will ring to notify the engineer
B. The compressor will shutdown
C. The expansion valve will close
D. The solenoid valve will close
64. The most likely cause of high superheat would be:
A. Too much refrigerant
B. Expansion valve open too wide
C. Expansion valve closed too much
D. Back-pressure valve set too high
65. What do you call the liquid reaching the compressor
through the suction?
A. Superheating
B. Overflowing
C. Flooding back
D. Recycling
66. The suction pressure switch is operated by which of
the following?
A. Electric current
B. Pressure on a bellow
C. A relay cutout
D. Thermocouple
67. If the compressor short-cycles on the high-pressure
cutout, which of the following would you check?
A. Check for too much refrigerant in the system
B. If plenty of cooling water is running through but it
is not picking up heat, the condenser tubes need
cleaning
C. Be sure system is getting cooling water
D. All of the above
68. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating
under:
A. Normal condition
B. Heavy loads
C. Light loads
D. All of the above
69. Air is removed from the system by:
A. Opening the purge valve
B. Increasing the amount of cooling water
C. Running the refrigerant through an aerator
D. Running the refrigerant through a deaerator
70. Short-cycling means that the machine:
A. Runs to slow
B. Stops and starts frequently
C. Runs too fast
D. Grounds out frequently
71. The suction pressure in a Freon system should be:
A. The pressure which corresponds with a
temperature about 20F above the temperature of
the icebox.
B. The pressure which corresponds with a
temperature about 20F below the temperature of
the icebox.
C. The pressure which corresponds with a
temperature equal to the temperature of the
icebox.
D. None of the above
72. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon
system malfunction, which of the following valve will also
automatically shut off?
A. King valve
B. Condenser cooling water inlet valve
C. Expansion valve
D. Solenoid valve
73. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by:
A. A drop in icebox temperature
B. A discharge pressure lower than normal
C. A fluctuating high-pressure gauge
D. Any of the above
74. The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is usually:
A. Sodium chloride
B. Calcium chloride
C. Activated alumina
D. Slaked lime
75. If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure
cutout, the trouble might be:
A. Too much frost on the evaporator coils
B. Dirty traps and strainers
C. Lack of refrigerant
 D. Any of the above C. Dirty condenser
D. Any of the above
76. If an electrically-operated compressor failed to start,
the cause might be: 84. An excessively high head pressure would be caused
A. A blown fuse by:
B. Burned out holding coils in solenoid valve A. Insufficient cooling water to the condenser
C. An open switch B. Insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils
D. Any of the above C. Solenoid valve shutoff
D. Too much cooling water to the condenser
77. The high-pressure side of the system is sometimes
referred to as the: 85. Which of the following would cause a high suction
A. Hot side pressure?
B. Suction side A. Expansion valve open too wide
C. Cold side B. Dirty dehydrator
D. Cooling side C. King valve not open wide enough
D. Expansion valve not open wide enough
78. If the compressor were to run out continuously without
lowering the temperature, the trouble would probably be: 86. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might be
A. Leaky discharge valve a:
B. Insufficient refrigerant in the system A. Clogged scale trap
C. Leaks in the system B. Defective thermal bulb
D. Any of the above C. Stuck high-pressure switch
D. Stuck low-pressure switch
79. Which of the following would cause a high head
pressure? 87. Low suction pressure is caused by:
A. Suction valve not open enough A. Expansion valve causing flooding back
B. Too much cooling water B. Solenoid valve not functioning properly
C. Insufficient cooling water C. Leaky compressor suction valves
D. Icebox door left open D. Air in the system

80. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be:
A. Charging valve left open
B. Expansion valve not open wide enough
C. Expansion valve open too wide
D. Dehydrator not working properly
88. How is a Freon system purged?
A. With a reefer pump
B. The same as an ammonia system
C. Back to the extra supply tank
D. The same as CO2 system

81. Which of the following would cause low head
pressure?
A. Insufficient cooling water
B. Too much cooling water
C. Insufficient refrigerant gas
D. B and C
82. Too high suction pressure could be caused by:
A. Leaky suction valves
B. Expansion valve bulb not working properly
C. Expansion valve open too wide
D. Any of the above
83. Which of the following would cause high head
pressure?
A. Air in the condenser
B. Insufficient cooling water
89. If the compressor discharge temperature is higher
than the receiving temperature:
A. Add more refrigerant to the system
B. Decrease the amount of cooling water to the
condenser
C. Increase the amount of cooling water to the
condenser
D. Remove some of the refrigerant from the system
90. How is the CO2 system is purged?
A. When CO2 comes out of the purge valve, frost will
form on a piece of metal held near the outlet
B. Through the king valve
C. Pumped out with a suction pump
D. The CO2 will come out of the purge valve in liquid
form
91. If the head pressure is too high:
A. The relief valve should open and let excess
refrigerant pass to receiver
B. Close in on the suction valve
C. The relief should open before the high-pressure
cutout
D. The high pressure cutout switch should operate
before the relief valve opens
92. The system should be purged:
A. While starting up
B. After the system has been shut down for few
hours
C. While system is operating
D. Once a week
93. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a
long period of time but suddenly the compartment
temperature started to rise, the trouble might be:
A. A refrigerant leak has developed
B. The expansion valve may contain frozen water
C. The solenoid valve has jammed shut
D. Any of the above
94. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a
long period of time but the oil level was rising slowly, one
should:
A. Check the dehydrator cartridge
B. Check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the
system
C. Shut down the compressor and check the oil level
with the machine stopped
D. Drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to a proper
running level
95. The purpose of the oil trap is:
A. To add oil to the compressor
B. To remove oil from the refrigerating gas
C. To remove oil from the charging tank
D. None of above
96. Too much oil in the compressor would:
A. Absorb too much refrigerant from the system
B. Deposit oil on the condenser tubes
C. Damage the expansion valve
D. Cause leakage through the shaft seals
97. The oil level in the compressor should be checked:
A. Just before starting the compressor
B. After a long period of operation
C. After an extended lay-up period
D. While the compressor is in compressor
98. The agent used in an indirect reefer system is:
A. Calcium chloride
B. Potassium chloride
C. Sodium chloride
D. A or C
99. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by:
A. Running the refrigerant through an aerator
B. Keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
C. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the
high-pressure side tight
D. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the
low-pressure side tight
100. Which of the following would not cause high suction
pressure?
A. Suction valve not adjusted properly
B. Expansion valve stuck open
C. Leaky suction valves
D. Insufficient refrigeration
REFRIGERATION ELEMENTS 101-200
101. Water in the refrigerant is liable to
A. Freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut
the flow of refrigerant
B. Clog the oil trap
C. Freeze in the king (liquid) valve
D. Emulsify the oil in the compressor
102. The function of the expansion valve is to
A. Regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the
expansion coils
B. Change the gas refrigerant to a liquid
C. Shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser
D. Change the high-pressure liquid to a low-pressure
liquid
103. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the
thermostat will be operated by a
A. Pressure pipe
B. Fusetron
C. Relay
D. Small circuit breaker
104. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance
work on it, be sure to
A. Have gas mask handy
B. Make arrangements to have perishables taken
care of
C. Notify the engineer
D. A and B
105. When securing a freon system for repairs
A. Pump down to 1 or 2 pounds pressure
B. Pump down to a slight vacuum
C. Pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure
D. Remove all refrigerant from the system
106. When charging freon system, all the valves should
be
A. Solenoid valve
B. Purge valve
C. King (liquid) valve
D. Expansion valve
107. The purpose of the receiver is to
A. Cool the refrigerant gas
B. Separate the oil from the refrigerant
C. Store the refrigerant
D. Condense the refrigerant
108. The solenoid valve controls the
A. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator
coils
B. Amount of refrigerant going to the expansion
valve
C. Amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
D. Pressure of the refrigerant going to the evaporator
coils
109. The purpose of the evaporator is to
A. Absorb latent heat of vaporization
B. Absorb latent heat of fusion
C. Transfer latent heat of vaporization
D. Transfer latent heat of fusion
110. The purpose of the dehydrator is to
A. Add more refrigerant to the system
B. Remove oil from the refrigerant
C. Remove moisture from the crankcase oil
D. Remove moisture from the refrigerant
111. The principle of mechanical refrigeration is
A. The conversion of a liquid to a gas
B. The absorption of temperature under heat,
pressure, compression and expansion
C. The compression of a liquid under temperature
and expansion
D. The absorption of heat under temperature,
compression, pressure and expansion
112. A thermostat is a
A. Temperature-operated switch
B. Pressure-operated switch
C. Superheat-operated switch
D. Back-pressure-operated switch
113. The thermal expansion valve responds to the
A. Amount of superheat in the vapor
B. Amount of superheat in the liquid
C. Temperature in the evaporator coils
D. Pressure in the evaporator coils
114. The expansion valve on a freon system controls the
A. Superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
B. Back pressure in the evaporator
C. Temperature of the icebox
D. Superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
115. The purpose of the expansion valve by-pass is to
A. Increase the efficiency of the plant
B. Increase the capacity of the evaporator
C. Controls the refrigerant to the evaporator in case
the automatic valves fail
D. By-pass the compressor
116. The thermal expansion valve 122. Ammonia will corrode
A. Controls the amount of gas coming from the A. Brass
dehydrator B. Copper
B. Controls the quantity of liquid refrigerant going to C. Bronze
the evaporator coils D. All of the above
C. Controls the amount of gas going to the receiver
D. Removes trapped oil from the refrigerant 123. A refrigerating unit of one (1) ton capacity can
remove
117. The function of the compressor is to A. 100 btu’s per min.
A. Pull the refrigerant gas through the system B. 288 btu’s per min.
B. Increase the pressure of the refrigerant C. 200 btu’s per min
C. Discharge the refrigerant to the condenser D. 500 btu’s per min.
D. All of the above
124. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is
118. The solenoid valve is controlled by A. NH3
A. The amount of liquid in the system B. F12
B. The amount of gas in the system C. CO2
C. The temperature in the condenser D. F22
D. The temperature in the icebox
125. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of
119. Oil is added to a freon compressor by A. 288,000 btu per 24 hrs.
A. Shutting down the machine and pouring in B. 28,800 btu per 24 hrs.
through the crankcase inspection plate opening C. 28,000 btu per 24 hrs.
B. Pumping in with an electric-driven pump D. 280,000 btu per 24 hrs.
C. Pumping in with a hand pump
D. Pouring through oil hole in base 126. The boiling point of freon-12 at atmospheric pressure
is
120. What adding oil to a freon system, one must be sure A. 22 F
that B. -22 F
A. The condenser is shut down C. 22 C
B. All air is removed from the pump and fitting D. -22 C
C. There is not too high a suction pressure
D. The discharge pressure is not too high 127. The boiling point of co2 at atmospheric pressure is
121. To help a person who had been overexposed to A. -110 F
ammonia gas, one would B. 110 F
A. Apply cold compresses C. 110 C
B. Apply artificial respiration D. -110 C
C. Douse with cold water
D. Wrap in warm blankets 128. The boiling point of NH3 at atmospheric pressure is
A. +28 C
B. +28 F
C. -28 C
D. -28 F

129. Which of the following would you apply if a person
got Freon in his eyes?
A. Clean water
B. Soapy water
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Sterile mineral oil
130. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be
A. Packed only in the closed position
B. Packed in the wide open or closed position
C. Operated as a suction or discharge valve
D. Removed for replacement without shutting down
131. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is
measured by
A. Pressure
B. Weight
C. Volume
D. Psi
132. The latent heat of fusion of ice is
A. 500 Btu
B. 188 Btu
C. 144 Btu
D. 970 Btu
133. Latent heat
A. Can be measured with a pyrometer
B. Cannot be measured with a thermometer
C. Changes as the refrigerant cools
D. Can be measured with a thermometer
134. Absolute zero is
A. 144 degrees below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
B. The same as zero on the Fahrenheit scale
C. 970 degrees below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
D. 460 degrees below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
135. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of
A. 2000 lbs. Of ice melting in 24 hrs.
B. 2000 lbs. Of water being converted to ice
C. 2000 lbs. Of ice melting in 12 hrs.
D. 2240 lbs. Of ice melting in 24 hrs.
136. Which of the following best described a Freon?
A. Odorless
B. Non-poisonous
C. Colorless
D. All of the above
137. What is another name of discharge pressure?
A. Absolute pressure
B. Head pressure
C. Suction pressure
D. Condenser pressure
138. Which of the following is the oil used in a
refrigeration system?
A. Vegetable oil
B. Straight mineral oil
C. Lube oil sae 20
D. Lube oil sae 10
139. One disadvantage of a co2 system is the fact that
A. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
circulating water temperature is too high
B. It takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes
cold
C. Due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from
mixing with the refrigerant
D. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
circulating water temperature is too low
140. The disadvantage of a co2 system over an ammonia
system is the fact that
A. The pipes and fittings of a co2 system must be of
the high-pressure type
B. The CO2 system operates at a much higher
pressure
C. The CO2 system requires a larger prim e mover
D. All of the above
141. A good refrigerant should be 147. A good refrigerant should have a
A. Non-inflammable A. High sensible heat
B. Non-poisonous B. Low sensible heat
C. Non-explosive C. High latent heat
D. All of the above D. Latent heat

142. What tonnage of refrigerating machine is required if 148. Which of the following is the most common method
the refrigerating system extracted 48,000 btu per hour? of heat flow in refrigeration?
A. 2 tons A. Conduction
B. 5 tons B. Expulsion
C. 4 tons C. Radiation
D. 3 tons D. Convection

143. What is the combination of a wet and dry bulb 149. From which of the following processes where the
thermometer is called a largest quantities of heat are available?
A. Hygrometer A. Vaporization
B. Psychrometer B. Melting
C. Hydrometer C. Fusion
D. A or B D. Cooling

144. A pressure controller is usually operated by the 150. What is the most common freon gas used in
movement of a centrifugal compressors?
A. Bellows A. F-12
B. Siphon B. F-11
C. Diaphragm C. F-22
D. A or C D. F-21

145. The critical temperature of a refrigerant is 151. What is the most common freon gas used in
A. The temperature at which it will freeze reciprocating compressors?
B. The temperature above which it cannot be A. F-12
liquefied B. F-11
C. The temperature below which it cannot be C. F-22
liquefied D. F-21
D. None of the above
152. What is the other name of hygrometer?
146. If the critical temperature of a refrigerant is too close A. Hydrometer
to the desired condensing temperature, the equipment B. Manometer
must necessarily be of C. Psychrometer
A. Extra heavy construction D. A or C
B. The direct expansion type
C. Light construction
D. The indirect expansion type
153. The temperature in the meat and fishbox should be 159. Which of the following would not be cause for a
approximately refrigerating system to short cycle on hp cutout?
A. 10 to 20 deg. F A. Discharge valve leaking
B. -10 to 0 deg. F B. Pressure cut out set incorrectly
C. 0 to -10 deg. F C. System overcharged with refrigerant
D. -10 to 10 deg. F D. Insufficient cooling water

154. The temperature in the vegetable box should be 160. Excessive head pressure is caused by
approximately A. Air or noncondensable gas in the system
A. 35 to 45 deg. F B. Dirty condenser tubes
B. 10 to 20 deg. F C. Insufficient cooling water to condenser
C. 40 to 50 deg. F D. Any of the above
D. 15 to 30 deg. F
161. The capacity of a centrifugal type compressor is
155. The temperature in the dairy box should be controlled by which of the following?
approximately A. Regulating the discharge pressure
A. 20 to 30 deg. F B. Regulating the speed
B. 0 to 10 deg. F C. Regulating the suction pressure
C. 10 to 20 deg f D. B or C
D. 30 to 40 deg. F
162. Where is solenoid coil installed?
156. Which of the following can be the cause of low head A. Vertically above the valve
pressure B. Horizontally above the valve
A. Too much or too cold condensing water C. Vertically below the valve
B. Leaky discharge valves D. Horizontally below the valve
C. Insufficient charge of refrigerant
D. Any of the above 163. What is the condition of the compressor when
purging a refrigeration system?
157. If thermostatic expansion valve did not appear to be A. The compressor is running
functioning properly, the cause could be B. Compressor is running but the condenser secured
A. Foreign matter in the valve C. Shut down
B. Ruptured control bulb tubing D. Running with the bypass open
C. Moisture in the system
D. Any of the above 164. What must be done first when opening a single
packed stop valve?
158. Which of the following is used in measuring the A. Loosen the packing before opening
density of a brine solution? B. Tighten packing before opening
A. Litmus paper C. Check to see that the seal is not scored
B. A chemical rest D. None of the above
C. A hydrometer
D. A or B
165. Excessive head pressure is caused by 171. The greatest decrease in refrigerant temperature
A. Flooded condenser tubes occurs in the _________
B. Too much cooling water to condenser A. Evaporator
C. Cooling water temperature too high B. Compressor
D. A or c C. Condenser
D. A or c
166. Everything is in its normal operating position when
charging a system except the 172. What do you call the storage tank for liquid
A. Compressor discharge valve refrigerant?
B. Purge valve A. Receiver tank
C. Solenoid valve B. Charging tank
D. King (receiver discharge) valve C. Purging
D. Any of the above
167. How often the condenser must be cleaned?
A. Once a year 173. A precooler is sometimes installed between the
B. Every month ________.
C. When pressure goes above normal A. Compressor and condenser
D. Every 6 months B. Condenser and expansion valve
C. Expansion valve and evaporator
168. Which do you think is the cause of a hot suction line D. Evaporator and compressor
of a refrigerating compressor?
A. Lack of refrigerant 174. The solenoid valve controls which of the following?
B. Insufficient condensing cooling water A. Pressure in the evaporator coils
C. Excess refrigeration B. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator
D. B or c C. Flow of refrigerant to the expansion valve
D. Amount of circulating water to the condenser
169. Which of the following vital components of the
refrigeration system where both temperature and pressure 175. Closing the solenoid valve will stop the compressor
are increased? through the ___________.
A. Compressor A. Low water-pressure cutout switch
B. Condenser B. Bypass relief valve
C. Evaporator C. Low-pressure cutout switch
D. A and c D. High-pressure cutout switch

170. The refrigerant temperature is at its maximum just 176. What are the four basic methods of determining
before it enters the _______ whether the proper amount of refrigerant is being added
A. Expansion valve to the system?
B. Compressor A. Bull’s eye, weight, pressure and frost line
C. Condenser B. Temperature, weight, pressure and frost line
D. Evaporator C. Bull’s eye, weight, pressure and dip stick
D. Bull’s eye, weight, litmus test and frost line
177. What is the cause of liquid “slugging”? 183. The thickness of the head gasket is important
A. Liquid in the compressor clearance space because it may cause __________.
B. Excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver A. Re-expansion
C. The presence of liquid in the condenser causing B. Decreased efficiency due to increased clearance
excessive noise C. The piston to strike the head
D. The pounding of liquid refrigerant in the suction D. All of the above
line at a point of restriction
184. If the epansion valve capillary tube is pinched, which
178. All refrigerator compressor valves are opened and of the following must be replaced?
closed by __________. A. Tube
A. A cam shaft B. Diaphragm
B. Springs C. Bulb
C. Manual D. All of the above(called the power element unit)
D. or c
185. When removing reusable refrigerant from a system,
179. Which of the following is also known as the “hidden the line to the storage drum must
heat” in refrigeration work? A. Be made of copper
A. Sensible heat B. have no bends in it
B. Heat intensity C. Contain a strainer-dryer
C. Latent heat D. Be above the level of the compressor
D. A or c
186. Which of the following must be considered when
180. A bull’s eye in a full liquid line will appear adding or removing oil from a refrigerator unit?
_________. A. Use new oil
A. Cloudy B. Do not overcharge
B. Clear C. Watch crankcase pressure
C. Latent D. All of the above
D. A or c
187. Where is the excess refrigerant removed?
181. A compressor capacity reduction device reduces A. Suction side of the system
compressor capacity ___________. B. Discharge side of the system
A. By reducing the compressor speed C. By pass
B. By bypassing hot gas D. Charging side of the system
C. As the refrigerant load dictates
D. By reducing compressor horsepower 188. A double trunk piston is used to ________________.
proportionately A. Absorb side thrust
B. Sea; off gas from crankcase
182. If a freon-12 compressor trip out on “cut-out,” the C. Prevent oil from mixing with gas
solenoid valve closes by which of the following? D. All of the above
A. An electrical release
B. Temperature and spring control
C. Pressure and bellows control
D. Bellows control
189. How do you call the process of changing a solid to a 195. What usually happens if the specific gravity of the
liquid? brine is too low?
A. Evaporation A. The brine will freeze
B. Vaporization B. Solids will deposits
C. Fusion C. It will be more heat-absorbing
D. Condensation D. All of the above

190. If there is too much lube oil in the system what must
be done?
A. Remove same at once
B. Wait until next overhaul to remove
C. Wait until next recharging to remove
D. Any of the above
196. The cooling water regulator is automatically actuated
by which of the following?
A. The discharge pressure of the refrigerant
B. The temperature of the refrigerant
C. An electric relay
D. A thermo relay

191. The temperature bulb of the thermo-expansion valve 197. What will happen to the capacity if the superheat is
is attached to which of the following? increased on the suction side?
A. Icebox coil A. Increases
B. Evaporator coil outlet B. Decreases
C. Evaporator coil inlet C. Remains the same
D. Wall of the icebox D. Will double

192. What is the use of the suction pressure regulating 198. Which do you think is very important in adjusting
valve? compressor “v” belts?
A. Cuts in compressor A. Allow ½” slack
B. Maintains the back pressure in the evaporator B. Make it as tight as possible
coils C. Make belt just tight enough to turn pulley
C. Cuts out the compressor D. Keep belts parallel
D. Controls the expansion valve
199. Which of the following is important for evaporator
193. How is one-ton plant described? coils?
A. Remove one ton heat from the reefer box A. It must be placed in the top of the compartment
B. Melt one ton of ice in 24 hours B. It must be secured to the sides
C. Make one ton of ice in 24 hours C. It should have air completely surrounding them
D. Remove the heat required to melt one ton of ice in D. It must place in front of circulating fans.
24 hours 200. If there were a 15 F to 20 F temperature differential
between the temperature corresponding to the pressure at
194. The temperature bulb of the solenoid valve is the compressor discharge and the temperature at the
attached to the ___________. condenser outlet, it would probably indicate the need for
A. Icebox coil __________.
B. Wall of the icebox A. More refrigerant
C. Evaporator coil inlet B. Purging the system
D. Evaporator coil outlet C. More circulating water
D. Less circulating
 D. None of the above
REFRIGERATION ELEMENTS 201-299
209. The following are standard characteristics of Freon
201. Which of the following is the most appropriate -11 except:
definition of latent heat? A. Non-toxic
A. Heat removed to melt ice B. Separates from water
B. Heat removed to change temperature of substance C. Boiling point over 200 F
C.Heat added to change temperature of a substance D. Very volatile
D. Heat added to change the state of a substance
210. Which of the following type valves are not found on a
202. If the compressor discharge becomes frosted, the Freon – 12 system?
probable cause would be_______. A. Bellows
A. Refrigerant flooding back B. Duplex
B. Expansion valve improperly set C. Diaphragm
C. Too much cooling water D. Single packed
D. Insufficient cooling water
211. How much will be removed by one-ton refrigeration
203. The low-pressure control switch: unit?
A. Is a safety device A. 200 Btu per min
B. Actuates the cooling water B. 144 Btu per min
C. Cuts out the compressor to maintain proper flow C. 400 Btu per min
D. Regulates the King Valve D. 2000 Btu per min

204. Which of the following is an indications of faulty
Freon Compressor valves?
A. Compressor runs continuously
B. Low head pressure – high suction pressure
C. Gradual or sudden decrease in capacity
D. Any of the above
212. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the
evaporator?
A. Transmit latent heat of fusion
B. Transmit latent heat of evaporator
C. Absorb latent heat of fusion
D. Absorb latent heat of evaporator

205. What is the probable cause if a compressor runs 213. An automatically controlled Freon – 12 compressor
continuously? will start when the _______.
A. a clogged condenser A. Expansion valve opens
B. insufficient refrigerant B. Solenoid valve opens
C. faulty cooling water valve C. Expansion valve closes
D. any of the above D. Solenoid valve close

206. To test a thermostatic valve, immerse the bulb in: 214. A single trunk piston-type compressor is undesirable
A. Crushed ice for a Freon unit because the:
B. Hot water A. Lubricant mixes with the refrigerant
C. Oil B. Refrigerant reduces the crankcase pressure
D. None of the above C. Lubricant temperature becomes excessive
D. Refrigerant becomes superheated
207. If a compartment requires the removal of 36,000
BTU per hour , how much is the necessary compressor 215. Calcium chloride is sometimes used in refrigeration
capacity? system as a:
A. 6 tons A. Refrigerant
B. 3 tons B. Lubricant
C. 2 tons C. Primary Coolant
D. 1 tons D. Secondary Coolant

208. Which of the following must be done to eliminate 216. When the outlet temperature of the evaporator
frost on the discharge pipe of the compressor? exceeds the inlet temperature the condition is called
A. Open the expansion valve ______________.
B. Regulates water to the condenser A. Boiling
C. Crack bypass valve B. Superheating
 C. Melting A. Separate the oil from the refrigerant
D. Freezing B. Cool the hot gases
C. Store the refrigerant
217. Which of the following refrigerants would give the D. Condense the refrigerant
most trouble when operating with warm circulating water?
A. Freon – 12 226. During the re-expansion portion of the refrigeration
B. CO2 compressor cycle
C. Ammonia A. The suction valve is open
D. Ethyl chloride B. The suction valve is closed
C. The discharge valve is closed
218. As Freon leaves the expansion valve: D. B and C
A. Pressure increase - Volume increase
B. Pressure decrease - Volume increase 227. Absolute zero on the Fahrenheit Scale is equal to:
C. Pressure decrease - Volume decrease A. -273
D. Pressure increase - Volume decrease B. -460
C. 0
219. The suction pressure switch is actuated by: D. -100
A. Pressure on a Bellows
B. Temperature on a bellows 228. A quick method of detecting a leaky condenser on a
C. A thermo – Pressure regulator Freon system would be to _______.
D. A thermostatic temperature device A. Compare temperatures and pressures
B. Test circulating water with proper chemicals
220. A thermometer sense which of the following? C. Open vent on head and test with halide torch
A. Latent heat D. Use soapsuds on condenser outlet fittings
B. Sensible heat
C. Heat of Fusion 229. Which of the following is not a characteristics of
D. Specific heat Freon- 12?
A. Corrosive
221. Five pounds of water heated to raise the temperature B. Non-inflammable
2F requires how many Btu? C. Odorless
A. 20 Btu D. Boiling point -21 F
B. 5 Btu
C. 2 Btu 230. In the discharge line between the compressor and
D. 10 Btu the condenser one would find:
A. High pressure, high temperature gas
222. Superheat is heat added ________. B. High pressure, low temperature liquid
A. In changing liquid to vapor C. High temperature, high pressure liquid
B. After all liquid has been changed to vapor D. High pressure, low temperature gas
C. To increase pressure
D. To increase temperature 231. For a low speed compressor the belt drive is
preferred to the direct drive because it:
223. The expansion valve does not seem to be operating A. Eliminates the use of mineral lubricating oil
properly. There is high superheat. Test by listening to the B. Permits the use of a smaller high-speed motor
sound of Freon flooding through the tubes and _______. C. Absorbs torsional vibration
A. Warm bulb with hand D. Reduces the number of automatic controls
B. Place bulb in cold water
C. Place bulb in hot water 232. Refrigerant leakage from the compressor crankcase
D. Any of the above is prevented by
A. using skirt type pistons
224. What do you call a material in a dryer B. maintaining a vacuum in the crankcase
A. Drain C. using shaft seals
B. Dryer D. using lantern rings
C. Desiccant
D. A or C 233. The heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor is
latent heat of
225. What is the main function of a receiver? A. absorption
 B. vaporization 241. The principle of the centrifugal system is based on
C. fusion which of the following?
D. liquid A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
234. What is the compression ratio of a refrigerator C. Lenz’s law
compressor? D. Boyle’s law
A. The ratio of the absolute suction pressure to the
absolute discharge pressure 242. The temperature in the vegetable box should be
B. The ratio of the absolute discharge pressure to approximately
the absolute suction pressure A. -5 F
C. The ratio of the excessive liquid refrigerant in the B. 20 F
receiver to that in the system C. 38 F
D. None of the above D. 10 F

235. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to 243. The compressor will run continuously if there is
maintain a constant _______. A. Insufficient refrigerant
A. Superheat B. Air in the system
B. Flow C. Too heavy a load
C. Pressure D. Any of the above
D. Temperature
244. A “direct” refrigeration system is one in which:
236. A refrigerant gives up heat when it A. Ice is used for cooling
A. Vaporizes B. A secondary coolant is pumped through the
B. Evaporates evaporator coils
C. Condenses C. The refrigerant passes through coils in the
D. Boils evaporator
D. Any of the above
237. The cooling component of a refrigeration cycle is
called ________. 245. A “CARRENE” is a type of :
A. A receiver A. Refrigerant oil
B. An evaporator B. Refrigerant
C. A condenser C. Scale cleaner
D. A desiccant D. None of the above

238. When ordering an expansion valve which of the 246. What is the first step that must be done when
following information is necessary? securing a system?
A. Size, and pressure A. Open bypass valve
B. Size ,tonnage , temperature and pressure B. Close receiver (King) valve
C. Pressure and temperature C. Open solenoid valve
D. Size and tonnage D. Cut out compressor on high pressure

239. A hot crankcase and cylinder head accompanied by 247. When securing a Freon – 12 system for repairs
a low suction pressure would be caused by A. Open the line at 1 to 2 pounds pressure
A. Excess refrigerant B. Open the line at 5 to 10 pounds pressure
B. Insufficient refrigerant C. Pump down to a slight vacuum
C. Air in the system D. Pump down to 10” vacuum
D. Stuck discharge valve
248. The most common reason for the small usage of CO2
240. Which of the following characteristics that is not systems is :
desirable in a refrigerant? A. It is too dangerous
A. Low latent heat of fusion B. Its upkeep is too high
B. High latent heat of vaporization C. The machinery is too heavy
C. Low latent heat of vaporization D. It is too costly
D. A and C
249. To increase heat transfer in the evaporator
A. Increase suction pressure
 B. Increase air circulation A. Receiver
C. Defrost coils B. Evaporator
D. B and C C. Condenser
D. King valve
250. When the compressor is operated in short spurts
after a lay-up or overhaul the purpose is to : 258. A hot suction line could be caused by:
A. Allow refrigerant time to circulate A. Insufficient refrigerant
B. Determine actual the compressor oil level B. Excess refrigerant
C. Effect gradual cooling C. Excess cooling water
D. None of the above D. Insufficient cooling water

251. Which of the following types of valves are not used 259. Which of the following devices will prevent the relief
for suction or discharge? valve from opening in the event of excessive pressure?
A. Gate 1. Water failure switch
B. Diaphragm 2. High- pressure cutout switch
C. Metallic 3. Low –pressure cutout switch
D. Ring 4. Any of the above

252. What usually happened if brine has a high specific 260. Which of the following would cause the suction
gravity ? switch to remain open?
A. It will freeze A. Insufficient spring tension
B. It will crystallize B. Too much spring tension
C. Nothing will happen C. Bellows broken or jammed
D. It will solidify D. A or B

253. When does the refrigerant gives-up heat? 261. Which of the following would not cause high head
A. When it evaporates pressure?
B. When it condenses A. Air in system
C. When it vaporizes B. Overcharge of refrigerant
D. When it boils C. Circulating water too warm
D. Liquid freezing back
254. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to
maintain constant ________. 262. A “cold diffuser” is a
A. Type of condenser
A. Pressure B. Special valve used as bypass
B. Flow C. Type of evaporator
C. Temperature D. None of the above
D. Superheat

255. The reactor plate is essential to the operation of a

_______. 263. Which do you think is the effect of “subcooling”?
Thermostatic valve A. It causes flooding back to the compressor
A. Thermostatic valve B. It reduces the horsepower per ton of refrigeration
B. Halide torch C. It increases the compression ratio
C. Solenoid bulb D. It increase the horsepower per ton of refrigeration
D. None of the above
264. Subcooling is to:
256. The greatest decrease in the temperature of the A. Cool the evaporator below its normal temperature
refrigerant is at the ______. B. Cool the liquid before it enters the evaporator
A. Condenser C. Cool a liquid at constant pressure to a
B. Expansion valve temperature lower than its condensing
C. Evaporator temperature
D. Receiver D. Cool the refrigerant gas before it enters the
receiver
257. The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just
before it enters the :
265. When figuring compression ratio, the ratio will 273. Subcooling of the refrigerant results in :
increase with a ______. A. Less circulating water needed
A. Lower suction pressure B. Effect of refrigerant increased
B. Higher suction pressure C. Liquid less likely to vaporize
C. Higher discharge pressure D. B and C
D. A and C
274. Which of the following is the reason when the
266. Copper tubing is used in Freon system because: crankcase is cooler than the suction line?
A. It has less internal resistance A. Too much refrigerant
B. It is cheaper B. Insufficient refrigerant
C. It is easier to check leaks C. Expansion valve open too wide
D. Iron corrodes D. Suction valve leaking

267. The cooling water regulator is actuated by 275. If the outlet of the thermostatic valve is warmer than
A. An electric relay the inlet, it indicates
B. Pressure of the refrigerant A. Flooding back
C. Temperature of the refrigerant B. Thermostatic valve working properly
D. None of the above C. Thermostatic valve not working properly
D. Solenoid valve not working properly
268. If there is a temperature drop between the
temperature corresponding to the pressure at the 276. High temperature of cylinder heads and crankcase is
compressor discharge and the condenser outlet, one caused by :
should : A. Insufficient refrigerant
A. Decrease the amount of circulating water B. Too much refrigerant
B. Increase the amount of circulating water C. High head pressure
C. Purge the system D. Noncondensable gases
D. None of the above
277. Frost on the high – pressure side of a thermostatic
269. If refrigeration controls were constructed with little or expansion valve would probably be caused by:
no differential, the : A. High head pressure
A. Compressor would short cycle B. Dirty expansion valve
B. Icebox would get too cold C. Refrigerator box too cold
C. Icebox would get too warm D. Loss of circulating water to condenser
D. Refrigerant would be subcooled
278. A Freon – 12 gage shows pressure and ______.
270. What is the use of back pressure regulating valve? A. Superheat temperature
A. Controls the evaporator temperature by throttling B. Saturation temperature
the flow of liquid refrigerant C. Back pressure
B. Maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils D. Vacuum
C. Controls the flow of circulating water in the
condenser tubes
D. Controls the temperature in the evaporator coils
279. Moisture in a system will cause a:
271. If the thermal bulb becomes loose on the evaporator A. Faulty expansion valve
coils, it will cause _____. B. High suction pressure
A. An electrical short C. High suction temperature
B. Flooding back of the refrigerant D. Low discharge temperature
C. Improper operation of expansion valve
D. Any of the above 280. Which of the following is not essential to a centrifugal
type compressor system?
272. External frost on inlet of expansion valve indicates: A. Evaporator
A. Expansion valve plugged or dirty B. Distiller
B. Head pressure too high C. Condenser
C. Refrigerating compartment too cold D. Expansion valve
D. Air in system
281. A scale trap in a Freon system will be found on the
 A. Receiver D. A dehydrator
B. Discharge side
C. Suction side 289. What is the effect if the refrigerant is removed from
D. Condenser the system too fast?
A. It may flood the evaporator
282. Which of the following would cause expansion valve B. It may “freeze – up” the condenser
failure? C. It will lower the icebox temperature
A. Dirt in the valve D. None of the above
B. Moisture in the system
C. Bulb in icebox ruptured 290. Closing the solenoid valve stops the compressor
D. Any of the above through the :
A. High – pressure cutout switch
283. Two compressor should not be run in parallel B. Lower water – pressure cutout switch
because : C. Low – pressure cutout switch
A. There is a possibility of losing oil D. High water – pressure cutout switch
B. It will give over – capacity
C. It is not efficient 291. A precooler, if used is located between the
D. A or B A. Expansion valve and evaporator
B. Compressor and condenser
284. The process that takes place in the evaporator called C. Evaporator and compressor
A. Transfer of the latent heat of vaporization D. Condenser and expansion valve
B. Absorption of the latent heat of vaporization
C. Absorption of the latent heat of fusion 292. When the outlet temperature at the evaporator
D. Transfer of the latent heat of fusion exceeds the inlet temperature, the condition is known as :
A. Superheating
285. What is the use of the low – water cutout switch? B. Desuperheating
A. Recirculates the cooling water when there is to C. Dehydrating
much refrigerant in the condenser D. Saturating
B. Stops the compressor when there is no refrigerant
running to the evaporator 293. The purpose of providing hot gas defrosting facilities
C. Stops the flow of refrigerant when the condenser :
temperature is too low A. Defrosting without raising compartment
D. Stops the compressor when there is insufficient temperature above
cooling water B. Thawing frozen coils
C. Defrosting automatically
286. The high-pressure cutout switch : D. B or C
A. Stops the flow of refrigerant when condenser
pressure is too high 294. The suction control switch on the compressor is a
B. Recirculates the refrigerant through the A. Thermal elements
compressor under emergency conditions B. Thermostat
C. Stops flow of water to condenser when there is no C. Pressure elements
refrigerant passing through D. Bellows
D. Stops compressor when head pressure is too
high 295. With one machine serving several compartment,
when one compartment reaches the desired temperature
287. Zinc rods are found in the: in that compartment is maintained by :
A. Gas side of the condenser A. The expansion valve
B. Salt water side of the condenser B. The solenoid valve
C. Evaporator area C. The back-pressure valve
D. Compressor crankcase D. Any of the above

288. Which of the following is not essential to a 296. The back - pressure regulating valve:
compression refrigeration system? A. Controls the water flow through the condenser
A. A receiver B. Stops the flow of liquid refrigerant when
B. A condenser temperature drops in evaporator
C. An evaporator C. Maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils
 D. None of the above C. Vibration causing leaks
D. Improper operation of solenoid valve
297. Faulty F – 12 compressor valves will be indicated by
: 304. If the superheat on the suction side of the
A. Low head pressure – high suction pressure compressor is increased, what will happen to the
B. Compressor running continuously tonnage capacity of the unit?
C. Gradual or sudden decrease in capacity A. Increases
D. All of the above B. Decreases
C. No change
298. How were tubing joints done? D. None of the above
A. Brazed
B. Welded 305. What do you usually do to correct slugging
C. Screwed and flooding back?
D. Silver soldered A. Change in the discharge pressure
B. Clean the traps
299. When starting a refrigerating unit, be sure the water C. Remove some refrigerant
side of the condenser is _____. D. Check the expansion valve
A. Secured
B. Bypassed 306. In a freon-11 system there is no
C. Vented A. Receiver
D. B and C B. Distiller
C. Condenser
300. The water regulating valve is operated by the D. Evaporator
A. Compressor discharge pressure
B. Compressor discharge temperature 307. The suction pressure control valve is
C. Compressor suction pressure actuated by which of the following?
D. None of the above A. Thermostat
B. Bellow
C. Thermal element
REFRIGERATION ELEMENTS 301-397 D. Pressure diaphragm

300. High superheat of the vapor in the system 308. Which of the following would cause the
would cause crankcase and head to get hot with low suction
A. An increase in capacity pressure?
B. A more efficient unit A. Excess refrigeration
C. A decrease in capacity B. Air in system
D. A and B C. Insufficient refrigeration
D. Insufficient cooling tower
301. The solenoid valve is actuated by which of the
following? 309. Which of the following is the function of a
A. A bellows suction pressure regulating valve?
B. A magnet A. Cuts out the compressor
C. Spring B. Controls the expansion valve
D. All of the above C. Cuts in the compressor
D. Maintains proper back pressure
302. Which of the following stops the compressor
before the relief valve opens? 310. Which of the following is the cause if the
A. Low water - pressure cutout outlet of a thermostatic valve is warmer than the
B. High - pressure cutout inlet side?
C. Low oil - pressure cutout A. Valve is working properly
D. Low - pressure cutout B. Valve is not working properly
C. Solenoid valve is not working properly
303. What is the effect if the thermal bulb is loose D. None of the above
on the evaporator coils?
A. Improper operation of expansion valve 311. How is a thermostatic valve tested?
B. Flooding back of refrigerant A. Immersing its bulb in warm water
 B. Immersing its bulb in ice water D. Expansion valve
C. Holding its bulb in one’s hand
D. Shorting out the cutout switch 319. Which of the following items is not important
when using a halide torch?
312. Which of the following will cause an A. Move flame slowly around the joints
automatically controlled F-12 compressor to start? B. Hold flame close to the joints
A. Closing of the expansion valve C. Adjust to a clear white flame
B. Opening of the expansion valve D. Adjust to a clear blue flame
C. Closing of the solenoid valve
D. Opening of the solenoid valve 320. A system should be purged when the liquid
outlet temperature from the condenser is more
313. Where is the solenoid coil installed? than the temperature corresponding to the
A. Horizontally over the valve discharge pressure.
B. Vertically over the valve A. 10 F above
C. Vertically below the valve B. 20 F below
D. Horizontally below the valve C. 20 F above
D. 5 F below
314. The “refrigerating effect” of a refrigerant is?
A. Quantity of heat that 1 pound of 321. Which of the following would cause the
refrigerant absorbs while flowing through compressor to run continuously?
the evaporator under given conditions A. Low pressure switch jammed
B. Amount of heat it can remove in a given B. High pressure switch jammed
time C. Clogged strainer
C. Quantity of heat that 1 pound of D. Defective thermal bulb
refrigerant absorbs
D. A or B 322. In a vapor compression cycle the lowest
temperature is found in
315. The “refrigerating effect” of a refrigerant is a A. Receiver
always: B. Condenser
A. More than its latent heat C. Compressor
B. More than its sensible heat D. Evaporator
C. Less than its sensible heat
D. Less than its latent heat 323. The moisture in a refrigeration system can be
removed with help of which of the following?
316. What will happen if the expansion valve is A. Driers
opened too wide? B. Evaporators
A. Liquid will flood back to the compressor C. Dehumidifies
B. It will make no difference, as the D. Coolers
automatic expansion valve is still
operating 324. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest
C. The condenser coils will overheat freezing point temperature?
D. A or C A. Freon 12
B. Ammonia
317. Which of the following should not be used to C. Freon 22
clean scale traps? D. Freon 11
A. Compressed air
B. Cotton waste 325. During compression in a vapor compression
C. Kerosene cycle when the refrigerant is super heated, what
D. Diesel oil happened to the performance?
A. Cop is reduced
318. If one of the ship’s service boxes suddenly B. Cop remains unchanged
stops cooling, the most likely cause would be the C. Work done is increased
malfunction of the D. Refrigerating effect is reduced
A. Discharge valve
B. King valve 326. A bell coleman cycle is also known as
C. Solenoid valve A. Reversed Otto cycle
 B. Reversed Joule cycle D. Because the performance of other units
C. Reversed Rankine cycle of the cycle can be controlled
D. Reversed Carnot cycle
334. Which refrigerant has the highest critical point
327. Critical temperature is that temperature above temperature?
which. A. Ammonia
A. A gas will never liquefy B. Freon 11
B. A gas gets immediately liquefy C. Freon 12
C. Water gets evaporated D. Freon 22
D. Water will never evaporate
328. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the 335. White ice is
order of A. Fast cooled water Sub cooled water
A. 0.1 ton B. Sub cooled water
B. 50 tons C. Due to dissolved air, gasses and
C. 100 tons impurities
D. 4 tons D. Formed by blowing air during freezing

329. What is the usual cop of a domestic 336. Clear ice

refrigerator? A. Is pure ice
A. Less than 1 B. Contains dissolved gases
B. More than 1 C. Contains dissolved air
C. Equal to 1 D. Is formed by blowing air during freezing
D. Depends upon the make of it
337. Dry ice is
330. Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is A. Free from water
expressed as: B. Free from dissolved air or gases
A. 4.75/ cop C. Does not contain impurities
B. 4.75 x cop D. Solidified from of carbon dioxide
C. Cop/ 4.75
D. 4.75/ cop 338. The leaks in a refrigeration system using
freon can be detected by:
331. The highest temperature in vapor A. Halide torch which detection forms
compression cycle is producing during: greenish flame lighting
A. Expansion valve B. Sulfur sticks which on detection form
B. Evaporator white smoke
C. Condenser discharge C. Using certain reagents
D. Compressor discharge D. Smelling

332. Which type of compressor is used in 339. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration
refrigeration system? cycle plotted on pressure enthalpy diagram
A. Reciprocating represents
B. Centrifugal A. Compression of the refrigerant vapor
C. Rotary sliding vane B. Evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
D. All of the above C. Condensation of the refrigerant vapor
D. Metering of the refrigerant liquid
333. What is the reason why a thermometer in
vapor compression system is installed close to 340. Which of the following uses a secondary
the compressor? refrigerant?
A. Because it helps the operator in adjusting A. Domestic refrigerator
compressor for greatest efficiency B. Room air conditioner
B. Because temperature indicates whether C. Deep freezer
liquid or vapor refrigerant is going to D. Ice plant
compressor
C. Because temperature helps in calculating 341. Which of the following secondary refrigeration
the cop generally used in milk chilling plants?
A. Brine
 B. Ammonia solution A. Improve overall heat transfer coefficient
C. Glycol B. Reduce pressure losses through the
D. Sodium silicate evaporator
C. Reduce the size of evaporator by
342. What is the cycle where a refrigeration avoiding vapors going to evaporator
system generally operates? D. All of the above
A. Open cycle
B. Closed cycle 350. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case
C. Mized cycle of leakage of Freon refrigerant , will change to
D. Hybrid cycle A. Yellow
B. Red
343. Which of the following is also known as C. Green
refrigerant no. R-717? D. Orange
A. Ammonia
B. Freon 12 351. What is the boiling temperature of F 12
C. Freon 22 A. -33.33 C
D. Methyl chloride B. -78.5 C
C. -29.8C
344. In which part of the vapor compression cycle D. -40C
there is abrupt change in pressure and
temperature? 352. What is the boiling temperature of F 22?
A. Solenoid valve A. -33.33 C
B. Evaporator B. -78.5 C
C. Expansion valve C. -29.8C
D. Drier D. -40C

345. What do you call a plate or vane used to 353. The boiling gas is preferred in refrigerant
direct or control movement of fluid or air within the system:
confined area? A. F 11
A. Baffle B. F 12
B. Bellows C. CO2
C. Regulator D. NH3
D. Diffuser
354. The bhp/ton refrigeration requirement with
346. Brazing is used for joining two increase in condenser temperature. In a vapor
A. Two ferrous material compression system that uses reciprocating
B. One ferrous and non ferrous material compressor receiving refrigerant gas at constant
C. Two non ferrous material suction temperature, will follow:
D. Two non metals A. Linearly decreasing characteristic
B. Linearly increasing characteristic
347. Which refrigerant is used for the air C. First increase rapidly and then decrease
conditioning of passenger aircraft cabin slowly
A. Ammonia D. First increase slowly and then rapidly
B. Freon 12
C. Freon 11 355. Antifreeze chemicals are:
D. Air A. Same as refrigerants
B. Those that are added to refrigerants for
348. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is better performance
installed between the C. Those that lower down the freezing points
A. Compressor and condenser of liquids
B. Condenser and evaporator D. Those that do not freeze at all
C. Metering device and evaporator
D. None of the above 356. The capacity in ice making is always
A. Less than the refrigerating effect
349. Flash chamber is installed in the refrigeration B. Greater than the refrigerating effect
circuit so as to: C. Equal to the refrigerating effect
 D. Directly proportional to the refrigerating B. -78.5 C
effect C. -29.8C
D. -40C
357. To check the lack of refrigerant or clogged
refrigerant lines: 365. The faster way to remove frost from a direct
A. Installing service valves must be expansion finned tube evaporator is to:
necessary A. Send hot gas through the coil
B. Installing king valve must be an option B. Scrape off frost
C. Sight glasses can be possibly used C. Wash with warm water
D. Discharge pressure and temperature D. Shut down warm let frost melt
must be monitored
366. You want to change refrigerants in a Freon 12
358. Can any refrigerant be used with a booster plant using a reciprocating single acting
system? compressor which refrigerant requires the
A. Yes smallest amount of change to the system?
B. No A. Carbon dioxide
C. Used for some B. Ammonia
D. Used for all C. Methyl chloride
D. Aqua ammonia
359. What is the chemical formula of methylene
chloride? 367. Soft copper tubing that is used for refrigerant
A. CHCl2F piping erected on premises containing other than
B. CH2Cl2 Group 1 refrigerant must be protected by
C. CClF3 A. Supporting it by approved clamps
D. CBRF3 B. Limiting its length between supports u to
10 feet
360. What is the chemical formula of butane? C. A rigid or flexible metal enclosure
A. C2H5CL D. Wrapping it with insulation tape
B. C3H8 throughout its length
C. C2H4O2
D. C4H10. 368. A Freon - 12 refrigeration system is fitted with
thermal expansion valves. The valves are rated in
361. Type of refrigerant control which maintains :
pressure difference between high side and low A. Pound per minute
side pressure in refrigerating mechanism: B. Superheat setting
A. Suction valve C. Tons of refrigeration or TOR
B. Expansion valve D. Cubic feet per minute
C. Service valve
D. Solenoid valve 369. The vapor cycle in thermal efficiency as the
refrigeration cycle to the
362. The dividing point between the high pressure A. Energy efficiency ratio
and low pressure sides of the refrigeration cycle B. COP for a refrigerator
occurs at the C. COP for a heat pump
A. Expansion valve D. Carnot efficiency
B. Compressor
C. Condenser 370. The main purpose of a subcooler in a
D. Cooling coil refrigerating system especially a two stage
system is to:
363. Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is A. Increase the heat rejection per ton and
A. -33.33 C avoid system shutdown
B. -33.33 C B. Improve the flow of evaporator gas per
C. -29.8C ton and increase the temperature
D. -40.7 C C. Reduce the total power requirements and
return oil to the compressor
364. What is the boiling temperature of F 22? D. Reduce the total power requirements and
A. -33.33 C heat rejection to the second stage
 B. Valve
371. TOR or Ton of refrigeration is a unit C. Piston
equivalent to: D. Connecting rod
A. 50.4 kCal/ sec
B. 12,660 kN-m/hr 379. The highest temperature in vapor
C. 3413 KW- hr compression cycle is produced during :
D. 2545 Btu/ hr A. Receiver
B. Evaporator
372. In a refrigerating system, the heat absorbed in C. Condenser discharge
the evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing D. Compressor discharge
through
A. Equals the increase in enthalpy 380. What is the boiling point of Freon 22 is:
B. Does not depend on the refrigerant used A. -41.04 F
C. Is decreased if pre- cooler is used B. 40.60 F
D. Equals the increase in volume C. -38.40 F
D. -31.40 F
373. Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration
system in: 381. The secondary refrigerant used in milk chilling
A. Condensate return lines plants is generally
B. Absorbers A. Brine
C. Centrifugal compressors B. Ammonia
D. Ion exchangers C. Glycol
D. Sodium silicate
374. A refrigeration system in which only part of
the refrigerant passes over the heat transfer 382. The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. that is
surface is evaporated and the balance is A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible heat
separated from the vapor and recirculated B. 80% sensible heat and 20% latent heat
A. Direct expansion system C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat
B. Chilled water system and latent heat
C. Flooded system D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat
D. Multiple system and latent heat

375. A device whose primary function is to meter 383. The effect of superheating the refrigerant is
the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator to:
A. Sniffer valve A. Increase the COP
B. Equalizer B. Ammonia
C. Thermostatic expansion valve C. Decrease the COP
D. Crossover valve D. Maintains the COP

376. Select the one in which secondary refrigerant 384. The ice making capacity is always
is used A. Directly proportional to the refrigerating
A. Domestic refrigerator effect
B. Room air conditioner B. Less than the refrigerating effect
C. Deep freezer C. Greater than the refrigerating effect
D. Ice plant D. Equal to the refrigerating effect

377. An odorless refrigerant whose boiling point 385. The amount of sensible heat for a sensible
varies over a wide range of temperatures. heat ratio of 0.8 and a total cooling load of 100 is
A. Freon 12 A. 80
B. Freon 22 B. 20
C. Ammonia C. 100
D. Freon 11 D. 60

378. The part that directs the flow of refrigerant 386. The high pressure of refrigeration system
through the compressor consist of the line to the expansion valve, the
A. Wrist pin
 receiver, the uppermost half of the compressor
and the 394. The purpose of the expansion valve is to
A. Line after the expansion valve control the flow of the refrigerant to the
B. Lower most half of compressor evaporator. The other function is to:
C. Condenser A. Reduce the pressure of the liquid
D. Evaporator refrigerant
B. Increase the pressure of the vapor
387. Which of the following materials is suitable for refrigerant
tubing in refrigeration application where C. Reduce the pressure of the vapor
refrigerant ammonia is employed refrigerant
A. Plastic D. Increase the pressure of the liquid
B. Brass refrigerant
C. Steel
D. Copper 395. It prevents the refrigerant from the condenser
to go back to the compressor
388. If PV is the power required for a vapor A. Check valve
compression refrigeration system , then what is B. Float switch
the power required for an air refrigeration system, C. Expansion valve
assuming that they have the same capacity? D. Low side float
A. 5PV
B. 2V 396. If the freezing point of water is 0 C, which of
C. PV/10 the following is its melting point following is its
D. 1/PV melting point
A. Slightly less than 0 C
389. Tons of refrigeration in Btu/24 hrs is B. Slightly more than 0 C
A. 288 000 C. 0 C
B. 28 500 D. 32 C
C. 290 000
D. 29 000

390. R-22 is
A. Dichlorodifluoromethane
B. Monochlorodifluoromethane
C. Methyl chloride
D. Trichlorofluoromethane

391. A salimeter reads the

A. Density of brine
B. Rate of brine
C. Dew point temperature
D. Relative humidity

392. Which of the following measures the density

of salt in water?
A. Salimeter
B. Hydrometer
C. Pitot tube
D. Calorimeter

393. What is the device used to protect the

compressor from overloading due to high head
pressure
A. Overload relay
B. Hold back suction valve
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Expansion valve