1-100 9.

Cascade refrigeration cycle is often used in industrial

Blue book term’s part 1 process where objects must be cooled to temperature
below:
1. Is the most common dryer used which consist of A. -46 deg C
rotating cylinder inside which the materials flow while B. -56 deg C
getting in contact with hot gas. C. -66 deg C
A. Tower dryer D. -76 deg C
B. Centrifugal dryer
C. Trey dryer 10. Type of refrigerant control designed to maintain a
D. Rotary dryer pressure difference while the compressor is operating.
A. Thermostatic expansion valve
2. Is the ratio of the mass of water-vapor in air and the B. Using low side float flooded system
mass of air if it is saturated is called: C. Automatic expansion valve
A. Humidity ratio D. Capillary tube
B. Mass ratio
C. Vapor ratio 11. As a rule of thumb, for a specified amount of
D. Relative humidity compressed air, the power consumption of the
compressor decreases by ______________ for each 3
3. The hands feel painfully cold when the skin deg C drop in the temperature inlet air to the
temperature reaches compressor.
A. 8 deg C A. 1 percent
B. 10 deg C B. 1.5 percent
C. 12 deg C C. 2 percent
D. 14 deg C D. 2.5 percent

4. The refrigerant used in steam jet cooling is: 12. Modern way of detecting air compressor leak is by
A. Steam using
B. R-11 A. Soup and water
C. Ammonia B. Air leak detector
D. Water C. Acoustic leak detector
D. Ammonia leak detector
5. The total heat of the air is a function of
A. WB temperature 13. For foundation of stacks, the maximum pressure on
B. DP temperature the soil is equal to the pressure due to the weight and
C. DB temperature the ___________.
D. WB depression A. Soil movement
B. Wind movement
6. Boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is: C. Ground movement
A. 21 deg F D. Engine movement
B. 15 deg F
C. 5 deg F 14. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used
D. 28 deg F and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter
of at least
7. Which of the following is NOT a type of water cooled A. 3 times the diameter of engine bolt
condenser in refrigeration? B. 2 times the diameter of engine bolt
A. Double pipe C. 3 times the diameter of anchor bolt
B. Double shell D. 2 times the diameter of anchor bolt
C. Shell and coil
D. Shell and tube 15. For multi stage compression of an ideal Brayton
cycle, the back ratio will
8. Component of absorption refrigeration system in S. Increase
which the solution is cooled by cooling water. B. Decrease
A. Rectifier C. Remains the same
B. Generator D. None of these
C. Evaporator
D. Absorber 16. Type of turbine that has a specific speed below 5.
A. Impulse turbine
B. Propeller turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Deriaz turbine 25. Is the most important safety device on the power
17. A high discharge type of turbine boiler.
A. Impulse turbine A. Check valve
B. Propeller turbine B. Gate valve
C. Francis turbine C. Safety valve
D. Deriaz turbine D. Globe valve

18. Use to minimize the speed rise due to a sudden load 26. During hydrostatic test, the safety valves should be
rejection A. Removed
A. Needle valve B. Open
B. Wicket gate shut-off C. Closed
C. Shut-off valve D. Partially closed
D. Jet deflector
27. Where deaerating heaters are not employed, it is
19. Is the speed of a turbine when the head on the recommended that the temperature of the feed water be
turbine is one meter not less than ______
A. Specific speed A. 197 deg C
B. Rated speed B. 102 deg C
C. Utilized speed C. 104 deg C
D. Unit speed D. 106 deg C

20. Is a fluid property which refers to the intermolecular 28. Is a reaction during which chemical energy is
attraction by which the separate particles of the fluid arc released in the form of heat.
held together. A. Cosmic reaction
A. Cohesion B. Ethnic reaction
B. Adhesion C. Endothermic reaction
C. Surface tension D. Exothermic reaction
D. Hypertension
29. By reheating the steam in an ideal Ranking cycle the
21. Which of the following is NOT the cause of black heat rejected will.
smoke in diesel engine? A. Increase
A. Fuel valve open too long B. Decrease
B. High compression pressure C. Remains the same
C. Carbon in exhaust pipe D. None of these
D. Overload on engine
30. By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle
22. Which of the following is not a method of starting a the moisture content at boiler exit will.
diesel engine? A. Increase
A. Manual: rope, crank and kick B. Decrease
B. Electric (battery) C. Remains the same
C. Compressed air D. None of those
D. Using another generator
31. Presently the highest steam temperature allowed at
23. Two-stroke engine performs ________ to complete the turbine inlet is about ______.
one cycle. A. 340 deg C
A. Suction and discharge stroke B. 520 deg C
B. Compression and power stroke C. 620 deg C
C. Power and exhaust stroke D. 1020 deg C
D. Suction and exhaust stroke
32. Two most common gases employed in Stirling and
24. A type of geothermal plant used when there is a Ericsson cycles are.
presence of brine extracted from underground A. Air and helium
A. Dry geothermal plant B. Oxygen and helium
B. Double-flash geothermal C. Hydrogen and helium
C. Single flash geothermal plant D. Nitrogen and helium
D. Binary geothermal plant
33. In most common design of gas turbine, the pressure 41. Refrigerant consisting of mixtures of two or more
ratio ranges from different chemical compounds, often used individuals as
A. 10 to 12 refrigerant for other applications.
B. 11 to 16 A. Suspension
C. 12 to 18 B. Compound reaction
D. 15 to 20 C. Blends
D. Mixing of refrigerant
34. In brayton cycle, the heat is transformed during
what process? 42. Pairs of mating stop valves that allow sections of a
A. Constant temperature system to be joined before opening these valves or
B. Isentropic process separated after closing them
C. Isobaric process A. Check valve
D. Isochoric process B. Gate valve
C. Safety valve
35. The fuel injection process in diesel engine starts D. Campanion valve
when the piston ______
A. Is at the TDC 43. An enclosed passage way that limits travel to a
B. Leaving TDC single path.
C. Approaches TDC A. Corridor
D. Halfway of the stroke B. Hallway
C. Lobby
36. If the cut-off ratio of diesel cycle increases, the cycle D. Tunnel
efficiency will
A. Decrease 44. For immediate dangerous to life or health (IDHL),
B. Increase the maximum concentration from which unprotected
C. Remains the same persons are able to escape within _____ without escape-
D. None of these impairing symptoms or irreversible health.
A. 15 min
37. The fuel used in a power plant that is used during B. 1 min
peak periods. C. 20 min
A. Gas D. 30 min
B. Solid
C. Liquid 45. The volume as determined from internal dimensions
D. None of these of the container with no allowance for the volume of
internal parts.
38. Typical compression ratio of Otto cycle is A. Internal allowance
A. 6 B. Internal gross volume
B. 8 C. Internal interference volume
C. 10 D. Internal fits volume
D. 12

39. If joule Thomson coefficient is equal to zero, then 46. A waiting room or large hallway serving as a waiting
the process will become room
A. Isentropic A. Terrace
B. Isenthalpic B. Rest room
C. Isobaric C. Compound room
D. Isothermal D. Lobby

40. If the fluid passed through a nozzle its entropy will: 47. A continuous and unobstructed path of travel from
A. Increase any point in a building or structure to a public way
B. Decrease A. Average of aggress
C. Remains the same B. Mean of aggress
D. None of these C. Hallway of aggress
D. Pathway of aggress
48. Any device or portion of the equipment used to
increase refrigerant pressure 55. Is one in which a secondary coolant is in direct
A. Pressure relief device contact with the air or other substance to be cooled or
B. Pressure-imposing element heated.
C. Pressure lift device A. Double indirect open spray system
D. Pressure limiting device B. Indirect open spray system
C. Indirect closed system
49. The quantity of refrigerant stored at some point is D. Indirected, verted closed system
the refrigeration system for operational, service, or
standby purposes/ 56. Refrigerant number R-744 is
A. Pressure vessel A. Butane
B. Pumpdown charge B. Carbon monoxide
C. Liquid receiver C. Propane
D. Accumulator D. Carbon dioxide

50. Secondary refrigerant is a liquid used for the 57. Refrigerant number R-1150 is
transmission of heat, without a change of state, and A. Propylene
having no flash point or a flash point above ______ as B. Ethene
determined from ASTM C. Ethane
A. 150 F D. Methyl formate
B. 160 F
C. 180 F 58. Refrigerant R-40 is
D. 200 F A. Chlorodifluoromethane
B. Difluoromenthane
51. A service valve for dual pressure-relief devices that C. Ammonia
allows using one device while isolating the other from D. Chloromethane
the system, maintaining one valve in operation at all
times. 59. When the air duct system serves several enclosed
A. Three-way valve spaces, the permissible quantity of refrigerant in the
B. Two-way valve system shall not exceed the amount determined by
C. One-way valve using the total volume of those spaces in which the
D. Four-way valve airflow cannot be reduced to less than ____ of its
maximum when the fan is operating
52. Tubing that is unenclosed and therefore exposed to A. One-quarter
crushing, abrasion, puncture, or similar damage after B. One half-quarter
installation. C. Three-quarter
A. Protected tubing D. One-fourth-quarter
B. Bare tubing
C. Open tubing 60. The space above a suspended ceiling shall not be
D. Unprotected tubing included in calculating the permissible quantity of
refrigerant in the system unless such space is continuous
53. Refers to blends comprising multiple components of and is part of the air return system
different volatile that, when used in refrigeration cycles, A. Partition
change volumetric composition and saturation B. Plenums
temperature as they evaporate (boil) or condense at C. Separator
constant pressure. D. Plate divider
A. Zeolite
B. Blending 61. Which of the following is not a possible location of
C. Composition service valve?
D. Zeotropic A. Suction of compressor
B. Discharge of compressor
54. Is a premises or that of a premise from which, C. Outlet of liquid receiver
because they are disabled, debilitated, or confined, D. Outlet of condenser
occupants cannot readily leave without the assistance of
others 62. A coil in series with evaporator that is use to prevent
A. Institutional occupancy the liquid refrigerant entering the compressor
B. Public assembly occupance A. Accumulator
C. Residential occupancy B. Liquid superheater
D. Commercial occupancy C. Drier loop
D. Liquid suction heat exchanger

63. A type of valve connected from discharge of 71. By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration system,
compressor directly to suction that is normally closed the specific volume at compressor suction will
and will open automatically only if there is high A. Increase
discharge pressure B. Decrease
A. Check valve C. Remains the same
B. Solenoid valve D. None of these
C. King valve
D. Relief valve 72. Pressure loss due to friction at the condenser, the
compressor power per unit mass will
64. Use to increase the capacity of condenser A. Increase
A. Water regulating valve B. Decrease
B. Desuperheating coils C. Remains the same
C. Liquid-suction heat exchanger D. None of these
D. Condenser heating coils
73. Which of the following is NOT a type of air-cooled
65. Is use to subcooled the refrigerant from the condenser?
condenser A. Shell and tube
A. Liquid subcooler B. Natural draft
B. Condenser subcooler C. Forced draft
C. Desuperheating coils D. Induced draft
D. Liquid receiver
74. A type of refrigerant control typically used in
66. Which of the following is NOT a part of low pressure household refrigeration
side in refrigeration system? A. Thermostatic expansion valve
A. Compressor B. Automatic expansion valve
B. Condenser C. Capillary tube
C. Liquid line D. High side float
D. Suction line
75. Type of condenser that operates like a cooling water
67. Which of the following is NOT a part of high pressure A. Air-cooled condenser
side in refrigeration system? B. Evaporative condenser
A. Compressor C. Shell and tube condenser
B. Condenser D. Water cooled condenser
C. Liquid line
D. Suction line 76. The major problem of heat pump is
A. Refrigerant used
68. Which of the following is NOT a part of condensing B. Outside air
unit? C. Supply air
A. Compressor D. Frosting
B. Discharge line
C. Condenser 77. Dominant refrigerant used in commercial
D. Liquid line refrigeration system
A. R11
69. By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration B. R22
system, the compressor power per unit mass will C. R12
A. Increase D. R502
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same 78. Cascade refrigerant system are connected in
D. None of these A. Series
B. Parallel
70. Superheating the refrigerant in refrigeration system C. Series-parallel
without useful cooling, the refrigeration effect per unit D. Parallel
mass will
A. Increase 79. Is use to heat up the solution partially before
B. Decrease entering the generator in absorption refrigeration system
C. Remains the same A. Rectifier
D. None of these B. Absorber
C. Regenerator C. Magnesium
D. Pump D. All of these
80. The COP of actual absorption refrigeration system is 88. Are suitable for use in ammonia system
usually A. Copper
A. Less than 1 B. Aluminum and its alloy
B. Less than 2 C. Plastic
C. Less than 3 D. Cast iron
D. Less than 4
89. In a pressure-relief device is used to protect a
81. Sight glass is often located at pressure vessel having an inside dimension of 6 in or
A. Discharge line less, the ultimate strength of the pressure vessel so
B. Liquid line protected shall be sufficient to withstand a pressure at
C. Between condenser and liquid receiver least ____ the design pressure
D. Suction line A. 2 times
B. 3 times
82. Use to detects a vibration in current caused by the C. 4 times
ionization of decomposed refrigerant between two D. 5 times
opposite charged platinum electrodes
A. Electronic detector
B. Halide torch 90. Seats and discs shall be limited in distortion, by
C. Bubble method pressure or other cause, to set pressure change of not
D. Pressurizing more than ____ in a span of five years.
A. 1%
83. The ability of oil to mix with refrigerants B. 5%
A. Carbonization C. 10%
B. Purging D. 50%
C. Mixing
D. Miscibility 91. Liquid receivers, if used or parts of a system
designed to receive the refrigerant change during
84. Joints and all refrigerants-containing parts of a pumpdown charge. The liquid shall not occupy more
refrigerating system located in an air duct carrying than ____ of the volume when temperature of the
conditioned air to and from an occupied space shall be refrigerant is 90F
constructed to withstand a temperature of ____ without A. 80%
leakage into the airstream. B. 85%
A. 550F C. 90%
B. 600F D. 95%
C. 650F
D. 700F 92. The discharge line (B4) shall be vented to the
atmosphere through a ____ fitted to its upper extremity.
85. Refrigerant piping crossing an open space that A. Nozzle
affords passageway in any building shall be not loss than B. Convergent-divergent nozzle
______ above the floor unless the piping is located C. Pipe
against the ceiling of such space and is permitted by the D. Diffuser
authority having jurisdiction
A. 2.2 m 93. Convert fossil fuels into the shaft work
B. 3.2 m A. Nuclear power plant
C. 4.2 m B. Gas turbine power plant
D. 5.2 m C. Dendrothermal power plant
D. Thermal power plant
86. Methyl chloride shall not be in contact with
A. Aluminum 94. Ultimate strength drops by 30% as steam
B. Zinc temperature raises from ____ for unalloyed steel
C. Magnesium A. 300 to 400 c
D. All of these B. 400 to 500 c
C. 600 to 700 c
87. Shall not be in contact with any halogenated D. 700 to 800 c
refrigerants
A. Aluminum 95. Recent practice limits steam temperature to
B. Zinc A. 438 c
B. 538 c D. Passout turbine
C. 648 c
D. 738 c 104. Which of the following is used for binary cycle
96. In a closed feed water heater, the feed water pass power generation for high temperature application?
through A. Mercury
A. Inside the tube B. Sodium
B. Outside the tube C. Potassium
C. Inside the shell D. All of these
D. Outside the shell
105. Critical temperature of mercury is
97. Is use if extracted steam upon condensation gets A. 1160 c
subcooled B. 1260 c
A. Trap C. 1360 c
B. Deaerator D. 1460 c
C. Filter
D. Drain cooler 106. Critical pressure of mercury is
A. 100 MPa
98. Needs only single pump regardless of number of B. 108 Mpa
heaters C. 128 Mpa
A. Open heater D. 158 MPa
B. Closed heater
C. Mono heater 107. Method used in converting heat directly to
D. Regenerative heater electricity by magnetism
A. Electromagnetic induction
99. Is also known as deaerator B. Magnetodynamic
A. Open heater C. Magnetohydrodynamic
B. Closed heater D. Thermoelectric
C. Reheat heater
D. Regenerative heater 108. Which of the following is not a material used for
thermoelectric elements
100. Dissolve gases like _____ makes water corrosive A. Bismuth telluride
react with metal to form iron oxide B. Lead telluride
A. O2 and N2 C. Zinc telluride
B. O2 and CO D. Germanium
C. O2 and CO2
D. N2 and SO2 109. a type of coal formed after anthracite
A. Lignite
101-200 B. Bituminous
Blue book terms part 2 C. Peat
D. Graphite
101. A cycle typically used in paper mills, textile mills,
chemical factories, sugar factories and rice mills 110. Which of the following is lowest grade of coal?
A. Cogeneration cycle A. Peat
B. Combined cycles B. Lignite
C. By-products cycle C. Sub- bituminous
D. Cascading cycle D. Bituminous

102. When process steam is basic need and power is 111. which of the following helps in the ignition of coal?
byproduct, this cycle is known as A. Moisture
A. Cogeneration cycle B. Ash
B. Combined cycle C. Fixed carbon
C. By-product cycle D. Volatile matter
D. Cascading cycle
112. Is the ratio of fixed carbon and volatile matter.
103. A type of turbine employed where steam A. Air-fuel ratio
continuously extracted for process heating B. Fuel ratio
A. Back-pressure turbine C. Combustion ratio
B. Gas turbine D. Carbon-volatile ratio
C. Steam turbine
113. A suspension of a finely divide fluid in another. 122. Presence of excess hydrogen ions makes the water
A. Filtration A. Acidic
B. Floatation B. Alkalinity
C. Emulsion C. Base
D. Separation D. Hydroxicity

114. Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol. 123. PH of water varies with
A. Gasohol A. Pressure
B. Gasonol B. Temperature
C. Gasothanol C. Density
D. Gasethanol D. Volume

115. Process used commercially in coal liquefaction. 124. Ph value of ______ is usually maintained for boiler
A. Tropsch process water to minimized corrosion.
B. Fisher process A. 8.5
C. Fisher-tropsch process B. 9.5
D. Mitch-tropsch process C. 10.5
D. 11.5
116. Is an organic matter produced by plants in both
land and water. 125. What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction
A. Bio-ethanol of ½?
B. Biomass A. Impulse turbine
C. Petroleum B. Reaction turbine
D. Biogradable C. Rarsons turbine
D. Deriaz turbine
117. In thermal power plant, induced draft fans are
located at the 126. Tranquil flow must always occur
A. Exit of furnace A. Above the normal depth
B. Foot of the stack B. Above the critical depth
C. Above the stock C. Below the normal depth
D. Top of the stack D. Below the critical depth

118. Known as drum less boiler. 127. Which of the following head loss coefficient among
A. La Mont boiler the following types of entrance?
B. Fire tube boiler A. Bell mouth
C. Force circulation boiler B. Square edge
D. Once-through boiler C. Reentrant
D. It depends
119. Reduces the steam temperature by spraying low
temperature water from boiler drum. 128. What waste treatment method involves of algae
A. Reheater from stabilization pond effluents?
B. Preheater A. Sedimentation
C. Desuperheater B. Floatation
D. Superheater C. Filtration
D. Microscreening
120. Carbon dioxide can be removed by:
A. Deaeration 129. The number of nozzles will depend on the quantity
B. Aeration of steam required by the turbine. If nozzles occupy the
C. Evaporation entire arc of the ring, the turbine is said to have:
D. Vaporization A. Partially full peripheral admission
B. One-half peripheral admission
121. Is often used to absorb silica from water. C. Maximum peripheral admission
A. Sorbent D. Full peripheral admission
B. Rectifier
C. Silica gel
D. Magnesium hydroxide
130. Tandem compound units may also have two low- 138. By inter-cooling using two stage compressor of
pressure castings that produces: Brayton cycle, the backwork ratio will:
A. Single flow A. Increase
B. Double flow B. Decrease
C. Triple flow C. Remains constant
D. Quadruple flow D. None of these

131. A type of turbine used for driving pumps, fans, and 139. On dynamic similitude, the relation which
other auxiliaries in power plant commonly operate at represents the ratio of inertia force to pressure force is:
exhaust pressure approximating atmospheric. A. Froude number
A. Tandem compound turbine B. Cauchy number
B. Passout turbine C. Euler number
C. Cross-compound turbine D. Reynolds number
D. Back pressure turbine
140. What is the maximum velocity in a sewer flowing
132. A governor with 0% regulation is termed as: full?
A. Isochronous governor A. 0.6 m/sec
B. Synchronous governor B. 0.9 m/sec
C. Isenchronous governor C. 1.2 m/sec
D. Isobarnous governor D. 1.8 m/sec

133. The speed regulation for most turbine-generators is 141. A temporary structure constructed to exclude water
adjustable from: from the side of the foundation during its excavation and
A. 2 to 6% construction is called.
B. 4 to 8% A. Calsson
C. 6 to 10% B. Retaining wall
D. 8 to 12% C. Coffer dam
D. Earth dam
134. Poppet valves of steam turbine are used for
extraction pressure of: 142. Which is not a physical characteristic of water?
A. 20 to 120 psig A. Total suspended and dissolve solids
B. 20 to 150 psig B. Tubidity
C. 20 to 130 psig C. Color
D. 20 to 140 psig D. Hardness

135. When both bearings of steam engines are on one 143. Which dam is best for weak foundation?
side of the of the connecting rod, the engine is referred A. Gravity
to as: B. Arch
A. Center-crank engine C. Buttress
B. Side crank engine D. Earth
C. Under crank engine
D. Standard crank engine 144. What is the volume of water which will drain freely
from the aquifer?
136. When the valve in steam engine is in mid-position A. Specific yield
of its travel, it will cover the steam port by an amount B. Reservoir yield
known C. Safe yield
A. Steam lap D. Secondary yield
B. Partial lap
C. Full lap 145. What is the line defined by the water level in a
D. Angular lap group of artesian wells?
A. Water table
137. A type of governor in steam engine that do not B. Peizometric surface
control the actual admission of steam to the cylinder but C. Specific yield
controls the pressure of the steam. D. All of the above
A. Flyball governor
B. Variable cut-off governor
C. Throttling governor
D. Shaft governor
146.Select the one that is a positive indication of 154. Water flow in diesel engine that is caused by
pollution of a river. density differential.
A. Acidity A. Thermosiphon cooling
B. Oxygen content B. Thermostat cooling
C. Chloride content C. Pressure water cooling
D. Nitrite content D. Evaporative cooling

147. The cooling water is made to fall in series of baffles 155. Type of lubrication system in diesel engine in which
to expose large surface area for steam led from below to oil from pump is carried to a separate storage tank
come in direct contact. outside the engine cylinder and used for high capacity
A. Spray condenser engine.
B. Surface condenser A. Mist lubrication system
C. Jet condenser B. Wet sump lubrication
D. Barometric condenser C. Splash system
D. Dry sump lubrication system
148. Show the variation of river flow (discharge) with
time 156. Produces extreme pressure differentials and violent
A. Hydrograph gas vibration.
B. Hyctograph A. Vibration
C. Mass curve B. Detonation
D. Flow duration curve C. Explosion
D. Knocking
149. Is an open channel erected on a surface above the
ground. 157. In a spark ignition engine, detonation occurs near
A. Canal the ___________.
B. Tunnel A. End of combustion
C. Pentstock B. Middle combustion
D. Flume C. Beginning of combustion
D. Beginning of interaction
150. Type of turbine used up to 300 m head
A. Impulse turbine 158. In a compression ignition engine, the detonation
B. Francis turbine occurs near the ________.
C. Propeller turbine A. End of combustion
D. Deriaz turbine B. Middle of combustion
C. Beginning of combustion
151. A turbine that has a diagonal flow D. Beginning of interaction
A. Impulse turbine
B. Francis turbine 159. Morse test is use to measure the _______ of multi-
C. Propeller turbine cylinder engine.
D. Deriaz turbine A. Break power
B. Indicated power
152. Oil is atomized either by air blast or pressure jet at C. Friction power
about D. Motor power
A. 60 bar
B. 70 bar 160. Ignition delay can be minimized by adding
C. 80 bar _________ to decrease engine knocking.
D. 90 bar A. Ethel ether
B. Ethyl chloride
153. Type of solid injection that use single pump C. Ethyl nitrate
supplies fuel under high pressure to a fuel header. D. Ethyl oxide
A. Common rail injection
B. Individual pump injection system 161. for the submerge plane surface, the point on the
C. Distributor system surface where the resultant force acts is called the
D. Single rail injection A. Center of buoyancy
B. Center of gravity
C. Center of pressure
D. Center of attraction
162. At any point in fluid at rest, the pressure is the C. Dry air
same in all directions. This principle is known as: D. Humid air
A. Bernoulli principle 172. In psychrometric chart, the constant-enthalpy lines
B. Archimedes principle coincide with constant-temperature lines at temperature
C. Pascal’s law A. Above 50⁰C
D. Torricelli’s law B. Below 40⁰C
C. Below 50⁰C
163. The hot-wire manometer is used to measure D. Above 10⁰C
A. Pressure in gasses
B. Pressure in fluids 173. The amount of moisture in air depend on its
C. Wind velocities at airports A. Pressure
D. Gas velocities B. Volume
C. Temperature
164. The pitot static tube measures D. Humidity
A. The static pressure
B. The gage pressure 174. The deep body temperature of healthy person is
C. The total pressure maintained constant at
D. The dynamic pressure A. 27⁰C
B. 37⁰C
165. The terminal velocity of a small sphere setting in a C. 47⁰C
viscous fluid varies as the D. 48⁰C
A. First power of its diameter
B. Inverse of fluid viscosity 175. Air motion also plays important role in
C. Inverse square of the diameter A. Surroundings
D. Inverse of the diameter B. Cooling
C. Human comfort
167. Pressure drag results from D. None of these
A. Skin friction
B. Deformation drag 176. During simple heating and cooling process has a
C. Breakdown of potential flow near the forward ____ humidity ratio
stagnation point A. Increasing
D. Occurrences of wake B. Decreasing
C. Constant
168. The pressure coefficient is the ratio of pressure D. None of these
forces to:
A. Viscous forces 177. The _____ follows a line of constant wet-bulb
B. Inertia forces temperature on the psychrometric chart.
C.Gravity forces A. Evaporative cooling process
D. Surface tension force B. Condensive cooling process
Answer: Secret C. Direct cooling process
D. None of these
169. Which instruments is used to measure humidity of
the atmosphere continuously? 178. A vapor which is not about to condensate is called
A. Barograph a
B. Thermograph A. mixture of vapor and liquid
C. Hydrograph B. critical vapor
D. Thermo-hydrograph C. Superheated vapor
D. None of these
170. Entrance losses between tank and pipe or losses
through elbows, fittings and valves are generally 179. Passing from the solid phase directly into vapor
expresses as a function of phase is called
A. Kinetic energy A. Condensation
B. Pipe diameter B. Fusion
C. Friction factor C. Sublimation
D. Volume flow rate D. None of these

171. The air that contains no water vapor is called

A. Zero air
B. Saturated air
 188. The velocity of fluid is zero at wall aand maximum
180. Robert Boyle observed during his experiments with at the center because of the
a vacuum chamber that the pressure of gases is A. velocity effect
inversely proportional to their B. viscous effect
A. Temperature C. temperature effect
B. Pressure D. none of these
C. Volume
D. None of these 189. For steady flow devices, the volume of the control
volume is
181. ____ is energy in transition A. increase
A. Heat B. decrease
B. Work C. constant
C. Power D. none of these
D. None of these
190. Work done in turbine is ____ since it is done by the
182. Is the mode of energy transfer between a solid fluid.
surface and the adjacent liquid or gas which is in A. Positive
motion, and it involves combine effects of conduction B. Negative
and fluid motion. C. Zero
A. Conduction D. None of these
B. Convection
C. Radiation 191. Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the turbine
D.None of these work will
A. Increase
183. Radiation is usually considered as B. Decrease
A. Surface phenomenon C. Remains the same
B. Surface interaction D. None of these
C. Surface corrosion
D. None of these 192. Which of the following is the chemical formula of
ethanol?
184. Work is ____ between the system and the A. C7H16
surroundings. B. C2H6O
A. Work interaction C. C7H8
B. Energy interaction D. C6H12
C. Heat interaction
D. None of these 193. Which of the following is the chemical formula of
heptane?
185. Is a process during which the system remains in A. C7H16
equilibrium at all times B. C2H6O
A. Quasi-equilibrium C. C7H8
B. Static equilibrium D. C6H12
C. Dynamic equilibrium
D. None of these 194. Which of the following is the chemical formula of
hexene?
186. In the absence of any work interactions between a A. C7H16
system and its surroundings, the amount of net heat B. C2H6O
transfer is equal C. C7H8
A. The change in total energy of a closed system D. C6H12
B. To heat and work
C. Energy interactions
D. none of these 195. Which of the following is the chemical formula of
toluene?
187. The constant volume and constant pressure specific A. C7H16
heats are identical for B. C2H6O
A. compressible substance C. C7H8
B. incompressible substance D. C6H12
C. compressible gas
D. none of these
196. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the 203. After passing through a convergent-divergent
following will increase? nozzle the mach number of air will:
A. Temperature A. Increase
B. Enthalpy B. Decrease
C. Internal energy C. Remains the same
D. Mach number D. None of these
 
197. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the 204. By increasing the temperature source of Carnot
following will decrease? cycle, which of the following will not be affected?
A. Temperature A. Efficiency
B. Enthalpy B. Work
C. Internal energy C. Heat added
D. Mach number D. Heat rejected
 
198. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the 205. By decreasing the temperature sink of Carnot cycle,
following will decrease? which of the following will not be affected?
A. Temperature A. Efficiency
B. Enthalpy B. Work
C. Internal energy C. Heat added
D. Mach number D. Heat rejected
 
199. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the 206. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
following will increase? compression cycle with useful cooling, which of the
A. Density following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)
B. Entropy A. Condenser pressure
C. Mach number B. Evaporator pressure
D. Velocity C. Quality after expansion
D. Heat rejected from condenser
200. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the
following will NOT be affected? 207. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
A. Density compression cycle with useful cooling, which of the
B. Entropy following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
C. Mach number A. Refrigerated effect
D. Velocity B. COP
C. Compressor power
201-275 D. Mass flow rate
Blue book terms part 3  
208. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
201. After passing through a convergent-divergent compression cycle without useful cooling, which of the
nozzle the temperature of air will: following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
A. Increase A. Heat rejected
B. Decrease B. COP
C. Remains the same C. Compressor power
D. None of these D. Specific volume at suction
   
202. After passing through a convergent-divergent 209. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
nozzle the density of air will: compression cycle without useful cooling, which of the
A. Increase following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
B. Decrease A. Heat rejected
C. Remains the same B. COP
D. None of these C. Compressor power
  D. Specific volume at suction
 

210. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor

compression cycle without useful cooling, which of the
following will not be affected? (Use per unit mass 217. If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a
analysis) vapor compression cycle, which of the following will
A. Refrigerated effect decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
B. COP A. Refrigeration effect
C. Compressor power B. mass flow rate
D. Mass flow rate C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. compressor power
211. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression
cycle at condenser exit, which of the following will 218. If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a
increase? (Use per unit mass analysis) vapor compression cycle, which of the following will not
A. Refrigerated effect be affected? (Use per unit mass analysis)
B. Specific volume at suction A. compressor power
C. Compressor power B. mass flow rate
D. Mass flow rate C. heat rejection in the condenser
  D. COP
212. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression
cycle at condenser exit, which of the following will 219. If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in
decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis) a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will
A. Refrigerated effect increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
B. Specific volume at suction A. Refrigerating effect
C. Compressor power B. vaporizing temperature
D. Mass flow rate C. heat rejected in the condenser
  D. COP
213. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor
compression cycle, which of the following will increase? 220. If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in
(Use per unit mass analysis) a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will
A. mass flow rate decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
B. COP A. specific volume at suction
C. specific volume at suction B. compressor power
D. compressor work C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. COP
214. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor
compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? 221. By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine
(Use per unit mass analysis) cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit
A. Refrigeration effect mass analysis)
B. COP A. pump work
C. evaporator temperature B. turbine
D. Temperature difference between evaporator and C. heat rejected
compressor D. cycle efficiency

215. By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor 222. By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle,
compression cycle, which of the following will increase? which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass
(Use per unit mass analysis) analysis)
A. moisture content after expansion A. heat rejected
B. compressor power B. pump work
C. heat rejected from condenser C. cycle efficiency
D. mass flow rate D. moisture

216. If the pressure drop in the condenser Increases in a 223. By superheating the steam to a higher temperature
vapor compression cycle, which of the following will in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease?
increase? (Use per unit mass analysis) (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. mass flow rate A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust
B. compressor power B. turbine work
C. heat rejected in the condenser C. heat added
D. specific volume of suction D. heat rejected
224. By superheating the steam to a higher temperature 232. Transfers heat directly to electrical energy by
in Rankine cycle, which of the following will increase? utilizing thermionic emissions.
(Use per unit mass analysis) A. Thermionic motor
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust B. Thermionic generator
B. pump work C. Thermionic converter
C. condenser pressure D. Thermionic cell
D. cycle efficiency
233. Is the largest group of coal containing 46-86% of
225. By reheating the steam before entering the second fixed carbon and 20 to 40% volatile matter.
stage in Rankine cycle, which of the following will A. anthracite
decrease? B. sub-anthracite
A. turbine work C. Bituminous
B. moisture content after expansion D. Sub-bituminous
C. heat added
D. heat rejected 234. When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a temperature
of about 105⁰C for a period of 1 hour, the loss in weight
226. When Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration, of the sample gives the:
which of the following will increase? A. volatile matter
A. turbine work B. ash
B. heat added C. Fixed carbon
C. heat rejected D. moisture content
D. cycle efficiency
235. When 1 gram of sample of coal is placed in a
227. Is the combination of base load and peaking load. crucible and heated 950⁰C and maintain at that
A. rated load temperature for 7 minutes there is a loss in weight due
B. intermediate load to elimination of:
c. combine load A. volatile matter and moisture
D. over-all load B. ash
C. Fixed carbon
228. Sum of the maximum demand over the D. moisture content
simultaneous maximum demand.
A. use factor 236. Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen carbon
B. capacity factor compounds which can be removed from coal by heating.
C. demand factor A. moisture content
D. diversity factor B. product of combustion
C. ash
229. Regenerative with feed heating cycle with infinite D. volatile matter
number of feedwater heaters thus efficiency is equal to:
A. otto cycle 237. By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered crucible
B. stirling cycle until the coal is completely burned, the __ will formed.
C. ericson cycle A. volatile matter and moisture
D. carnot cycle B. ash
C. Fixed carbon
230. A type of turbine used in desalination of sea water. D. moisture content
A. back pressure turbine
B. passout turbine 238. Caking coal are used to produce coke by heating in
C. peaking turbine a coke oven in the absence of __ with volatile matter
D. reaction turbine driven off.
A. air
231. States that when conductor and magnetic field B. oil
move relatively to each other, an electric voltage is C. oxygen
induced in the conductor. D. nitrogen
A. Maxwell’s law
B. Kirchoff’s law 239. Grindability of standard coal is
C. Faraday’s law A. 80
D. Newtons law B.90
C. 100
D. 110
240. Major constituent of all natural gases is 249. Brayton cycle is known as
A. ethane A. Carnot cycle
B. methane B. Joule cycle
C. propane C. Carnot cycle
D. Cethane D. Rankine cycle

241. Two types of fans are: 250. It is applied to propulsion of vehicle because of
A. centrifugal and axial certain practical characteristics.
B. reciprocating and axial A. Diesel cycle
C. centrifugal and rotary B. Otto cycle
D. tangential and rotary C. Carnot cycle
D Brayton cycle
242. Enthalpy of substance at specified state due to
chemical composition. 251. Heat exchangers typically involve
A. enthalpy of reaction A. no work interaction
B. enthalpy of combustion B. no heat interaction
C. enthalpy of formation C. no energy interaction
D. enthalpy of product
D. none of these
243. A type of boiler used for duper critical pressure
252. A device that is used to convert the heat to work is
operation.
called
A. La Mont boiler
A. Adiabatic
B. Once through-circulation boiler
B. Regenerator
C. Force circulation boiler
C. Heat engines
D. Natural circulation boiler
D. None of these
244. Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated by:
253. The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a
A. electric furnace
heated space at
B. electric current
A. Low temperature
C. incoming flue gas
B. High temperature
D. outgoing flue gas
C. Medium temperature
D. None of these
245. Receives heat partly by convection and partly by
radiation.
254. A device that violates the second law of
A. radiant superheater
thermodynamics is called
B. desuperheater
A. perpetual motion machine of second kind
C. convective superheater
B. perpetual motion machine of third kind
D. pendant superheater
C. perpetual motion machine of the first kind
D. none of these
246. Regenerative superheater is a storage type of heat
exchangers have an energy storage medium called.
255. A process is called _____ if no irreversibilities occur
A. matrix
outside the system boundaries during the process.
B. regenerator
A. externally reversible
C. Boiler
B. internally reversible
D. Recuperator
C. reversible
D. none of these
247. Stirling cycle uses a ____ as working fluids.
A. incompressible gas
256. An energy interaction which is not accompanied by
B. incompressible fluids
entropy transfer is
C. compressible refrigerant
A. energy
D. compressible fluids
B. heat
C. work
248. In Striling process, the heat is added during
D. none of these
A. Isobaric process
B. Isentropic process
C. Isothermal process
D. Heat process
257. A _____ is used in aircraft engines and some 264. If the cutoff ratio decreases, the efficiency of diesel
automotive engines. In this method, a turbine driven by cycle
the exhaust gases is used to provide power to A. increases
compressor or blower at the inlet. B. decreases
A. discharging C. remains constant
B. turbocharging D. none of these
C. supercharging
D. scavenging 265. If Erickson cycle, the regeneration process occur
during ______ process.
258. The only device where the changes in kinetic A. constant volume
energy are significant are the B. constant temperature
A. compressor C. constant pressure
B. pumps D. none of these
C. nozzles and diffusers
D. none of these 266. In Brayton cycle, the ____ during constant pressure
process.
259. The distance between TDC and BDC in which the A. work is added
piston can travel is the B. heat is transferred
A. right extreme position C. pressure is rejected
B. displacement stroke D. energy is added
C. stroke of the engine
D. swept stroke 267. The two major application areas of gas turbine
engines are
260. In compression-engine the combustion of air-fuel A. driving automotive engine and locomotives
mixture is self-ignited as a result of compressing the B. heating and generation
mixture above its C. aircraft propulsion and electric power generation
A. self-developed temperature D. none of these
B. mixing temperature
C. self-feed temperature 268. The use of regenerator in is recommended only
D. self-ignition temperature when the turbine exhaust temperature is higher than the
compressor.
261. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle A. exit temperature
depends _______ of the working fluid. B. inlet temperature
A. the pressure ratio of the engine and the specific ratio C. mean temperature
B. the temperature ratio of the engine and the specific D. absolute temperature
ratio
C. the moles ratio of the engine and the specific heat 269. As the number of stages is increased, the
ratio expansion process becomes
D. the compression ratio of the engine and the specific A. isentropic
heat ratio B. isothermal
C. isometric
262. Using monoatomic gas, the thermal efficiency of D. polytropic
Otto cycle  
A. increases 270. Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure
B. decreases ratio typically between
C. remains constant A. 6 to 8
D. none of these B. 12 to 24
C. 10 to 18
263. In diesel engine, combustion process during D. 10 to 25
combustion occurs during  
A. isothermal process 271. The first commercial high-pass ratio engines have a
B. constant pressure process bypass ratio of
C. isentropic process A. 1
D. adiabatic B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
272. The single-stage expansion process of an ideal 278. Can be apply in Steam turbine cycle (Rankine), gas
Brayton cycle without regeneration is replace by a turbine cycle (Brayton) and combined cycle
multistage expansion process with reheating between A. Hydroelectric plant
the same pressure limits. As a result of modification, B. Nuclear power plant
thermal efficiency will: C. Cogeneration plant
A. Increase D. Tidal power plant
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant 279. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet
D. none of these conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure the heat rejected will.:
273. Which of the following is/are the application of A. increase
Brayton cycle B. decrease
A. Propulsion system C. remains the same
B. Automotive Turbine Engines D. none of these
C. Aircraft Turbine engines
D. all of these 280. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and
condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
274. It used as working fluid in high-temperature the steam to a higher temperature, the pump work input
application of vapor cycle? will:
A. Helium A. increase
B. Deuterium B. decrease
C. Mercury C. remains the same
D. Water D. none of these

275. The superheat vapor enters the turbine and 281. How do the following quantities change when the
expands isentropically and produces work by the rating simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with? The heat
shaft. The _________ may drop, during the process. rejected:
A. density A. increase
B. Viscosity of fuel B. decrease
C. Temperature and pressure C. remains the same
D. none of these D. none of these

282. During a combustion process, the components

276. Only________ of the turbine work output is which exist before the reaction are called
required to operate the pump A. reaction
A. 0.01% B. combustion
B. 0.02% C. reactants
C. 0.03% D. product
D. 0.04%
283. In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion
276-352 A. insufficient carbon
Blue book term’s part 4 B. insufficient air
C. insufficient nitrogen
276. Superheating the steam to higher temperature D. insufficient oxygen
decreases the moisture content of the steam at
the_______ 284. Higher heating value when H20 in the product of
A. turbine inlet combustion is in
B. compression inlet A. solid form
C. compressor exit B. vapor form
D. turbine exit C. gas form
D. liquid form
277. Regeneration also provides a convenient means a
derating the feedwater to prevent 285. Device which transfer heat from low temperature
A. boiler explosion medium to a higher temperature one is a
B. boiler scale production A. adiabatic
C. boiler corrosion B. refrigerator
D. compressor damage C. heat exchanger
D. heat pump
286. A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by 294. A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies
______ for each C the evaporating temperature is raised are the same
or the condensing temperature is lowered. a. isenthalpic
A. 2 to 4% b. enthalpy conservation
B. 6 to 7% c. throttling
C. 1 to 5% d. steady state
D. 6 to 10%
295. the sum of energies of all the molecules in system,
387. Are generally more expensive to purchase and energies that appear in several complex forms
install than other heating systems , but they save money a. kinetic energy
in the long run. b. internal energy
A. Refrigerator c. external energy
B. Adiabatic d. flow work
C. Heat pumps
D. Humidifyer 296. a system that is completely impervious to its
surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its
288. The most widely used absorption system is the boundaries
ammonia-water system, where ammonia is serves as a a. open system
refrigerant and H20 as the b. closed system
A. cooling c. adiabatic system
B. heating d. isolated system
C. heating and cooling
D. transport medium 297. a device used to measure small and moderate
pressure difference
289. The efficiency of all reversible heat engines a. manometer
operating between the same two reservoir________ b. bourdon gage
A. Differ c. barometer
B. Are the same d. piezometer
C. Are Unequal
D. None of the above 298. a vapor having a temperature higher than the
saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure.
290. A process with no heat transfer is known as a. superheated vapor
A. isobaric process b. saturated vapor
B. adiabatic process c. super saturated vapor
C. isothermal process d. subcooled vapor
D. isothermal process

299. The energy or stored capacity for performing work

291. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its
density of: momentum.
A. mercury a. internal energy
B. oil b. work
C. gas c. gravitational potential energy
D. water d. kinetic energy

292. This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at 300. the thermodynamic process wherein temperature is
right angles to each other constant and the change in internal energy is zero
A. Series flow a. isobaric process
B. Parallel flow b. isometric process
C. Cross flow c. isothermal process
D. Counter flow d. polytropic process

293. The fact the total energy in any one energy system 301. The function of a pump and compressor is to
remains constant is called the principle of_____ a. transfer heat from one fluid to another
A. Conservation of Energy b. increase the total energy content of the flow
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics c. extract energy from the flow
C. Conservation of Mass d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
D. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
302. this law states that ‘all energy received as heat by a 310. is the heat required in a constant pressure process
heat-engine cannot be converted into mechanical work’ to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at
a. 1st law of thermodynamics a. a given temperature
b. 2nd law of thermodynamics b. latent heat vaporization
c. 3rd law of thermodynamic c. enthalpy of vaporization
d. all of the above d. all of the above

303. the intensity of pressure that is measured above 311. it is a commonly used device for measuring
absolute zero is called temperature differences or high temperatures.
a. gage pressure a. thermistor
b. absolute pressure b. thermocouple
c. vacuum pressure c. bimetallic strip
d. saturation pressure d. mercury in glass

304. this is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake 312. the science and technology concerned with
or useful horsepower developed by an engine and precisely measuring energy and enthalpy
available on its crankshaft to the heat during the same a. thermodynamics
time b. chemistry
a. brake engine efficiency c. calorimetry
b. indicated thermal efficiency d. none of the above
c. combined thermal efficiency
d. brake thermal efficiency 313. the rate of doing work per unit time
a. torque
305. flow work is equal to pressure times _______ b. power
a. temperature c. force
b. entropy d. moment
c. internal energy
d. specific volume 314. it an ideal rankine cycle with fixed boiler and
condenser pressure. What is the effect of superheating
306. this form of energy is due to the position or the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle thermal
elevation of the body efficiency?
a. internal energy a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase
b. kinetic energy b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
c. potential energy c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
d. work d. none of the above
 
307. another term for constant volume process 315. a vapor having a temperature higher than the
a. isometic saturation temperature corresponding to the existing
b. isochoric pressure
c. isovolumic a. superheated vapor
d. all of the above b. saturated vapor
c. wet vapor
308. work done by the steam during a reversible d. none of the above
adiabatic expansion process in the turbine
a. brake work 316. it is the work done in pushing a fluid across a
b. ideal work boundary, usually into or out a system
c. actual fluid work a. mechanical work
d. combine work b. non flow work
c. flow work
309. the efficiency of carnot cycle depends upon the d. electrical wor
a. pressure
b. entropy 317. a liquid that has a temperature lower than the
c. volume saturation temperature corresponding to the existing
d. temperature pressure.
a. subcooled liquid
b. saturated liquid
c. unsaturated liquid
d. water
318. this type of boiler, the water passes through the 325. it prevents boiler pressure from rising above a
tubes while the flue gases burn outside the tubes certain predetermined pressure by opening to allow
a. water column excess steam to escape into the atmosphere when that
b. try cocks point is reached, thus guarding against a possible
c. gauge glass expulsion through excessive pressure.
d. all of the above a. relief valve
b. safety valve
319. it prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning c. fusible plug
of low water d. pressure switches
a. safety valve
b. fusible plug 326. in a water tube boiler, the water will pass through
c. relief valve _____
d. try cocks a. inside the tubes
b. outside the tubes
320. it has several functions. When necessary it empties c. inside the shell
the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out d. outside the shell
mud scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation
and prevents excessive concentration of soluble 327. it is the temperature to which the air becomes
impurities in the boiler saturated at constant pressure
a. blow-down line a. dry bulb temperatue
b. boiler feedwater pump b. wet bulb temperature
c. steam valve c. dew point temperature
d. none of the above d. saturation temperature

321.is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery 328. in a ______ cooling tower, the air moves
device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases horizontally through the fills as the water moves
a. economizer downward.
b. open heater a. cross flow
c. closed heater b. counter flow
d. waterwalls c. parallel flow
d. double flow
322. it is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the
flue gases to preheat the air needed for combustion 329. it is the subject that deals with the behavior of
a. economizer moist air
b. feedwater heater a. psychrometer
c. reheater b. psychrometry
d. air preheater c. refrigeration
d. pneumatics
323. it is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can
extend the evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler 330. it is the ration of the mass of water vapor in a
and at the same time protect the furnace walls from certain volume of moist air at a given temperature to the
high temperature. mass of hot water in the same volume of saturated air at
a. reheater the same temperature
b. waterwalls a. humidity ratio
c. superheater b. specific humidity
d. feedwater heater c. humidity
d. relative humidity
324. it is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of
steam from water at 212F and equivalent to 33500 331. air whose condition is such that any decrease in
btu/hr temperature will result in condensation of water vapor
a. one hp into liquid.
b. one kw a. saturated air
c. one Boiler Hp b. unsaturated air
d. none of the abov c. saturated vapor
d. moist air
332. it is the warm water temperature minus the cold 340. this system combines two vapor compression units
water temperature leaving the cooling tower with the condenser of the low temperature system
a. approach discharge its heat to the evaporator of the high
b. terminal difference temperature system
c. cooling range a. cascade systems
d. LMTD b. multistage system
c. binary system
333.the temperature where the relative humidity d. multi pressure system
becomes 100 % and where the water vapor starts to
condense is known as _____ 341. a process of increasing the humidity ratio at
a. dry bulb temperature constant dry bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature a. dehumidifying process
c. wet bulb temperature b. cooling process
d. saturated temperature c. heating process
d. humidifying process
334. the surrounding air ____ temperature is the lowest
temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a 342. the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in
cooling tower the air to the saturation pressure corresponding to the
a. dry bulb temperature of the air
b. wet bulb a. humidity ratio
c. dew point b. relative humidity
d. saturation temperature c. specific humidity
d. moisture content
335. which is not a major part of the vapor compression
system? 343. in an air conditioning process that involves heating
a. compressor without changing the moisture content of air. The
b. condenser process is represented by a horizontal line in the
c. evaporator psychrometric chart, from left to right
d. refrigerant a. sensible cooling process
b. sensible heating process
336. this refers to the rate of heat transfer attribute only c.humidifying process
to a change in dry-bulb temperature d. heating and dehumidifying process
a. sensible heating or cooling
b. humidification 344. it is an air conditioning process of increasing the
c. dehumidification humidity ratio without changing the dry-bulb
d. cooling and dehumidifying temperature of air. The process is represented in the
psychrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to down
337. it is a binary mixture of dry air and water-vapor a. sensible cooling process
a. dry air b. sensible heating process
b. saturated vapor c. humidifying process
c. moist air d. heating and dehumidifying process
d. wet mixture
345. the temperature at which the water vapor content
338. the temperature measured by an ordinary of moist air begins to condense when air is cooled at
thermometer costant pressure
a. wet bulb temp a. dew point temp
b. dry bulb temp b. wet bulb temp
c. dew point temp c. dry bulb temp
d. wet – bulb depression d. condensing temp

339. the mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of 346. it is the index of performance of a refrigeration
dry air system which is a dimensionless quantity
a. enthalpy a. coefficient of performance
b. humidity ratio b. energy ratio
c. specific volume c. energy efficiency
d. relative humidity d. performance ratio
347. it is simply the compression of the gas in two or
more cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor
a. intercooled compression
b. multistage compression
c. efficient compression
d. performace compression

348. the transfer of energy from the more energetic in

two or more energetic particles of a substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interaction
between the particles
a. heat transfer
b. radiation
c. conduction
d. convection

349.what is the simultaneous control of temperature,

humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in space?
a. refrigeration
b. psychrometry
c. air conditioning
d. humidification

350. the non condensing component of the moist air

a. hydrogen
b. water vapour
c. nitrogen
d. dry air

351. the substance used for heat transfer in a vapor

compression refrigerating system. It picks up heat by
evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and
gives up this heat by condensing at a higher
temperature and pressure
a. water
b. air
c. ammonia
d. gas

352. what is the pressure of the refrigerant between the

expansion valve and the intake of the compressor in a
multi pressure refrigeration system?
a. high side pressure
b. discharge pressure
c. condensing pressure
d. low side pressure