POWER PLANT AND INDUSTRIAL

PLANT ENGINEERING

ELEMENTS

Property of:
Batawig, Klifford Ken B.

“When the winds of life is pushing you back, THAT'S when you push forward the hardest.” 
― Yvonne Pierre, The Day My Soul Cried: A Memoir
ELEMENTS PART I 8. Component of absorption
refrigeration system in which the
1. Is the most common dryer used solution is cooled by cooling water:
which consist of rotating cylinder A. Rectifier
inside which the materials flow while B. Generator
C. Evaporator
getting in contact with hot gas.
D. Absorber
ANSWER: D
A. Tower dryer
B. Centrifugal dryer
9. Cascade refrigeration cycle is
C. Tray dryer
often used in industrial process
D. Rotary dryer
where objects must be cooled to
ANSWER: D
temperature below:
A. -46OC
2. Is the ratio of the mass water-
B. -56OC
vapor in air and the mass of air if
C. -66OC
it is saturated is called:
D. -76OC
ANSWER: A
A. Humidity ratio
B. Mass ratio
10. Type of refrigerant control
C. Vapor ratio
designed to maintain a pressure
D. Relative humidity
difference while the compressor is
ANSWER: D
operating.
A. Thermostatic expansion valve
3. The hands feel painfully cold when
B. Automatic expansion valve
the skin temperature reaches:
C. Using low side float flooded
A.8OC
system
B.10OC
D. Capillary tube
C.12OC
ANSWER: D
D.14OC
ANSWER: B
11. As a rule of thumb, for a
specified amount of compressed air,
4. The refrigerant used in steam jet
the power consumption of the
cooling is:
compressor decreased by
A. Steam
for each 3OC drop in the
B.R-11
temperature inlet air to the
C. Ammonia
compressor.
D. Water
A. 1%
ANSWER: D
B. 1.5%
C. 2%
5. The total heat of the air is a
D. 2.5%
function of
ANSWER: A
A. WB temperature
B.DP temperature
12. Modern way of detecting air
C.DB temperature
compressor leak is by using
D.WB depression
A. Soup and water
ANSWER: A
B. Air leak detector
C. Acoustic leak detector
6. Boiling point of Freon-12 at
D. Ammonia leak detector
atmospheric pressure is:
ANSWER: C
A. 21OF
B.15OF
13. For foundation of stacks, the
C.5OF
maximum pressure on the soil is equal
D.28OF
to the pressure due to the weight and
ANSWER: A
the .
A. Soil movement
7. Which of the following is NOT a
B. Wind movement
type of water cooled condenser in
C. Ground movement
refrigeration?
D. Engine movement
A. Double pipe
ANSWER: B
B. Double shell
C. Shell and coil
14. Foundation bolts of specified
D. Shell and tube
size should be used and surrounded by
ANSWER: B
a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter
of at least
 A. 3 times the diameter of C. carbon in exhaust pipe
engine bolt D. overload on engine
B. 3 times the diameter of
anchor bolt 22. Which of the following is not a
C. 2 times the diameter of method of starting a diesel engine?
engine bolt A. Manual rope, crank and kick
D. 2 times the diameter of B. Electric (battery)
anchor bolt
ANSWER: B C. Compressed air
D. Using another generator
15. For multi stage compression of an ANSWER D
ideal Brayton cycle, the backwork
ratio will 23. Two-stroke engine performs to
A. Increase complete one cycle
B. Decrease A. Suction and discharge stroke
C. Remain the same B. Power and exhaust stroke
D. none of these C. Compression and power stroke
ANSWER: B D. Suction and exhaust stroke
ANSWER C
16. Type of turbine that has a
specific speed below 5
24. A type of geothermal plant used
A. Impulse turbine
when there is a presence of brine
B. Propeller turbine
extracted from underground
C. Francis turbine
A. Dry geothermal plant
D. Deriaz turbine
ANSWER: A B. Double-flesh geothermal plant
C. Single-flash geothermal plant
17. A high discharge type of turbine D. Binary geothermal plant
A. Impulse turbine ANSWER D
B. Francis turbine
C. Propeller turbine 25. Is the most important safety
D. Deriaz turbine device on the power boiler
ANSWER: C A. Check valve
B. Gate valve
18. Use to minimize the speed rise C. Safety valve
due to a sudden load rejection
D. Globe valve
A. needle valve
B. wicket gate ANSWER C
C. Shut-off valve
D. jet deflector 26. During hydrostatic test, the
ANSWER: D safety valves should be
A. Removed
19. Is the speed of a turbine when B. Open
the head on the turbine is one meter? C. Closed
A. specific speed D. Partially closed
B. rated speed ANSWER A
C. utilized speed
D. unit speed 27. Where deaerating heaters are not
ANSWER: D employed, it is recommended that the
temperature of the feed less than
20. Is a fluid property which refers A. 197°C
to the intermolecular attraction by B. 102°C
which the separate particles of the
fluid arc held together? C. 104°C
A. Cohesion D. 106°C
B. Adhesion ANSWER A
C. Surface tension
D. hypertension 28. Is a reaction during which
ANSWER: A chemical energy is released in the
form of heat?
21. Which of the following is NOT the A. Cosmic reaction
cause of black smoke in diesel B. Ethnic reaction
engine? C. Endothermic reaction
A. fuel valve open too long D. Exothermic reaction
B. high compression pressure
ANSWER D
36. If the cut-off ratio of diesel
29. By reheating the steam in an cycle increases, the cycle efficiency
ideal Rankine cycle the heat rejected will
will: A. Decrease
A. Increase B. Increase
B. Decrease C. Remains the same
C. Remains the same D. None of these
D. None of these above ANSWER A
ANSWER A
37. The fuel used in a power plant
30. By increasing the boiler pressure that is used during peak periods
in Rankine cycle the moisture content A. Gas
at boiler exit will: B. Solid
A. Increase C. Liquid
B. Decrease D. None of these
C. Remains the same ANSWER C
D. None of these above
ANSWER A 38. Typical compression ratio of Otto
cycle is
31. Presently the highest steam A. 6
temperature allowed at the turbine B. 8
inlet is about C. 10
A. 340°C
D. 12
B. 520°C
ANSWER B
C. 620°C
D. 1020°C 39. If Joule Thompson coefficient is
ANSWER C equal to zero, then the process will
become
32. The most common gases employed in A. Isentropic
Stirling and Ericsson cycles are: B. Isenthalpic
A. Air and helium C. Isobaric
B. Oxygen and helium D. Isothermal
C. Hydrogen and helium ANSWER D
D. Nitrogen and helium
ANSWER C 40. If the fluid passed through a
nozzle its entropy will:
33. In most common designs of Gas A. Increase
turbine, the pressure ratio ranges B. Decrease
from C. Remains the same
A. 10 to 12
D. None of these
B. 11 to 16
ANSWER C
C. 12 to 18
D. 15 to 20 41. Refrigerants consisting of
ANSWER B mixtures of two or more different
chemical compounds, often used
34. In Brayton cycle, the heat is individually as refrigerants for
transformed during what process? other applications
A. Constant temperature A. Suspension
B. Isentropic process B. Compound reaction
C. Isobaric process C. Blends
D. Isochoric process D. Mixing of refrigerants
ANSWER C ANSWER C

35. The fuel injection process in 42. Pairs of mating stop valves that
diesel engine starts when piston allow sections of a system to be
A. Is at the TDC joined before opening these valves or
B. Leaving TDC separated after closing them
C. Approaches TDC A. Check valve
D. Halfway of the stroke B. Gate valve
ANSWER C C. Safety valve
 D. Companion valve
ANSWER D
43. An enclosed passageway that
limits travel to a single path
A. Corridor
B. Hallway
C. Lobby
D. Tunnel
ANSWER A
44. For Immediate Dangerous to Life
or Health (IDHL) the maximum
concentration from which unprotected
persons have time to escape within
without escape-impairing symptoms or
irreversible health
A. 16 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
ANSWER D
45. The volume as determined from
internal dimensions of the container
with no allowance for the volume of
internal parts
A. Internal allowance volume
B. Internal gross volume
C. Internal interference volume
D. Internal fots volume
ANSWER B
46. A waiting room or large hallway
serving as a waiting room
A. Terrace
B. Test room
C. Compound room
D. Lobby
ANSWER D
47. A continuous and unobstructed
path of travel from any in a building
or structure to a public way
A. Average of aggress
B. Mean o aggress
C. Hallway of aggress
D. Pathway of aggress
ANSWER B
48. Any device or portion of the
equipment used to increase
refrigerant pressure
A. Pressure relief device
B. Pressure-imposing element
C. Pressure lift device
D. Pressure limiting device
ANSWER B
49. The quantity of refrigerant
stored at some point is the
refrigeration system for operational,
service, or standby purposes
A. Pressure vessel
B. Pumpdown charge
C. Liquid receiver
D. Accumulator
ANSWER B
50. Secondary refrigerant is a liquid
used for the transmission of heat,
without a change of state, and having
no flash point or a flash point above
as determined from ASTM
A. 150°F
B. 160°F
C. 180°F
D. 200°F
ANSWER A
51. A service valve for dual
pressure-relief devices that allows
using one device while isolating the
other from the system maintaining one
valve in operation at all times
A. Three-way valve
B. Two-way valve
C. One-way valve
D. Four-way valve
ANSWER A
52. Tubing that is unenclosed and
therefore exposed to crhsing,
abrasion, puncture, or similar damage
after installation
A. Protected tubing
B. Bare tubing
C. Open tubing
D. Unprotected tubing
ANSWER D
53. Refers to blends compromising
multiple components of different
volatile that, when used in
refrigeration cycles, change
volumetric composition and saturation
temperature as they evaporate (boil)
or condense at constant pressure
A. Zeoline
B. Blending
C. Composition
D. Zertropic
ANSWER D
54. Is a premises or that portion of
a premise from which, because they
are disabled, debilitated, or
confined, cooperate cannot readily
leave without the assistance of
others
A. Institutional occupancy
B. Public assembly occupancy
C. Residential occupancy
 D. Commercial occupancy
ANSWER A 61. Which of the following is NOT a
possible location of service valve?
55. Is one in which a secondary A. Suction of compressor
coolant is in direct contact with the B. Discharge of compressor
air or other substance to be cooled C. Outlet of liquid receiver
or heated D. Outlet of condenser
A. Double indirect open spray
ANSWER D
system
B. Indirect closed system 62. A cool to serve with evaporator
C. Indirect open spray system that is use to prevent the liquid
D. Indirect vented closed system refrigerant entering the compressor
ANSWER B A. Accumulator
B. Liquid superheater
56. Refrigerant number R-744 is: C. Drier loop
A. Butane D. Liquid suction heat exchanger
B. Carbon monoxide ANSWER C
C. Propane
D. Carbon dioxide 63. A type of valve connected from
ANSWER D discharge of compressore directly to
suction that is normally closed and
57. Refrigerant number R-1150 is: will open automatically only if there
A. Propylene is high discharge pressure
A. Check valve
B. Ethane
B. Solenoid valve
C. Ethane
C. King valve
D. Methyl formale
D. Relief valve
ANSWER B
ANSWER B
58. Refrigerant number R-40 is:
A. Chlorodifluoromethane 64. Use to increase the capacity of
condenser
B. Difluoromethane
A. Water regulating valve
C. Ammonia
B. Desuperheating coils
D. Chloromethane
C. Liquid-suction heat exchanger
ANSWER D
D. Condenser heating coils
59.When the air duct system serves ANSWER B
several enclosed spaces, the
permissible quantity of refrigerant 65. Is use to subcooled the
in the system shall not exceed the refrigerant from the condenser
amount determined by using the total A. Liquid subcooler
volume of those spaces in which the B. Condenser subcooler
airflow cannot be reduced to less C. Desuperheating coils
than of its maximum when the fan is D. Liquid receiver
operating ANSWER A
A. One-quarter
B. One half-quarter 66. Which of the following is NOT a
C. Three-quarter part of low pressure side in
D. One fourth-quarter refrigeration system?
ANSWER A A. Liquid line
B. Refrigerant flow control
60. The space above a suspended C. Evaporator
ceiling shall not be include 1 in D. Suction line
calculating the permissible quantity ANSWER A
of refrigerant in the system unless
such space is continuous and is part 67. Which of the following is NOT a
of the air return system part of high pressure side in
A. Partition refrigeration system?
B. Plenum A. Compressor
C. Separator B. Condenser
D. Plate divider C. Liquid line
ANSWER B D. Suction line
ANSWER D
75. Dominant refrigerant used in
68. Which of the following is NOT a commercial refrigeration system
part of condensing unit? A. R-11
A. Compressor B. R-22
B. Discharge line C. R-12
C. Condenser D. R-502
D. Liquid line ANSWER D
ANSWER D
76. Cascade refrigeration system are
69. By subcooling the refrigerant in connected in
refrigerant system, the compressor A. Series
power per unit mass will B. Parallel
A. Increase C. Series-parallel
B. Decrease D. Parallel-series
C. Remains the same ANSWER A
D. None of these
ANSWER C 77. Is use to heat up the solution
partially before entering the
70. Superheating the refrigerant in generator in absorption refrigeration
refrigeration system without useful system
cooling, the refrigeration effect per A. Rectifier
unit mass will B. Absorber
A. Increase
C. Regenerator
B. Decrease
D. Pump
C. Remains the same
ANSWER C
D. None of these
ANSWER C 78. The COP of actual absorption
refrigeration system is usually
71. Which of the following is NOT a A. Less than 1
type of air-cooled condenser? B. Less than 2
A. Shell and tube
C. Less than 3
B. Natural draft
D. Less than 4
C. Forced draft
ANSWER A
D. Induced draft
ANSWER A 79. Sight glass is often located at:
A. Discharge line
72. A type of refrigerant control B. Liquid line
typically used in household
C. Between condenser and liquid
refrigeration
A. Thermostatic expansion valve receiver
B. Automatic expansion valve D. Suction line
C. Capillary tube ANSWER B
D. High side float
80. Use to detects a vibration in
ANSWER C current caused by the ionization of
decomposed refrigerant between two
73. Type of condenser that operates opposite-charged platinum electrodes
like cooling tower A. Electronic detector
A. Air-cooled condenser
B. Halide torch
B. Evaporative condenser
C. Bubble method
C. Shell and tube condenser
D. Pressurizing
D. Water-cooled condenser
ANSWER B
ANSWER B
81. Joints and all refrigerants
74. The major problem of heat pump is containing parts of a refrigerating
A. Refrigerant used system located in an air duct
B. Outside air carrying conditioned air to and from
C. Supply air an occupied space shall be
D. Frosting constructed to withstand a
temperature of without leakage into
ANSWER D
the airstream
 A. 550°F B. 5%
B. 600°F C. 10%
C. 650°F D. 50%
D. 700°F ANSWER B
ANSWER D
88. Liquid receivers, if used, or
82. Refrigerant piping crossing an parts of a system designed to receive
open space that affords passageway in the refrigerant charge during
any building shall be less than above pumpdown charge. The liquid shall not
the floor unless the piping is occupy more than of the volume when
located against the ceiling of such temperature of the refrigerant is
space and is permitted by the 90°F
authority having jurisdiction A. 80%
A. 2.2 m B. 85%
B. 3.2 m
C. 90%
C. 4.2 m
D. 5.2 m D. 95%
ANSWER A ANSWER C
83. Methyl chloride shall not be in 89. The discharge line (B4) shall be
contact with vented to the atmosphere through a
A. Aluminum fitted to its upper extremity
B. Zinc A. Nozzle
B. Convergent-divergent nozzle
C. Magnesium C. Pipe
D. All of these D. Diffuser
ANSWER D ANSWER D

84. Shall not be in contact with any 90. Convert fossil fuels into shaft
halogenated refrigerants work
A. Aluminum
A. Nuclear power plant
B. Zinc
B. Gas turbine power plant
C. Magnesium C. Dendrothermal power plant
D. All of these D. Thermal power plant
ANSWER C ANSWER D
91. Ultimate strength drops by 30% as
85. Are suitable for use in ammonia
steam temperature raises from
system
for unalloyed steel
A. Copper
A. 300 to 400°C
B. Aluminum and its alloy B. 400 to 500°C
C. Plastic C. 600 to 700°C
D. Cast iron D. 700 to 800 °C
ANSWER B ANSWER B

86. If a pressure-relief device is 92. Recent practice limits steam

used to protect a pressure vessel temperature to
having an inside dimension of 6 in or A. 438°C
less, the ultimate strength of the B. 538°C
pressure vessel so protected shall be C. 638°C
sufficient to withstand a pressure at D. 738°C
least the design pressure ANSWER A
A. 2 times
B. 3 times 93. In a closed feed water heater,
C. 4 times the feed water pass through
A. Inside the tube
D. 5 times
B. Outside the tube
ANSWER B C. Inside the shell
D. Outside the shell
87. Seats and discs shall be limited ANSWER A
in distortion, by pressure or other
cause, to a set pressure change of 94. In use if extracted steam upon
not more than in a span of five years condensation gets subcooled
A. 1% A. Trap
 B. Deaerator B. 1260°C
C. Filter C. 1360°C
D. Drain cooler D. 1460°C
ANSWER D ANSWER D
95. Needs only single pump regardless 104. Critical pressure of mercury is
of number of heaters
A. 100 Mpa
A. Open heater
B. 108 Mpa
B. Closed heater
C. 128 Mpa
C. Mono heater
D. 158 Mpa
D. Regenerative heater
ANSWER B
ANSWER B
105. Method used in converting heat
96. Is also known as deaerator
directly to electricity by magnetism
A. Open heater A. Electronic induction
B. Closed heater B. Magnetodynamic
C. Reheat heater C. Magnetohyrdodynamic
D. Regenerative heater D. Thermoelectric
ANSWER A ANSWER C
97. Dissolve gases like makes water 106. Which of the following is NOT a
corrosive react with metal to form material used for thermoelectric
iron oxide elements
A. O2 and N2 A. Bismuth telluride
B. O2 and CO B. Lead telluride
C. O2 and CO2 C. Zinc telluride
D. N2 and SO2 D. Germanium
ANSWER C ANSWER C
98. A cycle typically used in paper 107. A type of coal formed after
mills, textile mills, chemical anthracite
factories, sugar factories and rice A. Lignite
mills B. Bituminous
A. Cogeneration cycle C. pear
B. Combined cycle D. graphite
C. By-product cycle ANSWER D
D. Cascading cycle
108. Which of the following is lowest
ANSWER A
grade of coal?
99. When process steam is basic need A. Peat
and power is byproduct, this cycle is B. Lignite
known as C. Sub-bituminous
A. Cogeneration cycle D. Bituminous
B. Combined cycle ANSWER B
C. By-product cycle
109. Which of the following helps in
D. Cascading cycle
the ignition of coal?
ANSWER C
A. Moisture
100. A type of turbine employed where B. Ash
steam continuously extracted for C. Fixed carbon
process heating D. Volatile matter
A. Back pressure turbine ANSWER D
B. Gas turbine
C. Steam turbine 110. Is the ratio of fixed carbon and
D. Passout turbine volatile matter?
ANSWER D A. Air-fuel ratio
B. Fuel ratio
102. Which of the following is used
C. Combustion ratio
for Binary cycle power generation for
D. Carbon-volatile ratio
high temperature application
ANSWER B
A. Mercury
B. Sodium 111. A suspension of a finely divide
C. Potassium fluid in another
D. All of these A. Filtration
ANSWER D B. Floatation
103. Critical temperature of mercury C. Emulsion
is D. Separation
A. 1160°C ANSWER C
112. Contains 90% gasoline and 10% A. Sorbent
ethanol B. Rectifier
A. Gasohol C. Silica gel
B. Gasonol D. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Gasothanol ANSWER D
D. Gasethanol
121. Presence of excess hydrogen ions
ANSWER A
makes the water
113. Process used commercially in
coal liquefaction A. Acidic
A. Tropsch process B. Alkalinity
B. Fisher process C. Base
C. Fisher-Tropsch process D. Hydroxicity
D. Mitch-Tropsch process ANSWER A
ANSWER C
122. PH of water varies with
114. Is an organic matter produced by
A. Pressure
plants in both land and water
B. Temperature
A. Bio-ethanol
C. Density
B. Biomass
D. Volume
C. Petroleum
ANSWER B
D. Biodegradable
ANSWER B 123. Ph value of is usually
maintained for boiler water to
115. In thermal power plant, induced
minimized corrosion
draft fans are located at the
A. 8.5
A. Exit of furnace
B. 9.5
B. Foot if the stack
C. 10.5
C. Above the stock
D. 11.5
D. Top of the stock
ANSWER C
ANSWER B
124. What type of turbine that has a
116. In thermal power plant, forced
draft fans are installed at the 1
degree of reaction of ?
A. Foot of the stack 4
B. Top of the stack A. Impulsive turbine
C. Exit of the preheater B. Reaction turbine
D. Inlet of the preheater C. Rarsons turbine
ANSWER D D. Deriaz turbine
ANSWER C
117. Known as drum less boiler
125. The cooling water is made to
A. La Mont boilers
fall in series of baffles to expose
B. Fire tube boiler
large surface area for steam fed from
C. Forced circulation boiler
below to come in direct contact
D. Once-through boiler
A. Spray condenser
ANSWER D
B. Surface condenser
118. Reduces the steam temperature by C. Jet condenser
spraying low temperature water from D. Barometric condenser
boiler drum ANSWER D
A. Reheater
126. Show the variation of river flow
B. Preheater
(discharge) with time
C. Desuperheater
A. Hydrograph
D. Superheater
B. Hyetograph
ANSWER C
C. Mass curve
119. Carbon dioxide can be removed D. Flow duration curve
ANSWER A
by:
127. Is an open channel erected on
A. Deaeration
surface above the ground
B. Aeration
A. Canal
C. Evaporation
B. Tunnel
D. Vaporization
C. Penstock
ANSWER B
D. Flume
120 Is often used to absorb silica ANSWER D
from water 128. Type of turbine used up to 300 m
head
 A. Impulsive turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. Propeller turbine
D. Deriaz turbine
ANSWER D
129. A turbine that has a diagonal
flow
A. Impulsive turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. Propeller turbine
D. Deriaz turbine
ANSWER D
130. Oil is optimized either by air
blast or pressure jet at about
A. 60 bar
B. 70 bar
C. 80 bar
D. 90 bar
ANSWER B
131. Type of solid injection that use
single pump supplies fuel under high
pressure to a fuel header
A. Common rail injection
B. Individual pump injection
system
C. Distributor system
D. Single rail injection
ANSWER A
132. Water flow in diesel engine that
is caused by density differential
A. Thermosiphon cooling
B. Thermostat cooling
C. Pressurized water cooling
D. Evaporating cooling
ANSWER A
133. Type of lubrication system in
diesel engine in which oil from pump
is carried to a separate storage tank
outside the engine cylinder and used
for high capacity engine.
A. Mist lubrication system
B. Wet pump lubrication system
C. Splash system
D. Dry sump lubrication system
ANSWER D
134. Produces extreme pressure
differentials and violent gas
vibration
A. Vibration
B. Detonation
C. Explosion
D. Knocking
ANSWER B
135. In a spark ignition engine, the
detonation occurs near the
A. End of combustion
B. Middle of combustion
C. Beginning of combustion
D. Beginning of interaction
ANSWER A
136. In a compression ignition
engine, the detonation occurs near
the
A. End of combustion
B. Middle of combustion
C. Beginning of combustion
D. Beginning of interation
ANSWER C
137. Morse test is used to measure
the of multi-cylinder engine
A. Brake power
B. Indicated power
C. Friction power
D. Motor power
ANSWER B
138. Ignition delay can be minimized
by adding to decrease engine knocking
A. Ethel ether
B. Ethyl chloride
C. Ethyl nitrate
D. Ethyl oxide
ANSWER C
139. For the submerged plane surface,
the point on the surface where the
resultant force acts is called the
A. Center of buoyancy
B. Center of gravity
C. Center of pressure
D. Center of attraction
ANSWER C
140. At any point in fluid at rest,
the pressure is the same in all
direction. This principle is known
as:
A. Bernoulli Principle
B. Archimedes Principle
C. Pascal’s Law
D. Torricelli’s Law
ANSWER C
141. The hot-wire manometer is used
to measure
A. Pressure in gases
B. Pressure in liquids
C. Wind velocities at airports
D. Gas velocities
ANSWER D
142. The pitot static tube measures
A. The static pressure
B. The gage pressure
C. The total pressure
D. The dynamic pressure
ANSWER A
143. The terminal velocity of a small
sphere setting in a viscous fluid
varies as the
A. First power of its diameter
B. Inverse of fluid viscosity
C. Inverse square of the diameter
D. Inverse of the diameter
ANSWER B
144. Pressure drag results from
A. Skin friction
B. Deformation drag
C. Breakdown of potential flow
near the forward stagnation
point
D. Occurrence of wake
ANSWER A
145. The pressure coefficient is the
ratio of pressure forces to
A. Viscous forces
B. Inertia forces
C. Gravity forces
D. Surface tension force
ANSWER B
146. Tranquil flow must always occur
A. Above the normal depth
B. Above the critical depth
C. Below the normal depth
D. Below the critical depth
ANSWER B
147. Which of the following head loss
coefficient among the following types
of entrance?
A. Bell mouth
B. Square edge
C. Reentrant
D. It depends
ANSWER C
148. What waste water treatment
method involves of algae from
stabilization pond effluents?
A. Sedimentation
B. Floatation
C. Filtration
D. Microscreening
ANSWER D
150. The number of nozzles will
depend on the quantity of steam
required by the turbine. If nozzle
occupy the entire arc of the ring,
the turbine is said to have
A. Partially full peripheral
admission
B. One-half full peripheral
admission
C. Maximum peripheral admission
D. Full peripheral admission
ANSWER D
151. Tandem compound units may also
have two low pressure castings that
produces
A. Single flow
B. Double flow
C. Triple flow
D. Quadruple flow
ANSWER C
152. A type of turbine used for
driving pumps, fans, and other
auxiliaries in power plant commonly
operate at exhaust pressure
approximating atmospheric
A. Tandem compound turbine
B. Passout turbine
C. Cross-compound turbine
D. Back pressure turbine
ANSWER D
153. A governor with 0% regulation is
termed as:
A. Isochronous governor
B. Synchronous governor
C. Isenchronous governor
D. Isobarnous governor
ANSWER A
154. The speed of regulation for most
turbine-generators is adjustable from
A. 2 to 6%
B. 4 to 8%
C. 6 to 10 %
D. 8 to 12%
ANSWER A
155. Poppet valves of steam turbine
are used for extraction pressures of
A. 20 to 120 psig
B. 20 to 150 psig
C. 20 to 130 psig
D. 20 to 140 psig
ANSWER B
156. When both bearings of steam
engine are on one side of the
connecting rod, the engine is
referred to as
A. Center-crank engine
B. Side crank engine
C. Under crank engine
D. Standard crank engine
ANSWER B
157. When the valve in steam engine
is in mid-position of its travel, it
will cover the steam port by an
amount known as
 A. Steam lap ANSWER D
B. Partial lap
C. Full lap 164. Which dam is best for weak
foundation?
D. Angular lap
A. Gravity
ANSWER A
B. Arch
158. A type of governor in steam C. Buttress
engine that do not control the actual D. Earth
admission of steam to the cylinder ANSWER C
but controls the pressure of the
steam 165. What is the volume of water
A. Flyball governor which will drain freely the aquifer?
B. Variable cut-off governor A. Specific yield
C. Throttling governor B. Reservoir yield
D. Shaft governor C. Safe yield
ANSWER C D. Secondary yield
ANSWER A
159. By inter-cooling using two stage
compressor of brayton cycle, the 166. What is the line defined by
backward ratio will water level in a group of artesian
A. Increase walls?
B. Decrease A. Water table
C. Remains the same B. Peizometric surface
D. None of these C. Specific yield
ANSWER B D. All of the above
ANSWER B
160. On dynamic similitude, the
relation which represents the ratio 167. Select the one that is positive
of inertia force to pressure force is indication of pollution of a river
A. Froude number A. Acidity
B. Cauchy number B. Oxygen content
C. Euler number C. Chloride content
D. Raynolds number D. Nitrite content
ANSWER C ANSWER C

161. What is the maximum velocity in 168. Which instruments is used to

a sewer flowing full? measure humidity of the atmosphere
A. 0.6 m/sec continuously?
B. 0.9 m/sec A. Barograph
C. 1.2 m/sec B. Thermograph
D. 1.8 m/sec C. Hydrograph
ANSWER A D. Thermo-hydrograph
ANSWER C
162. A temporary structure
constructed to exclude water from the 169. Entrance losses between tanks
site of the foundation during its and pipe or losses through elbows,
excavation and construction is fittings and valves are generally
called: expresses as a function of
A. Caisson A. Kinetic energy
B. Retaining wall B. Pipe diameter
C. Coffer dam C. Friction factor
D. Earth dam D. Volume flow rate
ANSWER C ANSWER A

163. Which is not a physical 170. The air that contains no water
characteristics of water? vapor is called
A. Total suspended and dissolved A. Zero air
solids B. Saturated air
B. Turbidity C. Dry air
C. Color D. Humid air
D. Hardness ANSWER C
 178. Passing from the solid phase
171. In psychometric chart, the directly into vapor phase is called
constant enthalpy lines coincide with A. Condensation
constant temperature lines at B. Fusion
temperature C. Sublimation
A. Above 50°C
D. None of these
B. Below 40°C
ANSWER C
C. Below 50°C
D. Above 10°C 179. Robert Boyle observed during his
ANSWER C experiments with a vacuum chamber
that the pressure of gases is
172. The amount of moisture in air inversely proportional to their
depends on its A. Temperature
A. Pressure B. Pressure
B. Volume C. Volume
C. Temperature D. None of these
D. Humidity ANSWER C
ANSWER C
180. Is energy in transition
173. The deep body temperature of A. Heat
healthy person is maintained constant B. Work
at
C. Power
A. 27°C
D. None of these
B. 37°C
ANSWER A
C. 47°C
D. 48°C 181. Is the mode of energy transfer
ANSWER B between solid surface and the
adjacent liquid or gas which is in
174. Air motion also plays important motion, and it involves combine
role in effects of conduction and fluid
A. Surroundings motion
B. Cooling A. Conduction
C. Human comfort B. Convection
D. None of these C. Radiation
ANSWER C D. None of these
ANSWER B
175. During simple heating and
cooling process has a humidity ratio 182. Radiation is usually considered
A. Increasing as
B. Decreasing A. Surface phenomenon
C. Constant B. Surface interaction
D. None of these C. Surface corrosion
ANSWER C D. None of these
ANSWER A
176. The ____ follows a line of
constant wet bulb temperature on the 183. Work is ____ between the system
psychometric chart and the surroundings
A. Evaporative cooling process A. Work interaction
B. Condensing process B. Energy interaction
C. Direct cooling process C. Heat interaction
D. None of these D. None of these
ANSWER A ANSWER B

177. A vapor which is not about to
condense is called a
A. Mixture of vapor and liquid
B. Critical vapor
C. Superheated vapor
D. None of these
ANSWER C
184. Is a process during which the
system remains in equilibrium at all
times
A. Quasi-equilibrium
B. Static equilibrium
C. Dynamic equilibrium
D. None of these
ANSWER A ANSWER B

185. In the absence of any work 192. Which of the following is the
interactions between a system and its chemical formula of Heptane?
surroundings, the amount of net heat A. C7H16
transfer is equal B. C2H6O
A. To the change in total energy C. C7H8
of a closed system D. C6H12
B. To heat and work ANSWER D
C. Energy interactions
D. None of these 193. Which of the following is the
ANSWER A chemical formula of Toluene?
A. C7H16
186. The constant volume and constant B. C2H6O
pressure specific heats are identical C. C7H8
for D. C6H12
A. Compressible substance
ANSWER C
B. Incompressible substance
C. Compressible gas 194. As the air passes through a
D. None of these nozzle, which of the following will
ANSWER B increase?
A. Temperature
187. The velocity of fluid is zero at B. Enthalpy
the wall and maximum at the center C. Internal energy
because of the D. Mach number
A. Velocity effect
ANSWER D
B. Viscous effect
C. Temperature effect 195. As the air passes through a
D. None of these diffuser, which of the following will
ANSWER B decrease?
A. Temperature
188. For steady flow devices, the B. Enthalpy
volume of the control volume is C. Internal energy
A. Increase D. Mach number
B. Decrease ANSWER D
C. Constant
D. None of these 196. As the air passes through a
ANSWER C nozzle, which of the following will
decrease?
189. The work done in a turbine is A. Entropy
_____ since it is done by the fluid B. Velocity
A. Positive C. Internal energy
B. Negative D. Mach number
C. Zero ANSWER C
D. None of these
ANSWER A 197. As the air passes through a
diffuser, which of the following will
190. Reheating process in Brayton increase?
cycle, the turbine work will A. Density
A. Increase B. Entropy
B. Decrease C. Mach number
C. Remains the same D. Velocity
D. None of these ANSWER A
ANSWER A
198. As the air passes through a
191. Which of the following is the diffuser, which of the following will
chemical formula of ethanol NOT be affected?
A. C7H16 ANSWER B
B. C2H6O
C. C7H8
D. C6H12
199. After passing through a C. Remains the same
convergent-divergent nozzle, the D. None of these
temperature of air will: ANSWER B
A. Increase
B. Decrease 202. By increasing the temperature
C. Remains the same source of Carnot cycle, which of the
D. None of these following will not be affected?
ANSWER B A. Efficiency
B. Work
200. After passing through a C. Heat added
convergent-divergent nozzle, the D. Heat rejected
density of air will: ANSWER D
A. Increase
B. Decrease 203. By decreasing the temperature
C. Remains the same source of Carnot cycle, which of the
D. None of these following will not be affected?
ANSWER B A. Efficiency
B. Work
201. After passing through a C. Heat added
convergent-divergent nozzle, the D. Heat rejected
match number of air will: ANSWER C
A. Increase
B. Decrease
204. BY SUPERHEATING the refrigerant B. COP
in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE WITH C. Compressor power
USEFUL COOLING, which of the D. Mass flow rate
following will INCREASE? (Use per
ANSWER C
unit mass analysis)
A. Condenser pressure
208. BY SUPERHEATING the refrigerant
B. Evaporator pressure in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE WITHOUT
C. Quality after expansion USEFUL COOLING, which of the
D. Heat rejected from condenser following WILL NOT BE AFFECTED? (Use
ANSWER D per unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerant effect
205. BY SUPERHEATING the refrigerant B. COP
in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE WITH C. Compressor power
USEFUL COOLING, which of the D. Mass flow rate
following will DECREASE? (Use per
ANSWER C
unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerant effect
209. BY SUB-COOLING the refrigerant
B. COP in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE AT
C. Compressor power CONDENSER EXIT, which of the
D. Mass flow rate following will INCREASE? (Use per
ANSWER D unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerating effect
206. BY SUPERHEATING the refrigerant B. Specific volume at suction
in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE WITHOUT C. Compressor power
USEFUL COOLING, which of the D. Mass flow rate
following will DECREASE? (Use per
ANSWER A
unit mass analysis)
A. Heat rejected
210. BY SUB-COOLING the refrigerant
B. COP in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE AT
C. Compressor power CONDENSER EXIT, which of the
D. Specific volume at suction following will DECREASE (Use per unit
ANSWER B mass analysis)

207. BY SUPERHEATING the refrigerant A. Coefficient of performance

in VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE WITHOUT
USEFUL COOLING, which of the
following will INCREASE? (Use per
unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerant effect
B. Heat rejected from condenser
C. Refrigerating effect
D. Mass flow rate
ANSWER: D
211. BY INCREASING the vaporizing
temperature in vapor compression
cycle, which the following will
INCREASE? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
A. mass flow rate
B. COP
C. specific volume
D. compressor work
ANSWER: B
212. BY INCREASING the VAPORIZING
TEMPERATURE in vapor compression
cycle, which the following will
DECREASE? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
A. Refrigerating effect
B. COP
C. evaporator temperature
D. temperature difference between
evaporator and compressor
ANSWER: D
213. BY INCREASING the CONDENSER
PRESSURE in vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will INCREASE?
(Use per unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerating effect
B. COP
216. IF THE PRESSURE DROP IN THE CONDENSER INCREASES IN A VAPOR COMPRESSION
CYCLE, which of the following will DECREASE? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerating effect
B. mass flow rate
C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. Compressor power
ANSWER: B
C. Specific volume at suction
D. Compressor power
ANSWER: D
214. BY INCREASING the CONDENSER
PRESSURE in vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will DECREASE?
(Use per unit mass analysis)
A. moisture content after
expansion
B. compressor power
C. heat rejected in the condense
D. mass flow rate
ANSWER: A
215. If the PRESSURE DROP IN THE
CONDENSER INCREASES in a vapor
compression cycle, which of the
following will INCREASE? (Use per
unit mass analysis)
A. mass flow rate
B. compressor power
C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. specific volume at suction
ANSWER:

217. If the PRESSURE DROP IN THE CONDENSER INCREASES in a vapor compression

cycle, which of the following will NOT BE AFFECTED? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. compressor power
B. mass flow rate
C. heat rejected in the condense
D. COP
ANSWER: A

218. If the PRESSURE DROP IN THE EVAPORATOR INCREASES in a vapor compression

cycle, which of the following will INCREASE? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerating effect
B. vaporizing temperature
C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. COP
ANSWER: C

219. If the PRESSURE DROP IN THE EVAPORATOR INCREASES in a vapor compression

cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. specific volume at suction B. compressor power
C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. COP
ANSWER: D

220. BY LOWERING THE CONDENSER PRESSURE IN RANKINE CYCLE, which of the following
will DECREASE? (Use per unit analysis)
A. Pump work
 B. turbine work
C. heat rejected
D. cycle efficiency
ANSWER: C

221. BY INCREASING THE BOILER PRESSURE IN RANKINE CYCLE, which of the following
will DECREASE? (Use per unit analysis)
A. Heat rejected
B. pump work
C. cycle efficiency
D. moisture content
ANSWER: A
222. BY SUPERHEATING THE STEAM TO A HIGHER TEMPERATURE IN RANKINE CYCLE, which
of the following will DECREASE? (Use per unit analysis)
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust
B. turbine work
C. heat added
D. heat rejected
ANSWER: A

223. BY SUPERHEATING THE STEAM TO A HIGHER TEMPERATURE IN RANKINE CYCLE, which

of the following will INCREASE? (Use per unit analysis)
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust
B. pump work
C. condenser pressure
D. cycle efficiency
ANSWER: D

228. Regenerative with feed heating

224. BY REHEATING THE STEAM BEFORE cycle with infinite number of feed
ENTERING THE SECOND STAGE IN RANKINE water heaters thus efficiency is equal
CYCLE, which of the following will to?
DECREASE? A. otto cycle
A. Turbine work B. stirling cycle
B. moisture content after C. erricson cycle
expansion D. carnot cycle
C. heat added ANSWER: D
D. heat rejected
ANSWER: B 229. A type of turbine used in
desalination of sea water.
225. What Rankine cycle is modified A. back pressure turbine
with regeneration, which of the B. passout turbine
following will increase? C. peaking turbine
A. turbine work D. reaction turbine
B. heat added ANSWER: A
C. heat rejected
D. cycle efficiency 230. State that when conductor and
ANSWER: magnetic field move relatively to each
other, an electric voltage is induced
226. Is the combination of base load in the conductor.
and peaking load? A. Maxwell’s law
A. rated load B. Kirchhoff’s law
B. intermediate load C. Faraday’s law
C. combine load D. Newton’s law
D. over-all load ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B
231. Transfers heat directly to
227. Sum of the maximum demand over electrical energy by utilizing
the simultaneous maximum demand? thermionic emissions.
A. use factor A. thermionic motor
B. capacity factor B. thermionic generator
C. demand factor C. thermionic converter
D. diversity factor D. thermionic cell
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
 D. 110
232. Is the largest group of coal ANSWER: C
containing 46-89% of fixed carbon and
20% to 40% volatile matter. 239. Major constituent of all natural
A. anthracite gases is:
B. sub-anthracite A. ethane
C. bituminous B. methane
D. sub-bituminous C. propane
ANSWER: C D. cetane
ANSWER: B
233. When 1 gram of coal is subjected
to a temperature of about 105C for a 240. Two types of fans are:
period of 1 hour, the loss in weight A. centrifugal and axial
of the sample gives the: B. reciprocating and axial
A. Volatile matter C. centrifugal and rotary
B. ash D. tangential and rotary
C. fixed carbon ANSWER: A
D. moisture content
241. Enthalpy of substance at
ANSWER: D specified state due to chemical
composition.
234. When 1 gram of sample of coal is A. Enthalpy of reaction
placed in a crucible and heated 950C B. enthalpy of combustion
and maintain at the temperature for 7 C. enthalpy of formation
minutes there is a loss in weight due D. enthalpy of product
to elimination of: ANSWER: C
A. volatile matter and moisture
B. ash 242. A type of boiler used for super
C. fixed carbon critical pressure operation.
D. moisture content A. La Mont boiler
ANSWER: A B. Once- through-circulation
boiler
235. Consist of hydrogen and certain C. Force circulation boiler
hydrogen carbon compounds which can be D. Natural circulation boiler
removed from coal by heating. ANSWER: B
A. moisture content
B. product of combustion 243. Economizer in a water tube boiler
C. ash is heated by:
D. volatile matter A. electric furnace
ANSWER: D B. electric current
C. incoming flue gas
236. By heating 1 gram of coal in an D. outgoing flue gas
uncovered crucible until the coal is ANSWER: D
completely burned, the ____ will
formed. 244. Receives heat partly by
A. volatile matter and moisture convection and partly by radiation.
B. ash A. radiant superheater
C. fixed carbon B. desuperheater
D. moisture content C. convective superheater
ANSWER: B D. pendant superheater
ANSWER: D
237. Caking coal are used to produce
coke by heating in a coke oven in the 245. Regenerative superheater is a
absence of ____ with volatile matter storage type of heat exchangers have
driven off. an energy storage medium called:
A. air A. matrix
B. oil B. regenerator
C. oxygen C. boiler
D. nitrogen D. recuperator
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A
238. Grindability of standard coal is: 246. Stirling cycle uses a ____ as
A. 80 working fluids.
B. 90 A. incompressible gas
C. 100 B. incompressible fluids
 C. compressible refrigerant
D. compressible fluids
ANSWER: D
247. In stirling process the heat
added is added during?
A. isobaric process
B. isentropic process
C. isothermal process
D. heat process
ANSWER: C
248. Brayton cycle is also known as:
A. carnot cycle
B. joule cycle
C. diesel cycle
D. rankine cycle
ANSWER: B
249. Is applied to propulsion of
vehicles because of certain practical
characteristics.
A. diesel cycle
B. otto cycle
C. carnot cycle
D. brayton cycle
ANSWER: D
250. Heat exchangers typically involve
A. no work interactions
B. no heat interactions
C. no energy interactions
D. none of these
ANSWER: A
251. A device that is used to convert
the heat to work is called
A. adiabatier
B. regenerator
C. heat engines
D. none of these
ANSWER: C
252. The objective of a heat pump is
to maintain a heated space at
A. Low temperature
B. high temperature
C. medium temperature
D. none of these
ANSWER: B
253. A device that violates the second
law of thermodynamics is called
A. perpetual motion machine of
second kind
B. perpetual motion machine of
third kind
C. perpetual motion machine of
first kind
D. none of these
ANSWER: A
254. A process is called ____ if no
irreversibility’s occur outside the
system boundaries during the process.
A. externally reversible
B. internally reversible
C. reversible
D. none of these
ANSWER: A
255. An energy interaction which is
not accompanied by entropy transfer is
A. energy
B. heat
C. work
D. none of these
ANSWER: C
256. A ____ is used in aircraft
engines and some automotive engine. In
this method, a turbine driven by the
exhaust gases is used to provide power
to compressor or blower at the inlet.
A. discharging
B. turbo charging
C. supercharging
D. scavenging
ANSWER: B
257. The only devices where the
changes in kinetic energy are
significant are the
A. compressor
B. pumps
C. nozzles and diffusers
D. none of these
ANSWER: C
258. The distance between TDC and BDC
in which the piston can travel is the
A. Right extreme position
B. displacement stroke
C. stroke of the engine
D. swept stroke
ANSWER: C
259. In compression-engine, the
combustion of air-fuel mixture is
self-fuel ignited as a result of
compressing the mixture above its
A. self developed temperature
B. mixing temperature
C. self feed temperature
D. self ignition temperature
ANSWER: D
260. The thermal efficiency of an
ideal Otto cycle depends ____ of the
working fluid.
A. the pressure ratio of the
engine and the specific heat
ratio
B. the temperature ratio of the
engine and the specific heat
ratio
C. the moles ratio of the engine
and the specific heat ratio
 D. the compression ratio of the produces work by the rotating shaft.
engine and the specific heat The ____ may drop during the process.
ratio A. density
B. viscosity of fuel
ANSWER: D
C. temperature and pressure
D. none of these
261. As the number of stages is
ANSWER: C
increased, the expansion process
becomes
268. Only ____ of the turbine work
A. isentropic
output is required to operate the
B. isothermal
pump.
C. isometric
A. 0.01%
D. polytropic
B. 0.02%
ANSWER: B
C. 0.03%
D. 0.04%
262. Aircraft gas turbines operate at
ANSWER: D
higher pressure ratio typically
between
269. Superheating the steam to higher
A. 6 to 8
temperatures decreases the moisture
B. 12 to 24
content of the steam at the ____.
C. 10 to 18
A. turbine inlet
D. 10 to 25
B. compressor inlet
ANSWER: D
C. compressor exit
D. turbine exit
263. The first commercial high-pass
ANSWER: D
ratio engines has a bypass ratio of
A. 1
270. Regeneration also provides a
B. 3
convenient of dearating the feedwater
C. 5
to prevent?
D. 7
A. boiler explosion
ANSWER: C
B. boiler scale production
C. boiler corrosion
264. The single-stage expansion
D. compressor damage
process of an ideal Brayton cycle
ANSWER: C
without regeneration is replaced by a
multistage expansion process with
271. Can be apply steam turbine
reheating the same pressure limits. As
cycle(rankine). Gas turbine
a result of modification, thermal
cycle(brayton) and combined cycle.
efficiency will:
A. hydroelectric plant
A. increase
B. nuclear power plant
B. decrease
C. cogeneration plant
C. remain constant
D. tidal power plant
D. none of these
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B
272. In a rankine cycle with fixed
265. Which of the following is/are the
turbine inlet conditions. What is the
application of Brayton cycle.
effect of lowering the condenser
A. propulsion system
pressure, the heat rejected will:
B. automotive turbine engine
A. increase
C. aircraft turbine engine
B. decrease
D. all of these
C. remains the same
ANSWER: D
D. none of these
ANSWER: B
266. It is used as working fluid in
high-temperature applications of vapor
273. In an ideal rankine cycle with
cycles.
fixed boiler and condenser pressure.
A. helium
What will be the effect of
B. deuterium
superheating the steam to a higher
C. mercury
temperature, the pump work input will.
D. water
A. increase
ANSWER: C
B. decrease
C. remain the same
267. The superheated vapor enters the
D. none of these
turbine and expands isentropically and
ANSWER: C
274. The fact that total energy in any
one energy system remains constant is
called the principle of ____?
A. conversion of energy
B. second law of thermodynamics
C. conservation of mass
D. zeroth law of thermodynamics
ANSWER: A
275. A process for which the inlet and
outlet enthalphies are the same
A. isntropic
B. enthalphy conservation
C. throttling
D. steady state
ANSWER: C
276. The sum of energies of all the
molecules in system, energies that in
several complex forms.
A. kinetic energy
B. internal energy
C. external energy
D. flow work
ANSWER: B
277. A system that is completely
impervious to its surrounding. Neither
mass nor energy cross its boundaries.
A. Open system
B. closed system
C. adiabatic system
D. isolated system
ANSWER: D
278. A device used to measure small
and moderate pressure difference.
A. manometer
B. bourdon gage
C. barometer
D. piezometer
ANSWER: A
279. A vapor having a temperature
higher that the saturation temperature
corresponding to its pressure.
A. superheated pressure
B. saturated vapor
C. super saturated vapor
D. subcooled vapor
ANSWER: A
280. The energy or stored capacity for
performing work possessed by a moving
body, by virtue of its momentum.
A. internal energy
B. work
C. gravitational potential
energy D. kinetic energy
ANSWER: D
281. A thermodynamic process wherein
temperature is constant and the change
in internal energy is zero.
A. isobaric process
B. isometric process
C. isothermal process
D. polytropic process
ANSWER: C
282. The science terminology concerned
with precisely measuring energy and
enthalpy
A. thermodynamics
B. chemistry
C. calorimetry
D. none of these
ANSWER: C
283. The rate of doing work per unit
time
A. torque
B. power
C. force
D. moment
ANSWER: B
284. A vapor having a temperature
higher than the saturation temperature
corresponding to the existing
pressure.
A. superheated vapor
B. saturated vapor
C. wet vapor
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
285. It is the work done in pushing a
fluid across a boundary, usually or
out of a system.
A. mechanical work
B. nonflow work
C. flow work
D. electrical work
ANSWER: C
286. A liquid that has a temperature
lower that the saturation temperature
corresponding to the existing
pressure.
A. subcooled liquid
B. saturated liquid
C. unsaturated liquid
D. water
ANSWER: A
287. In this type of boiler, the water
passes through the tubes while the
flue gases burn outside the tubes.
A. water-tube boiler
B. fire-tube boiler
C. steam generator
D. electric boiler
ANSWER: A
288. It shows the water level in the
boiler drum.
A. water column
B. try cocks
C. gauge glass
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C Answer: C

289. It prevents damage to the boiler 296. An underground formation that

by giving warning of low water. contains sufficient saturated permeable
A. safety valve material to yield significant
B. fusible plug quantities of water.
C. relief valve A. Aquifer
D. try cocks B. Ground water
ANSWER: B C. Wet pit
D. Well water
290. It is heat exchanger which
utilizes the heat of the flue gases to
Answer: A
preheat air needed for combustion.
A. economizer
297. A timber, concrete or masonry
B. feedwater heater
enclosure having a screened inlet kept
C. reheater
partially filled with water by an open
D. air preheater
body of water such as pond, lake, or
ANSWER: D
steams.
A. Aquifer
291. It is the subject that deals with
the behavior of moist air. B. Ground water
A. psychrometer C. Wet pit
B. psychometry D. Well water
C. refrigeration
D. pneumatics Answer: C
ANSWER: B
298. Water which is available from
292. Air whose condition is such that well, driven into water bearing
any decreases in temperature will subsurface strata (aquifer)
result in condensation of water vapor A. Aquifer
into liquid. B. Ground water
A. saturated air C. Wet pit
B. unsaturated air D. Well water
C. saturated vapor
D. moist air Answer: B
ANSWER: A
299. Imparts velocity to the liquid,
293. It is the warm water temperature resulting from centrifugal force as the
minus the cold water temperature impeller is rotated.
leaving the cooling tower A. Impeller
A. approach
B. terminal difference B. Stuffing box
C. cooling range C. Casing
D. LMTD D. Shaft sleeve
ANSWER: C
Answer: A
294. The surrounding air ____
temperature is the lowest temperature 300. A means of throttling the leakage
to which water could possibly cooled which would otherwise occur at the
in a cooling tower. point of entry of the shaft into the
A. dry-bulb casing.
B. wet-bulb A. Impeller
C. dew-point B. Stuffing box
D. saturated temperature C. Casing
ANSWER: B D. Shaft sleeve
295. A vertical turbine pump with the Answer: B
jump and motor closed coupled and 301. Protect the shaft where it passes
design to be installed underground, as through the stuffing box.
in the case of a deepwell pump. A. Impeller
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. Stuffing box
B. Booster pump
C. Casing
C. Submersible pump
D. Shaft sleeve
D. Vertical shaft turbines pump
Answer: D B. Decreases
C. Varies
302. The ratio of the actual vapor D. Constant
density to the vapor density at
saturation Answer: B
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity 309. The ratio of the mass of water
C. Humidity ratio vapor in the air per unit mass of dry
D. Saturation ratio to the mass of water vapor requires for
saturation of the same air sample
Answer: A A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
303. An expression of the mass of water C. Humidity ratio
vapor per unit mass of dry air D. Saturation ratio
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity Answer: D
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio 310. A closed channel excavated through
an obstruction such as a ridge of
Answer: C higher land between the dam and the
powerhouse is called
304. Which of the following is A. Canal
equivalent to 1lb? B. Headrace
A. 5000 grains C. Penstock
B. 6000 grains D. Tunnel
C. 7000 grains
D. 8000 grains Answer: D

Answer: C 311. The small reservoir in which the

water level rises or falls to reduce
305. The bypass factor for large the pressure swings so that they are
commercial units not transmitted to the closed conduit
A. Around 20% is called
B. Around 30% A. Penstock
C. Around 10% B. Power reservoir
D. Around 50% C. Pressure tank
D. Tunnel
Answer: C
Answer: D
306. Sometimes called specific humidity
A. Relative humidity 312. The regulation of the water in the
B. Absolute humidity form of a relatively small pond of
reservoir provided at the plant is
C. Humidity ratio
called
D. Saturation ratio A. Pondage
B. Water storage
Answer: C
C. Reservoir
307. For any given barometric pressure, D. Lake
the humidity ratio is a function of the
A. Critical temperature Answer: A
B. Dew point temperature
313. A structure used to relieve the
C. Dry bulb temperature
reservoir of excess water
D. Wet bulb temperature A. Spillway
B. Diversion channel
Answer: B
C. Butress dam
308. The humidity ratio corresponding D. Arch dam
to any given dew point temperature
varies with the total barometric Answer: A
pressure, increasing as the barometric
pressure
A. Increases
314. The fluid pressure difference 320. The minimum fluid energy required
created by column of heated gas, as by at the pump inlet for satisfactory
chimney is called operation is known as
A. Natural draft A. NPSHR
B. Forced draft B. NPSHA
C. Induce draft C. Velocity head
D. Required draft D. Friction head

Answer: A
Answer: A
315. The pressure rise from greater to
a lesser vacuum, created in a gas loop 321. Throttling the input line to a
between stream generator outlet and pump and venting or evacuating the
chimney by means of a fan is called receiving tank
A. Forced draft A. Both increase cavitation
B. Induced draft B. Both decrease cavitation
C. Required draft C. Both eliminate cavitation
D. Balanced draft D. Both drive cavitation

Answer: B Answer: A

316. Also known as Francis turbines or 322. Traditional reciprocating pumps

radial flow turbines with pistons and rods can be either
A. Impulse turbines single-acting or double acting and are
B. Tangential turbines suitable up to approximately
C. Reaction turbines A. 2000 psi
D. Axial flow turbines B. 4000 psi
C. 8000 psi
Answer: C D. 10,000 psi

317. The turbine, draft tube and all Answer: A

related parts comprise what is known as
A. Powerhouse 323. In a sensible heating process the
B. Forbay final humidity ratio is:
C. Setting a. Increased
D. Surge chamber b. Decreased
c. The same
Answer: C d. Cannot be determined

318. When a forbay is not part of the Answer: C

generating plant’s design, it will be
desirable to provide a _________ in 324. In an adiabatic saturation process
order to relieve the effects of rapid the final relative humidity is:
changes in flowrate. A. Increased
A. Forbay B. Decreased
B. Draft tube C. The same
C. Surge chamber D. Cannot be determined
D. Penstock
Answer: A
Answer: C
325. Cooling and dehumidifying process
319. To keep the deflected jet out of is commonly used for:
the way of the incoming jet, the actual A. Summer air conditioning
angle is limited to approximately B. Ice making
A. 90 deg. C. Winter cooling
B. 135 deg. D. Heat pumping
C. 165 %
D. 175 deg.
Answer: A
Answer: C
326. An adiabatic saturation process is
also known as:
 A. Constant WB temperature process A. Carnot refrigeration cycle
B. Constant DB temperature process B. Absorption cycle
C. Constant DP temperature process C. Vapor and compression cycle
D. Constant vapor temperature D. Air refrigeration cycle
process
Answer: B
Answer: A
333. Which of the following
327. The process of simultaneous refrigeration cycle is practical when
heating and dehumidifying is known as: large quantities of waste or
A. Sensible heating inexpensive heat energy are available?
B. Cooling and dehumidifying A. Reciprocating compressors
C. Sensible cooling B. Centrifugal compressors
D. Chemical dehumidifying C. Rotary compressors
D. Scroll compressors
Answer: D
Answer: D
328. The process in increasing the dry-
bulb temperature without changing the
humidity ratio is known as: 334. Condensers used in small and
A. Sensible heating medium sized up to approximately 100
B. Cooling and dehumidifying tons refrigerators.
A. Air-cooled condensers
C. Sensible cooling
B. Water cooled condensers
D. Heating and dehumidifying
C. High side condensers
Answer: A D. Low side condensers

329. The process of simultaneous Answer: A

cooling and decreasing of humidity
ratio is known as: 335. For efficient operation, the
A. Sensible cooling condensing temperature should not be
B. Cooling and humidifying lower than
A. 5 C
C. Cooling and dehumidifying
B. 17 C
D. Heating and dehumidifying
C. 10 C
Answer: C D. 20 C

Answer: A
330. The process of cooling without
changing the humidity ratio is known 336. For efficient operation, the
as: condensing temperature should not be
A. Sensible heating more than
B. Cooling and dehumidifying A. 5 C
C. Sensible cooling B. 17 C
D. Heating and humidifying C. 10 C
D. 20 C
Answer: C
Answer: B
331. The process of simultaneous
heating and humidifying ratio is known 337. An evaporator in a refrigeration
as: unit makes use of which heat transfer
A. Sensible cooling modes?
B. Cooling and humidifying A. Conduction
C. Heating and humidifying B. Convection
D. Heating and dehumidifying C. Radiation
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Answer: D
332. Which of the following cycle is
bulky and involves toxic fluids hence 338. Energy added to a vapor is known
it is unsuitable for home and as a latent heat of vaporization
autocooling A. Latent heat of vaporization
 B. Sensible heat of vapor A. Brake value
C. Superheat B. Indicated value
D. B and C C. Friction value
D. Actual value
Answer: C
Answer: A
339. The vaporization process that
occurs at temperature below the triple 345. Forced draft fans are run at
point of a substance is called. relatively high speeds in the range of
A. Evaporation A. 1200 to 1800 rpm
B. Boiling B. 1500 to 2000 rpm
C. Sublimation C. 1000 to 1600 rpm
D. Condensation D. 900 to 1500 rpm

Answer: C Answer: A

340. As the pressure increases, the 346. Chimneys that rely on natural
amount of work it can do increases and draft are sometimes referred to as
its enthalpy A. Natural chimney
A. Increases B. Normal chimney
B. Remained the same C. Gravity chimney
C. Decreases D. Stack
D. Pressure and enthalpy has no
relation at all Answer: C

Answer: A 347. For realistic problems, the

achievable stack effect probably should
341. During the compression process, be considered to be
the internal energy of the refrigerant A. 75% of the ideal
vapor B. Equal to the ideal
A. Increases C. 80 % of the ideal
B. Decreases D. Half the ideal
C. Remain the same
D. Internal energy has no relation Answer: C
to the compression process
348. In a balanced system, the
Answer: A available draft is
A. Unity
342. The measure of the amount of B. 100
thermal energy transfer occurring C. Zero
within the evaporator per unit mass D. Infinite
under stated conditions.
A. Refrigeration capacity Answer: C
B. Heat capacity
C. Refrigeration effect 349. It is a device used for atomizing
D. Heat absorptivity or cracking fuel oil and through which
the fuel oil is injected into the
working cylinders of Diesel engines
Answer: C A. Atomizer
B. Injector
343. The peak power that can be C. Fuel spray nozzle
produced on an occasional basis D. Cracker
A. Brakepower
B. Intermittent rating Answer: A
C. Continous duty rating
D. Power rating 350. The device that transfer thermal
energy from one fluid to another
Answer: B A. Condenser
B. Feedwater
344. A value of a property that C. Evaporator
includes the effect of friction is D. Heat exchanger
known as:
Answer: D C. 80 to 85%
D. 90 to 95%
351. Undergrounds system of hot water
and / or steam Answer: B
A. Hydrothermal resource
B. Geothermal resource 358. Forced draft towers can cool the
C. Hot water resource water to within
D. High pressure water system A. 10 to12 F
Answer: A B. 5 to 6 F
C. 20 to 24 F
352. The process of returning spent D. 2.5 to 3 F
geothermal fluids to the subsurface Is
called Answer: B
A. Injection
B. Returning 359. The higher the wet bulb
C. Rejection temperatures
D. Exhaustion A. The higher the efficiency
Answer: A B. The lower the efficiency
C. The efficiency is limited
353. The simultaneous demand of all D. The efficiency is maximum
customers required at any specified
point in an electric power system is Answer: B
called
A. Demand 360. Define the relative difficulty in
B. Electrical demand cooling, essentially the relative
C. Power demand amount of contact area or fill volume
D. Load required
Answer: D
A. Heat load
354. The electricity generating plants
that are operated to meet the peak or B. Tower load
maximum load on the system are called C. Cooling duty
A. Peaking plants
D. Rating factor
B. High-load plants
Answer: D
C. High demanding plants
D. Add-on plants
361. Evaporation loss can be calculated
Answer: A from the humidity ratio increase and is
355. The capacity of a substance to approximately _________ decrease in
transmit a fluid is called water temperature
A. Fluidity A. 0.18% per C
B. Permeability B. 0.25% per C
C. Porosity
C. 0.10% per C
D. Smoothness
Answer: B D. 0.30% per C
Answer: A
356. The ratio of the aggregate volume
pore spaces in rock or soil to its 362. Water lost in small droplet and
total volume is called carried away by the air flow
A. Porosity A. Range
B. Sphericity
C. Permeability B. Approach
D. Salinity C. Drift
Answer: A D. Bleed-off
Answer: C
357. Cooling efficiency is typically
A. 75 to 80% 363. The ratio of total dissolved
B. 50 to 70% solids in the recirculating water to
the total dissolved solids in the make- B. 4000 psi
up water. C. 8000 psi
A. Ratio of concentration D. 10,000 psi
B. Cooling efficiency
C. Coil efficiency Answer: A
D. Bypass factor Plunger pumps are only single-acting
Answer: A and are suitable up to approximately
A. 2000 psi
364. A dry-cooling tower where steam B. 4000 psi
travels through large diameter “trunks” C. 8000 psi
to a cross-flow heat exchanger where it
is condensed and cooled by the cooler D. 10,000 psi
air Answer: D
A. Direct condensing tower
B. Indirect condensing dry cooling 369. The ratio of the actual to the
tower ideal heat transfer coefficient.
C. Evaporative cooling tower A. Fouling factor
D. Atmospheric cooling tower B. Sensible heat ratio
C. Cleanliness factor
Answer: A D. Biot number
Answer: C
365. The minimum fluid energy required
at the pump inlet for satisfactory
370. The ratio of the maximum to
operation is known as
minimum mass steam flow rates at which
the temperature can be accurately
A. NPSHR contained by the desuperheater.
B. NPSHA A. Cleanliness factor
C. Velocity head B. Capacity factor
D. Friction head C. Turndown ratio
Answer: A D. Fouling factor
Answer: C
366. The actual fluid energy at the
inlet 371. With a reversible regenerator, the
A. NPSHR thermal efficiency of the Ericsson
cycle is ______ to that of the Carnot
B. NPSHA cyle
C. Velocity head A. Less than
D. Friction head B. Greater than
Answer: B C. Proportional
D. Equal
367. Throttling the input line to a Answer: D
pump and venting or evacuating the
receiver tank
A. Both increase cavitation 372. The electron magnetic radiation
emitted from the daughter nucleus when
B. Both decrease cavitation an alpha particles leaves the patent
C. Both eliminate cavitation atom
D. Both drive cavitation A. Neutron
Answer: A B. Position
C. Gamma ray
368. Traditional reciprocating pumps D. K-capture
with pistons and rods can be either Answer: C
single-acting or double acting and are
suitable up to approximately
A. 2000 psi
373. Which of the following statement
is a scheme for energy storage?
A. Pumped hydro
B. Magnetic energy storage
C. Thermal energy storage
D. All of the above
Answer: D
374. A reactor that employs fast or
high energy neutrons and contains no
moderator is called
379. What are the main components in a
combined cycle power plant?
A. Diesel engine and air compressor
B. Steam boiler and turbine
C. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
Answer: C
380. The size of a steam reciprocating
pumps is generally designed by a three-
digits number size as 646. The first
digit designates

A. High energy reactor A. Stroke of the pump in inches

B. Inside diameter of the steam
B. Fast reactor cylinder measured in inches
C. High speed reactor C. Percent clearance
D. Number of cylinder
D. Turbo reactor
Answer: B
Answer: B

381. The power required to deliver a

375. A reactor that utilizes slow given quantity of fluid against a given
moving neutrons head with no losses in the pump is
called
A. Slow reactor A. Wheel power
B. Brake power
B. Intermediate reactor
C. Hydraulic power
C. Thermal reactor D. Indicated power
D. Slow speed reactor Answer: C
Answer: C
382. Fluid that are pumped in
processing work are frequently more
376. The water bearing stratum of viscous than water. Which of the
permeable san, rock, or gravel is following statement is correct?
called
A. Reservoir
A. Reynolds number varies directly
B. Water source as the viscosity
C. Aquifer B. Efficiency of a pump increases as
D. Well the viscosity increases
C. Increased fluid friction between
Answer: C the pump parts and the passing
fluid increases useful work
377. The electricity generating units D. Working head increases as the
that are operated to meet the constant viscosity
or minimum load on the system is called Answer: C
A. Constant load plants
B. Baseload plants 383. The law that states “Entropy of
C. Invariable load plants all perfect crystalline solids is zero
D. Steady load plants at absolute zero temperature”
Answer: B A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
378. The effectiveness of a body as a C. Second law of thermodynamics
thermal radiator at a given D. Third law of thermodynamics
temperature, Answer: D
A. Absorptivity
B. Conductivity 384. An expression of the mass of water
C. Emissivity vapor per unit mass of dry air
D. Reflectivity A. Relative humidity
Answer: C B. Absolute humidity
C. Humidity ratio
 D. Saturation ratio Answer: A
Answer: C
391. The sum of the energies of all the
385. Which of the following is molecules in a system where energies
equivalent to 1 lb? appear in several complex forms is the
A. 5000 grains A. Kinetic energy
B. 6000 grains B. Internal energy
C. 7000 grains C. Potential energy
D. 8000 grains D. Friction energy
Answer: C Answer: B

386. The locus of states that the same 392. The Carnot refrigeration cycle
value of stagnation enthalpy and mass includes all of the following process
flux is called. except
A. Fanno line A. Isentropic expansion
B. Reyleigh line B. Isenthalpic expansion
C. Willian’s line C. Isothermal expansion
D. Mollier’s line D. Isentropic compression
Answer: A Answer: B

387. Combining the conservation of mass 393. The maximum possible work that can
and momentum equations into a single be obtained a cycle operating between
equation and plotting it on the h-s two reservoirs is found from
diagram yield a curve called A. Process irreversibility
A. Fanno line B. Carnot efficiency
B. Reyleigh line C. Availability
C. Willian’s line D. Reversible work
D. Mollier’s line Answer: B
Answer: B
394. The following factors are
388. Across the shock, the stagnation necessary to define a thermodynamic
temperature of an ideal gas cycle expect
A. Increases A. The working substance
B. Decreases B. High and low temperature
C. Remains constant reservoirs
D. Proportional C. The time it takes to complete the
Answer: C cycle
D. The means of doing work on the
system
389. Which of the following types of Answer: C
air dryers works by absorbing moisture
on a solid dessicant or drying material
such as activated alumina, silicon gel 395. A temperature above which a given
or molecular sieve? gas cannot be liquefied
A. Regenerative dryer A. Cryogenic temperature
B. Spray dryer B. Absolute temperature
C. Deliquescent dryer C. Vaporization temperature
D. Refrigerated dryer D. Critical temperature
Answer: C Answer: D

390. When two bodies, isolated from
other environment, are in thermal
equilibrium with a third body, the two
are in thermal equilibrium with each
other.
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
396. The geometrical electricity
generating plants that employs a
closed-loop heat exchange system in
which the heat of the primary fluid is
transferred to a secondary fluid, which
is thereby vaporized and used to drive
a turbine generator set
A. Binary cycle plant
B. Dual cycle plant
 C. Double cycle plant
D. Cascade cycle 403. After the water passes through the
Answer: A turbine, it is discharges through the
draft tube to the receiving reservoir
397. The geothermal solution which known as the
contains appreciable amounts of sodium A. Tail race
chloride or other salts is called B. Tailwater
A. Sulfur dioxide C. Draft tube
B. Potassium silicate D. Setting
C. Sea water Answer: A
D. Brine
Answer: D 404. The turbine, draft tube and all
related parts comprise what is known as
398. The quantity of heat required to A. Powerhouse
raise the temperature of one pound of B. Forbay
water one degree Fahrenheit at standard C. Setting
conditions. D. Surge chamber
A. Btu Answer: C
B. Calorie
C. Joule 405. When a forbay is not part of the
D. Centigrade generating plant’s design, it will be
Answer: A desirable to provide a ________ in
order to relieve the effects of rapid
399. The process that uses a stream of changes in flowrate.
geothermal of hot water or stream to A. Forbay
perform successive task requiring temp B. Draft tube
is called C. Surge chamber
A. Diminishing heat D. Penstock
B. Decreasing heat Answer: C
C. Cascading heat
D. Negative gradient process 406. To keep the deflected jet out of
Answer: C the way of the incoming jet, the actual
angle is limited to approximately
400. The water formed by condensation A. 90 deg.
of steam is called B. 135deg.
A. Distilled water C. 165%
B. Condensate D. 175deg.
C. Dew Answer: C
D. Condenser
Answer: B 407. The spontaneous vaporization of
the fluid, resulting in a degradation
401. A structure that removes heat from of pump performance.
condensate is called A. Cavitation
A. Desuperheater B. Vapor lock
B. Cooling tower C. Available head
C. Evaporator D. Net head
D. Condenser Answer: A
Answer: B
408. A dry cooling tower where steam is
402. In a typical hydroelectric condensed by cold water jets (surface
generating plant using reaction or jet condenser)
turbines, the turbine is generally A. Direct condensing tower
housed in a B. Indirect condensing dry cooling
A. Powerhouse tower
B. Penstock C. Evaporative cooling tower
C. Forbay D. Atmospheric cooling tower
D. Setting Answer: B
Answer: A
409. If the heat is being removed from C. Critical steam
water, the device is known as D. Dry steam
A. Chiller Answer: D
B. Cooler
C. Air conditioner 415. The steam produced when the
D. Air cooler pressure on a geothermal liquid is
Answer: A reduced
A. Low pressure steam
410. Which of the following is the B. High quality steam
refrigerant “of choice” in uniting air C. Sub pressure steam
conditioners? D. Flashed steam
A. R-22 Answer: D
B. R-123
C. R-11 416. The vent or hole in the Earth
D. R-502 surface, usually in a volcanic region,
Answer: A from which, gaseous vapors, or hot
gasses issue.
411. In new equipment, which of the A. Fumaroles
following replace R-11? B. Crater
A. R-12 C. Hot spot
B. R-123 D. Hot spring
C. R-502 Answer: A
D. R-22
Answer: B
417. The earth interior heat made
412. The mass flow rate produces by the available to man by extracting it from
compressor is hot water or rocks.
A. Proportional to the mass of the A. Geological heat
suction vapor that the compressor B. Geothermal heat
takes in at the suction inlet per C. Volcanic heat
unit time D. None of these
B. Equal to the mass of the suction Answer: B
vapor that the compressor takes
in at the suction inlet per unit 418. Device that takes advantage of the
time relatively constant temperature of the
C. Less than the mass of the suction Earth’s interior, using it as a source
vapor that the compressor takes and sink of heat for both heating and
in at the suction inlet per unit cooling.
time A. Geothermal devices
D. Greater that the mass of the B. Geothermal generator
suction vapor that the compressor C. Geothermal heat pumps
takes in at the suction inlet per D. Geothermal turbines
unit time Answer: C
Answer: B
419. The spring that shoots jets of hot
413. A boiler operated at pressure not water and steam into the air is called
exceeding 1.055kg/cm2 gage steam, or A. Geyser
water temperature no exceeding 121˚C. B. Hot jet
A. Low pressure heating boiler C. Thermal jet
B. Hot water supply boiler D. Guyshen
C. Miniature Answer: A
D. Power boiler
Answer: A 420. What is the power seat width of a
spray valve?
414. The very hot steam that doesn’t A. 1/16 in.
occur with a liquid B. 1/32 in.
A. Pure steam C. 1/8 in.
B. Saturated vapor D. 1/4 in.
Answer: A 427. A 100kg is at 0˚C is heated by
supplying 2000KJ of heat to it. If the
heat of fusion is 335kJ/kg how many
421. A device which automatically kilograms of ice will melt into water?
governs or controls the speed of an
engine. A. 8 kg
B. 10 kg
A. Servomotor C. 6 kg
B. Indicator D. 3 kg
C. Governors Answer: C
D. Speedometer
Answer: C
428. Determine the quantity of latent
heat transferred to an evaporator when
422. The useful energy transfer in 5 kg of water undergoes those changes
Btu/hr divided by input power in watts. from a liquid at 0˚C to ice at 0˚C.
This is just the coefficient of
performance expressed in mixed units. A. 1,300 kJ
B. 1,675 kJ
Energy efficient ratio C. 1,450 kJ
Coil efficient D. 1,800 kJ
Bypass factor Answer: B
Sensible heat ratio

Answer: A 429. Compute the rate of water transfer

by melting an ice at a rate of 50
kg/hr.
423. If EER is the energy efficiency A. 8 kJ/sec
ratio, and COP is the coefficient of B. 10 kJ/sec
performance then C. 5 kJ/sec
A. EER=3.41COP D. 12 kJ/sec
B. COP=3.41EER Answer: C
C. EERxCOP=3.41
D. 3.41EERxCOP=1
Answer: A 430. 10 kg of water at 60˚C receives
42,000kJ of heat coming from the
surrounding. Assuming it is open to the
424. Which of the following is a atmosphere, how many kilograms of water
reversed Rankine vapor cycle? will be vaporized?
A. Carnot refrigeration cycle A. 18 kg
B. Vapor refrigeration cycle B. 15 kg
C. Air refrigeration cycle C. 10 kg
D. Absoption cycle D. 20 kg
Answer: B Answer: A

425. The most common type of 431. As the liquid changes phase to
refrigeration cycle, finding vapor, its enthalpy
application in household refrigerators, A. Increases
air conditioners for cars and houses, B. Decreases
chillers and so on. C. Remains constant
A. Carnot refrigeration cycle D. Enthalpy has no relation to phase
B. Vapor refrigeration cycle change
C. Air refrigeration cycle Answer: A
D. Absoption cycle
Answer: B
432. Which of the following processes
does not alter the kinetic energy level
426. Which of the following is a of a substance?
reserved Brayton cycle? A. Fusion
A. Carnot refrigeration cycle B. Adding sensible heat to a solid
B. Vapor refrigeration cycle C. Adding sensible heat to a liquid
C. Air refrigeration cycle D. Superheating a vapor
D. Absoption cycle Answer: A
Answer: C
433. Condensers used for larger A. Reaction turbines
capacities refrigerators. B. Impulse turbines
A. Air-cooled condersers C. Tangential turbines
B. Water-cooled condensers D. Axial flow turbines
C. High side condensers Answer: A
D. Low side condenser
Answers: B 440. Weight per unit volume is termed
as:
434. Coolers and chillers for water A. Specific gravity
generally operate with an average B. Specific density
temperature difference of C. Weight density
A. 3 to 11 C D. Pressure
B. 5 to 8 C Answer: C
C. 6 to 22 C
D. 10 to 16 C 441. Measure of hotness or coldness of
Answer: A the body
A. Pressure
435. To avoid freezing problems, B. Temperature
entering refrigerant should be C. Energy
A. Below-2 C D. Entropy
B. Above-2 C Answer: B
C. Equal to-2 C
D. 0 C 442. The temperature at which the water
Answer: B vapor in the air begins to condensed,
or the temperature at which the
436. Suction lines should not be sized relative humidity of air becomes 100%.
too large, as reasonable velocity is A. Flash point
needed to carry oil from the evaporator B. Boiling point
back to the compressor. For horizontal C. Dew point
suction lines, the recommended minimum D. Freezing point
velocity is Answer: C
A. 3.8 m/s
B. 6.1 m/s 443. It consists of a wet and dry bulb
C. 7.1 m/s thermometers mounted on a strip of
D. 4.8 m/s metal
Answer: A
A. Manometer
B. Gyrometer
437. Type of turbine used for low C. Pyrometer
heads, high rotational speeds and D. Sling psychrometer
larger flow rates Answer: D
A. Axial flow turbines
B. Reaction turbines 444. A manometer is an instrument that
C. Radial flow turbines is used to measure:
D. Impulse turbines
Answer: A A. Air pressure
B. Condensate water level
C. Heat radiation
438.To keep the deflected jet out of D. Air volume
the way of the incoming jet, the actual Answer: A
angle is limited to approximately
A. 135 deg. 445. The relationship of water vapor in
B. 150 deg. the air at the dew point temperature to
C. 165 deg. the amount that should be in the air if
D. 175 deg. the air were saturated at the dry-bulb
Answer: C temperature is:
A. Partial pressure actual dew point
439. Which of the following turbines B. Percentage humidity
are centrifugal pumps operating in C. Relative humidity
reverse? D. Run faster
Answer: A 451. Used to described the act of
blowing the exhaust product out with
the air-fuel mixture
446. All of the following statements
about wet bulb temperature are true, A. Supercharging
EXCEPT B. Scavenging
C. Honing
A. Wet bulb temperature aequals D. Choking
adiabatic saturation temperature Answer: B
B. Wet bulb temperature is the only
temperature necessary to
determine grains water per lb of 452. A form of supercharging in which
dry air the exhaust gases drive the
supercharger
C. Wet bulb temperature lies
numerically between dew point and A. Lugging
dry bulb temperature for B. Honing
unsaturated systems C. Turbocharging
D. Blower charging
D. Wet bulb temperature equals both Answer: C
dry-bulb and dew point
temperature at 100% relative
humidity 453. The maximum speed of the turbine
Answer: C under no and no governing action is
called
A. Runaway speed
447. Heat added to or removed from a B. Pre governing speed
substance that cause a change of C. Governing speed
temperature: D. No load governing
A. Absolute heat Answer: A
B. Latent heat
C. Specific heat
D. Sensible heat 454. Which of the following statements
Answer: D is false when gasoline is used as
diesel fuel.
A. Gasoline does not ignite
448. Plunger pumps are only single- B. Gasoline wears the fuel-injection
acting and are suitable up to pumps because of its low
approximately viscosity
A. 2000 psi C. Addition of lubrication oil to
B. 4000 psi gasoline will just severe the
C. 8,000 psi situation
D. 10,000 psi D. All of the above
Answer: D Answer: C

449. The ratio of the actual to the
ideal heat transfer coefficient.
A. Fouling factor
B. Sensible heat ratio
C. Cleanliness factor
D. Biot number
Answer: C
450. The ratio of the maximum to
minimum mass steam flow rates at which
the temperature can be accurately
contained by the desuperheater.
A. Cleanliness factor
B. Capacity factor
C. Turndown ratio
D. Fouling factor
Answer: C
455. Which of the following is an
advantage of hydro-plants?
A. Hydro plants provide ancillary
benefits like irrigation, flood
control, aquaculture navigation
etc.
B. Modern hydro generators give high
efficiency over considerable
range of load. This helps in
improving the system
C. Due to its great ease of taking
up and throwing off the load, the
hydro power can be used as the
ideal spinning reserve in a
system mix of the thermal, hydro
and power station
D. All of the above
Answer: B

456. The hole area behind the dam
draining into a stream or river across
which dam has been constructed is
called
A. Lake
B. Forebay
C. Catchment area
D. Reserve potential
Answer: C
457. Dams constructed primarily
store flood waters called
A. Storage dams
B. Diversion dams
C. Detention dam
D. None of the above
Answer: C
458. A channel which leads water to a
turbine is called
A. Canal
B. Tailrace
C. Penstock
D. Headrace
Answer: D
459. Sometimes called percentage
humidity
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: D
460. When measuring ____________ of
air, the bulb of the thermometer should
be shaded to reduce the effect of
direct radiation
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Critical temperature
D. Saturation temperature
Answer: A
B. Vapor
C. Moist
D. Clean water
Answer: A
463. The amount by which the wet bulb
temperature is reduced below the dry
bulb temperature depends on the
relative humidity of the air and is
collective
A. Range
to B. Approach
C. Drify
D. Wet bulb depression
Answer: D
464. The measure of the relationship
between the dry bulb and dewpoint
temperature of the air and as such, it
provides a convenient means of
465. Dewpoint temperature of the air
when the dry bulb temperature is known
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Saturation temperature
C. Humidity ratio
D. Relative humidity
Answer: A
466. An index of the total heat
(enthalpy) of the air
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Saturation temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Dewpoint temperature
Answer: A
467. The sensible heat of the air is a
function of the
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dewpoint temperature
D. Saturation temperature
Answer: B

461. An ordinary thermometer whose bulb
is enclosed in a wetted cloth sac or
wick
A. Dry bulb thermometer
B. Wet bulb thermometer
C. Ordinary thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
Answer: B
468. The latent heat of the air is a
function of the
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dewpoint temperature
D. Saturation temperature
Answer: The measure of the ability of a
goal

469. To withstand exposure to the

462. To obtain an accurate reading with environment elements without excessive
a wet bulb thermometer, the wick should crumbling
be saturated with A. Crumbling coefficient
A. Clean air B. Weatherability
 C. Cohensiveness Answer: (D)
D. Attrition coefficient
476. The head required to produce a
Answer. (B) flow of the water.
A. Static head
470. A type of coal that tends to break B. Pressure head
apart as it burns thereby exposing the C. Velocity head
unburned coal to the combustion air. D. Dynamic head
A. Loose coal Answer: (C)
B. Free burning coal
C. Non-cohensive coal 477. The sum of the pressure head and
D. Aggregate velocity head.
Answer: (B) A. Static head
B. Pressure head
471. A type of coal that produced a C. Velocity head
fused coal mass as it burns. D. Dynamic head
A. Plastic coal Answer: (D)
B. Caking coal
C. Soft coal 478. The dynamic pressure of the liquid
D. High-moisture coal at pump section less the corresponding
Answer: (B) to the temperature at the same point,
converted to liquid.
472. A combustible coal content that A. NPSH
produces a major atmospheric pollutant B. Specific head
consequently, it is important that coal C. Pump operating head
has a low percentage of this component. D. Suction head
A. Nitrogen Answer: (A)
B. Sulfur
C. Carbon 479. The algebraic difference of the
D. Hydrogen discharge and suction heads.
A. pump operating head
Answer: (B) B. TDH
C. A and B
473. Which of the following statement D. NPSH
is/are true regards to the first law of Answer: (C)
thermodynamics for a change in state of
a control mass? 480. The transfer of the heat energy
A. Since heat and work are path from exhaust gases to compressed air
function Q-W must also be a path flowing between the compressor and
function combustion chamber.
B. Q-W is an inexact differential A. Intercooling
C. A and B B. Convection
D. Q-W is a point function C. Regeneration
D. Economics
Answer: (D) Answer :(C)

474. Which of the following statements 481. The removal of heat from
is/are true with regards to heat and compressed air between stages of
work. compression.
A. Heat and work are both transient A. Regeneration
phenomena B. Exhaustion
B. Both heat and work are boundary C. Heat evacuation
phenomena D. Intercooling
C. Both heat and work are path Answer:(D)
function
D. All of the above 482. As a general rule, the cooling
water side of the condenser should be
Answer: (D) schedule for inspection for every:
A. Month
475. The height of the surface of the B. 3 months
water above the gage point C. 6 months
A. Pressure head D. Year
B. Velocity head Answer: (B)
C. Dynamic head
D. Static head
483. If the compressor runs
continually, the cause might be the: 491. Calculate the use factor of a 135
A. High-pressure cutout switch is MW plant with a load facetor of 0.8 and
jammed shut a peak load of 120 MW if its operation
B. Low pressure switch is jammed is limited to 8500 hrs in a year
shut A. A 0.90
C. Thermal bulb is not operating B. 0.73
properly C. 0.70
D. Scale trap is clogged D. 0.78
Answer: (B) Answer (B)

484. If the temperature in the icebox 492. Calculate the net radiation heat
is too high, the trouble could be: flux exchange of two bodies with
A. A clogged scale trap surface temperature of 25 deg C. The
B. Air in the system radiation heat transfer coefficient is
C. Automatic controls not 7.0 W/m2-k
functioning properly A. 700 w/sq m
D. Insufficient cooling water to the B. 750 w/sq m
condenser C. 665 w/sq m
Answer: C D. 650 w/sq m
Answer C
485. If frost forms on the cylinders,
the cause would be: 493. Calculate the reserve factor for a
A. Expansion valve not open wide power plant with a load factor of 0.7
enough average load of 50 MW and rated
B. Charging valve open too wide capacity of 80 MW
C. Expansion valve open too wide A. 2
D. Dehydrator not working properly B. 1.5
Answer: C C. 1.12
D. 1.6
486. The most likely cause of high Answer C
superheat would be:
A. Too much refrigerant 494. Maximum demand of 30 MW and 10 MW
B. Expansion valve open too wide are connected to a power plant with a
C. Expansion valve closed in too peak load of 70 MW. What is the
much wide diversity factor of the plant?
D. Back-pressure valve set too high A. 0.50
Answer: (B) B. 0.70
C. 0.65
487. Short-cycling means that the D. 0.86
machine: Answer C
A. Grounds out frequently
B. Stops and starts frequently 495. A gas in piston-cylinder set-up
C. Runs too fast undergoes an expansion of such rate
D. Runs too slow that PV 1.2 =constant. Before the
Answer: B expansion process the pressure of the
gas is 300 kpa and the volume is 0.50
488. If the cooling water to the m3. If the final volume of the gas is
condenser should suddenly fail: 0.1 m3, calculate the work done by the
A. The solenoid valve will close gas
B. The compressor will shut down A. 9.71 KJ
C. The expansion valve will close B. 11.0 KJ
D. An alarm will ring to notify the C. 12 KJ
engineer D. 8 KJ
Answer: (B) Answer A

490. Which of the following regions in 496. The phenomenon in which air enters
a multi-stage turbine where efficiency a submerged suction pipe from the water
a highest? surface is called a:
A. High pressure region above 200 A. Whirlpool
psi B. Vacuum
B. Intermediate pressure region C. Vortex
C. Low pressure most region D. Thixotropic
D. A and B Answer C
Answer (B)
497. Where groundwater ( wells and B. 59 %
springs) or surface water (streams and C. 55%
takes) are used for feedwater, water D. 68%
hardness of ___ and alkalinity of pH 10 Answer B
to be ph should be considered
A. 0-10 ppm 504. A circular chip ( k= 150 w/ mk)
B. 10-20 ppm with a diameter d=10mm and thickness t=
C. 20-30 ppm 4 cm inside diameter and 12 cm outer
D. 30-40 ppm diameter. The inside wall temperature
Answer A of the pipe is maintained at 500 deg C
while the outside surface of asbestos
498. Which of the following is not a at 90 deg C. Calculate the heat loss
solid fuel? per meter length
A. Peat A. 1265w/m
B. Briquettes B. 1500 w/m
C. Tar C. 1400 w/m
D. D coke D. 1100 w/m
Answer C Answer A

499. The memory lost when the operating 505. A 5m thick flat plane ( k=60 w/ m
power is removed k) is well insulated on its sides,
A. Power memory while the top and bottom surfaces are
B. Volatile memory maintained at 150 deg. Assuming a
C. Initial memory steady state heat conduction, calculate
D. Quick data the temperature 4 m below the top
Answer B surface.
A. 100 deg c
500. Canisters of helmets shall be B. 120 deg c
removed immediately after having been C. 94 deg c
used on sucking water from a public D. 80 deg c
service main or private-use water Answer C
system 506. A solid of diameter D=0.5 m and
A. Horizontal split case pump surface emissivity of 0.8 contains
B. Vertical shaft turbine pump electrons that dissipate 100 W of heat.
C. Booster pump If it does not receive radiation from
D. Submersible pump the surroundings, what is the surface
Answer C temp?
A. 300 deg C
501. A small fitting with a double B. 280 deg C
offset, or shaped like the letter U C. 230 deg C
with the ends turned out D. 270 deg C
A. Elbow tee Answer C
B. Expansion loop
C. Spigot joint 507. Which of the following is
D. Cross-over basically a jet engine that exhausts
Answer D into a turbine generator?
A. Aeroderivative gas turbine
502. The condition in which droplets of B. Brayton engine
water are carried by steam in the C. Industrial gas turbine
boiler D. Joule turbine
A. Priming Answer A
B. Breeching
C. Carryover 508. It is referred to as the maximum
D. Condensation continuous power available from a
Answer A hydroelectric power plant even under
the most adverse hydraulic condition
503. At the start of the compression A. Primary power
process of an air-standard diesel power B. Continuous base power
cycle the pressure is 100kpa and the C. Continuous peak power
temp is 15 deg C. for a mean effective D. Firm power
pressure of 1362 kpa and compression Answer D
ratio of 18 the heat of combustion
developed is 1800 kj/kg. what is the 509. Working fluids used in
thermal efficiency of the cycle? refrigeration cycle decreases in
A. 65 % temperature as they pass through the
throttle valve. The Joule- Thompson 516. Analysis of solid fuel to
coefficient of these fluids is determine moisture, volatile matter,
A. Negative fixed carbon, and ash expressed as
B. Zero percentage of the total weight of the
C. Positive sample
D. None of the above A. Viscometer
Answer C B. Proximate analysis
C. Ultimate
510. The interaction that occurs D. Pour point
between a system and its surroundings Answer B
as the system executes a process, which
is the result of the system being at 517. A gas analysis apparatus in which
the temperature different from the the percentage of oxygen, carbon
surrounding, is dioxide and neonoxide in the gas
A. Mass transfer measured by absorption in separate
B. Heat transfer chemical solutions
C. Work transfer A. Orsat
D. None of the above B. Proximate
Answer B C. Ultimate
D. Pour point
511. Energy is always Answer A
A. Being produced
B. Being destroyed 518. The water added to boiler feed to
C. Not changing compensate for the water lost through
D. None of the above blowdown, leakage, etc
Answer B A. Condensate
B. Make-up
512. Working fluids used in C. Sulfur
refrigeration cycle decreases in D. Economizer
temperature as the pass through the Answer B
throttle valve. The joule-Thompson
coefficient of these fluids is 519. Gas flow caused by boiler’s
A. Negative pressure being less than boiler’s
B. Zero furnace pressure
C. Positive A. Induced draft
D. None of the above B. Infrared
Answer C C. Injector
D. Inhibitor
513. The interactions that occurs Answer A
between a system and its surroundings
as a system executes a process, which 520. An automatic pressure-relieving
is the result of the system being at device that opens in proportion to the
temperature different from the increase in pressure over its opening
surrounding is pressure
A. Mass transfer A. Pressure gauge
B. Heat transfer B. Relieve valve
C. Work transfer C. Ammeter
D. None of the above D. Calorimeter
Answer B Ans B

514. Energy destruction is a result of 521. A rotating device used to convert

A. Heat transfer kinetic energy into mechanical energy
B. Work production A. Turbine
C. Process irreversibility B. Generator
D. None of the above C. Pump
Answer C D. Vacuum
Ans A
515. An air pollutant which is the
result of burning fuels oils 522. Air can be prevented from getting
A. Ferrous oxide into the system by:
B. Hydrogen nitride A. Keeping all gland and stuffing
C. Sulfur dioxide boxes on the high pressure side
D. Aluminum oxide tight
Answer C B. Keeping the dehydrator clean at
all times
 C. Keeping all glands and stuffing
boxes on the low pressure side
tightr
D. Running the refrigerant through
an aerator
Ans C
523. An excessively high head pressure
could be caused by
A. Solenoid valve shut off
B. Insufficient cooling water to the
condenser
C. Insufficient cooling water to the
evaporator coils
D. Too much cooling water to the
condenser
Ans B
524. The solenoid valve is controlled
by
A. The amount of liquid in the
system
B. The amount of gas in the system
C. The temperature in the condenser
D. The thermal switch operated by
the icebox temperature
Ans D
525. If the discharge side of the
thermal expansion valve is warmer than
the
A. Expansion valve is working
normally
B. Expansion valve is not working
normally
C. Solenoid valve is not working
normally
D. Scale trap is dirty
Ans B
526. If the pressure is too high
A. The relief valve should open
before the high pressure output
B. The relief valve should open and
let excess refrigerant go to
receiver
C. The high pressure output switch
should operate before the relief
valve
D. Close in on the suction valve
Ans C
527. If a pressurized water reactor
(PWR)
A. The coolant water is pressurized
to work as moderator
B. The coolant water boils in the
core of the reactor
C. The coolant water is pressurized
to prevent boiling of water in
the core
D. No moderator is used
Ans C
528. Which of the following property of
coal has major influence on the design
and operation of a steam power plant
A. Density of coal
B. Carbon content of coal
C. Ash content of coal
D. Shape and size of coal
Ans C
528. A boiler horsepower is equal to
the evaporation of 3405lbs of 100
degrees c water per hr. how much steam
in lb per hour a 700 horsepower boiler
can generate?
A. 24150 lb / hr
B. 21000 lb/ hr
C. 18000 lb/hr
D. 30000 lb/hr
Ans B
529. ___ is obtained by mixing and
burning precisely the right amount of
fuel and oxygen so that products are
left once combustion is complete.
A. Perfect combustion
B. Burning combustion
C. Firing combustion
D. Burning combustion
Ans A
530. What type of boiler commonly used
in industrial and heavy commercial
application due to less expensive to
make low pressure, easier to maintain
and repair?
A. Water tube boiler
B. Fire tube boiler
C. Air tube boiler
D. Marine water
Ans B
531. During the emergency operation of
the boiler, when there is no water in
the gauge glass and steam comes out of
the bottom trycock, the water level
cannot be determined. What preventive
measure the operator does to save the
boiler
A. Shutdown the boiler and do not
add water
B. Add water to compensate the water
losss
C. Increase the firing rate
D. Continue to operate the boiler
and add water
Ans A
532. The most important valve in the
boiler operation and the last line of
defense against disaster is known as
A. Pressure gauge
B. Compound gauge
C. Safety valve
D. Gate valve
Ans C 539. in terms of heat transfer, the use
of a cooling tower is said to be more
533. A common test and very important efficient and more economical compared
when a boiler is being repaired and or to an ordinary heat exchanger since
replaced before being back in A. Large vol of air is available and
operation or in service is known as free
A. Hydrostatic test B. Temperature profiles of air and
B. Water level test water can cross each other
C. Test clamp C. Large amount of water can be
D. Acid test processed
Ans A D. A cooling tower is much smaller
and cheaper than a heat heat
534. In heat transfer by conduction, exchanger
due to symmetry the heat flow as a Ans B
point is perpendicular to the
isothermal surface through the point. 540. It is a form of oxygen
This mode of conduction is a photochemicallly produced in nature
characteristic of A. Ozone
A. Non-isotropic B. Oxidizing agent
B. Isotropic C. Oxidation
C. Insulators D. D02
D. Conductors Ans a
Ans A
541. What is the chemical formula of
535. Why should you avoid bending or ozone?
twisting of fan blades in an air A. O3
conditioning unit? B. D3O
A. It will not cause ice build up C. o7
B. It will wear out the motor D. O1
bearings &cause noise
C. It may not slice suction line Ans A
D. It decrease the volume flow of
refrigerant 542. In the upper atmosphere, ozone is
Ans B made by ultraviolet light reacting with
A. Oxygen
536. The heat transferred radially B. Nitrogen
across insulated pipe per unit area C. Hydrogen
A. Remain constant D. Water vapor
B. Inversely proportional to the Ans A
thermal conductivity
C. Decrease from pipe wall to 543. The ozone concentration of parts
insulated surface per million(ppm) is generally
D. Increase form pipe wall to considered maximum permissible for how
insulated surface many hours of exposure?
Ans C A. 8 hrs
B. 7 hrs
537. Under normal operating conditions, C. 4 hrs
when a solid material to be dried is D. 3hrs
placed inside a batch tray dryer, the Ans A
material is usually subjected
A. Under constant drying conditions 544. How may moisture be removed from
B. Under variable drying conditions air?
C. Under high temperature drying A. Condensation
D. Under low temperature drying B. Adsorption
Ans A C. A and b
D. None of these
538. A change of phase directly from Ans C
vapor to solid without passing through
the liquid state is called as 545. In cooling cycle, the dry bulb
A. Sublimation temp (db) of the air is lowered, what
B. Vaporization will happens to the relative humidity
C. Solidification A. Increased
D. Deposition B. Decreases
Ans d C. Remains constant
 D. Increases or decreases depending
on the temperature at which it is
cooled
Ans A
546. What is the effect of superheating
the refrigerant?
A. It increases the coefficient of
performance
B. It decreases the coefficient of
performance
C. It lowers the boiling point of
the refrigerant
D. It increases the suction pressure
of the refrigerant
Ans A
547. A turbine setting where one
disadvantage is the difficulty of
lubricating the operating mechanism,
with consequent relatively rapid water
A. Siphon setting
B. Open fume setting
C. Cast setting
D. Capacity setting
Ans b
548. A patented device combining
expansion and compression function in a
single rotor permitting higher cycle
temperatures
A. Comprex
B. Compressor
C. Expander
D. Single-shaft
Answer: A
549. A rough measure of the physical
size of the equipment which must handle
the specified quantity of the fluid
A. pressure ratio
B. fuel rate
C. thermal efficiency
D. air ratio
Ans D
550. The ratio of the highest main
compressor discharge pressure as the
lower main compressor inlet pressure
A. cycle pressure ratio
B. cycle pressure level
C. work ratio
D. air ratio
Ans A
551. The ratio of the maximum pressure
in the cycle to the atmospheric
pressure
A. Cycle pressure ratio
B. Cycle pressure level
C. Regenerator effectiveness
D. Thermal efficiency
Ans B
552. The ratio of the actual partial
pressure exerted by tge water vapor in
any volume of air to the partial
pressure that would be exerted by the
water vapor in the air is saturated at
the temperature of the air
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Ans A
553. In sensible heating the absolute
humidity remains constant but the
relative humidity
A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Decreases
D. Zero
Ans C
554. The relative humidity becomes 100%
and where the water vapor start to
condense
A. Dew point
B. Saturated point
C. Cloud point
D. Critical point
Ans A
555. Why should you avoid bending or
twisting of fan blades in an air
conditioning unit?
A. It will cause ice build-up
B. It will wear out the motor
bearings and cause noise
C. It may not slice suction line
D. It decreases the volume flow of
refrigerant
Answer: B
556. A type of refrigerant that will
not damage the ozone layer.
A. Hydrofluorocarbons (HCF’s)
B. R-22
C. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
D. R-12
Answer: A
557. Which of the following is the type
of refrigerant that damages Ozone
layer?
A. Hydrocholorofluorocarbons
(HCHF’s)
B. R-22
C. R-12
D. All of these
Answer: D
558. Large-bulb alcohol thermometer
used to measure air speed or
atmospheric condition by means of
cooling.
A. Kata thermometer
 B. JJ Thompson Thermometer Answer: D
C. Kelvin Thermometer
D. Wet Bulb Thermometer 566. Used to exhaust air from the
Answer: A casing for starting.
A. Ejectors
559. The phenomenon that warm air rise B. Dearator
and cold air settle is called C. Injector
A. Stratification D. Blower
B. Setting Due Answer: A
C. Sedimentation
D. Ventilation 567. Advantage for propeller turbines
Answer: A of all types
A. Open flumes setting
560. Which of the following components B. Siphon setting
of the window air conditioning system C. Cost setting
cleaned annually? D. Capacity setting
A. Evaporator and condenser
B. Fan blades and fan motor Answer: B
C. Motor and compressor
D. All of these 568. An office air conditioning system
Answer: C drew in a quantitity of hot air from
outside, cooled it to 1 deg C, and
561. A cooled heat exchanger that mixed it with the internal air of a
transfer heat from compressed air to building. Care was taken to supply
cooler air. enough fresh air to eliminate
A. Intercooler objectionable odors. The temperature of
B. Refrigerator the space was maintained constant, and
C. Economizer yet some people became uncomfortable in
D. Aftercooler the afternoon, why?
Answer: D
A. The relative humidity had dropped
562. All the control stand, pitch of B. When a person spends a long time
the turbine blades must be adjusted at a constant temperature that
manually by person becomes uncomfortable
A. Sensor C. Radiant heat from others in the
B. Float valve office made the space
C. Gate uncomfortable
D. Switch D. The complainers were not really
Answer: A uncomfortable, they were just
bored
563. The most commonly used adjustable- Answer: A
blade propeller turbine.
A. Francis turbine
B. Kaplan turbine 569. A large paper plant uses its own
C. Impulse turbine cogeneration power plant to generate
D. Pelton wheel its electricity because.
Answer: B A. It permits the use of a more
efficient generator
564. Runner blades are adjusted B. The company can better control
automatically in synchronism with the voltage
turbine wicker gates by a/an. C. It does away with high power
A. Control valve lines leading to the plant
B. Governor D. It provides a more efficient
C. Oil servomotor conversion of fuel
D. Manual operation Answer: D
Answer: C
570. The volumetric output of a
565. What is supplied to the servomotor centrifugal pump is reduced by closing
from the turbine governor oil system a valve part way on the intake side of
through the generator shaft and through the pump, throttling the intake. The
a control valve. reduction of flow is accompanied by
A. Water “popping” noises which seem to come
B. Air from inside the case.
C. Steam What is the probable cause?
D. Oil A. The impeller has broken
 B. Dirt particles have got into the Answer: B
pump intake
C. The intake valve flow seal is 577. A mechanical device used to burn
loose and vibrates solid fuel specifically used in coal
D. The fluid is cavitating power palnt.
Answer: D A. Stroker
B. Boiler
571. If a man touches two metals which C. Staybolt
were kept together at room temperature, D. Condenser
why would one metal feel colder that Answer: A
the other?
A. One has a high temperature 578. The chemically correct ratio of
coefficient air fuel a mixture capable of perfect
B. One has a lower temperature combustion with no unused air or fuel,
C. One has a high thermal A. Fuel point
conductivity B. Pour point
D. One has a high temperature C. Stoichiometric ratio
Answer: C D. Stack
Answer: C
572. The ratio of the internal thermal
resistance of a solid to the boundary 579. When a solid material is said to
layer thermal resistance is described be “dry” it means that
by: A. The solid does not contain any
A. Biot number moisture
B. Nusselt number B. The solid still contains very
C. Prandtl number small amount of moisture
D. Reynolds number C. The solid contains equilibrium
Answer: A moisture
D. The weight of the solid is the
573. An instrument which is commonly same as the bone dry weight
used to measure the most important Answer: B
characteristics of fuel oil which is
viscosity is known as; 580. A hot block is cooled by blowing
A. Saybolt Viscosimeter cool air over its top surface. The heat
B. Ph-meter that is first transferred to the air
C. Acid Testmeter layer close to the block is by
D. Gravuty meter conduction. It is eventually carried
Answer: A away from the surface by:
A. Convection
574. Equipment designed to reduce the B. Radiation
amount of water vapor in the ambient C. Conduction
atmosphere; D. Thermal
a. Blower
b. Condenser Answer: A
c. Dehumidifier
d. Cooling tower 581. When drying banana chips under the
Answer: C sun, the rate of drying is faster
A. On a slightly breezy day
575. In a refrigerator, this is a B. On a calm day
chamber for storing low-side liquid C. On a cloudy day
refrigerant in a system, which also D. On a hot and windy day
serves as a surge drum. Answer: D
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator 582. Reflector of a nuclear reactor are
C. Compressor made up of
D. Accumulator A. Boron
Answer: D B. Cast iron
C. Beryllium
576. The measure of a fluids resistance D. Steel
to flow(the internal friction of a Answer: C
fluid) as temperature increase.
A. Density 583. The function of a moderator in a
B. Viscosity nuclear reactor is
C. Specific gravity
D. Temperature
 A. To slow down the fast moving A. Cryogenic Temperature
electrons B. Absolute Temperature
B. To speed up the slow moving C. Vaporization
electrons D. Critical Temperature
C. To start the chain reaction Answer: D
D. To transfer the heat produced
inside the reactor to a heat 591. What part of heat exchangers that
exchanger are classified as radiant convection
Answer: A and placed at the near of the furnace,
where they receive the bulk of the
584. Which of the following is the most radiation from the flame.
commonly used moderator? A. Radiant superheaters
a. Graphite B. Condenser
b. Sodium C. Radiator
c. Deuterium D. Evaporators
d. Heavy water Answer: A
Answer: A
592. Which of the following is the
585. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can major consideration while selecting the
be detected by: nuclear power plant?
A. Smelling the discharge water A. Safety
B. Applying litmus paper to the B. Load center
circulating water discharge C. Disposal of waste
C. Adding oil of peppermint to the D. Availability of water
system and tracing the small Answer: C
D. Applying a scapy mixture to the
condenser heads and looking for 593. A moderator is used to:
bubbles A. Slow down neutrons
Answer: B B. Slow down electrons
C. Accelerate neutrons
586. Air arrangement of headwater tubes D. Direct flow of electron
located in the boiler Answer: A
A. Economizer
B. Condenser 594. Which of the following material is
C. Evaporator not used as moderator?
D. Boiler a. Graphite
Answer: A b. Beryllium
c. Aluminum
587. Scale in boiler can. d. Light water
A. Create low steam quality Answer: C
B. Cause foaming
C. Over blow-off line 595. In nuclear power plant which of
D. Inhibit circulation and heat the following is used to slow down the
transfer fast neutron?
Answer: D A. Reflector
B. Shield
588. The effectiveness of a body as a C. Control rod
thermal radiator at a given D. Moderator
temperature.
A. Absorptivity Answer: D
B. Emissivity
C. Conductivity 596. Control rods for nuclear reactors
D. Reflectivity are made of
Answer: B A. Graphite
B. Concrete
589. In a cooling tower, the water is C. Cadmium
cooled mainly by; D. Lead
A. Condensation Answer: C
B. Evaporation
C. Convection 597. The reactor in which fissionable
D. Conduction fuel produced is more than the fuel
Answer: C consumed is known as
A. Fast reactor
590. A temperature above which a given B. Breeder reactor
gas cannot be liquefied; C. Thermal reactor
 D. None of the above 604. A heat engine whose thermodynamic
Answer: B efficiency is greater than that of a
Carnot device using the same energy
598. Heavy duty gas turbines typically reservoir is known as:
have A. A perpetual machine of the zeroth
A. Double shaft kind
B. Triple shaft B. A perpetual machine of the second
C. Single shaft kind
D. Quadruple shaft C. A perpetual machine of the first
Answer: C kind
D. A perpetual machine of the third
599. Which of the following statements kind
is not a key feature of fourier’s heat Answer: B
conduction.
A. It is phenomenological 605. The degrees of power interval in
B. It defines an important material 4-stroke cycle of a six-cylinder engine
property called thermal is
conductance a. 60 degrees
C. It is vector expression b. 180 degrees
indicating that the heat flux is c. 90 degrees
normal and the direction of d. 120 degrees
decreasing temperature. Answer: D
D. Assume that the thermal
conductivity is constant with 606. The portion of sunlight, rich in
repect to temperature of the ultraviolet rays, which has a strong
material effect on photographic plate.
Answer: D a. Gamma rays
b. X-rays
600. What is the color code of steam c. Beta rays
line in geothermal power plant? d. Actinic rays
A. Green Answer: D
B. Blue
C. Silver Gray 607. Which of the following does not
D. Red illustrate the effect of temperature or
Answer: C pressure on gas solubility?
A. Air bubbles from on the sides of
601. What is absorbed by sulphites in a warm glass of water
boiler water treatment? B. Soda pop is bottle under pressure
A. Carbon dioxide C. Boiling frees water gases
B. Oxygen D. Air is more humid on rainy days
C. Carbon monoxide Answer: D
D. Impurities settled in mud drums
Answer: D 608. Among the effluents that may be
released from the hydrothermal
602. A flow volume in which the fluids reservoir which one is the most toxic?
flow upward through a tapered tube A. Carbon dioxide
lifting a shaped weight to a position B. Hydrogen sulfide
where the upward force just balances to C. Methane
weight. D. Ammonia
A. Rotameter Answer: B
B. Thermometer
C. Viscometer 609. Newton said that a projectile if
D. Ammeter given enough horizontal velocity will
not fail to the earth. Instead, it
Answer: A moves along a path around the earth.
The 1st artificial satellite that
603. An instrument that register total verified Newton’s statement is
pressure and static pressure in a used A. Apollo 1
to determine velocity. B. Houston 1
A. Ammeter C. Sputnik 1
B. Rotameter D. None of these
C. Pitot tube Answer: C
D. Pour point
Answer: C
610. A refrigerant control valve that Answer: B
maintains a constant pressure in a
evaporator 616. The accounting of all energy units
A. Bleed valve involved in a system a cycle of an
B. Angle valve piece of equipment
C. Automatic expansion valve A. Thermodynamic solution
D. Ball check valve B. Equilibrium condition
Answer: C C. Summation of energy units
D. Heat Balance
611. A rigid contains gas a 100 kpa and
10 degrees C. the gas is heated until Answer: D
the temperature reaches 100 degree C.
Calculate the work done by the system. 617. It refers to any arrangement
A. 2 whereby steam is bled from a turbine
B. 0 more pressure for any purpose
C. 1 whatsoever
D. 1.5 A. Regeneration
Answer: B B. Extraction
C. Bled-off cycle
612. The compression ratio in an air- D. Regenerative extraction cycle
standard Otto cycle is 10. At the Answer: B
beginning of the compression stroke the
pressure is 120 kpa and the temperature 618. Any arrangement whereby steam is
is 15 degree C. Calculate the pressure bled from a turbine for a purpose of
and the temperature at the end of the thermal regeneration of the condensate
compression process. to a temperature level approaching that
A. 4,000 kPa of the boiler water.
B. 3,500 kPa A. Regenerative
C. 3,014 kPa B. Extraction cycle
D. 3,200 kPa C. Bled-off steam cycle
Answer: C D. Regenerative extraction cycle
Answer: A
613. Find the thermal efficiency of an
air-standard Otto power cycle with a 619. The steam extraction from the
compression ratio of 7. turbine
A. 60% A. Bled steam
B. 50% B. Extraction
C. 65% C. Extracted steam
D. 54% D. A and C
Answer: D Answer: D

614. At the beginning of the 620. The point of particular pressure

compression stroke in an standard Otto where the steam is extracted
cycle. The pressure is 100 kPa and the A. Bleeder point
temperature is 15 degree C. the B. Extraction point
compression ratio is 8 and work is C. Bleeder
1,017.7 kj/kg. Determine the mean D. A and B
effective pressure. Answer: D
A. 1,406 kPa
B. 1,500 kPa 621. Vapor pumps that raise the
C. 1,350 kPa pressure of the refrigeration to a
D. 1,550 kPa level that permits sufficient heat
Answer: A rejection to the condensing medium.
A. Fans
615. The compression ratio in an air B. Blower
standard diesel cycle is 20. At the C. Compressor
beginning of the compression process D. Suction
the pressure and the temperature are Answer: C
0.12 Mpa and 15 degree C respectively.
What is the pressure at the end of the 622. Low temperature heat exchanger
compression process? that is used to absorb heat from the
A. 8,500 kPa refrigerated space and transfer it to
B. 7,955 kPa the refrigerant in its tubes so that it
C. 8,300 kPa can be transported to another and
D. 8,200 kPa released.
 A. Condenser C. Grindability index
B. Evaporator D. Inverse power coefficient
C. Capillary tube Answer: C
D. Compressor
Answer: B 625. The temperature where the ash
becomes very plastic, somewhat below
623. The substance employed as cooling the melting point of the ash.
effect to absorb heat from the A. Ash- softening temperature
refrigerated space in called B. Ash- plasticity temperature
A. Condensate C. Ash – fluidity temperature
B. Feedwater D. Ash – liquefaction temperature
C. Refrigerant Answer: A
D. Moisture
Answer: C 626. The amount of chemical energy in a
given mass or volume of fuel.
624. It is inversely proportional to A. Heating value
the power required to grind the coal to B. Energy storage
certain fitness C. Calorific value
D. A and C
A. Pulverizing index Answer: D
B. Fireness index
ELEMENTS PART II

Which of the following compressors are so widely used for today’s

refrigeration system?
Ans. Centrifugal
A valve sometimes known as the magnetic valve.
Ans. Solenoid valve
Which of the following valve use to regulate the flow of refrigerant to the
evaporator?
Ans. Expansion valve
Which of the following use control the flow of refrigerant gas from the
evaporator coil. This type of control valve is also known as back pressure
regulator of an evaporator.
Ans. Suction line regulator
Which of the following refrigerant control is used to limit the flow of gas
to the compressor to prevent surge of excessive load from overloading the
compressor.
Ans. Hold-back valve
Which of the following refrigerant control is used in the liquid suction or
discharge to interrupt the flow on demand from any one of the several types
of temperature or pressure sensing devices.
Ans. Solenoid valve
What is the pressure drop from the receiver to the expansion valve?
Ans. 5 psi
If any of the electricity controlled device in a Freon system malfunction,
which following valves will also automatically shut off?
Ans. Solenoid valve
The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located:
Ans. On the discharge pipe between the compressor and the discharge
valve.
When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should:
Ans. Clean the plate and renew worn-out ones.
A refrigerant should have a
Ans. High latent heat
The mechanical energy of a device is the ratio of:
Ans. Mechanical energy input to the mechanical energy output
When the winding or circuit is open, what is the resistance reading?
Ans. Infinity
If the meter scale of the ohmmeter reads 0 ohms and the range adjustment is R
10, what is the resistance reading?
Ans. 100
What is the resistance reading of an electric motor in good condition?
Ans. With resistance
The basic unit of electrical pressure is:
Ans. Volt
What is the most commonly used conductor?
Ans. Copper
Which of the following is the effect of superheating the refrigerant?
Ans. Increase is COP
Which of the following statement is true in ice making capacity?
Ans. Ice making capacity is always proportional to the refrigerating
effect
Which of the following has the largest heat load in cold storage room?
Ans. Product heat load
Which of the following is a halocarbon refrigerant?
Ans. Methyl chloride
A refrigerant system in which pressure- imposing element is mechanically
operated?
Ans. Compressor
Which of the following compressors have the compressing element and drive
seals in a single housing?
Ans. hermitically sealed compressor
Which of the following consists of two mating helically grooved male and
female grooves?
Ans. Helical rotary-screw
What is the other name of helical-rotary screw compressors?
Ans. Lysholm type
At what head is the helically-rotary compressors are designed to operate?
Ans. High head pressure
The bulk quantity of oil separated from the refrigerant in the helically-
rotary compressor falls by?
Ans. Gravity to a sump
If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could be:
Ans. Automatic control not functioning properly
If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction,
which of the following valves also automatically shut-off?
Ans. Solenoid valve
Natural ice in an ice box was used in the early
Ans. 19th century
The amount of matter present in a quantity of any substance is called:
Ans. Mass
What pressure is indicated by a barometer?
Ans. Atmospheric pressure
The basic unit measurement for heat is:
Ans. BTU
The force that acts upon a unit of area is termed:
Ans. Pressure
What is the physical state of a refrigerant entering the flow control?
Ans. Sub-cooled
What method of heat transfer does not depend on molecular motion?
Ans. Radiation
Where is the filter drier located?
Ans. After the condenser
A motor drive device which removes the heat-laden vapor refrigerant from the
evaporator is the:
Ans. Compressor
The function of the compressor is to:
Ans. Squeeze out refrigerant from the evaporator
In which part of the compressor is the piston attached to the crankshaft?
Ans. Connecting rod
This is a compressor which has an off center-rotor.
Ans. Rotary
Which of the following compressor is commonly used in household
refrigerators?
Ans. Hermetic
What is the length of the tubing extended from the part to be swaged
Ans. ½ inch
The best method of making leak proof connection is:
Ans. Silver brazing
The refrigerant that should not be used copper or brass tubing:
Ans. R-717
The color of the hose connected to suction line or process be
Ans. Blue
Where is the compound gauge installed in a refrigerant system?
Ans. Suction line
A gauge used to measure pressure both below and above atmospheric pressure
Ans. Compound gauge
What is the valve position if the valve stem is turned all the way in?
Ans. Front-seated
What is the valve position if the valve stem is turned all the way out?
Ans. Back-seated
Ohm’s law states that resistance is inversely proportional to:
Ans. Current
To prevent corrosion within the flue gas, what must be prevented from
condensing?
Ans. Vapor
Ans. Evaporative cooling
An adiabatic saturation process. This process can be produced with _____,
which is essentially a regular thermometer with its bulb wrapped in wet
cotton or gauze.....
Ans. Sling psychrometer
A high velocity gas is defined as a gas moving with a velocity in excess of
approximately
Ans. 300ft/s/ 100m/s
The theoretical maximum velocity is achieved when.....
Ans. All internal and pressure energies are converted to kinetic
energies
If the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless (i.e. reversible)
Ans. Both A and B
A property by which the refrigerant remains at its original chemical
form/original condition is imposed by the operation.....
Ans. Stability of refrigerant
The maximum temperature at which a gas is condense into liquid. Above
temperature, a vapour imposed by the operation.....
Ans. Stability of refrigerant
Which of the following is the name given for halogenated hydrocarbon?
Ans. Halocarbon
Which of the following refrigerants are produced by carrier corporation?
Ans. Carrene
Which of the following refrigerants is produced by E.L.DU FONT?
Ans. Freon
Which of the following is the other name of R 718?
Ans. Water
Energy per unit volume stored in a deformed material is called:
Ans. Strain energy
The ratio of ultimate failure strain to yielding strain is known as:
Ans. Ductility
One ton of refrigeration is equal to:
Ans. 3.5KW
With what cycle does air refrigeration works?
Ans. Bell-coleman cycle
What cycle does air refrigeration works?
Ans. Coal
What is produced by fission process?
Ans. Radiation
Loss of power is due to:
Ans. Low injection pressure
A branch system of pipes to carry waste emissions away from the combustion
chamber.
Ans. Exhaust manifold
The type of filter where the filtering elements is replaceable.
Ans. Metal-edge filter
When four events takes place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine,
the engine is called
Ans. Two stroke engine
Which of the following does not belong to the group.
Ans. Time injection system
The function of a super heater is to:
Ans. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow during an adiabatic,
internally reversible process
What is true about change in entropy?
Ans. It is always zero
How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
Ans. Both heat transfer = Q, isentropic reversible
Adiabatic heat transfer within a vapour cycle refers to :
Ans. The transfer of energy from one stream to another in a heat
exchanger that the energy of the input streams equal to the energy of output.
All of the following process are irreversible except:
Ans. An isentropic compression of a perfect fluid
Refers to the system where the evaporator coils are placed in the ice box
Ans. Direct system
What is the usual dehydrating agent in Freon system?
Ans. Activated alumina
Refers to the system where the evaporator coils are indicated in a brine
solution and brine is pumped thru the ice box
Ans. Indirect system
Is the most common dryer which consist of rotating cylinder inside which the
materials flow while getting in contact with hot gas.
Ans. Rotary dryer
Is the ratio of the mass of water-vapor in air and mass of air if it is
saturated is called:
Ans. Relative humidity
The hands feel painfully cold when the skin temperature reaches
Ans. 10°C
The total heat of air is a function of
Ans. WB temperature
Boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is:
Ans. 21°F
Which of the following is NOT a type of water cooled condenser in
refrigeration?
Ans. Double shell
Component of absorption refrigeration system in which the solution is cooled
by cooling water.
Ans. Absorber
Cascade refrigeration cycle is often used in industrial process where objects
must be cooled to temperature below:
Ans. -46°C
Type of refrigerant control designed to maintain a pressure difference while
the compressor is operating.
Ans. Capilliary tube
As a rule of thumb, for a specified amount of compressed air, the power
consumption of the compressor decreased by ____________for each 3°C drop in
the temperature inlet air to the compressor.
Ans. 1 percent
Modern way of detecting air compressor leak is by using
Ans. Acoustic leak detector
For foundation of stacks, the maximum pressure on the soil is equal to the
pressure due to the
weight and the _______.
Ans. Wind movement
Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe
sleeve with an inside
diameter of at least
Ans. 3 times the diameter of anchor bolt
For multi stage compression of an ideal Brayton cycle, the back work ratio
will
Ans. decrease
Type of turbine that has a specific speed below 5.
Ans. Impulse turbine
A high discharge type of turbine
Ans. Propeller turbine
Use to minimize the speed rise due to a sudden load rejection
Ans. jet deflector
Is the speed of a turbine when the head on the turbine is one meter.
Ans. Unit speed
Is a fluid property which refers to the intermolecular attraction by which
the separate particles of the fluid arc held together.
Ans. Cohesion
Which of the following is NOT the cause of black smoke in diesel engine?
Ans. High compression pressure
Which of the following is not a method of starting a diesel engine?
Ans. Using another generator
Two-stroke engine performs _____ to complete one cycle.
Ans. Compression and power stroke
A type of geothermal plant used when there is a presence of brine extracted
from underground
Ans. Binary geothermal plant
Is the most important safety device on the power boiler.
Ans. Safety valve
During hydrostatic test, the safety valves should be
Ans. removed
Where deaerating heaters are not employed, it is recommended that the
temperature of the feed water be not less than _______
Ans. 197°C
What is the possible cause of too much suction pressure?
Ans. Shortage refrigerant
Where is the oil separator located?
Ans. Between the compressor and condenser
What is the purpose of the low pressure cutout switch?
Ans. To cut compressor in and out at present pressure
Freon unit will tend to short cycle when operating under
Ans. Light loads
What cause hot suction line?
Ans. Insufficient refrigerant
When changing a Freon system which valve is not used?
Ans. King valve
Where is the scale trap located?
Ans. Between the king valve and expansion valve
Where is the solenoid valve located?
Ans. Between the scale trap and thermal expansion valve
Water tube boilers have how many fusible plugs?
Ans. 4
What is the main cause of air pollution as a result of burning fuel?
 Ans. Nitrogen dioxide
Refers to the increase of enthalpy of a substance when it undergoes some
phase change at constant pressure and temperature.
Ans. Heat of vaporization
Which of the following keeps moisture from passing thru the system?
Ans. Dehydrator
What is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a
cooling tower?
Ans. Temperature of adiabatic saturation
What do you call the intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam?
Ans. Penstock
An ideal fluid is one that
Ans. Is frictionless and incompressible
What principal was used by McLeod gauge which is used for low pressure
measurement?
Ans. Boyles Law
The difference between the brake and hydraulic power is
Ans. Friction power
Product of motor pump efficiency is known as
Ans. Over-all efficiency
The most efficient cross-section of an open channel is the one that
Ans. All of the above
Refers to the structure across an open channel over which water flows.
Ans. Weir
When can we say that a trapezoidal weir is a “cipoletti” weir?
Ans. When side slope 4 vertical and 1 horizontal
A weir is broad-crested if:
Ans. The weir length is greater than half of the head
A feature of a dam over where water is discharged is called:
Ans. Spillway
Laminar flow occurs when the Reynolds number is approximately less than
Ans. 2100
Turbulent flow occurs when the Reynolds number exceeds:
Ans. 4000
Laminar flow is typical when
Ans. All of the above
When the Reynolds number is between 2100 to 4000, the flow is said to be in
Ans. Critical zone
Which of the following characterizes a laminar flow?
Ans. All of the above
Without a pump and turbine, which of the following rules is true in
frictionless environment about energy and hydraulic gradient?
Ans. All of the above
What is the latent heat of vaporization of water?
Ans. 970 Btu
A dry bulb temperature at which water starts to condense but when moist
appears in a constant pressure process
Ans. Dew point temperature
A mixture of dry air and saturated vapour is known as:
Ans. Saturated air
What is another term for “humidity ratio”?
Ans. Specific humidity
The water vapour mass is often reported in
Ans. Grains of water
Approximately how many grains of water are there in 1 pound?
Ans. 7000
The ratio of actual humidity ratio to the saturated humidity ratio at the
inlet temperature and pressure
What is another term for “degree of saturation”?
Ans. Percentage of humidity
The partial pressure of the water vapour divided by the saturation pressure?
Ans. Relative humidity
The point where sonic velocity has been achieved (M=1) is known as:
Ans. Critical point
The ratio of the thrust in equal mass flow rate is known as...
Ans. Effective exhaust velocity
Is the velocity of gas dropped from supersonic to subsonic, gas will
experience
Ans. Shock wave.
An adiabatic flow with friction, which would be approximately as flow through
an insulated duct...
Ans. Fan no flow
What is an inevitable by-product of the combustion of hydro carbon fuel?
Ans. Water vapour
A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:
Ans. Positive and negative pressure
Which of the following best describes a Curtis turbine?
Ans. It is a velocity pressure compound turbine
What causes low head pressure?
Ans. Too much cooling water and in sufficient refrigeration gas
What causes high head pressure?
Ans. All of the above
A commercial pipe which has the characteristics of being immune to
electrolysis and corrosion, light in weight weak structurally.
Ans. Asbestos cement pipe
A commercial pipe which is durable, water tight, low maintenance and smooth
interior.
Ans. Concrete pipe
A commercial pipe which has the characteristics of being corrosion, and scour
and erosion resistance.
Ans. Vitrified clay pipe
A commercial pipe which that is ductile, high strength, shock resistant, very
smooth internally.
Ans. Steel pipe
A commercial pipe that is chemically insert, resistant to corrosion, very
smooth, light weight and very cheap
Ans. Plastic (PVC and ABS)
Which commercial pipe that is primarily used for water condensate, and
refrigerant lines easier to bent by hand, good thermal conductivity
Ans. Brass and copper pipe
A fluid pathway that expose parts of the fluid to the atmosphere is the:
Ans. Open channel
The ratio of the area in flow to the width of the channel at fluid surface in
an open channel is known as:
Ans. Hydraulic depth
The most efficient cross-section for an open channel is known as:
Ans. Semi-circular section
The most efficient section rectangular section has:
Ans. A width twice the depth
What is the maximum power that the motor can provide?
Ans. Rated horsepower
Which of the following is a possible cause of cavitation
Ans. All of the above
Is a reaction during which chemical energy is released in the form of heat
When forebay is not part of the generating plant design, it will be desirable
to produce a ________ in order to relieve the effect of rapid changes in flow
rate.
Ans. Surge chamber
What is used to keep the turbine in a hydroelectric generating plant up to 15
feet above the tailwater surface?
Ans. Draft tube
If a draft tube is not employed, water may be return to the tail water by way
of a chamber known as the:
Ans. Tail race
An impulse turbine consists of a rotating shaft on which buckets of blades
are mounted. What is the term used for rotating shaft?
Ans. Turbine runner
Which of the following refrigerant that belong to group B refrigerants and
harmful or toxic refrigerants?
Ans. All of the above
Which of the following refrigerants are combustible?
Ans. All of the above
Which of the following refrigerants is used for frozen foods and ice cream
display cases warehouses and food freezing plants, medium temperature display
cases truck refrigeration and heat pumps?
Ans. R-502
The refrigerant that was formerly the most widely used for air conditioning
and refrigeration. It was the principal refrigerant for automotive air
conditioning.
Ans. R-12
How do we know that there is shortage of refrigerant considering that we are
in the liquid line?
Ans. Vapor bubbles in the sight glass appear
The amount of power actually entering a fluid is known as:
Ans. All of the above
The input power to the pump will be:
Ans. Equal to the output power of the electric motor driving the pump
A bent or curved carries fluid from a container at a high elevation to
another container at a lower elevation.
Ans. Siphon
A water path, usually a large diameter pipe used to channel water around or
through an obstruction feature.
Ans. Culvert
Which of the following principles governs the distributions of flow between
the two branches in a pipe system.
Ans. All of the above
A method used to determine the network flow in a multi-hoop piping system.
Ans. Hardy-cross method
A device used to measure velocity by determining the cooling effect of fluid
flowing over an electrically heated tungsten.
Ans. Hot-wire anemometer
Which of the following is used for R-12?
Ans. All of the above
Which of the following tubing (pipes) usually used in ammonia refrigerant?
Ans. Ferrous pipe
Which of the following tubing (pipes) usually used in halo-carbon
refrigerant?
Ans. K and L copper tubing
Properties of superheated vapour can be found in?
Ans. Superheated table
Properties of non-reacting gas mixture are given by:
Ans. Volumetric weight for molecular weight and density and geometric
weighing for all the properties except entropy.
The relation between the total volume of a mixture of a non-reacting gases
for initial volume is given by:
Ans. Amagat’s law
Which of the following is the first definition of enthalpy?
Ans. The amount of useful energy in a system.
A constant pressure thermodynamics process obeys:
Ans. Charles law
The volume of an ideal is halved, while it’s temperature is double, what
happens to the pressure?
Ans. Pressure is multiplied by 4
A liquid boils when its pressure equal.
Ans. Ambient pressure
A system composed of ice and water at zero °C is said to be:
Ans. All of the above
A heat of fusion for a pure substance is ________.
Ans. The energy required to melt the substance.
The heat of vaporization involves the change of enthalpy due to:
Ans. The change in phase from liquid to gas.
The heat of sublimation involves the change of enthalpy due to:
Ans. The change in phase from solid to gas.
The unit for absolute viscosity which is dyne-sec/cm3 is also known as:
Ans. Poise
What is the unit of absolute viscosity?
Ans. Pa-second
The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is also known as:
Ans. Kinetic viscosity
What is the unit of kinetic viscosity?
Ans. m2/s
Stroke is a unit of kinetic viscosity which is equivalent to:
Ans. cm2/s
What are volatile liquids?
Ans. The liquid that vaporizes immediately
When does boiling occur?
Ans. When the liquid temperature is increased to the point that the
vapour present is equal to the local ambient pressure.
The liquid boiling pressure is dependent on:
Ans. Both A and B
Referred as the mass flow the rate divided by the generator output in
kilowatts
Ans. Water rate of stream rate
The power after the auxiliary loads has been removed is known as:
Ans. Net electrical output
_________ of a turbine is the ratio of actual to ideal energy extraction?
Ans. Both A and B
What is the approximate maximum practical metallurgical limit on superheat?
Ans. 1150°C and 625°C
What is used to increase the mean effective temperature at which heat is
added without producing significant expansion in the liquid-vapor region.
Ans. Superheat
If some of the heat energy from these waste products is recovered and used
for space heating or cooling the process is called
Ans. Cogeneration
In cogeneration, the recovered heat
Ans. Is used as heat
The ratio of useful energy to the energy input is called?
Ans. Fuel utilization
The ratio of the energy of a turbine to the recovered heat is known as:
Ans. Power to heat ratio
If the recovered heat is used to vaporized water in a vapour cycle this is
called:
Ans. Combined cycle
What is the best coolant for high temperature gas reactor?
Ans. Helium (He)
What is the liquid metal most frequently used as coolant, in liquid metal
reactor?
Ans. Sodium (Na)
Combustion power cycles differ from vapour power in that:
Ans. The combustion product cannot be returned into their initial
condition for reuse.
A closed system using a fixed amount of ideal air as the working fluid?
Ans. Air standard cycle
Which of the following is not a specific compound but is a mixture of octane
and lighter hydrocarbon?
Ans. Gasoline
A series of process that eventually brings the system back to its original
condition is known as?
Ans. Cycle
The _____ of a power cycle is defined as the ratio of usual work output to
the supplied input energy?
Ans. Thermal efficiency
Is use to heat up the solution partially before entering the generator in
absorption refrigeration system.
Ans. Regenerator
The COP of actual absorption refrigeration system is usually
Ans. Less than 1
Sight glass is often located at:
Ans. Liquid line
Use to detect a vibration in current caused by the ionization of decomposed
refrigerant between two opposite-charged platinum electrodes.
Ans. Electronic detector
The ability of oil to mix with refrigerants
Ans. miscibility
For the submerged plane surface, the point on the surface where the resultant
force acts is called the
Ans. Center of pressure
At any point in fluid at rest, the pressure is the same in all directions.
This principle is known as:
Ans. Pascal’s Law
The hot-wire manometer is used to measure
Ans. Gas velocities
The pitot static tube measures
Ans. The static pressure
The terminal velocity of a small sphere setting in a viscous fluid varies as
the
Ans. Inverse of fluid viscosity
Pressure drag results from
Ans. Skin friction
The pressure coefficient is the ratio of pressure forces to:
Ans. Inertia forces
Tranquil flow must always occur
Ans. Above the critical depth
Which of the following head loss coefficient among the following types of
entrance?
Ans. Re-entrant
What waste water treatment method involves of algae from stabilization pond
effluents?
Ans. Microscreening
The number of nozzles will depend on the quantity of steam required by the
turbine. If the nozzles occupy the entire arc of the ring, the turbine is
said to have:
Ans. Full peripheral admission
Tandem compound units may also have two low-pressure casting that produces:
Ans. Triple flow
By inter-cooling using two stage compressor of Brayton cycle, the backwork
ratio will:
Ans. Decrease
On dynamic similitude, the relation which represents the ratio of inertia
force to pressure force is:
Ans. Euler number
What is the maximum velocity in a sewer flowing full?
Ans. 0.6 m/sec
A temporary structure constructed to exclude water from the site of the
foundation during its excavation and construction is called:
Ans. Coffer dam
Which is not a physical characteristic of water?
Ans. Hardness
Which dam is best for weak foundation?
Ans. Buttress
What is the volume of water which will drain freely from the aquifer?
Ans. Specific yield
What is the line defined by the water level in a group of artesian wells?
Ans. Peizometric surface
Select the one that is a positive indication of pollution of a river.
Ans. Chloride content
Which instruments is used to measure humidity of the atmosphere continuously?
Ans. Hydrograph
Entrance losses between tank and pipe or losses through elbows, fittings and
valves are generally expresses as a function of:
Ans. Kinetic energy
The air that contains no water vapour is called:
Ans. Dry air

What effectively states that it is impossible to build a cylindrical engine

that will have a thermal efficiency of 100%?
Ans. Kelvin-Planc statement of second law
Refers to the maximum possible work that can be obtained from a cycle.
Ans. Availability
The difference between the maximum and the actual work output is known as?
Ans. Process inversibility
The study of the property of atmospheric air?
Ans. Psychrometry
The temperature of the air that has gone through an adiabatic saturation
process is known as?
Ans. Wet-bulb temperature
How often should compressor oil be changed?
Ans. At least semi-annually
Which of the following is the possible effect of the weak solution of brine
in a refrigeration system?
Ans. Corrosion
In Freon refrigeration system, where is the scale trap located?
Ans. On the suction side of the compressor
At what pressure is the high pressure cut-off in the Freon (R-12)
Ans. 125-150 psi
What is the other name for brine refrigeration system?
Ans. Indirect refrigeration system
# What is the indication that there is air in the refrigeration system?
Ans. Unusual high head pressure
A Freon-12 leaking can be detected by halide torch. What color will it turn
to in the presence of a refrigerant if this torch has a normal blue flame?
Ans. Green
All of the following process are irreversible except
Ans. Inelastic tension and release of steel bar
Which of the following is a point function except
Ans. Work
All heat transfer process require medium of energy exchange except
Ans. Radiation
Thermal conduction is described by:
Ans. Fourier Law
Convection is described by:
Ans. Newton’s Law
Radiant heat transfer is described by:
Ans. The Stefan-Boltzman Law
The equivalence of ratios of emissive power to absorptivity equilibrium is
described by
Ans. Kirchoff’s Law
The temperature potential between temperature difference.
Ans. The logarithmic temperature difference
A thermodynamic process whose deviation from equilibrium is infinitesimal at
all times.
Ans. In quasi-equilibrium
A thermodynamic property best describes the molecular activity of a
substance?
Ans. Internal energy
The combination of conditions that best describes thermodynamic process is
given:
Ans. Has a successive state thru which the system passes
A substance whose properties are uniform throughout is called a:
Ans. Pure substance
All of the following are thermodynamic properties except:
Ans. Modulus
A process that is adiabatic and reversible is also called:
Ans. Isentropic
The first law of thermodynamics for a closed system is Q= ∆U + W, the sign
convention is:
Ans. Q positive in, W positive out and ∆U negative for decreased
internal energy
The heat transfer term in the first law of thermodynamics may be due to any
of the ff. except:
Ans. Internal heat generation
A system that experiences no mass crossing the system boundaries called:
Ans. Closed system
A substance in which a substance is allowed to enter and have is most
properly called:
 Ans. Open system
First and second law of thermodynamics are:
Ans. Energy equations
A constant temperature thermodynamic process obeys:
Ans. Boyles Law
A series of process that eventually bring the system back to the original
condition is called a:
Ans. Cycle
If the refrigerant leaves the evaporator with a quality of < 1, the cycle is
known as:
Ans. Wet vapor compression cycle
For even lower temperature, are required as in commercial freezing equip.
What is used as refrigerant?
Ans. Ammonia
What is another name for Air-Refrigeration cycle?
Ans. Brayton cycle
What is the major disadvantage of Air-Refrigeration cycle?
Ans. High power consumption
What refrigeration is practically used when a large quantity of waste-
inexpensive heat is avail?
Ans. Heat-driven refrigeration cycle
For an absorption cycle, how many working fluids are required?
Ans. Two (2)
In absorption cycle, what is needed in NH3 water system to remove any
remaining traces of absorbents from the refrigerant and is placed between
generator and condenser.
Ans. Rectifier
Which is a “TEMA” stands for?
Ans. All of the above
The acronym “TEMA” stands for?
Ans. Tubular Exchangers Manufacturing Association
he acronym “API” stands for?
Ans. American Petroleum Institute
What occurs when the exit temperature of the cold fluid is above the exit
temperature of the hot fluid?
Ans. Temperature cross
Are heat exchangers whose purpose is to heat with condensing stream.
Ans. Closed feedwater heater
Refers to the corrosion, precipitation of compound in solution, setting of
particular solid and biological activity that adhere to a heat transfer
Ans. Fouling
Fouling in a heat exchanger industries is commonly known as:
Ans. Silent thief
An operation with 1 fluid flow rate substantially known as:
Ans. Down turn
Indicate the false statement?
Ans. Duo to viscosity, liquid cannot resist instantaneously change
velocity
Ideal liquid are assumed to be?
Ans. Newtonian fluids
Which of the following is a Newtonian fluids?
Ans. All of the above
Thermal radiation heating body can be absorb, reflected or transmitted, this
is known as
Ans. Radiation Conservation law
The rate of thermal emitted per unit area of a body is known as:
Ans. Emissive power
States that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratio of emissive
power to absorptivity are
Equal.
Ans. Kirchoff’s Radiation law
Bodies that radiate at absorptivity of 1 are known as:
Ans. Black bodies or ideal radiators
Which of the following does not radiate at the ideal level?
Ans. Real body
The ratio of actual to ideal emissive power is known as:
Ans. Emissivity
What is the refrigerator’s main function?
Ans. To cool this low temperature area
The rate of energy removal from the low temperature area is known as:
Ans. Either of the refrigeration capacity or refrigerating effect
The refrigeration capacity is measured in refrigeration ton where one ton is
_____ heat remove
Ans. All of the above
The refrigeration ton is derived from the heat flow required to melt the ton
of ICE in:
Ans. 24 hours
In psychrometric chart, the constant- enthalpy lines coincide with constant-
temperature lines at temperature
Ans. Below 50°C
The amount of moisture in air depends on its
Ans. Temperature
The deep body temperature of healthy person is maintained constant at
Ans. 37°C
Air motion also plays important role in
Ans. Human comfort
During simple heating and cooling process has a_____ humidity ratio.
Ans. constant
The ________ follows a line of constant wet-bulb temperature on the
psychrometric chart.
Ans. Evaporative cooling process
A vapour which is not about to condense is called a
Ans. Superheated vapour
Passing from the solid phase directly into vapor phase is called
Ans. Sublimation
Robert Boyle observed during his experiments with a vacuum chamber that the
pressure of gases is inversely proportional to their
Ans. Volume
_____ is energy in transition.
Ans. Heat
Is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and the adjacent
liquid or gas which is in motion, and it involves combine effects of
conduction and fluid motion.
Ans. Convection
Radiation is usually considered as
Ans. Surface phenomenon
Work is _____ between the system and the surroundings.
Ans. Energy
Is a process during which the system remains in equilibrium at all times
Ans. Quasi-equilibrium
In the absence of any work interactions between a system and its surrounding,
the amount of net heat transfer is equal
Ans. To the change in the total energy of a closed system
The constant volume and constant pressure specific heats are identical for
 Ans. Incompressible substance
The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center because
of the
Ans. Viscous effect
For steady flow devices, the volume of the control volume is
Ans. Constant
The work done in a turbine is _____ since it is done by the fluid.
Ans. Positive
Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the turbine work will
Ans. Increase
As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following will increase?
Ans. Mach number
As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following will decrease?
Ans. Mach number
As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following will decrease?
Ans. Internal energy
As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following will increase?
Ans. Density
As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following will NOT be
affected?
Ans. Entropy
After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle, the temperature of air
will:
Ans. Decrease
After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle, the density of air will:
Ans. Decrease
After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle, the mach number of air
will:
Ans. Decrease
By increasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle, which of the following
will not be affected?
Ans. Heat rejected
By decreasing the temperature sink of Carnot cycle, which of the following
will not be affected?
Ans. Heat added
Ans. Exothermic reaction
By reheating the steam in an ideal Rankine cycle the heat rejected will:
Ans. Increase
By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle the moisture content at
boiler exit will:
Ans. Increase
Presently the highest steam temperature allowed at the turbine inlet is about
______.
Ans. 620°C
Two most common gases employed in Stirling and Ericson cycles are:
Ans. Hydrogen and helium
In most common designs of Gas turbine, the pressure ratio ranges from:
Ans. 11 to 16
In Brayton cycle, the heat is transformed during what process?
Ans. Isobaric process
The fuel injection process in diesel engine starts when the piston_______.
Ans. Approaches TDC
If the cut-off ratio of diesel cycle increases, the cycle efficiency will:
Ans. Decrease
The fuel used in a power plant that is used during peak periods.
Ans. Liquid
Typical compression ratio of Otto cycle is
 Ans. 8
If Joule Thompson coefficient is equal to zero, then the process will become
Ans. Isothermal
Which of the following is NOT a possible location of service valve?
Ans. Outlet of condenser
A coil in series with evaporator that is use to prevent the liquid
refrigerant entering the compressor.
Ans. Drier loop
A type of valve connected from discharge of compressor directly to suction
that is normally closed and will open automatically only if there is high
discharge pressure.
Ans. Solenoid valve
Superheating the refrigerant in refrigeration system without useful cooling,
the refrigeration effect
Per unit mass will
Ans. Remains the same
By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration system, the specific volume at
compressor suction will
Ans. Remains the same
The Carnot refrigeration cycle is:
Ans. All of the above
The vapour compression cycle is essentially a reverse of:
Ans. Rankine vapor cycle
What can be considered to be theoretically exact and can be used to determine
local thermal film coefficient at a distance X from the leading edge of an
isothermal plate in laminar flow?
Ans. Pohlhausen Solution
Which one is exact and can be derived from the Pohlhausen correction by
setting cube root of Prandtl number equal to 108 and is useful in gases and
water?
Ans. Blausius Solution
What another term for skin friction coefficient?
Ans. Fanning friction factor
The Darcy friction factor is ________.
Ans. 4 times
The ______ for submerged bodies in the sum of the skin friction coefficient
is?
Ans. Drag coefficient
What can predict the average film coefficient along the entire length of
laminar flow?
Ans. Labarsky-Kauffman Correlation
When can we say that the laminar flow is “Fully Developed”?
Ans. When the difference between the surface (wall) and the mean fluid
temperature is Constant
Where is the accumulator usually located?
Ans. Before the suction line
A device used to remove moisture and foreign particles inside the
refrigeration system.
Ans. Filter drier
What is the standard value of the atmospheric pressure at the atmospheric sea
level?
Ans. 14.7 psi
Requirements are classified according to:
Ans. Manner of absorbing heat
A push or pull on anything is called:
Ans. Force
Anything that takes up space has mass
 Ans. Matter
Factor use in calculating the overall heat transfer through the tube walls of
the condenser tube of another heat transfer surface.
Ans. Fouling factor
What could be the possible cause of the abnormal discharge temperature?
Ans. All of the above
Where is the relief valve located?
Ans. At the discharge side of the compressor
What will you do before starting a refrigeration system?
Ans. Vent the condenser
What is the purpose of the expansion valve bypass?
Ans. To control the refrigerant to the evaporator in case the
automatic valve fails.
How many feed water lines are connected to the boiler?
Ans. 2
Exhaust gases from the engine possesses what type of energy?
Ans. Kinetic energy
What is the instrument used to measure density?
Ans. Hydrometer
Engine overall efficiency is ________.
Ans. Brake thermal efficiency
What is the ratio of the fuel usage rate to the power generated?
Ans. Specific fuel consumption
What is the ratio of the air mass that enters the engine to each mass of
fuel?
Ans. Air-fuel ratio
The ohmmeter is an instrument used to measure
Ans. Resistance
The ammeter is an electrical instrument used to measure
Ans. Current
The electrical pressure that pushes the electrical current or objections.
Ans. Voltage
The voltmeter is an instrument used to measure:
Ans. Voltage
When the winding is shorted, what is the resistance reading?
Ans. Zero ohm
Which tools are used to enlarge the end of the tubing to connect a fitting?
Ans. Flaring tools
The tubing is never used when the fluid temperature goes beyond 100 to 175
mm?
Ans. Plastic
The tubing to be swaged is damped in a
Ans. Flaring block
The hand tools used to lightened and loosen the fitting are
Ans. Wrenches
In soldering process, What substance is used to prevent oxidation?
Ans. Flux
The process of applying molten metal to heated metals is called:
Ans. Soldering
What is the physical state of the refrigerant?
Ans. Gas
Which of the following appliances uses a finned-coil evaporator?
Ans. Window-type air conditioner
The operation of condenser is the opposite of that of
Ans. Evaporator
Which of the following devices maintains the pressure difference between the
evaporator and the condenser?
 Ans. Flow control
What device is ideal for measuring the flow of liquid metal?
Ans. Magnetic flow meter
The frictional force that acts parallel but opposite to the direction of
motion.
Ans. Drag
A pump that transform kinetic energy into fluid static pressure.
Ans. Kinetic pump
Due to friction losses between the fluid and the pump and mechanical losses
in the pump itself.
Ans. The brake pump power will be greater than hydraulic power
The net energy actually transferred to fluid per unit time is:
Ans. Hydraulic power
The input power delivered by motor to pump.
Ans. Brake pump power
Boiler tubes are specified by
Ans. Outside diameter
The maximum size of the boiler down lines valves and fittings shall not
exceed
Ans. 2.5 inches
The purpose of an expansion tank in a hot water heating system is to provide
for the expansion of
Ans. Water
Heavy accumulation of a soot in the boiler will result in:
Ans. Loss of boiler efficiency
How are tubes secured in a fired tube boiler will result in:
Ans. Rolled and beaded over
A tube in a fire tube boiler is surrounded by:
Ans. Water
What is the formula for the factor of evaporation?
Ans. H-b/970.3
What can cause a super heater tube to overheat?
Ans. Dirty tube
How many square feet of heating surface does a 3-in fire tube 20 ft long with
a 3/16 in. wall have?
Ans. 13.7
In a high temperature hot water boiler; what could cause a tube to overheat?
Ans. Poor circulation
A down corner is:
Ans. Found in a water tube boiler
Extreme firebox temperature changes cause:
Ans. Spalling
Low water cut off:
Ans. Shuts the burner when the boiler is low on water
Steam coming from the bottom by cock would indicate:
Ans. Low water level
Why is the method to cool water called condenser not practical?
Ans. Water is expensive
A device use to collect liquid refrigerant entering the compressor to prevent
trouble in compressor is
Ans. Accumulator
A desiccant is a material that has high affinity to water. Which is the
common used desiccant?
Ans. Silica gel
The only means of preserving food in its original fresh state is
_____________.
Ans. Refrigeration
PVC means
Ans. Poly Vinyl Chloride
What does ABS means?
Ans. Acrylonitrite Butadiene Styrene
What measures the average roughness of imperfection inside the pipe?
Ans. Specific roughness
Darcy factor, friction factor is not constant but decreases as the Reynolds
number increases up to a certain point known as:
Ans. Full turbulent flow
What presents the friction factor graphically as 6 functions of Reynolds
number and relative roughness.
Ans. Moody diagram
If the flow in truly laminar, and fluid flowing in a circular pipe then which
of the equation is appropriate to use?
Ans. Hagen Poisenille Equation
Which is true about Hagen Williams equation?
Ans. It is primarily use for water
For highly turbulent flow, what causes shear stress?
Ans. Momentum Effect
In a circular pipe laminar flow momentum flux is:
Ans. Maximum at the pipe wall
If the head pressure is too high
Ans. The high pressure cut-out switch should operate
In a combustion engine cycle, what is the ratio of the net output power to
the input?
Ans. Thermal efficiency
In a reciprocating engines, what is the ratio of actual to ideal volumes of
entering gases?
Ans. Volumetric efficiency
In a combustion engine, what is the ratio of the actual power developed to
the ideal power developed?
Ans. Mechanical efficiency
The equivalent of ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for both thermal
equilibrium is described
by:
Ans. Kirchoffs law
The ideal cycle based on the concept that the combination process in both
diesel and gasoline in the combination of heat transfer process that is
constant pressure and constant volume.
Ans. Dual cycle
The ratio of the volume at the end of heat addition to the volume at the
start of heat addition is called:
Ans. Cut-off ratio
A theoretical body which when heated to incandescence would emit continuous
light ray spectrum.
Ans. Blackbody
Which of the following is the reason for insulating the pipes?
Ans. Heat loss from the surface is minimize
Heat transfer due to density differential
Ans. Convection
A process involving a gas that cannot, even in principle be reserved with
being done.
Ans. An isobaric compression
The maximum amount of heat that can be converted into mechanical energy
Ans. Depends on the intake and exhaust temperature
The maximum amount of mechanical energy converted into heat
Ans. 100%
The work output of energy heat engine.
Ans. Equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
To increase the output of a centrifugal pump, you must
Ans. Speed of rotation
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful
cooling, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Heat rejected from condenser
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful
cooling, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Mass flow rate
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful
cooling, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. COP
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful
cooling, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Compressor power
By superheating the refrigerant in vapour compression cycle with useful
cooling, which of the following will not be affected? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
Ans. Compressor power
By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapour compression cycle at condenser exit,
which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Refrigerating effect
By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapour compression cycle at condenser exit,
which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Mass flow rate
By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapour compression cycle, which
of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. COP
By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapour compression cycle, which
of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Temperature difference between evaporator and compressor
By increasing the condenser pressure in vapour compression cycle, which of
the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Compressor power
By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapour compression cycle, which
of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Moisture content after expansion
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapour compression
cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Heat rejected in the condenser
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapour compression
cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Mass flow rate
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapour compression
cycle, which of the following will not be affected? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
Ans. Compressor power
If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapour compression
cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. Heat rejected in the condenser
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapour compression
cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. COP
By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the following
will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. heat rejected
By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle, which of
the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
Ans. pump work
What type of boiler incorporates furnace water cooling in the circulatory
system?
Ans. Integral-furnace boiler
The main components of a combined cycle power plant are:
Ans. Gas turbine and waste heat boiler
Which of the following indicators is used to determine the anti-knocking
characteristics of gasoline?
Ans. Octane number
Indicate the false statement
Ans. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done.
In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
Ans. A vector quantity equal to the product of mass and velocity
A fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the cross-sectional area of the
pipe through which it flow decreases due to:
Ans. The continuity equation
The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of:
Ans. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of:
Ans. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of:
Ans. Actual velocity divided the theoretical velocity
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:
Ans. Magnetic dynamometers
In the series pipe systems, all of the following parameters vary from section
to section except
Ans. Mass flow
The coefficient of velocity accounts for the:
Ans. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice
Expansion factors take into account the
Ans. Effects of compressibility
The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what kind of fluid mechanics?
Ans. Dynamic (a time-dependent phenomena)
All of the following are forms of drug on a body moving through a fluid
except:
Ans. D’Alembert’s paradox drug
The function of a turbine is to:
Ans. Extra energy from the flow
The fact that there is no bodies moving through an ideal fluids is known as:
Ans. D’Alembert’s paradox
Liquids and gases takes the following characteristics of their contents.
Ans. Shapes
All of the following dimensionless parameters are applicable to fluid flow
problem excepts
Ans. Bolt number
All of the following can be characteristics of fluids except:
Ans. Hysteresis
The most common method for calculating frictional energy loss for laminar
flowing fluid is non- circular pipes is:
Ans. The Darcy equation
For computation convenience, fluids are usually classed as
Ans. Real and ideal
Which of the following is not a characteristics of real fluids?
Ans. Experience of eddy currents and turbulence
Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are attracted is known as:
 Ans. Cohesion
The term subsonic flow refers to a flowing gas with a speed.
Ans. Less than the local speed of sound
The difference between stagnation pressure and total pressure
Ans. None of the terms are interchangeable
The presence of FRICTION in the hydraulic grade line will always cause the
line to slope.
Ans. Down in the direction of the flow
The presence of MINOR LOSS in the energy grade line will cause the line to
slope
Ans. Down in the direction of the flow
If the Mach number is greater than 1 but less than 5
Ans. Supersonic
The flow is called SONIC when mach number is
Ans. Equal to 1
The flow is SUB-SONIC when mach number is
Ans. Less than 1
To check water level in the gauge glass of a steam boiler
Ans. Use the
The flame failure control is tested by?
Ans. Shutting off the fuel supply to the burner
During purge cycle what is the minimum amount air volume changes required?
Ans. Four (4)
The purge cycle time for gas compared to oil is:
Ans . The same
A high (CO) Carbon monoxide reading, indicates:
Ans. None of these
The induced draft fan is located:
Ans. In the breaching
A balanced draft boiler required:
Ans. Both forced and induced draft
What percent would expect in a well maintain boiler burning number 6 oil?
Ans. 15%
Laminar friction factor of fluid is flowing through a pipe is a function of
all the following except:
Ans. Pipe roughness
The stream function is a useful parameter in describing:
Ans. Conservation of mass
The study of the practical law of fluid and the resistance of open pipes and
channels is the _____
Ans. Hydraulics
The most common methods of calculating frictional energy loss for laminar
flow fluids in non-circular pipes:
Ans. Equation
The parameter in the expression for head loss is:
Ans. Darcy friction factor
The characteristic length of Reynolds number use to calculate the friction in
non-circular full running pipes is based on the:
Ans. Hydraulic diameter
The hydraulic radius of a non-circular pipe is:
Ans. The ratio of flow area to wetted parameter
An electromagnetic radiation wavelength is in the 0.1 to 10.000 mm range:
Ans. Thermal radiation
What characteristics makes the difference between a Newtonian and non-
newtonian fluids?
Ans. Their viscous behaviour
What instrument use to measure salt solution:
 Ans. Salimeter
A measure of fluid resistance to flow?
Ans. Viscosity
What is another for absolute viscosity?
Ans. Dynamic
What is the reciprocal of viscosity?
Ans. Fluidity
The density of fresh water is a ship will float.
Ans. Lower in fresh water than in sea water
Bernoulli’s equation is based on?
Ans. Conservation of energy
An express train goes past a station platform at high speed a person standing
in the edge of the platforms tend to be:
Ans. Attracted to the train
The volume of fluid flowing per second out of an orifice at the bottom. A
tank does not depend on:
Ans. Density of fluid
Addition of detergent to water
Ans. Decreases its surface tension
Water neither rise nor falls in silver capillary. This suggests that the
contact angle between the water and silver is:
Ans. 90 degrees
Most pressure in the Freon system have two dials or graduation on 1 gage what
does the two dial represent:
Ans. Temperature and pressure
The flame detector is directed:
Ans. Into the furnace area
Which of the following statement is true?
Ans. All of the above
Which of the following is a pseudo plastic fluid?
Ans. All of the choices
A type of fluids which are capable of indefinitely resisting a small shear
stress but move easily when the stress becomes large:
Ans. Bingham fluids
Which of the following is an example of Bingham fluids?
Ans. All of the above
The Bingham fluids will become pseudo plastic when:
Ans. The stress increases
A type of fluids which exhibits viscosities that increases with an increasing
velocity gradient.
Ans. Dilatant fluid
The viscosity DECREASES with time the fluid is said to be:
Ans. Thixotropic fluid
Viscosity INCREASES with time the fluid is said to be:
Ans. Rneopectic fluids
What is the dominating cause of viscosity in fluids?
Ans. Molecular cohesion
In a compressor, the piston is said to be at _____ when it is at its most
petracted position in the stroke,
Ans. Bottom dead center
Reciprocating compressors are characterized by their
Ans. Clearance volume
The gases remaining in the clearance volume after the discharge in the dead
center are known as the:
Ans. Residual gases
The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume is known as:
Ans. Percent clearance or just clearance
The work done in an adiabatic (isentropic), process is _____ the work done by
the isothermal process;
Ans. Less than
The work done in an isentropic compressor is ____ the work done by the
isothermal compressor;
Ans. Greater than
The term used to describe a partially compressed gases withdrawn cooled and
compressed further;
Ans. Intercooling
A perfect intercooling refers to the case where the gases cooled to:
Ans. The original inlet temperature
Multi stage blowers can reach pressure up to ____ of water;
Ans. 100 inches
What represents the ratio of the coefficient of the friction at the expanded
in pumping a fluid;
Ans. Fried heat transfer efficiency factor
What is the proper oil storage temp for No. 6 oil?
Ans. 20 ºF above pour point
To prime a pump
Ans. Fill casing with water
Balance draft means;
Ans. Almost atmosphere pressure in the furnace
A gallon of No. 6 oil contains:
Ans. 152,000 Btu
What is the efficiency of a steam plant with a heat rate of 12,000 Btu/KW?
Ans. 28.4%
What type of fuel must be preheated to burn properly?
Ans. Heavy oil
The fuel oil for mechanical atomizing burners is usually heated
Ans. 150 ºF
Fuel suppliers specify a minimum flash point for their oil because low flash
point oil is;
Ans. Dangerous
How many cubic feet of furnace volumes are needed to burn one gallon of No. 6
oil?
Ans. 10
A fuel oil is heated its viscosity
Ans. Decreases
How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is
modified with regeneration? The heat rejected will;
Ans. Decreases
During a combustion process, the components which exist before the reaction
are called
Ans. Reactants
Is an obvious reason for incomplete combustion.
Ans. Insufficient oxygen
Higher heating value when H2O in the product of combustion is in
Ans. Liquid form
Device which transfer heat from low temperature medium to a high temperature
one is a
Ans. Heat pump
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by _____ for each °C the evaporating
temperature is raised or the condensing temperature is lowered.
Ans. 2 to 4%
Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than other heating
systems, but they save money in the long run,
Ans. Heat pumps
The most widely used absorption system is the ammonia-water system, where
ammonia serves as refrigerant and H2O as the
Ans. Transport medium
What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction of 1/2?
Ans. Rarsons turbine
The cooling water is made to fall in series of baffles to expose large
surface area for steam fed from below to come in direct contact.
Ans. Barometric condenser
Show the variation of river flow (discharge) with time.
Ans. Hydrograph
The pressure at the bottom of a vessel filled with liquids does not depend on
the;
Ans. Area of the liquid surface
A person stands on a very sensitive scale, inhales deeply the reading on the
scale:
Ans. Depends on the expansion of the person’s chest, relative to the
volume inhaled.
Buoyancy occurs because, with increasing depth in a fluid:
Ans. The pressure increases
In order for an object to sink when placed in water its average specific
gravity must be;
Ans. More than 1
The average solar energy heating the outer edge atmosphere is approximately
442 Btu per hour-foot squared of 1.41KW per meter squared is known as:
Ans. Solar constant
The ratio of total dissolve solids in the recirculating water to the total
solids in the make-up water.
Ans. Cycles of concentration
What is the another term for Bryton cycle:
Ans. Joule cycle
The process of transferring heat from low temperature area to high
temperature area;
Ans. Refrigeration
The device to remove heat from water:
Ans. Chiller
What device which transfer heat from low temperature area to operate on
refrigeration system:
Ans. Heat pump
Refers to the process of one substance mixing with another substance:
Ans. Diffusion
Which of the following statement about Newtonian fluid is most accurate:
Ans. Shear stress is proportional to the rate of strain
Which is not characteristic of fluids?
Ans. Hysteresis
The relationship between pressure and altitude in the atmosphere:
Ans. Barometric height relationship
Flash point means:
Ans. Ignition temperature
Fire point means:
Ans. None of the above
Bernoulli’s equation is a
Ans. Conservation of energy equation
The pressure at given depth due to several immiscible liquid is:
Ans. The sum of individual pressure
The relationship between pressure and altitude in the atmosphere is given by
the
Ans. Barometric height relationship
The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the weight
of the water displaced
Ans. Archimedes principle
Which of the following terms does not appear in the steady flow energy
equation in the extended Bernoulli’s equation
Ans. Hysteresis losses
The pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as described by the
Bernouilli equation and the relationship between;
Ans. Kinetic energy and static pressure
Fully turbulent flow in a pipe is characterized by all the following except:
Ans. Parabolic velocity profile
What is the bulk modulus of the water is;
Ans. 300,000 psi
Atmospheric pressure does not correspond to approximately;
Ans. 98 N/m2
Hydraulic press is able to produce a mechanical advantage because;
Ans. An external pressure extended on a fluid is transmitted uniformly
through its volume
In the operation of a hydraulic press, it is impossible for the output piston
to exceed the input piston
Ans. Work
If one of the management legs is inclined it is known as:
Ans. Draft gauge
Why are manometer tube generally large in diameter?
Ans. To avoid significant capillary effect
Bernoulli’s equation is an energy conservation based on several reasonable
assumptions:
Ans. All of the above
Body that emits a constant emissivity, regardless of the wavelength;
Ans. Gray body
What gives the total emissive power from a black body
Ans. Stefan-Boltzmann law of the fourth power
What accounts for the spatial arrangement of the body and their emissivity;
Ans. Emissivity factor
The gray body shape factor is the product of the
Ans. Black body shape factor and emissivity factor
The product of the area and the shape factor is known as;
Ans. Geometric flux
Surfaces that re-radiates absorb thermal radiation are known as;
Ans. Refractor materials of refractories
Pitot tube used to measure
Ans. Velocity
Liquid gases take the following characteristics of the containers:
Ans. Shape
For computational convenience usually classed as:
Ans. Real and ideal
Which of the following statement about Newtonian fluid is more accurate?
Ans. Shear stress is proportional to the rate of strain
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a real of fluid?
Ans. Experience of eddy current and turbulence
One could expect the possibility of REYNOLD’S NUMBER similarity in all of the
following cases except
Ans. Closed pipe turbulent flow
One could expect the possibility of FROUDE NUMBER similarity in all of the
following cases except
Ans. Subsonic airflows
The absolute viscosity of a fluid varies in pressure and temperature as a
function of;
Ans. Shear and angular deformation rate
Turbulent flow of a fluid in a pipe. All of the following except;
Ans. Reynold’s number will be less than 2300
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except;
Ans. Magnetic dynamometer
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except;
Ans. Mercury barometer
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except;
Ans. Precision tachometer
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using OBSTRUCTION METERS except;
Ans. Volume tanks
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using VELOCITY meters except;
Ans. Weight and mass scales
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using FLOW METERS except;
Ans. Positive displacement meters
In series pipe systems which of the following parameters vary from section to
section except;
Ans. Mass flow
Venturimeter, pitot static gauges, flow nozzles, manometer vary with;
Ans. Flow velocity and pressure
Other name for R 729?
Ans. Air
In an indirect refrigeration system, which of the following is used to
measure the density of brine?
Ans. Hydrometer
Which of the following is the result of opening a hand expansion valve too
much in a refrigeration system?
Ans. Evaporator will “freeze back” to compressor
If one of the manometer legs is inclined, it is known as:
Ans. Draft gauge
Why are monometer tubes generally large in diameter?
Ans. To avoid significant capillary effect
Bernoulli’s equation is an energy conservation based on several reasonable
assumptions:
Ans. All of the above
Body that emits a constant emissivity, regardless of the wavelength:
Ans. Gray body
What gives the total emissive from a black body:
Ans. Stefan-boltzman law of the fourth power
What accounts for the spatial arrangements of the body and their emissivity?
Ans. Emissivity factor
The gray body shape factor is the product of the
Ans. Black body shape factor and emissivity factor
The product of the area and the shape factor is known as:
Ans. Geometric flux
Surfaces that re-radiates absorb thermal radiation are known as:
Ans. Refractory materials of refractories
Pitot-tube used to measure
Ans. Velocity
Liquid gases take the following characteristic of the containers:
Ans. Shape
Which of the following statement about Newtonian fluid is more accurate?
 Ans. Shear stress is proportional to the rate of strain
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a real fluid?
Ans. Experience of eddy current and turbulence
One could expect the possibility of Reynold’s number similarity in all of the
following cases except
Ans. Closed pipe turbulent flow
One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of the
following cases except
Ans. Subsonic airflows
Difference between energy grade line (friction) and the energy line friction
loss is:
Ans. Friction and minor losses
The absolute viscosity of a fluid varies in pressure and temperature as a
function of:
Ans. Shear and angular deformation rate
Turbulent flow of a fluid in a pipe. All of the following are true except:
Ans. Reynold’s number will be less than 2300
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:
Ans. Mercury barometer
Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:
Ans. Precision tachometer
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using OBSTRUCTION METERS except:
Ans. Volume tank
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using VELOCITY METERS except:
Ans. Weight and mass scales
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to
measure flow rates using FLOW METERS except:
Ans. Positive displacement meter
In series pipe systems which of the following parameters vary from section to
section except:
Ans. Mass flow
Venturimeter, pitot static gauges, flow nozzles, manometers vary with:
Ans. Flow velocity and pressure
Other name for R 729?
Ans. Air
In an indirect refrigeration system, which of the following is used to
measure the density of the brine?
Ans. Hydrometer
Which of the following is the result of opening a hand expansion valve too
much in a refrigeration system?
Ans. Evaporator will “freeze back” to compressor
Types of turbine used up to 300m head.
Ans. Deriaz turbine
A turbine that has a diagonal flow.
Ans. Deriaz turbine
Oil is atomized either by air blast or pressure jet at about
Ans. 70 bar
Type of solid injection that use single pump supplies fuel under high
pressure to a fuel header.
Ans. Common rail injection
Water flow in diesel engine that is caused by density differential.
Ans. Thermosiphon cooling
Type of lubrication system in diesel engine in which oil from pump is carried
to a separate storage tank outside the engine cylinder and used for high
capacity engine.
 Ans. Dry sump lubricating system
Produces extreme pressure differentials and violent gas vibration
Ans. Detonation
In a spark ignition engine, the detonation occurs near the______________.
Ans. End of combustion
In a compression ignition engine, the detonation occurs near the
_____________.
Ans. Beginning of combustion
Morse test is used to measure the _________ of multi-cylinder engine.
Ans. Indicated power
Ignition delay can be minimized by adding ______ to decrease engine knocking.
Ans. Ethyl nitrate
The work done in throttling valve is
Ans. Zero
Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a fluid when it is brought to
rest ______.
Ans. Adiabatically
Represents the temperature an ideal gas attains when it is brought to rest
adiabatically.
Ans. Stagnation temperature
After passing through a nozzle the density of fluid decreases as the fluid
velocity.
Ans. Increases
The volume flow passes through a venture meter will
Ans. Constant
A converging-diverging nozzle is the standard equipment in
Ans. Supersonic aircraft
Nozzles efficiencies range from
Ans. 90%-99%
By reheating the steam before entering the second stage in Rankine cycle,
which of the following will increase?
Ans. Heat rejected
Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol
Ans. Gasohol
In an evaporator section in refrigerating unit, which of the following is the
function of evaporator?
Ans. Absorption of latent heat of vaporization
Which of the following may not be the type of bulb in R-12 refrigeration
system?
Ans. Duplex
Which of the following shuts down the compressor motor when discharge
pressure rises to a predetermined point, it CUTS IN MOTOR when pressure drops
to predetermined pressure:
Ans. High pressure cut-off switch
Which of the following shuts down the compressor motor when discharge
pressure rises to a predetermined pressure and SHUTS DOWN THE COMPRESSOR
motor when there is decrease in pressure in the suction line.
Ans. Low pressure cut-off switch
The P.O. service pump must have:
Ans. A means of shutting down from outside the machinery space
The relief valve on the P.O. transfer pump discharge
Ans. Back to the transfer pump discharge
When heating hot water, feed pump should at least be how many mm to prevent
vapor lock? Ans.1220 mm
The water column should be provided with a valve drain at least:
Ans. 15 mm pipe size
Lubricating oils have flash points from
 Ans. 375-800 degree Fahrenheit
A device receives information in one form of instrument signal and transmits
an output in another form;
Ans. converter
Refinement petroleum Naphtha which by its composition is suitable for use in
internal combustion engine;
Ans. Gasoline
It is possible for water to get into the fuel oil by:
Ans. All of the above
Air chambers are attached to the:
Ans. Discharge side of the reciprocating pumps
On automatic combustion control:
Ans. Reduce the number of burners when the oil pressure approaches
minimum specified
The volumetric efficiency of the compressor increases as the suction
pressure:
Ans. Increase
As the discharge pressure increases, the volumetric efficiency:
Ans. Increases
When the suction And discharge pressure are varied in such a direction that
the compression ratio is increased, the volumetric efficiency of the
compressor:
Ans. Decrease
For a compressor of any given clearance, the volumetric efficiency
Ans. Varies with compression ratio
The useful energy transfer in Btu/hr divided by input power in Watts;
Ans. Energy efficiency ratio
If air is humidified by injecting steam of by pressuring the air through a
hot water spray, the dry bulb temperature and enthalpy of air
Ans. Increase
Air passing through a solid or absorbed bed, such as silica gel or activated
alumina will:
Ans. Decrease in humidity
A device that passes air through dense spray of recirculating water;
Ans. Air washer
The mass of water sprayed to the mass of air passing through the washer per
unit time.
Ans. Spray ratio
When the cooling tower is used to provide cold water for the condense of a
refrigerator system the water circulation system will be approximately:
Ans. 3 gal/min-ton
Water lost in small droplets and carried away by the air flow:
Ans. Drift
The ratio of total dissolved solids in the circulating water to the dissolved
solids in the make-up water
Ans. Ratio of concentration
Through windage removes some solids, most must be removed by bleeding some of
the water.
Ans. Bleed-off
A dry cooling tower where stream travels through large diameter trunks to a
cross-flow heat exchanger where it is condensed and cooled by air;
Ans. Direct condensing tower
An economizer is used to:
Ans. Heat the feedwater before it enters the boiler
A manometer measures:
Ans. Air pressure
A pyrometer measures:
 Ans. Stack pressure
An attemperator is another name for a
Ans. Desuperheater
Waterwalls are used to:
Ans. Carry of excess heat from the furnace walls
The studs on waterwalls tubes are to:
Ans. Give added surface area to tubes
The heats remove from the cold area
Ans. Use for energy transfer
On the upstroke of the piston, the low pressure vapor is first compressed and
then discharged as high pressure vapor through the discharged valves into
the:
Ans. Head of the compressor
The vapor that remains the clearance space at the end discharge stroke is
called
Ans. Clearance vapor
Which of the following steps would you take if you found an accumulation of
oil on the furnace floor?
Ans. Open all registers
Which of the following method can be used to clean up the inside of the
boiler?
Ans. All of the above
Another term for the oil discharge strainer is the:
Ans. Hot strainer
In a controlled feed water system the power water level maintained by:
Ans. The fluctuation water level in the boiler
The difference between the enthalpy of the product at a specific state and
the enthalpy of reactants at the same state for a complete reaction:
Ans. Enthalpy of reaction
The amount of heat released during a steady flow combustion process when I kg
of fuel burned completely at a specific temperature and pressure.
Ans. Enthalpy of combustion
The enthalpy of a substance at a specific state due to its chemical
composition
Ans. Enthalpy of formation
The inlet side of condenser tube are rolled and flared to:
Ans. Allows a smoother entrance flow of circulating water
The purpose of inspection plates on the main condenser is to:
Ans. Check tubes without removing condenser heads
A pump that has one steam cylinder and two liquid cylinders is called a:
Ans. Tandem pump
A mixture of dry air and superheated water vapor
Ans. Unsaturated air
When the air is unsaturated, what is the relation between the dry bulb
temperature and wet bulb temperature?
Ans. Less than
The difference between the dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature
Ans. Wet bulb depression
The relative ratio of water vapor to dry air is:
Ans. Humidity ratio
Also known as humidity ratio:
Ans. Specific humidity
The ratio of the actual humidity ratio to the saturated humidity ratio:
Ans. Degree of saturation
Also known as saturation ration:
Ans. Percentage humidity
The partial pressure of the water vapor divided by the saturation pressure:
 Ans. Relative humidity
Rapidly increasing the temperature through the air of a chord will cause the
water in the gauge to
Ans. Evaporate
Since the increase in the water vapor a latent heat contents equals the
decrease in the air’s sensible heat, the total enthalpies before and after
adiabatic saturation is:
Ans. Equal
An adiabatic saturation process follows a line of constant
Ans. Dew point temperature
Which of the following used with adiabatic saturation process?
Ans. Saturation efficiency
The saturation efficiency of a large commercial air washer is typically
Ans. 80%-90%
The presence of oil or scale on the boiler tubes causes:
Ans. Overheating
What would you do before giving a boiler bottom blow off?
Ans. Raise the water level
When installing a new gauge glass in water gauge, you should secure the bolts
from?
Ans. Center, alternately, toward each end
One of the main purpose of refractories in the boiler furnace is to:
Ans. Prevent excessive furnace heat losses
A fuel oil service pump steam valves are fitted with:
Ans. Each rod leading to a location outside the fire room
Water tube boilers have
Ans. No fusible plugs
The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler in the feed
water line:
Ans. Feed check valve
The fuel oil heater is located
Ans. On the discharge side of the service pump
In the forced draft system:
Ans. One fan supplies air to all furnaces
In the closed fire room system
Ans. The fire room is supplied with air from one fan
The air cock on a boiler is located at the:
Ans. Highest point of the steam and water drum
Soot blowers should be used in proper sequence so that
Ans. The soot will be upright toward the uptake
What is the first thing you would check on taking over a watch?
Ans. The water level
A boiler with a fan/blower located in the uptake is operating on
Ans. Induced draft
A fire room that is isolated (closed) operates on:
Ans. Forced draft
How many feed water lines are connected to the boiler?
Ans. Two
If the water in the gauge glass has not been blown for a period of time, the
level of water in the glass will be:
Ans. less than that in the steam and water drum
The enthalpy of fluid when it is brought to rest adiabatically
Ans. Stagnation enthalpy
In the absence of any heat and work and any changes in potential energy, the
stagnation enthalpy of a fluid during a steady flow process:
Ans. remains constant
During the stagnation process, which of the following is converted to
enthalpy?
Ans. Kinetic energy
The cross section of a nozzle at the smallest flow area is called:
Ans. Throat
The properties of a fluid at a location where the Mach number is unity are
called:
Ans. Critical properties
What is the average fuel oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge
line?
Ans. 180-200 degree F
Which of the following is a common type of oil burner?
Ans. All of the above
The boiler gauge glass should be blown down.
Ans. At the beginning of every watch
Gauge pressure of 200 pounds is equivalent to what absolute pressure?
Ans. 215
In a fuel oil service system, the quick closing fuel oil shut-off valve is
located between the:
Ans. Master fuel oil shutoff valve and the boiler
A fuel oil meter placed between the fuel oil service pumps and the fuel oil
heaters.
Ans. Cold-type meter
The presence of oil or scale on boiler tubes causes:
Ans. Overheating
What would you do before giving a boiler bottom blow off:
Ans. raises the water level
When installing a new gauge glass in a water gauge you should secure the
bolts from:
Ans. Center, alternately towards each ends
One of the main purpose of refractories in the boiler furnace is to:
Ans. Prevent excessive furnace heat losses
A fuel oil service pump steam valves are fitted with:
Ans. Each rod leading to a location outside the fire room
Water tube boilers have
Ans. No fusible plugs
The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler in the feed
water line:
Ans. Feed check valve
The fuel oil heater is located
Ans. On the discharge side of the service pump
In the forced draft system:
Ans. One fan supplies air to all furnaces
In the closed fire room system
Ans. The fire room is supplied with air from one fan
The air cock on a boiler is located at the:
Ans. Highest point of the steam and water drum
Soot blowers should be used in proper sequence so that
Ans. The soot will be upright toward the uptake
What is the first thing you would check on taking over a watch?
Ans. The water level
A boiler with a fan blower located in the uptake is operating on
Ans. Induced draft
A fire room that is isolated (closed) operates on:
Ans. Forced draft
How many feed water lines are connected to the boiler?
Ans. Two
If the water in the gauge glass has not been blown down for a period, the
level of water in the glass will be:
Ans. Less than that in the steam and water
The enthalpy of fluid when it is brought to rest adiabatically.
Ans. Stagnation enthalpy
In the absence of any heat and work and any changes in potential energy, the
stagnation enthalpy of a fluid during a steady flow process;
Ans. Remains constant
During the stagnation process, which of the following is converted to
enthalpy?
Ans. Kinetic energy
The cross section of a nozzle at the smallest flow area is called:
Ans. Throat
The properties of a fluid at a location where a Mach number is unity are
called:
Ans. Critical properties
What is the average fuel oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge
line?
Ans. 180-200 degree Fahrenheit
Which of the following is a common type of burner?
Ans. All of the above
The boiler gauge glass should be blown down.
Ans. At the beginning of every watch
Gauge pressure of 200 pounds is equivalent to what absolute pressure?
Ans. 215
In a fuel oil service system, the quick closing fuel oil shut-off valve is
located between the:
Ans. Master fuel oil shutoff
A fuel oil meter placed between the fuel oil service pump and fuel oil heater
Ans. Cold-type meter
When securing a scotch boiler
Ans. The belly plug must be removed
If the cooling coils temperature is between the airs dew point, the moisture
will
Ans. Condense
What occurs when the air passes through a water spray in an air washer?
Ans. Evaporative cooling process
To prevent ice buildup, the cooled air temperature should be kept from
dropping
Ans. Below the freezing point of water
What precaution must be taken before using steam soot blowers?
Ans. Drain thoroughly
Which of the following would you do before blowing the tubes with steam soot
blower?
Ans. All of the above
Sputtering oil burners might indicate
Ans. Water in the fuel oil
The boiler feed water in the feed water heater is heated by:
Ans. Auxiliary exhaust steam
If the boiler is smoking white smoke, a possible cause would be:
Ans. Too much air
The Edwards-type air pump has:
Ans. One set of valve
A scoop condenser is a:
Ans. Single pass condenser
The purpose of the steam to baffle in a condenser
Ans. Prevent the steam from hitting directly on the cooler tubes
The condenser vacuum feed valve is open and the water in the reserve tank is
dry. The result is:
Ans. A loss of vacuum
The division plate in a two-pass-condenser
Ans. Prevents the circulating water from passing directly to overload
discharge
The holes in Kinghorn-valve disks
Ans. B
The equilibrium temperature that a regular thermometer measure if exposed to
atmospheric air:
Ans. Dry bulb temperature
The temperature of air that has gone through an adiabatic saturation process
Ans. Wet bulb temperature
If the vapor pressure equals the saturation process, the air is said to be:
Ans. Saturated
When the air is saturated, the dry bulb, wet bulb and the dew point
temperature are
Ans. Equal
On taking over a watch, one should check
Ans. All of the above
When you are cleaning fuel oil burner tips, use a
Ans. Brass knife
The amount of steam generated by a boiler is dependent upon
Ans. All of the above
A boiler operated at a pressure not exceeding 1.055 kg/cm2 gauge steam of
temperature not exceeding 120oC.
Ans. Low pressure heating boiler
No part of the steam generator should be closer than how many from the wall?
Ans. 1 m
Steam generator should be mounted over a suitable foundation or concrete not
less than 305 mm thick and with sufficient area at base to be supported the
bearing capacity of the soil with a factor of safety of
Ans. Not less than 4
No smoke stacks should be closer than how many millimeters from the exposed
woodwork or framing
Ans. 305 mm
The air on an extinguisher fire should be
Ans. Kept closed
Too low F.O. temperature will cause
Ans. Poor combustion and smoky fires
What precaution must be taken before using steam soot blowers?
Ans. All of the above
Which of the following would cause a flareback?
Ans. Trying to relight from hot brickwork
The division plate in a two-pass-condenser
When the fuel-oil temperature is too high it causes
Ans. Carbon deposits on the fuel-oil heater coils
A dry cooling tower where steam is condensed by cold water jets
Ans. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
The hot condensate is pumped to cross heat exchangers whose it is cooled by.
Ans. Air
Which of the following is the refrigerant “of choice” in entering air
conditioning
Ans. R-22
In new equipment, which of the following replaces R-11
Ans. R-12
The super heater is used to
 Ans. Remove moisture from steam
Water tube boilers are
Ans. Rolled in
The recirculating valve is used to
Ans. Recirculate and heat the fuel oil prior to lighting off
The fusible plug in a scotch boiler are found in the
Ans. Fire tubes
Which of the following valves are arranged in a Y-branch fitting?
Ans. Boiler-drum safety valves
The coils in the feedwater heater are secured by.
Ans. Union fitting
Natural draft towers can cool the water to within.
Ans. 10 to 12oF
Force draft towers can cool the water to within
Ans. 5 to 8oF
When you light a fire in the burner, you must always
Ans. Use a torch
The recirculating line on the burner valves returns the oil to the
Ans. Suction side of service pump
The valve which shuts off liquid line with the least amount of resistance to
flow.
Ans. Gate valve
The process applied to iron pipe which retards corrosion is called
Ans. Galvanizing
Listed in sequence, iron pipe series are;
Ans. ¼ ,3/8, ½, ¾
The two main purpose of the main condenser are;
Ans. Convert exhaust steam to water
Pyrometer is a
Ans. High temperature thermometer
The temperature and humidity of the air to be used for comfort cooling shall
be maintained at effective temperature at air movement within the range from
Ans. 0.0762 to 0.127m/s
As the air enters the living zone the air motion in such occupied space and
which the only source of contaminants shall have a velocity of not more than
Ans. 0.294m/s
In air conditioning and ventilation standards, as the air enters into living
zone, the distance above the floor is
Ans. 1.603mm
Carbon dioxide concentration in air when measured 910 mm above the floor
shall be estimated
Ans. 1000ppm
The useful refrigerating effect equals to 211kj/mm is
Ans. Tons of refrigeration
Another name for the fuel oil suction strainer;
Ans. Cold strainer
In a manually controlled feed water heater system the proper water level is
maintained by
Ans. Operating the feed check valve
The actual refrigerating capacity of the compressor
Ans. Always less than the theoretical capacity
The ratio of the actual displacement of the compressor to its piston
displacement
Ans. Total or real volumetric efficiency
Cyclone super heater are located in the
Ans. Steam and water drum
The purpose of the blow valve is
 Ans. Removes oil and scum from surface of water
The purpose of the salinometer cock is to
Ans. Obtain a sample of boiler water for testing
Salt in boiler water usually contains from
Ans. Leaky condenser tubes
Before blowing down a boiler always
Ans. Open skin valves
The mass flow rate produced by the compressor is
Ans. Equal to the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor takes
in the entire suction inlet unit time
In order to increase back pressure, one must
Ans. Close in on the back pressure valve
The actual steam that condenses in the feedwater heater
Ans. Discharge to the hotwell
The excess steam pressure in the back pressure system exhausts to the
Ans. Atmosphere through a relief valve
The air pressure supplied to the boiler is measure in
Ans. Inches of water
The condensate from the coils in the fuel oil heater to the fuel oil heaters
goes to the
Ans. Observation tank
The valve between the fuel oil heaters and the burner valve is called the
Ans. Root valve
The safety device located in the crown sheet of a scotch boiler is called a
Ans. Fusible plug
Tube retarders in scotch boilers are used to
Ans. Slow down the combustion gases
In Order for oil to burn properly it must
Ans. All of the above
The steam that is discharge from safety valves goes to the
Ans. Atmospheric line
The polytrophic exponent approaches one with the change in the
process____approaches zero
Ans. Temperature
The change in kinetic energy of a process ___ as the change in temperature of
the process path increases
Ans. Increases
The final temperature of an isobaric process if the system work in a
_____Quantity and the Surrounding heat transfer to the system
Ans. Positive
As the volume of an isothermal expansion process approaches its first value
the rate of change in the system pressure.
Ans. Decreases
As a fluid flow through a pipe, their potential energy
Ans. Decreases
The heat of compression___ as suction vapor becomes super heated
Ans. Increases
The heat content of the refrigeration cycle____ when a liquid- suction line
heat exchanger is installed
Ans. Remains the same
The COP of refrigeration cycle___ with subcooling
Ans. Increases
Which defrost method is commonly used small commercial application where the
forms on the evaporator surfaces?
Ans. Hot gas
Which of the following liquid-chilling evaporator types incorporates overflow
heat exchangers?
 Ans. Baudelot
Which of the following is not a unit of energy?
Ans. Watt
The unit of specific heat are:
Ans. Btu/lbm.oF
Phase change process is constant________process.
Ans. None of the above
Which of the following sequences accurately indicates the responses that
occur when heat is transferred from a gas?
Ans. Sensible heat of vapors, latent heat of vaporization, sensible
heat of liquids, latent heat of fusion, sensible heat of fluids
Btu/lbm is units of
Ans. Specific enthalpy
As a liquid changes phase to vapor, its enthalpy
Ans. Increases
As a liquid changes phase to a vapor, its entropy
Ans. Decreases
The vaporization process that occurs at TEMPERATURES below the triple point
of a substance is_____
Ans. Sublimation
The Vaporization process that occurs when the VAPOR PRESSURE of a substance
is equal to the atmospheric pressure is:
Ans. Boiling
As the pressure of a vapor increases, the amount of work increases and its
enthalpy____
Ans. Increases
The entropy of R-134a in a saturated liquid phase at 40 psi is approximately
Ans.21 BTU/lb-oF
The latent heat of vaporization of R-134a in its saturated vapor phase at 0
degree C is approximately.
Ans.196.7Kj/Kg
The condenser of a commercial display cause that is located within the unit
is called
Ans. B and C
Which of the following characteristics of early refrigeration systems which
applies to today’s units.
Ans. Relatively expensive
System make it possible in.
Ans. All of the above
_______is method used to reduce the dehydration of sensitive fruits and
vegetable during the chilling process
Ans. Water chilling
Which of the following is not a step in preparing vegetables for frozen
storage?
Ans. Coating with syrup
Loss of food juices by osmosis is a consequence of the ______ freezing
process.
Ans. Immersion
Heat transfer that occurs primarily by conduction is used for ____ freezing
process.
Ans. All of the above
A disadvantage of sharp freezing is the
Ans. All of the above
Frozen storage chamber temperature set points are usually.
Ans. -20.5 degree C
Which of the following is not a unit of density?
Ans. Lb/ft3
Wrapping and refrigerating food products extends the storage life of
Ans. Meat
The approximate life of strawberries is.
Ans. None of the above
Which of the following is not category of refrigeration application?
Ans. Transportation air conditioning
Which of the following is not an industrial application
Ans. Meat display cases
Which of the following variable is not most often maintain by a commercial
air conditioning unit?
Ans. Temperature
Providing clean, filtered air for trouble free operation of equipment and
instrumentation is a function of?
Ans. Industrial air conditioning process
______ is one of the most common application of mechanical refrigeration.
Ans. Preservation of perishable commodities.
The air conditioning systems for cabins on a luxury ocean liner belongs to
the ____ category.
Ans. Commercial air conditioning
Mechanical refrigeration system makes it possible to;
Ans. All of the above
As the liquid changes to a vapor. The enthalpy
Ans. Increases
Which of the following systems has the most complicated oil return system?
Ans. Direct staged
Which of the following process does not after the kinetic energy level of a
substance?
Ans. Fusion
200 degrees F is equal to
Ans. None of the above
An evaporator in a refrigeration unit makes use of which heat transfer mode?
Ans. All of the above
When a service technician places his/her hand on a suction line to check the
operation of a system, he/she is using which heat transfer modes?
Ans. Conduction
Energy added to a vapor is known as
Ans. B and C
The rate of changes velocity is called:
Ans. Acceleration
Which of the following devices should be used to measure a pressure of 90kpa?
Ans. All of the above
The height of the mercury column in a barometer placed on a mountain with a
local pressure of 12.5 psi will be?
Ans. All of the above.
A compound gauge measuring a pressure of 22.44 inches of mercury is
equivalent to an absolute pressure of
Ans. 11.0 Psia
The electric meter on a home or building measure the amount of that was
consumed over the billing period.
Ans. Energy
Which of the following is not a method of food preservation?
Ans. Grilling
Which of the following is not plant, animal or fungi?
Ans. Enzyme
Which of the following refrigerant group denote a more toxic vapor?
Ans. B3
What is the molecular weight of helium in 3600 Btu lb K?
 Ans. 4.0 lb mol
In an isobaric process changes in pressure can be caused by changes in.
Ans. None of the above
Boyle’s law states that a pressure and volume change in gas process is
_____related.
Ans. Inversely
As a gas is heated in an ISOTHERMAL gases the VOLUME
Ans. Increases
As a gas is heated in an ISOBARIC gas the VOLUME
Ans. Decreases
As a gas is heated in an ISOMETRIC gases the VOLUME
Ans. Remains constant
As the volume of a gas decreases, its specific gas constant
Ans. Remains constant
Vapor do not behave as ideal gases because they experience
Ans. Friction
The unit of latent heat of VAPORIZATION are:
Ans. None of the above
The unit of latent HEAT OF FUSION are:
Ans. Btu-lbm
A smaller temperature difference between the refrigerant in the liquid line
and that in the evaporator____ the mass flow rate of the refrigerant needed
per ton of refrigeration effect.
Ans. Decreases
Oil separators are used in system where:
Ans. All of the above
Which evaporator design incorporates secondary surface heat transfer?
Ans. Finned-tube
Eutectic filled plate evaporator have a higher_____ than evacuated plate
evaporators:
Ans. All of the above
Which evaporator circuit configuration is less effective when used in
expansion load applications.
Ans. Cross-flow
Which of the following evaporators feed methods produces the greatest surface
without the use of a liquid pump.
Ans. Flooded
What type of force convection unit cooler is used in vegetable storage
application that require a velocity of approximately 120m/min?
Ans. Medium velocity
Which of the following is not a hydrocarbon refrigerants
Ans. inane
Which of the following refrigerants is most hazardous?
Ans. R-717
A mixture of two or more refrigerants is called a___
Ans. Zoetrope
Dessicants are used to remove___ from refrigerants
Ans. Moisture
As an oil-miscible refrigerant mixes with oil, the viscosity of the oil___
Ans. Decreases
The society that sponsors research on refrigerants is called:
Ans. ASHRAE
The scale factor for hard water used in a condenser is:
Ans. 0.002
As the altitude of a forced air-condenser increases, the surface area of the
coil or volume flow rate of the fan must:
Ans. Increase
As the water temperature entering a water-cooled condenser decrease, the
power drawn by the compressor.
Ans. Decrease
Which of the ff does not increase the volumetric efficiency of a compressor?
Ans. Decreasing the discharge pressure
What is the compressor operating with a 30 psig suction pressure and a
discharge pressure?
Ans. 3.13
As the length of the tubes in a chiller barrel increases, the pressure drop
across the inlet and outlet of the barrel:
Ans. Increases
_____ decreases the volumetric efficiency of a compressor
Ans. Decreasing the suction pressure
The mechanical efficiency of a compressor_____ as the compressor load
increases.
Ans. Remain the same
The saturated suction temperature used in the selection of a compressor
corresponds to the pressure of the vapor at the
Ans. Inlet of the compressor
A smaller temperature difference between the refrigerant in the liquid line
and that in the evaporator ____ the mass flow rate of the refrigerant needed
per ton of refrigerating effect.
Ans. Decreases
The difference between the saturation pressure in the evaporator and that in
the condenser___ as the suction temperature decreases.
Ans. Increases
The COP and the efficiency of a refrigeration cycle____ as the vaporizing
temperature increases
Ans. Increases
The volume of vapor that the compressor must handle per minute per ton____ as
the vaporizing temperature increases.
Ans. Decreases
The quantity of heat rejected at the condenser per unit capacity per
minute____ as the vaporizing temperature decreases.
Ans. Decreases
As the amount of scale on the refrigerant tubes of an evaporative condenser
increases, the scale formation of hot surfaces
Ans. Decreases
As the cycles of concentration in a tower or evaporative increases, the scale
formation of hot surfaces:
Ans. Increases
The____ can only be effectively employed in industrial process that has
constant refrigeration load.
Ans. Hand expansion valve
The device used to transfer forces across a sealed boundary is called:
Ans. Diaphragm
The device used to measure the effects of a large pressure drop across the
evaporator is called a
Ans. External equalizer
The mass flow rate of refrigerant per unit capacity____ as the condensing
pressure decreases.
Ans. Decreases
It consists of a tapered glass tube set vertically in the fluid or gaseous
piping system with its large end at the top and a metering float free to move
vertically in the tube
Ans. Rotameter
Also termed as monitor light, it indicates which among a number of normal
conditions of a system or device exist.
Ans. Pilot light
Which of the following is not a caliper?
Ans. Feeler gage
An underground formation that contains sufficient saturated permeable
material to yield significant quantities of water.
Ans. Aquifer
Chemical used to speed up sewage sedimentation:
Ans. Lime
Power expenditure when a current of the one ampere flow across two points
having a voltage drop of one volt.
Ans. Watt
Prandtl number for air is generally in the order of
Ans. 0.70
Relative humidity of air to be used in standard air cooling: Ans. 55%-60%
A refrigerating system in which the pressure-imposing element is mechanically
operated:
Ans. Compression
A cushioning device all the end of a trolley, bridge or other moving parts of
a crane operating on rails to minimize shock in the event of collision:
Ans. Buffer
A boom type mobile crane mounted on endless track or treated belts:
Ans. Crawler crane
An apparatus for raising or lowering a load by the application of a pulling
force but does not include a car or platform riding in guides:
Ans. Hoist
Most widely used industrial pressure gage applied to both pressure and
vacuum: Ans.
Ans. Bourdon tube gage
Hydrocarbons found in liquefied petroleum gas:
Ans. All of the above
Which of the following is not a solid fuel:
Ans. Tar
Amount of cooling produced by 2000 lbs of ice in melting over a period of 24
hrs.:
Ans. B and C
It smoothens the flow due to the nature of flow of the liquid from a
reciprocating pump:
Ans. Air Chamber
Science of force exerted by water in motion:
Ans. Hydrodynamics
Lowest permissible water level of a boiler without internal furnace:
Ans. 1/3 height of shell
In pumps, it transmits power from the driver to the impeller:
Ans. Shaft
Cavitation occurs when the pressure at any point inside a pump drops below
the vapor pressure corresponding to the temperature of liquid. Its effect
include: Ans. All of the above
Positive displacement pump consisting of a fixed casing containing gears,
cams, screws, vanes, plungers or similar elements actuated by rotation of the
drive shaft.
Ans. Rotary pumps
Branch of which is larger than the run.
Ans. Bull head tee
A larger pipe or drum into which each group of boiler is connected:
Ans. Header
In pipe identification, the color from pipe used for electricity:
Ans. Light orange
Has the same equipment as the refrigerating circuits each with a condenser,
evaporator, and a pressure imposing elements, where the evaporator of one
circuit cools the condenser of the other circuit.
Ans. Cascade
The temperature of air to be used for comfort cooling shall be in the range
of: Ans. 20 deg to 23.3 deg
A valve held closed by a spring or other means and designed automatically
relieve pressure in excess of its settling.
Ans. Pressure relieve device.
Refrigerants which should not be used in public assembly occupancies.
Ans. Group 3 refrigerants
Fire involving flammable liquids and gases.
Ans. Class B fires
Mechanics of water or other liquids whether at rest or motion.
Ans. Hydraulics

Measure the pressure of water discharging from a nozzle by having its open
end on the water and the end connected to a manometer.
Ans. Pitot Tube
A vertical turbine pump with the pump and the motor closed coupled and
designed to be installed underground.
Ans. Submersible pump
Which of the following is a type of deep well pump.
Ans. All of the above.
Steel pipe coated with zinc to resist corrosion.
Ans. Galvanized pipe
A fitting with a number of branches in the connecting the smaller pipes.
Ans. Manifold
The ratio of peak load to the Average load is termed as _____ in variable
load nomenclature.
Ans. Load factor
A heat exchange device used to provide heat transfer between exhaust gases
and the air prior to its entrance to the combustor.
Ans. Regenerator
In a sensible heating process, the moisture content:
Ans. Remains constant
Flow on both sides on a normal shockwave:
Ans. Supersonic on one side, Subsonic on the other
A change of phase directly from vapor to solid, without passing through the
liquid state:
Ans. Deposition
What reaction occurs when the enthalpy of the product is less than the
enthalpy of the reactants?
Ans. Exothermic
A well designed engine has a volumetric efficiency within the ranged:
Ans. 75%-90%
It is referred to as the maximum continuous power available from a
hydroelectric power plant even under the most adverse hydraulic condition:
Ans. Firm power
There are how many feed water lines connected to the boiler?
Ans. Two
It is the difference in pressure as measured above or below the atmospheric
pressure.
Ans. Draft
The compression ratio of a gas turbine is in the range of 5-8.
 Ans. 5 to 8
The average pH of a normal rainfall is generally:
Ans. Slightly less than 7
Another term used for liquid valve.
Ans. King valve
The coefficient of performance of a domestic (local) refrigerator is always:
Ans. Greater than one
A belt-Coleman cycle is a reversed:
Ans. Joule cycle
In an air compressor system, the function of a receiver is to:
Ans. Collects water and grease suspended in air
General layout plan for each floor drawn to scale should not be less than
scale of: Ans. 1:200
Highest vapor drop in a vapor compression refrigeration cycle occurs in the:
Ans. Expansion valve
Which of the following pairs represent the two broad classification of
lubricating oils?
Ans. Straight and Additives
A form of misalignment between the pump and the driver shaft wherein the
shafts are concentric but not parallel.
Ans. Angular Misalignment
In the field of metal corrosion, it is the process wherein it exhibits in the
quality deterioration of metals:
Ans. Passivation
It is the ratio of the density of liquid substance to the density of water at
standard conditions:
Ans. Specific gravity

Term associated with an increase on pressure on a pipe caused by sudden

velocity decrease.
Ans. Water hammer
A process which takes place without change in volume.
Ans. Isochoric
Weir refers to an opening:
Ans. Having partial full flow
The Westphal balance is a laboratory instrument used to:
Ans. Specific gravity
Generally, permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel is:
Ans. 4-5 m/s
Refrigerant used in passenger aircraft bins.
Ans. Air
It refers to atoms of the same atomic number but differ in atomic masses and
molecular weights.
Ans. Isotopes
Piston rings are normally made of:
Ans. Cast Iron
Two isothermal and two reversible adiabatic process comprise a:
Ans. Carnot cycle
In terms of viscosity, density can be expressed as:
Ans. Dynamic viscosity/ kinematic viscosity
Compressor often used in supercharging Diesel engine:
Ans. Root blower type
In treating a person whose eyes accidentally got in contact with Freon use:
Ans. Sterile mineral oil
A device in vapor compression refrigeration system whose primary function is
to meter the flow of Refrigerant to the evaporator:
Ans. Thermostatic expansion valve
From the mathematical perspective, a thermodynamic property is:
Ans. A point function
In the production of beer, a raw material called yeast is added in the:
Ans. Starting tubs
Purpose is to keep the moisture from entering the system.
Ans. Dehydrator
Medium pressure as applied to valves and fittings implies that a working
pressure of _____ is suitable enough.
Ans. 862-1200psi
A liquid-vapor mixture with a dryness factor is allowed to absorb heat. Which
of the following is likely to occur?
Ans. Increases
Work rooms referring to the maintenance shop and machine rooms shall be
_____ in the height from floor to the ceiling?
Ans. 3,000mm
Defined as a passageway made of sheet metal or other suitable material not
necessarily leak tight, used for conveying air or other gases at low
temperature. Ans. Duct
As a good practical rule, the foundation depth may be taken as _____ times
the engine stroke, the lower factor for well-balanced multi-cylinder engine
and the higher factor for engines with fewer cylinder s or on less firm soil:
Ans. 3.2 to 4.2
What is the suggested maximum permissible dos (MDP) of a gamma ray exposed
for individuals now working in a nuclear environment in rem year?
Ans. ½
Most commercially petroleum lubricating oil deteriorates starting from
temperature of:
Ans. 200 F
States that the external pressure applied to a confined liquid increases the
pressure of every point in the fluid by an amount equal to the external
pressure: Ans. Pascal’s Law
The average fuel-oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge line to
the boilers.
Ans. 180-200 F
Boiler gage glasses should be blown down:
Ans. At the start of every watch

The lowest portion of the storage basin where the water is not drawn:
Ans. Dead storage
Which among the following do not measure relative humidity?
Ans. Piezometer
Water behind the dam of a hydroelectric power plant?
Ans. Pondage
Converts energy of water to mechanical energy:
Ans. Turbine
Ratio of average load to the rating of the equipment supplying the load.
Ans. Plant factor
Ratio of actual maximum demand load to the connected load.
Ans. Demand factor
A device which preheats feed water by utilizing the heat of the flue gases.
Ans. Economizer
Study of the proportion of water vapor content of air.
Ans. Air conditioning
Actual temperature of air.
Ans. Dry bulb temperature
For a machine foundation with class A mixture what is the proportion of
cement, sand and gravel?
 Ans. 1:2:4
Component included in the proximate analysis of fuel.
Ans. Ash, moisture, Volatile matter, fixed carbon
The prime mover must have its main steam line:
Ans. In loops
Intercooler are primarily used with:
Ans. Gas compressors
In the psychrometric chart, the diagonal lines represents:
Ans. Wet bulb temperature
Moderator in certain types of nuclear reactors.
Ans. Heavy water
The main advantage of turbulous boilers.
Ans. Steam pressure can be raised in short time
The law which states that the entropy of all perfect crystalline solids is
zero at absolute zero temperature.
Ans. 3rd law of thermodynamics
Operates between two constant temperature reservoir.
Ans. Carnot engine
Specific measurements of moisture content of air.
Ans. Degree of saturation
Simultaneous on site generation of electric energy and steam from the same
plant output.
Ans. Co-generation
Instrument used for pressure readings.
Ans. Manometer
Instrument used to analyze gases.
Ans. Orsat Apparatus
The chemical formula of R-12 or dichlorofluoromethane.
Ans. CCL₂F₂
Which of the following is not desirable property of a refrigerant?
Ans. Low thermal conductivity
Refrigerant widely used in room air conditions.
Ans. R-22
What occurs when pumps are connected in parallel?
Ans. Increase discharge, same head
Which of the following is not a cause of cavitation?
Ans. Low velocity
Pipe attached to the penstock to be able to let the water be at atmospheric
pressure.
Ans. Surge chamber
Which of the following is not considered as gaseous fuel?
Ans. Bunker
Ratio of the density of a liquid to the density of water.
Ans. Specific Gravity
Measurement of randomness or disorder.
Ans. Entropy
Energy cannot be created nor destroyed but can only be transformed from one
form to another.
Ans. First law of thermodynamics
In standard Otto cycle when the compression ratio is increased then the
thermal efficiency will:
Ans. Increase
Heat energy produced by the movement of molecule within a substance caused by
its temperature.
Ans. Internal energy
The law which states that one cannot operate a 100% efficient machine.
 Ans. 2nd law of thermodynamics
In relation to brake power the instrument used to measure torque:
Ans. Dynamometer
Ratio of the radiation of an actual body to the radiation of the black body.
Ans. Emittance
Refrigerant used in ice plant.
Ans. Ammonia
Measures the pressure of water discharging from the nozzle by having its open
end in the water and the other end connected to a manometer.
Ans. Pitot tube
Defined as a wall designed to prevent the spread of fire having a fir
resistance for four hours.
Ans. Fire wall
The work done per unit charge when the charge is moved from one point to
another? Ans. Potential at a point
In the relation of PVⁿ is constant, what value makes the process isobaric?
Ans. Zero
In actual gas behavior, molecular collisions are:
Ans. Inelastic
An ideal refrigeration should have:
Ans. Low freezing point
The immediate undesirable products from the petroleum based lubricating oil
subjected to high pressure and temperature is referred as:
Ans. Carbon Dioxide
A rotary dynamic pump, fluid is at no time confined by moving boundaries in
its passage through the pump.
Ans. Non-positive displacement pump
Also known as tangential or Pelton wheel.
Ans. Impulse turbine
Term given to a chimney made of steel.
Ans. Stack
An integral part of reaction turbine used to recover energy head.
Ans. Draft tube
Based on good practice, the vertical distance from the floor soil level to
the top edge of the foundation must be around _____ as minimum distance in
machiner foundation.
Ans. 6 inches
The geometric view factor for a black body is always.
Ans. One
For every 1000ft ascent, there is a corresponding pressure decrease
approximately. Ans. 1 in of Hg.
Used for impounding water storage and for creating head for the power plant.
Ans. Dam
The temperature at which the phase change takes place at a given pressure.
Ans. Saturation pressure
Distinguishes the system from its surroundings may be at rest or in motion.
Ans. Boundary
Quality is a measure of:
Ans. Dryness
The highest pressure under which distinguished liquid vapor phase can exist
in equilibrium:
Ans. Critical pressure

In a thermodynamic gaseous substance, the relationship between P-V-T given by

the: Ans. Equation of state
A correction factor for gas approaching real gas behavior:
Ans. Compressibility factor
Furl production process wherein heavy oil is changed into gasoline by means
of a high pressure, high temperature and longer exposure time.
Ans. Thermal cracking
A shut off valve for controlling the flow of refrigerant.
Ans. Stop valve
Measured by the amount of its pressure below the prevailing atmospheric
pressure. Ans. Partial vaccum
A relief valve that can positively lift the disc from its seat at least 1.5
mm when there is no pressure in the boiler.
Ans. Water relief valve
Vapor produced in the vaporization of a small amount of liquid refrigerant
downstream of the expansion valve.
Ans. Flash gas
Product of the rate of evaporation and the factor of evaporation.
Ans. Equivalent evaporation
Difference between the indicated power and the brake power.
Ans. Friction power
In Diesel power plant, its purpose is to reduce the weight-to-power ratio:
Ans. Supercharging
Change of phase from solid to gas.
Ans. Sublimation
The memory lost when operating power is removed.
Ans. Volatile memory
A refrigeration system using direct method in which refrigerant is delivered
to two or more evaporators in space room or in refrigerators.
Ans. Multi-pressure
The carbon dioxide concentration of air in all rooms when measured 910mm
above the floor space not exceed:
Ans. 100ppm
Consists of helmets shall be removed immediately after having been used or
the seal broken, must be removed atleast every:
Ans. 2 years
Pump whose purpose is to increase the effective water pressure by sucking
water from public service main or private use water system:
Ans. Booster pump
A small fitting with a double offset, or shaped like the letter C with the
ends turned out.
Ans. Cross-cover
Material interposed between two relatively moving machine elements to reduce
wear and tear:
Ans. Lubricant
Measure temperature by electromotive force:
Ans. Thermocouple
According to SAE which of the following is a type of lubricating oil?
Ans. All of the above
A device that information in one form of an instrument signal and transmits
an output signal on another form:
Ans. Digital
A device whose function to pass on information in an unchanged form or in
some modified term.
Ans. Switch
A device that receives information on one form of one or more physical
quantities modifies the information and/or its form and produces a resultant
output signal. Ans. Transducer
Which of the following is not a requirement in designing pipe installations?
Ans. Galvanized pipe should be used for steam
Part of a valve used to guide and support valve stem:
 Ans. Bonnet
In piping installations, the color of pipe tube used for water is:
Ans. Green

The color code for pipes used in communication.

Ans. White
Which of the method is used for classifying coal.
Ans. All of the above
Alcohol frequently considered as fuel for internal combustion engine.
Ans. Ethyl alcohol
Measure of resistance to flow.
Ans. Viscosity
Converts Solar energy to electrical energy.
Ans. Photovoltaic cell
Which of the following is not an instrument used to measure flow rates?
Ans. Velometer
Refrigeration follows what cycle?
Ans. Reversed Carnot cycle
An evaporator constructed on pipe tubing.
Ans. Expansion coil
Reinstalled or second hand boilers shall have a minimum factor of safety of?
Ans. 6
A line that shows the rotation of the consumption and the load a steam
turbine generator.
Ans. Willans Line
Instrument that indicate the percentage of carbon dioxide in flue gases in a
power plant.
Ans. Ranarex indicator
For real process, the net entropy change in the universe is:
Ans. Positive
The sum of the internal energy and the product of the pressure and specific
volume. Ans. Enthalpy
Ratio of the maximum demand of the system to the rated capacity of the
system.
Ans. Utilization factor
Source of thermal energy.
Ans. All of the above
Cycle that has two isentropic and two isometric process.
Ans. Otto cycle
Cycle that has two isentropic and two isobaric process.
Ans. Brayton cycle