B I O S C I E N C E S A M P L E E X A M

I I: Q U E S T I O N S

By Craig T. Jordan, Ph.D.

All Rights Reserved. 2011

IDENTIFY ALL OF THE STATEMENTS THAT ARE CORRECT

INTRODUCTION: A DARWINIAN VIEW OF LIFE 1

In the example of species formation involving flies that feed on fruit in Wisconsin, the two populations of flies are kept reproductively isolated because a. they use different odors to advertise to mates b. they have different courtship dances c. they make different noises by rubbing body parts in different ways d. they find different fruits acceptable as stages for courtship dances e. the fruits that they use mature at different times of the year A necessary consequence of evolution occurring is that a. species progressively become better adapted to their environment b. the size of the population increases as they adapt to the environment c. as time goes by, the gene pool increases in variability d. the number of species increases e. the best adapted individuals will more likely survive than less-well adapted individuals f. none of the above is a good answer

Which of the following was Darwin familiar with and contributed to his crafting of his theory in the latter part of the 1830's, shortly after returning from his voyage on the Beagle: a. continental drift b. Gregor Mendel's model of particulate inheritance c. plate tectonics d. the work of Hardy and Weinberg e. the modification (domestication) of populations of animals and plants by selective breeding f. Neanderthal g. Thomas Malthus' essay on populations h. Adam Smith's theory regarding free and open economies i. Charles Lyell's writings about geology and the age of the earth j. artificial selection k. fossil prokaryotes l. archaeopteryx Darwin is credited with: a. demonstrating that life has existed on earth for a substantially longer period of time than the Bible suggests b. promoting an approach to biology such that theories may be proposed without having first compiled an exhaustive background of observations c. first proposing that the characteristics that organisms have can be inherited by their descendants d. first proposing that evolution occurs In an effort to influence the gene pool in the early twentieth century United States, the government promoted policies of Social Darwinism by: a. sterilizing humans judged to be mentally defective b. restricting human immigration c. proscribing interracial marriage d. genetic engineering humans

6 Adam Smith had a significant impact on the development of Darwins evolutionary theory because he a. unearthed the Neanderthal fossil b. theorized that competition would result in the elimination of the poorly adapted and survival of the better adapted c. demonstrated that, contrary to popular opinion, there was a significant level of heritable variation within many populations of organisms. This was important because without such variation, evolution can not occur. d. made a convincing argument, at least convincing to Darwin and similarly minded skeptics, that plants and animals were divinely created according to the Bibles account. e. was able to develop a convincing theory to explain how monkeys could both occur in the New World and the Old World. According to Darwinian theory, species with similar phenotypes share those characteristics because they have an ancestor in common in their evolutionary past and it is because of that common heritage that they have those similarities. 7 J.B. Lamarck's theory regarding evolution and C. Darwin's theory are distinguishable most importantly because unlike Lamarck, Darwin: a. did not rely on the influence of a god that directed evolutionary change

b. c. d. e. not 8

did not consider evolutionary change to be purposefully directed toward some condition of perfection knew that the units of inheritance were genes knew that modern humans had non-human ancestors knew that genetic material was transcribed and then translated to proteins, but that the reverse was true

It was widely accepted in Darwins day that the assemblage of organisms on earth had changed over time. One theory to explain the apparent change held that there had been a series of local mass extinctions followed by the immigration of novel organisms from other places on earth. Such a theory is not considered a scientific theory because it is not possible to prove that in the past such immigration events actually occurred. a. True b. False That pythons have pelvic girdle bones may be taken as evidence that: a. they had ancestors that were capable of flying b. they descended from a lineage of fish c. they are descendants of dinosaurs d. their ancestors had legs e. they are vertebrates

10 Analogous structures have a common evolutionary origin whereas homologous structures are those that are similar in function but developmentally and evolutionary unrelated. 11 Analogous structures, such as the teeth of a dolphin and the teeth of a chimpanzee, have a common evolutionary origin whereas homologous structures, such as the wings of a butterfly and those of a bat, are those that are similar in function but developmentally and evolutionary unrelated. 12 Which of the following are likely examples of homologous organs or structures? a. the feeding apparatus of the butterfly and the hummingbird b. the wing of a dragonfly and that of a bird c. the teeth of an orca whale and those of a human d. the wings of a bird and the arms of an orangutan e. continuously growing teeth of mice and continuously growing teeth of rats f. the wing of a bat and that of a bird g. the teeth of a dolphin and teeth of a chimpanzee h. the flagella of prokaryotes and eukaryotes i. the flipper of a porpoise and the flipper of a penguin j. gills of fish and Eustachian tubes of humans Thomas Malthus had a significant impact on the development of Darwins theory because he a. believed that since organisms appeared to be so perfectly designed for their place in nature that some natural process must have molded organisms to their current form b. made a convincing argument that since genes could mutate, that change in organisms was inevitable c. advanced the idea that populations theoretical have the ability to grow in numbers to such a point there would inevitably be competition among individuals for resources d. was able to document that the frequency of alleles in populations can change over the course of time. e. made a convincing, though by todays standards weak, argument that the various races of humans had evolved from chimpanzees 14 The currently used binomial, taxonomic system of classifying plants and animals a. was authored by Charles Darwin b. groups similar species into a hierarchy wherein at increasing levels in the hierarchy, the taxa share increasingly generalized characteristics. c. is, in general, consistent with Darwins evolutionary perspective that organisms that are similar share there similarities because they descend from a common ancestor d. groups similar species of animals into a hierarchy wherein as one proceeds from phylum, class, and then to order, organisms within a taxa increasingly share more homologous structures. The theory of uniformitarianism maintains that, or is consistent with, a. geologic processes have not changed throughout the history of the earth b. changes in the earths geology are slow and continuous The theory of uniformitarianism maintains that mechanisms of nature currently operating in the world are the same as those that where operating in the world in earlier eras, that is that geologic processes have not changed throughout the history of the earth. Such a notion is inconsistent with the punctuated equilibrium model describing macroevolution 17

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That birds have the same bones in their wings as whales have in their flippers may be best interpreted as evidence that: a. birds had ancestors that were capable of swimming b. whales had ancestors that were capable of flying c. modern birds and whales share a common ancestor d. modern flippers evolved from wings e. modern wings evolved from flippers 18 That the gills of fish and the Eustachian tubes that connect the middle ear and the throat of humans both derive from pharyngeal pouches of their respective embryos, that is that they are homologous, can be taken to support the theory that humans and fish share a common ancestor. There is a theory that to account for highly complex biological systems as we know them today, it is essential to rely on the presence of a intelligence to explain the complexity of those systems. a. the theory has met with general acceptance because we have otherwise been unsuccessful in explaining the evolution of such complex structures as the human eye b. the theory is consistent with the theory set forth by Darwin and Wallace because an intelligence can only explain why evolution progressively leads to higher levels of complexity c. The theory has not met with approval by evolutionary biologists because it has been demonstrated that there is no such intelligence that could be responsible for the organization of modern biological systems. d. None of the above is a correct statement. 19 Alfred Russell Wallace does not receive the same recognition as Charles Darwin for the theory that evolution can proceed by natural selection because of the all of the following except which one? a. he was unwilling to apply to human populations the same principles he found applied to non-human populations. b. he did not pursue developing the theory in the same way that Darwin did during the rest of his life. c. he became an adherent of the supernatural d. unlike Darwin, he was not able to demonstrate an instance of evolution occurring e. Wallace was an African-American and because of the racism of the day, many were unwilling to give him the same recognition as an aristocratic Britain The discovery of Archaeopteryx was important at the time of its discover because a. it seemed to represent an intermediate form in the evolution of a modern form from a very different type of ancestor b. it confirmed Lamarcks idea that lineages of organisms improve as generations of time go by c. it seemed to suggest that land vertebrates had aquatic vertebrates as distant ancestors d. it seemed to confirm Darwins theory that some characteristics, though compromising an individuals ability to survive, might nevertheless evolve because those characteristics are important for gaining access to mates for purposes of reproduction e. it confirmed that animals have existed on earth as far back as 1.5 billion years ago, a seemingly adequate amount of time for the changes that Darwin was theorizing could occur by natural selection 21 One form that social Darwinism took in the early twentieth century was a. the encouragement of the socially disadvantaged citizens to develop skills that would contribute to their social and political advancement. b. the social integration of various racial and ethnic groups by promoting non-discriminatory policies. c. discouraging the reproduction of those deemed to be genetically inferior. d. the demonstration of a philosophical bias by scientists that social behaviors were the consequence of environmental influences. e. none of the above is a good answer During the 1970's on an island in the Galapagos, a species of finch was observed to experience a change in the size of beaks. The size distribution of beaks changes such that average beak size increased compared with what had existed earlier in the decade. The explanation for why the beaks had changed in size was that a. birds with larger bodies had larger beaks and the larger-bodied fish were preferred by mates (sexual selection) b. birds with the larger bodies were more successful in avoiding predators and therefore had greater opportunities to reproduce c. a hurricane had caused a large-scale dying off the species, and by chance the few individuals that survived and then went on to reproduce, had beaks at the larger extreme of the previous generations (genetic drift) d. a captive breeding program initiated by the national park the oversees wildlife on the islands had unwittingly selected the largest and seemingly most robust individuals to breed. (Unknowing to the park rangers was that these individuals, despite their size, had low fertility, and the program was a disaster.) e. larger-beaked individuals were more successful at harvesting the limited food resources available during the particularly arid period. 23 New Zealand has a rich fauna. For example there are numerous families and genera of birds on the

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islands. In contrast, the Galapagos has only a few genera of birds. A likely explanation for the difference is that a. the land area of New Zealand is larger than that of the Galapagos b. New Zealand is located closer to the large land mass of Australia than is Galapagos to its closest land mass, South America c. New Zealand broke away from Australia in the distant past as a result of plate tectonics whereas the Galapagos Islands formed by volcanic activity at deep-sea vents

MECHANICS OF EVOLUTIONARY BIOLOGY MICROEVOLUTION 1

The Australian red-backed spider is related to our black widow. The female is much larger than the male. When mating, males will frequently position themselves in such a fashion that their mates can nibble away at them during the mating process. a. By "serving" themselves up to their mates in such a fashion males may be reducing the likelihood that the females will mate with a second male and thereby dilute the effect of his sperm b. By "serving" themselves up to their mates in such a fashion males may have an opportunity to introduce more sperm into the female and thereby fertilize more eggs c. By "serving" themselves up to their mates in such a fashion males may be reducing the size of their own population so as to reduce competition among individuals for the limited amount of food available in their desert environment d. That male Australian red-backed spiders are sometimes eaten by their mates is beneficial to the males because by so doing, they fertilize more eggs than if they did not allow their mate to eat them. e. That male Australian red-backed spiders are sometimes eaten by their mates is an example of a deleterious behavior evolving by the mechanism of genetic drift f. The behavior of the carnivorous females eating their mates evolves so as to restrain the growth of the population and reduce competition for food among individuals of the species. g. The Australian red-backed spider is related to our black widow. The female is much larger than the male. When mating, males will frequently position themselves in such a fashion that their mates can nibble away at them during the mating process. That male Australian red-backed spiders are sometimes eaten by their mates is beneficial to the males because by so doing, they fertilize more eggs than if they did not allow their mate to eat them. The a. b. c. d. e. similarities among "Darwin's finches" on the Galapagos Islands suggest that all of them arose from a common inorganic source came from South America at the same time evolved from an ancestor that immigrated some time ago were carried in by sailors were created equal

3 Which of the following is/are correct? a. When DDT was introduced to control malaria-bearing mosquitoes in Africa, the frequency of the sickle hemoglobin allele in affected populations decreased. This is an especially good example of the operation of artificial selection. b. Gene flow is illustrated by the "Africanization" of the New World honey bee. c. In the example of evolutionary change involving grasses growing in soil contaminated by mine tailings in England, the frequency of the form that can tolerate heavy metals increased because the metals caused a mutation in the DNA that proved to permit survival in such an environment. d. The local adaptations of the various "races" of humans have most likely evolved as the result of natural selection e. The geographic specialization seen in orapendolas (tropical orioles) that may or may not tolerate cowbird parasites is an example of natural selection. f. The industrial melanism of the peppered moth (Biston betularia) represents a classic example of natural selection g. In the example of evolutionary change involving plants growing down wind from mine openings where heavy metal tailings have been dropped, the frequency of the form that can tolerate heavy metals increased because of gene flow. h. In many species of shore birds, after a male has successfully courted a female, she will present her back and the male will mount her. Before actual copulation and while the male is on her back, he regurgitates food from a storage structure (crop). If he fails to regurgitate the food, the female will stand up and "bump" the male off thereby interrupting copulation. This behavior by the male of presenting his perspective mate with a "nuptial gift" is the result of sexual selection i. Cicada males sing to attract females. Wasps locate singing males and parasitize them. That this trait of singing persists in spite of its obvious detrimental character reflects the operation of kin selection j. The evolution in heavy metal tolerance seen in some, but not all, populations of plants at the openings of mines is an example of change due to genetic drift. 4 Eugenics is essentially __________________ in human populations. a. gene flow b. natural selection c. artificial selection d. genetic drift The a. b. c. d. e. evolution of many insects to tolerate exposure to DDT is an especially good example of: artificial selection evolution by gene flow natural selection adaptive radiation genetic drift

6 The a. b. c. d. e. 7 The allele responsible for sickle-cell anemia first appeared in tropical and subtropical regions of Asia, the Middle East, and Africa. It entered the United States population when individuals were forcibly brought over from Africa prior to the Civil War. In microevolutionary terms, this is an example of: a. mutation b. genetic drift c. gene flow d. natural selection 8 Evolution in Darwin's finches is presented as an especially good example of: a. artificial selection b. kin selection c. sexual selection d. adaptive radiation e. genetic drift f. natural selection 9 The evolution in the hemoglobin molecule relative to sickle cell anemia, in some human populations, is presented as an especially good example of: a. artificial selection b. natural selection c. evolution by recurrent mutation d. adaptive radiation e. genetic drift In some parts of Africa, the incidence of the sickle hemoglobin allele has fluctuated because of changes in the incidence of malaria and this is an example of: a. artificial selection b. natural selection c. kin selection d. genetic drift e. the inheritance of acquired characteristics 11 For evolution to occur, a. there must be no genetic drift b. there must be no migration c. some individuals must be more successful at leaving offspring than others d. there must be heritable variation in a population and some individuals must be more successful at reproducing than others e. mutations must occur f. populations must not be very large g. there must be genetic variation among individuals in a population h. the Hard-Weinberg equilibrium be maintained i. adaptations must accumulate in individuals over the course of their lifetimes j. populations must be relatively small (or at least not infinitely large) A large number of species of Drosophila fruit flies are found today on the Hawaiian islands. a. the islands are of volcanic origin b. because of continental drifting, the older islands in the chain are found in the east c. individual species of flies have evolved on terrestrial islands of vegetation formed as lava flowed around undisturbed patches. d. the formation of the endemic species of flies found on individual islands in the Hawaiian archipelago illustrate the operation of allopatric speciation e. the species formation in these flies is a good example of adaptive radiation f. Species of fruit (Drosophila) flies on the Hawaiian islands have migrated over geological time from west to east as new islands are formed at the eastern extreme of the island chain. During the time that the flies have inhabited the islands, they have evolved into a highly diverse group of species. Sugar gliders are found in Australia and flying squirrels are found in North America. They are similar in size and morphology and they both can spring from a perch on one tree and glide to another. That they are so similar can be explained because they share a common ancestor in the past prior to the continents drifting as they have so that now the two continents are far apart. evolution of horticultural varieties of orchids are the result of natural selection genetic drift kin selection group selection artificial selection

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14 The first report of sickle cell anemia described symptoms that included severe anemia and an abnormal appearance of the a. chest X-ray b. eyelids c. hemoglobin molecules d. red blood cells e. white blood cells 15 In some parts of tropical Africa where the incidence of malaria is high, two forms of the hemoglobin allele occur-normal and sickle. Assume that an individual who is homozygous sickle never reaches reproductive age, that heterozygous individuals enjoy some natural resistance to malarial infections and that homozygous normal individuals are susceptible to the sometimes life-threatening ravages of such an infection. Over time, one would expect that the sickle allele would: a. be lost entirely from the population b. be more frequent than the normal allele c. will be preserved because on average the heterozygotes are more fit than either homozygote. Africans who are heterozygous for the sickle cell gene are also a. extremely anemic b. less fertile than normal c. malnourished d. resistant to malaria e. susceptible to hemophilia The late E.B. Ford was a distinguished biologist from England and founder of the discipline known as Ecological Genetics. He was instrumental in developing a research effort focused on illustrating the operation of natural selection. The system he chose included the Peppered Moth distributed around the English countryside. As the story goes, with the darkening of the background on which moths rested during the day, the moths similarly darkened. Moths that more closely resembled their background were less likely to be discovered by visually-orienting predators than their lighter counter parts and therefor more likely to survive and reproduce. a. This example of the operation of natural selection is the only verifiable one. While Darwins theory is intellectually quite palatable to many biologists, there only being one presumptive illustration of the operation of natural selection remains a troubling weakness of the theory. An example of natural selection functioning in recent times involves the selection of Human Immunodeficiency Virus strains that are resistant to certain drugs that are designed to interfere with the operation of reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a DNA strand from a RNA template. This evolution has occurred very quickly in part because the generation time for viral replication is short and in part because RNA genomes have a higher mutation rate than do DNA genomes. On the Hawaiian island or Kauai, Teleogryllus oceanicus crickets came from Australia and western Pacific islands. Male crickets advertised their reproductive availability by broadcasting an auditory display by using specialized anatomical features. The parasitic fly, Ormia ochracea fly, invaded from North America. In the 1990's, there was an intense fly infestation parasitizing one-third of the crickets. In a 2001 survey, only one male was heard singing and in 2003 no males were heard singing. The crickets were still there, in fact the cricket population was larger than it had been for years but few males still had wings with functional chirping equipment. The silencing came from changes in only one or two genes. If you were the investigator of the reason for why the change occurred so quickly, you might reasonably hypothesize that the resulting change in the crickets is a matter of a. natural selection and genetic drift b. natural selection alone c. genetic drift alone d. artificial selection and gene flow e. artificial selection and genetic drift 20 Some species of Whiptail lizards are parthenogenetic. That is to say, there are no males; females reproduce via unfertilized eggs. Modern species of these lizards appeared to have evolved via the hybridization of closely-related species. a. True b. False 21 Among Gypsies (the Roma) there is a mutation (1267delG) that is particularly common. Individuals identified as Roma live at various locations in the Old World. Statistical analysis dates the mutations arrival in the population to ~1000years ago. The mutation is otherwise found only in families of Indian or Pakistani origin, supporting the theory that the Roma originated there. One would predict that the reason for its much higher incidence among the Roma than among Indians or Pakistani is a. genetic drift in the small populations of the Roma b. gene flow from India and Pakistan to the various parts of the world where the Roma live

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c. higher levels of inbreeding in the small populations of the Roma than are found in the much larger breeding populations in India or Pakistan

THE EVOLUTION OF POPULATIONS

Population size has a direct bearing on the ability of a population to persist. a. Smaller populations tend to experience higher levels of inbreeding than large populations b. Genetic drift has a greater impact on larger populations than on smaller ones c. Factors operating in a density independent manner to reduce population size may have a disproportionately great effect on a small population's likelihood of persisting than on large population's likelihood of persisting Which of the following contributes to continuous variation in a trait? a. multiple alleles b. environmental effects c. multiple genes Electrophoresis has been used to determine levels of a. radioisotopes in sedimentary rock b. iridium in the soil c. shock crystals near meteor craters d. genetic variation within populations e. inbreeding within populations Which of the following is/are true? a. Genetic variation is more common in severely inbred populations than in randomly-breeding populations b. Compared with Hardy-Weinberg populations, severely inbred populations have more homozygotes. c. Genetic drift is accompanied by higher levels of inbreeding than are found in randomly mating populations. d. Severely inbred populations have more homozygotes than Hardy-Weinberg populations. e. Genetic variation is usually more common in parthenogenetic populations (that is populations where there are no males and new individuals can form from unfertilized eggs) than in outcrossing populations f. One condition specified by the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is that there is no differential reproductive success.

5 Which of the following may contribute to the maintenance of allelic polymorphism in a population? a. neutral alleles b. genetic drift c. heterogeneous selective environments 6 Genetic variation is most common in ____________________________ populations. a. severely inbred b. self-fertilizing c. parthenogenetic d. outcrossing 7 anemia. One in five hundred Blacks in the US suffer from sickle cell anemia. An additional ten percent of Blacks are carriers of the sickle allele, that is they have the sickle trait. a. It appears that Blacks are mating at random, with regard to the gene responsible for sickle cell b. The frequency of heterozygotes is higher than would be expected by random mating perhaps because individuals with this genotype are healthy and do not die at higher rates than other genotypes. c. The frequency of heterozygotes is lower than would be expected by random mating perhaps because of Blacks reproducing with non-Blacks. d. The frequency of heterozygotes is lower than would be expected by random mating perhaps because of higher rates of death in this group. e. The frequency of sickle cell anemia is higher than would be expected by random mating perhaps f. The frequency of sickle cell anemia is lower than would be expected by random mating perhaps because of higher rates of death in this group. g. The frequency of sickle cell anemia is lower than would be expected by random mating perhaps because of Blacks reproducing with non-Blacks. 8 Compared with Hardy-Weinberg populations, severely inbred populations have a. fewer homozygotes b. more mutations c. more heterozygotes d. more homozygotes 9 Consider the Manx cat. The tail-less condition is governed by a recessive allele which is lethal in homozygous condition. If these cats (the heterozygous Manx cats) are otherwise the equals of other cats, you expect that over time the deleterious allele causing the Manx condition would: a. be lost entirely from the gene pool b. be more frequent than the normal allele c. be equal in frequency with the normal allele d. be less frequent than the normal allele but not be lost entirely from the population

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10 Inbreeding: a. disrupts the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium b. changes the frequency of alleles in a population c. changes the frequencies of genotypes in a population 11 Population bottle-necking can result in unusually rapid rates of evolution because of a. the founder effect b. genetic drift c. higher than normal levels of inbreeding 12 The a. b. c. 13 Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive. If 9% of all females are afflicted with this disorder, one would expect that approximately ______________________ percent of the men (in a randomly-breeding population) suffer from red-green color blindness? 14 Extra long eyelashes are inherited as an autosomal recessive. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, .01 percent of the individuals have extra long eyelashes. About 98 % of the population should be homozygous normal. Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive. If 70% of men are afflicted with the disorder, one would expect that approximately ______________________ percent of the women (in a randomly-breeding population) would have normal vision? 16 Having a bent little finger is controlled by a dominant, autosomal allele while having a straight little finger is controlled by an allele which is completely recessive. At the turn of the century, the frequency of the dominant allele was .40. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with regard to this gene, what is the chance that in selecting one individual from the population at random, that individual will be a male with a bent finger? Having a bent little finger is controlled by a dominant, autosomal allele while having a straight little finger is controlled by an allele which is completely recessive. At the turn of the century, the frequency of the recessive allele was .60. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with regard to this gene, what is the chance that in selecting one individual from the population at random, that individual will be a male with a bent finger? a. .16 b. .24 c. .32 d. .48 e. .64 18 Having a bent little finger is controlled by a dominant, autosomal allele while having finger is controlled by an allele which is completely recessive. At the turn of frequency of the dominant allele was .09. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg regard to this gene, approximately ____________________ % of the males should have bent 19 Among African-Americans, the fraction of individuals who suffer from acute anemia is .01. The fraction of individuals homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele, in a Hardy-Weinberg population, must be: 20 Consider the ABO blood group. If the genotypic frequency of AA is .01 and the frequency of individuals with type O blood is .49, then at equilibrium the frequency of the B phenotype must be: a. 4% b. 14% c. 20% d. 28% e. 32% 21 Consider the ABO blood group. If the AO genotypic frequency is .14 and the frequency of the O phenotype is .01, then among the females in a population at equilibrium, the frequency of the B phenotype must be: Consider the ABO blood group. If the AO genotypic frequency is .24 and the frequency of the A phenotype a straight little the century, the equilibrium with fingers. vitality of cheetah populations is currently threatened. which of the following is (are) true? cheetah populations are highly inbred and there is little genetic variation within populations sperm counts and sperm viability are low cheetahs have a low resistance to disease

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is .28, then among the females in a population at equilibrium, the frequency of the B phenotype must be: 23 Extra long eyelashes are inherited as an autosomal recessive. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 64 percent of the males have normal-length eyelashes. What proportion of the females will carry the recessive allele but display the dominant (normal length) phenotype? Consider the M and N blood group. The two alleles are equal in dominance. In a sampling of 500 individuals from a much larger population, it was found that 45 individuals were type MM, 210 individuals were type MN and the rest were type NN. The frequency of the M allele was known to be .3 at the turn of the century. Does this population appear to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. 26 Consider the M and N blood group. The two alleles are equal in dominance. In a sampling of 500 individuals from a much larger population, it was found that 45 individuals were type MM and 450 individuals were type NN. The frequency of the M allele was known to be .3 in 1900. Does this population appear to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. Yes b. No 27 Among African-Americans, the fraction of individuals who suffer from acute anemia is .01. The fraction of individuals homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele, in a Hardy-Weinberg population, must be: Approximately 169 natives of central Africa per ten thousand individuals are afflicted with sickle cell anemia. The fraction of a randomly-breeding population expected to be born homozygous normal for hemoglobin would be about: The frequency of the sickle cell allele among natives of central Africa seems to be about 0.12. fraction of this population homozygous for the disorder would be about: 30 The frequency of the sickle cell allele among natives of central Africa seems to be about 0.12. fraction of this population homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele would be about: 31 Which statement(s) is/are correct? b. Carl Linnaeus authored the currently-used taxonomic nomenclature c. Thomas Malthus wrote an essay that influenced Charles Darwin by suggesting that all natural populations have a potential to grow at a rate that would lead to the utilization of all resources upon which the individuals rely d. G.H. Hardy co-authored a mathematical formulation describing the genetic composition of populations e. Sir Ronald Fisher is credited with formulating the theory that "plate tectonics" is the mechanism by which continents "drift" h. Alfred Russell Wallace was the first to propose a theory accounting for how evolutionary changes could occur j. Carl Linnaeus was one of the first to suggest that the characteristics of populations of organisms change over time, that is that evolution occurs k. Gregor Mendel is credited with recognizing that the best adapted organisms survive m. Alfred Wegener, over one hundred years ago, advanced the theory that the spacial arrangement of the continents is not static but rather that the earth is dynamic and the land masses move. p. Adam Smith authored a treatise about macroeconomic theory which held that unregulated competition among economic entities would result in the extinction of poorly adapted approaches and the thriving of good economic strategies. s. Weinberg co-authored a mathematical formulation describing the genetic composition of populations t. Charles Lyell's geological teachings about the age of the earth influenced Darwin in the crafting of his theory The The

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THE ORIGIN OF SPECIES 1. Which of the following is (are) true a. Sympatric speciation, as illustrated by "true" fruit flies that feed on apples and cherries (in Wisconsin) is a classic illustration of the necessity for geographic isolation before speciation can occur b. autopolypoidy describes a condition that results from the hybridization of closely related species and is an explanation for how sympatric speciation can occur in plants c. allopolyploidy is a mechanism by which inbreeding might produce new species in animals 2 In New Guinea, Vogelkap bowerbirds erect bowers of sticks that are stacked about a central tree. One of the two populations that is found at different locations on one of the islands constructs bowers that have a rounded shape. In front of the bowers, the birds pile brightly-colored objects. The other population of birds constructs bowers that appear as spires and these have no brightly-colored objects. a. The bowers are used by the birds as refuges from predators. b. The bowers are used by the birds as protective areas for rearing young. c. The populations of bower birds appear to be reproductively isolated d. If the birds diverge into two distinct species, we will be able to attribute it to kin selection. e. While the bird populations differ regarding the bower construction and ornamentation, the two populations, never the less, continue to interbreed because sexual attraction relies on olfactory cues and despite the divergence in bower characteristics via what we refer to as genetic drift, the two populations remain part of a single species. The natural distribution of Red deer includes France, England, and the Isle of Jersey, in the English Channel. A small number were introduced in the 1800's into New Zealand by European colonists to develop a population for sport hunting. Which of the following is correct? a. Electrophoresis is likely to show that the genetic variation among the deer in England is less than what is present in the New Zealand population. b. Deer on the Isle have evolved an enlarged stature, compared with their ancestors and contemporaneous populations in England and on the mainland much like as happened with the Komodo Dragons on the island of Komodo. c. They colonized what is now the Isle of Jersey at a time when the island was attached to what is now England and France. Continental drifting has resulted in the movement of land masses in such as way as to form an island, similar to the formation of New Zealand and Madagasgar. d. Compared with Hardy-Weinberg populations, severe inbreeding in populations does not change the frequencies of alleles in a population but may result in changes in genotypic frequencies and in particular an increase in the frequency of homozygotes. e. Deer on the Isle are geographically isolated from those in England and illustrate how sympatric speciation might occur. A frequent cause of sterility in hybrids is that a. chromosomes do not pair properly during meiosis b. hybrids contain features of both parents c. hybrids do not have reproductive structures d. parental gametes are prevented from fusing e. the parents are not sympatric The biological species concept offers us a practical way to distinguish species of organisms and to assign individuals to one taxon or another. In order to catalog individuals as being members of one species or another using this concept focuses on a. morphological differences distinguishing the species b. differences in the geographic distribution of the species c. the ability of individuals to successfully breed with each other The walking stick (Timena cristinae) seems to be adapting so that it can hide on either of two species of plants. Within this species, there are two genetically-distinct morphs; a striped form that is found on the chamise plant and a non-striped form on blue lilac. Each form is more likely to blend into the foliage when on its preferred plant species and thereby avoid detection by potential predators. Mating tests have shown that each insect morph preferred to mate with one of its own color pattern. A likely long-term result is that a. the species will increase its risk of going extinct because there are fewer potential mates since individuals only tend to mate with similarly appearing individuals and avoid mating with a large proportion of the population b. the species will divide into two distinct species c. the inbreeding will result in a higher-than-expected number of abnormal offspring The the a. b. formation of distinct species of bushmaster snakes where one is in Amazonia on the eastern side of Andes Mountains and the other is in Central America to the west of the Andes is an example of: allopatric speciation sympatric speciation

EXTINCTION 1 Which of the following is an accurate explanation for why some species have become extinct or have been put at risk of becoming extinct? a. Deforestation in the United States has resulted in expanding the distribution of cowbirds. These birds parasitize the nest of other species. By expanding their range, the birds now come in contact with new species that have no history of exposure to such parasitism and have not evolved means to deal with such parasitism. b. When humans colonized some oceanic islands, they hunted to extinction some species of flightless birds that had previously not had to deal with predators. c. By reducing the habitat available to some species, humans have precipitated a decrease in the size of some populations to such a degree that the populations are now severely inbred resulting in gene pools with low levels of genetic variability. d. Humans have contributed to species extinction by introducing predators on islands where endemic species have no defenses to the new threat. 2 During this century we have seen an unusually large number of species become extinct. The primary reason for this is: a. competitive exclusion, that is that of two species with similar niches, one species out competes another thereby causing its extinction b. intense predation c. habitat change by the introduction of non-native species and deforestation d. climate change e. pesticide and herbicide use The a. b. c. d. e. f. g. theory that a meteor impact played a role in the mass extinction of dinosaurs is supported by: discovery of a crater dating to 65 million years ago shock crystal distributions a layer of the rare earth element iridium in deposits dating to the time of that mass extinction coincidence of evidence of such collisions with rapid loss of diversity on earth shock crystals radiating out from a purported point of meteor impact detection of massive impact craters wide ranging thin layers of iridium

That Pangea split in two to form Gondwana and Eurasia can be attributed to: a. allopatric speciation b. sympatric speciation c. the decay of radioactive isotopes d. plate tectonics e. meteor impact Evidence supporting the theory that Earth collided with a stellar body resulting in the large scale extinction of some groups of animals about 65 million years ago includes the world-wide distribution of a thin layer of __________________ in sedimentary rocks that date to that time. a. carbon-14 b. basalt c. iridium d. trilobites e. coal

HISTORY OF LIFE ON EARTH: PHYLOGENY AND SYSTEMATICS 1 The a. b. c. d. e. 2 Which taxonomic grouping is most inclusive (contains the most species)? a. class b. family c. genus d. phylum e. order f. domain 3 There is evidence that one or perhaps two individuals of one species of finch originally colonized the Galapagos Islands, and more specifically San Cristobal Island on the eastern end of the archipelago. Since that time, the descendants of that species have proliferated into a number of species. The ancestor of the original colonizer(s) came from the Americas. One would expect to find that a. there is less diversity in the mitochondrial DNA of finches on San Cristobal than among their finch ancestors remaining in the Americas b. there is more diversity in the mitochondrial DNA of finches on San Cristobal than among their finch ancestors remaining in the Americas c. there is the same level of diversity in the mitochondrial DNA of finches on San Cristobal as is found among their finch ancestors remaining in the Americas Flightless birds known as ratites, such as ostriches, rheas, emus and kiwis, are an ancient group. a. That these various birds are all flightless can be most easily explained by convergent evolution. b. ancestors of these four kinds of ratites can be traced to the large land mass known as Gondwana that included what is not South America, Antarctica, Australia, New Zealand and Africa c. Of the four groups of ratites, African ostriches are the most distinct because they have been isolated from other ratites for the longest period of time. d. two of the above are true e. a, b, and c are all true. Most biologists think that RNA was the first genetic material because: a. amino acids were produced in Stanley Miller's apparatus b. DNA is the universal genetic material of eukaryotes c. the existence of ribozymes suggests that early cells could have used RNA to catalyze chemical reactions and transfer information d. RNA is simpler than DNA e. DNA is not stable in hydrophobic environments Which of the following is (are) true statement(s)? a. The cytochrome c gene has been used as the basis of a molecular clock because there is a relatively constant rate with which nucleotide substitutions have occurred in the gene. b. The use of a molecular clock to monitor the temporal dynamics of evolutionary change requires the assumption that the amino acid or nucleotide substitutions that are being measured are of no selective significance (that is they do not play a role in determining the fitness of an individual in its environment). c. Mitochondrial DNA is sometimes preferred in making determinations of evolutionary relationships because the mitochondrial DNA has higher mutation rates than nuclear DNA and mitochondria lack mechanisms to repair mutations that occur. d. A molecular clock based on nuclear genes is generally more accurate than one based on mitochondrial genes. e. Molecular evidence for macroevolution may be based upon the observation that the longer the time since the organisms diverged, the greater the number of differences in the nucleotide sequence of certain genes. 7 Plate tectonics a. is the mechanism responsible for continental drifting b. is responsible for earthquakes c. is associated with the spreading of the sea floor at deep marine locations The most accurate measure of the age of rocks today is attained by determining the degree of decay of certain ____________________ in the rocks. a. iridium proper scientific name of an organism, the class and genus the genus and species the order and class the order and species the family and species Homo sapiens, consists of:

b. c. d. 9

mutations radioisotopes nucleotides

When fossils are formed, the actual parts of the organisms are usually replaced by a. bones and shells b. gas bubbles c. minerals d. iridium e. proteins Carbon dating is useful only with respect to objects less than about 50,000 years old because of the a. absence of carbon in living things before that time b. conversion of other materials into new carbon isotopes c. disappearance of carbon as it is used in photosynthesis d. half-life of the carbon isotope used e. lack of interested scientists 50,000 years ago Which was larger? a. Laurasia b. Gondwana(land) c. Pangaea

10

11

12 That proposition that continents drift a. is a scientific theory b. is not a scientific theory because it is not amenable to the scientific method c. is demonstrable fact

GENERAL QUESTIONS ON THE HISTORY OF LIFE ON EARTH 1 Roughly, when did each of the following first appear? a. prokaryotes b. Archaeopteryx c. Australopithicines d. cartilaginous fish e. Stromatolites f. Biston betularia g. marsupials h. "Lucy" i. lungfish j. lobe-finned fish k. Homo habilis l. dinosaurs m. Proavis n. cyanobacteria o. gymnosperms p. Neanderthal q. single-celled eukaryotes r. monotremes s. eukaryotes t. first fossils of cells 2 The a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. i. fossil record dating to 400 (300, 200, 100, 60, 1) million years ago includes: land plants fish amphibians sponges hominids primates gymnosperms angiosperms invertebrates dinosaurs mammals

2 Which of the following is(are) now extant: a. trilobites b. Archaeopteryx c. all organisms requiring a reducing environment to stay alive d. cartilaginous fish e. Stromatolites f. Biston betularia g. marsupials h. "Lucy" i. lungfish j. Australopithicus afarensis k. Homo habilis l. lobe-finned fish m. Proavis n. cyanobacteria o. gymnosperms p. Neanderthal q. monotremes 3 Which of the following is (are) correct? a. Limestone deposits called stromatolites, accumulated by cyanobacteria, are known as fossils and are still being formed today. b. The Burgess Shale is known for its fossil demonstration of the Cambrian Explosion d. Trilobites represent carnivorous, marine animals ancestral to insects Which of the following is (are) true? a. Fossils that date to 2.5 billion years old include prokaryotes, multicellular organisms b. Judging from the fossil record, first cells were prokaryotes c. Judging from the fossil record, first cells were photosynthetic 5 Which appear first (or last) in the fossil record a. reptiles b. insects and eukaryotes including

c. d. e. f. 6 The a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. i. 7

birds mammals algae monotremes fossil record dating to 400 (300, 200, 100, 60, 1) million years ago includes: land plants fish amphibians sponges hominids primates gymnosperms angiosperms invertebrates dinosaurs mammals

Judging from the fossil record and other evidence, first cells: a. existed about 3.5 b.y.a. b. contained mitochondria c. had a true nucleus (that is a membrane-bound organelle encapsulating genetic material) d. were aerobic e. were photosynthetic f. were anaerobic g. contained lipids h. were eukaryotes i. were prokaryotes

EARLY EARTH AND THE ORIGIN OF LIFE 1 When earth was a young planet, the lack of an ozone layer: a. meant that U.V. radiation might have been an abundant source of energy for spontaneous chemical reactions b. would suggest that the atmosphere was a richly oxidizing one c. meant that no life could exist 2 Which of the following is/are true: a. Judging from the fossil record, first cells were photosynthetic b. First cells were prokaryotic c. Cells with a nucleus predate cells with mitochondria It has now been successfully proved conclusively that there are six kingdoms of organisms on earth and that they are arranged in three domains The a. b. c. d. e. first photosynthetic organisms on earth must have been prokaryotes eukaryotes viruses archaebacteria cyanobacteria

Which of the following is true: a. Since proteinaceous enzymes are necessary to synthesize RNA and DNA, proteinaceous enzymes must have been present on prebiotic earth prior to the appearance of an information-bearing molecule b. Since DNA codes for enzymes, and enzymes are essential for cells to function, DNA must have been the first information-bearing molecule used by early life forms c. That RNA can act as a catalyst may help explain how relatively complex organic molecules could form on prebiotic earth in the absence of enzymes d. since RNA is the information-bearing molecule that is translated into the amino acid sequences of enzymes, RNA must have predated the appearance of molecules having enzymatic activity on prebiotic earth. It has been suggested that the first proteins may have formed on the surfaces present within silicate clays. It is hypothesized that the clays substituted for enzymes.

7 The conversion of Earth's early atmosphere from a reducing to an oxidizing environment was made possible through the activities of the a. (eu)bacteria b. green plants c. archaebacteria d. oldest known fossils e. trilobites f. cyanobacteria g. green plants h. aerobic bacteria 8 It has been proposed that silicate clays, such as kaolinite,: a. may have operated as chemical catalysts (and in so doing substituted for the role of enzymes) b. permitted dehydration (condensation) reactions to occur in aqueous solutions c. may have functioned in a manner similar to membrane receptors d. may have been responsible for the formation of proteins on early earth e. account for how hydrolytic reactions could take place in an aqueous environment 9 What is the evidence that the (eu)bacteria preceded archaea in the history of life on earth? 10 11 The most primitive forms of life are thought to have obtained chemical energy by degrading, or breaking down, molecules that were spontaneously produced by non-living forces, that is they were chemoautotrophs. 12 The evidence that the worlds atmosphere approximately 2.7 billion years ago was becoming an oxidizing atmosphere comes from: What is the evidence that bacteria preceded protists in the history of life on earth?

13

a. b. c.

the appearance of cyanobacteria in the fossil record about 2.7 billion years ago the appearance of stromatolites in the fossil record about 2.7 billion years ago rocks rich in iron oxides about 2.7 billion years ago

Louis Pasteur, in the early 1860's, conducted a series of experiments that served to support Darwins theory of evolution by suggesting how life might have originated on earth. 14 RNA may have been the first genetic material. Such a theory is supported by a. the observation that RNA is structurally a simpler molecule than is DNA 15 Which of a. they b. they c. they d. they 16 Which of a. they b. they c. they the following is (are) true of stromatolites? are extinct appear in the fossil record at 2.5 billion years ago are formed of cyanobacteria are photosynthetic the are are are following is (are) true of cyanobacteria? archaea(bacteria) photosynthetic anaerobic

17

Which of the following is (are) true of the transition of the surface of the earth from a largely reducing to largely oxidizing environment? a. photosynthetic protists were primarily responsible for the transition b. once the concentrations of oxygen increased sufficiently in the atmosphere, aquatic environments then became perfused with increasing levels of dissolved oxygen c. evidence of when the environment was oxidizing can be found in iron oxide deposits in rocks d. the transition to an oxidizing environment would have been lethal to many prokaryotes The a. b. new c. theory that RNA may have predated DNA as genetic material is supported by the observation that some of the simplest prokaryotes today have RNA, not DNA, as their heritable material spontaneously generated RNA sequences have been found to operate as templates for the formation of RNA molecules some RNA molecules that are formed in cells today are known to have enzymatic activity

18

19

Judging from the fossil record and other evidence, first true eukaryotic cells: a. existed over 2 b.y.a. b. contained mitochondria c. were anaerobic d. would be classified today as protists e. were photoautotrophic Which of the following is evidence that supports the theory that modern eukaryotes evolved symbiotic relationships involving prokaryotes: a. the size of some modern subcellular organelles is about the same as that of prokaryotes b. some subcellular organelles have their own DNA c. some subcellular organelles can divide by simple fission as do prokaryotes d. some subcellular organelles are about the same size as prokaryotes from

20

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That mitochondria and plastids have features like those of autonomous prokaryotes is taken as evidence supporting the theory that modern eukaryotes evolved from earlier cells involved in symbiotic relationships with prokaryotes. Which of the following is true? a. some subcellular organelles contain a genome consisting of a single circular DNA molecule as do prokaryotes b. some subcellular organelles have a genetic material lacking in histone proteins as do prokaryotes c. some subcellular organelles have transfer RNAs and ribosomes needed to transcribe and translate DNA into proteins d. like some prokaryotes, some subcellular organelles have RNA as their genetic material e. some subcellular organelles replicate independent of the cell (by binary fission) like prokaryotes It is most likely that mitochondria appeared in eukaryotes prior to the evolution of chloroplasts. Support for this comes from the observation that a. whereas all eukaryotes have mitochondria (or remnants thereof), not all eukaryotes have chloroplasts b. chloroplasts have ribosomes that are more similar to prokaryotic ribosomes than they are to ribosomes found in the cytosol of the eukaryotic cell c. the mitochondrial ribosomes vary extensively from one group of eukaryotes to another, but they are generally more similar to prokaryotic ribosomes than to their counterparts in the eukaryotic cytoplasm

22

23

The a. b. c. d. e. 24

cellular organization of prokaryotes is fundamentally different from that of eukaryotes in that prokaryotes lack a cell membrane only prokaryotes have cell walls only eukaryotes can engage in sexual reproduction only eukaryotes have mitochondria only eukaryotes have ribosomes

Which of the following is (are) generally found in eukaryotes but is (are) absent from prokaryotes? a. linear DNA molecules b. 9+2 microtubule apparatus found in flagella and cilia c. membrane-bound nucleus d. endoplasmic reticulum e. mitochondria f. mitosis g. meiosis h. sexual recombination 25 In the evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes, some lineage(s) of prokaryotes diverged from the more normal prokaryote body plan by a. developing a simplified multicellularity b. evolving a type of internal cellular compartmentlization c. developing symbiotic associations between cells of previously autonomous lineages of prokaryotes Plastids and mitochondria a. have their genetic material arranged as a loopnot a rod-shaped structure b. are autonomous units in that they each have genetic material that contains the code for all of their proteins c. can trace their ancestry to cyanobacteria d. can reproduce independent of the mitotic process of the cell 27 The genetics of prokaryotes is fundamentally different from that of eukaryotes in that a. the genetic material of prokaryotes is concentrated in a nucleoid region as opposed to a more clearly defined nucleus b. while all eukaryotes have DNA as their genetic material, some prokaryotes use DNA and others use RNA c. only prokaryotes have plasmids d. only eukaryotes can undergo sexual reproduction 28 The a. b. c. 29 The a. b. c. 30 cell physiology of prokaryotes is fundamentally different from that of eukaryotes in that prokaryotes can be either autotrophs or heterotrophs while eukaryotes are all heterotrophs no eukaryotes are chemoheterotrophs all eukaryotes require O2 in order to respire Miller and Urey experiments demonstrated that: continents have been constantly, and slowly drifting the atmosphere on early earth had little if any free oxygen complex organic molecules could be produced de novo under particular environmental conditions coacervates are alive and display all of the characteristics of living things reproduction of prokaryotic cells is fundamentally different from that of eukaryotes in that eukaryotic cells can not divide by binary fission meiosis only occurs in eukaryotes, not prokaryotes genetic recombination as a result of transformation is more likely in eukaryotes than prokaryotes

26

The a. b. c. d.

31 Which came first: a. mitochondria or plastids b. cell walls or cell membranes c. RNA or DNA

PROKARYOTES AND THE ORIGINS OF METABOLIC DIVERSITY 1 Which of the following is (are) true of cyanobacteria? a. they are representatives of the Archaea b. there is genetic evidence supporting the theory that todays cyanobacteria are similar to the ancestors of chloroplasts c. they are photosynthetic d. their metabolism results in the production of molecular oxygen from water e. they are photoautotrophs f. the evidence is compelling that todays cyanobacteria and todays eukaryotic algae share a common ancestor 2 Metabolism of living prokaryotes provides important insights into the chemical processes used by early organisms because: a. many prokaryotes live in environments similar to those in which life first evolved b. prokaryotes are simpler to study and hence are better known than are eukaryotes c. many bacteria are obligate aerobes d. many bacteria use oxygen as their oxidizing agent e. fermentation evolved before aerobic respiration Calcium carbonate limestone deposits called ____________________, accumulated by the cyanobacteria, are known as fossils but are still being formed today. a. coelacanth b. Stromatolites c. Burgess Shales d. echidnas e. ribonucleases 4 The genetics of prokaryotes is fundamentally different from that of eukaryotes in that a. the genetic material of prokaryotes is concentrated in a nucleoid region as opposed to a more clearly defined nucleus b. while all eukaryotes have DNA as their genetic material, some prokaryotes use DNA and others use RNA c. only prokaryotes have plasmids d. only eukaryotes can undergo sexual reproduction e. only eukaryotes undergo meiosis f. genetic recombination only occurs in eukaryotes Which of the following is (are) true? a. eubacteria are all heterotrophic b. archaebacteria have RNA (not DNA) as their genetic material c. eubacteria have ribosomes Archaea(bacteria) and (eu)bacteria differ because: a. members of the Archaea customarily lack cell walls, and bacteria generally have cell walls b. members of the Archaea customarily do not use double-stranded DNA as the genetic material but instead use the simpler RNA c. no members of the Archaea are photosynthetic Evidence that the Archaea are more closely related to the Eukarya than to the Bacteria includes the observation that of the two: a. only Archaea and Eukarya have nuclear envelopes b. only Archaea and Eukarya have histones associated with their genetic material c. only Archaea and Eukarya have DNA as their genetic material d. only Archaea and Eukarya have their genetic material organized as rod-shaped structures, instead of circular 8 Some organisms are able to live in extreme environments, that is to say environments with characteristics which would be intolerable to the vast majority of organisms. a. methanogens are capable of living in environments rich in methane and metabolizing the gas as a carbon source. This is in marked contrast to photosynthetic plants, for example, that fix their carbon from CO2 in the air. b. extreme halophiles live in extremely salty environments c. extreme thermophiles thrive in hot environments using the heat in order to fix carbon and produce organic molecules

PROTISTS 1

Protists a. are a mixture of largely unicellular prokaryotes and eukaryotes b. are a group of largely unicellular eukaryotic organisms, but there are some colonial and some multicellular organisms c. are all heterotrophs d. divide by binary fission; they lack a meiotic mechanism that would permit sexual reproduction e. as a group are paraphyletic f. generally are unicellular g. generally are aerobic h. generally have mitochondria i. are all eukaryotes j. are represented by molds and algae k. are mixotrophs l. generally have either a flagellum or cilia m. all use DNA as their genetic material n. have the haploid phase as the main stage in the life cycle when growth occurs o. are aquatic, requiring either a body of water or an otherwise moist environment in order to grow Which of the following is true or malaria and the Plasmodium parasite that causes the disease? a. Red blood cells are infected by the parasite and therein the parasite reproduces. b. The liver is infected by one stage of the parasite. c. Female mosquitoes are responsible for transmitting the parasite from one human to another. d. The parasite is a prokaryote. e. Because of the effective use of insecticides to control populations of insect hosts, the use of drugs that kill the parasite itself and the recent development of a vaccine, the incidence of malaria has continuously declined since the 1950's and is now nearly extinct world-wide.

3 The major groupings of life, including the taxa within the prokaryotes and eukaryotes, seem to share a single common ancestor from which these various taxa diverged. From the time of their divergence from this last universal common ancestor, each major taxon has followed its own, independent evolutionary historydistinctive histories that have resulted in the major taxa which we now see on earth as well as those taxa that are now extinct. a. Evidence in support of this includes the appearance of photosynthetic organisms in only one prokaryotic lineage and in plants b. Evidence in support of this includes newly discovered fossils c. Evidence in support of this includes evidence of gene transfer from mitochondria to plastids d. Evidence in support of this includes secondary endosymbiosis where diplomonads have incorporated actinopods e. This statement is incorrect. There does not appear to be a single ancestor common to the three domains of organisms. Within the community of primitive cells that gave rise to the three domains, there appears to have been considerable gene exchange among the various cells. 4 Which of the following appear(s) to be true of eukaryotes? a. Diplomonadida and Parabasala are two ancient groups of protists that lack mitochondria. (This statement is true.) Apparently mitochondria had not evolved by the time these two taxa appeared. b. Some dinoflagellates live as mutualistic symbionts of animals called cnidarians that build coral reefs. (That statement is true.) These dinoflagellates generate dissolved oxygen for animals and are responsible for fixing carbon which supports heterotrophs. c. Multicellularity apparently evolved once among eukaryotes. One early multicellular organism is seen as the sole lineage of eukaryotes that eventually gave rise to all modern lineages of multicellular protists, plants, fungi and animals. 5 Some groups of todays eukaryotes (eg. diplomonads and parabasalids) lack mitochondria. Either the ancestors of these modern groups never had mitochondria, that is they evolved after true nuclei but before the acquisition of the endosymbiotic bacteria that gave rise to mitochondria, or at some point their ancestors had mitochondria which were subsequently lost. a. Evidence in support of the latter hypothesis is that nuclear DNA of organisms of these modern groups have some mitochondrial genes. b. Evidence in support of the former hypothesis is that the bacteria thought to be the ancestors of mitochondria had not yet evolved by the time the diplomonad and parabasalid lineages appeared.

PLANT DIVERSITY 1

Which of the following have vascular tissue? a. gymnosperms b. angiosperms c. ferns d. moses e. fungi Which of the following groups produce seeds a. angiosperms b. gymnosperms c. ferns d. moses Seeds of (gymnosperms, angiosperms) a. represent a stage in the gametophyte generation b. are multicellular c. contain an embryo d. contain endosperm e. have a seed coat

4 Which of the following are exclusively found in plants in comparison to their charophycean ancestors? a. cell walls composed of cellulose b. chloroplasts c. chlorophyll d. photosynthetic pathways e. spores f. amnions g. keratin h. alternation of generations life cycle i. mycorrhizae j. flagellated sperm k. cuticles l. guard cells 5 Which of the following is/are correct? a. In plants, the sporophyte generation can be distinguished from the gametophyte because only in the former does meiosis occur. b. meiosis occurs during the gametophyte generation in plants c. Endosperm is polyploid d. spores are haploid cells e. the sporophyte generation is haploid f. a seed represents a stage in the sporophyte generation g. all plants have the characteristic of having an "alternation of generations" life cycle h. ferns are vascular plants Endosperm a. is polyploid b. contains food reserves used to fuel germination c. is more likely to be found in gymnosperms than angiosperms d. develops in the stamen Cuticles serve plants by a. limiting water loss b. giving protection from microbial attack c. reducing likelihood of fungal growth d. providing the colors necessary to attract pollinators e. limiting inbreeding f. increasing the exchange of products with their lichen symbionts 8 Evidence that all extant plants had a common ancestor is that all plants a. share a common pattern of cytokinesis b. have an alternation of generations life cycle pattern where one of the generations develops from, and lives on, the other c. produce spores d. have vascular tissue e. have flagellated sperm

f. 9

have cell walls composed of chitin

The evidence that all angiosperms had a common ancestor includes the observation that they all share basic similarities in their flowers and fruits. For example, all flowers are constructed of four whorls of modified leaves that serve as sepals, petals, stamens and carpels. Evidence that gymnosperms and bryophytes have a common ancestor is that they a. share a common pattern of cytokinesis. b. both have plasma membranes that fashion the structural elements of cell walls in a similar fashion

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Which of the following is (are) correct? a. The ancestor of all extant plants was most likely multicellular green algae b. The common ancestor of all extant angiosperms is most likely a gymnosperm. The most successful (best represented) groups of plants on earth today produce seeds. accrue to seed-production, compared with plants that do not produce seeds, include: a. resistance to arid conditions b. relative safety from predation/parasitism c. enhanced efficiency of dispersal Advantages that

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Which of the following is (are) characteristic of [liverworts, hornworts, bryophytes, fungi, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms]? a. seeds b. seeds with an endosperm c. flagellated gametes d. spores e. flowers f. a gametophyte life stage that is more prominent than a sporophyte life stage g. a sporophyte life stage that is more prominent than a gametophyte life stage h. seeds that develop within a protective ovary i. localized regions of cell division at the tips of shoots and roots that can differentiate into the various tissues of a plant. j. specialized cells that promote the transfer of nutrients from the gametophyte to the developing plant embryo k. vascular tissue l. lignified vascular tissue m. pollen tubes n. a process of double fertilization resulting in an embryo and an endosperm o. cell walls (of cellulose; of chitin) p. they are heterotrophs q. cotyledons r. endosperm In the evolution of terrestrial plants from their ancestors, the following adaptations contributed to their success a. stomata-cells that control the uptake of nutrients through the roots b. cuticle c. vascularization d. cell walls e, roots f. endomycorrhizae Land plants probably evolved from a. a cyanobacteria b. a green algae c. a fungus d. a flagellated protist e. a diatom Which of the following are true of stomata? a. they are cells b. they function in gas exchange c. they function in regulating evapotranspiration d. their opening and closing is controlled by guard cells e. their opening and closing relies on turgor pressure (water generated pressure) f. they are found in both angiosperms and gymnosperms Pollen tubes a. are haploid structures

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b. c.

grow through the style are found in gymnosperms but not angiosperms

18 Which of the following is/are correct? a. In plants, the sporophyte generation can be distinguished from the gametophyte because only in the former does meiosis occur. b. Pollen tube inhibitors can interfere with the development of the tube as it passes down the filament toward the ovary. c. Endosperm is polyploid d. spores are haploid cells e. the sporophyte generation is haploid f. a seed represents a stage in the sporophyte generation g. all plants have the characteristic of having an "alternation of generations" life cycle h. Pollen germinates on the stigma i. Pollen is produced and displayed on the style j. ferns are vascular plants k. meiosis occurs during the gametophyte generation in plants 19 Which of the following is (are) true of the symbiotic relationship between swollen thorn (bull's horn) acacias and ants? a. it is an example of commensalism b. the plant has extra-floral nectaries c. new leaves of the plant offer yellow, nutrient-rich bodies d. ants protect the plant from herbivory e. ants protect the plant from interference from other plants

FUNGI 1 Which of the following is (are) true? a. fungi are prokaryotes b. most fungi are decomposers c. fungi reproduce by spores d. molds are fungi e. yeasts are fungi f. fungi are more closely related to plants than to animals g. fungi do not engage in sexual reproduction h. the general body shape created by the mutualistic relationship is due to the complex configuration of the algal cells. Fungi may be involved in mutualistic relationships with algae. a. such associations are called lichens b. fungi supply the algae with oxygen c. fungi supply the algae with complex sugars d. such associations are called corals e. algae supply the fungi with carbohydrates f. fungi supply the association with pigments that help to shade the association from sunlight g. fungi may provide compounds that protect the association from herbivores Fungi a. reproduce by spores b. are plants c. may be predacious d. produce spores e. are vascular plants f. are photosynthetic g. are autotrophs h. are prokaryotes i. have cell walls composed of cellulose j. evolved from non-vascular plants that lost their chloroplasts k. may contain pigments that serve to protect symbiotic algae from damaging effects of sunlight l. may be toxic to potential consumers m. have a greater molecular affinity with plants than with animals n. usually are decomposers o. evolved from plants that lost their chloroplasts Fungi associated with trees a. are considered parasites of trees because they customarily feed on living tissue b. produce acids that digest cellulose c. have an impact on the success of the growth of seedlings Which is/are true of mycorrhizae a. they are examples of commensulistic relationships b. mycorrhizal fungae obtain sugar molecules from the plant leaves that they colonize c. plants rely on the symbiont for mineral ions d. They are mutualistic relationships e. They are involved in nutrient uptake by plants. f. Fungi obtain carbohydrates from photosynthetic plants. g. they are examples of relationships in which the two partners to the relationship profit by the presence of the other. Mycorrhizal relationships are a. parasitic b. commensulistic c. mutualistic 7 Plants involved in mycorrhizal relationships a. are living in close association with a fungus b. give up some carbohydrates to their symbionts c. profit by enhanced uptake of mineral nutrients and water Lichens are composed of a. fungi b. moss c. algae d. protozoans e. algae and fungi

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What is the evidence that plants preceded fungi in the history of life on earth? Which of the following is true of lichens? a. They may include cyanobacteria b. They may be composed in part by algae that supply carbohydrates to symbionts c. They may in part be composed of protists d. They are in part composed of photosynthetic organisms e. They may be composed of cyanobacteria that fix oxygen f. They are in part composed of fungi that may provide pigments that serve to protect symbiotic algae from damaging effects of sunlight g. The fungal partners of lichens fix nitrogen h. The fungal partners may assist their partners in the uptake of minerals i. The fungal partners may give their partners some measure of protection from herbivores j. The fungal partners of lichens fix carbon k. If an algal partner is involved, it will fix carbon

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Hyphae a. are important to fungi as they facilitate nutrient uptake b. are typically haploid c. are important to angiosperms because they can facilitate nutrient uptake d. may be involved in mutualistic, mycorrhizal relationships with plants e. are important to gymnosperms as they facilitate gas exchange in the leaves f. Hyphae can communicate with each other via pheromones Which of the following is NOT true of mycorrhizae? a. They represent mutualistic relationships between plants and fungi b. They are in part composed of hyphae c. They assist vascular plants in the uptake of water d. They assist plants in the uptake of minerals e. The mycelium portion is a diploid structure.

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13 Which of a. They b. They c. They d. They 14 The a. b. c. d. e. the following is (are) true of coral animals? live symbiotically with algae feed on plant starches and sugars feed at night on suspended matter in the water are protists

closest relatives of fungi are probably animals vascular plants mosses brown algae slime

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Which of the following are true of stomata? a. they regulate the movement of materials through the phloem b. they regulate the movement of carbon dioxide c. they regulate the movement of water d. they are cells e. they function in gas exchange f. their opening and closing is controlled by guard cells g. they function in regulating evapotranspiration Which statement is (are) true of water movement from roots to leaves in plants? a. it occurs through dead vessels of the xylem b. it relies on transpiration at the leaf surface c. it is helped by contractions in the phloem which is an energy requiring process d. it is helped by cohesion among water molecules e. it is helped by the active uptake of solutes by root cells

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ANIMAL EVOLUTION 1

Which of the following is (are) true? a. in addition to marsupial and placental mammals, there are some mammals that lay eggs b. mammals evolved from a lineage of reptiles c. amphibians evolved from a lineage of reptiles d. The early diversification of mammals on earth occurred when today's continents were conjoined into one large land mass called Gondwana The a. b. c. d. e. The a. b. c. d. e. surviving evolutionary line most closely related to the dinosaurs includes the amphibians birds lungfishes mammals primates Coelacanth is notable because it is a species of aquatic mammal once thought to be extinct is representative of the vertebrates that first colonized the land is a species of reptile that has apparently not changed (or evolved) in the last 300 million years. is the oldest fossil bird is the oldest fossil vertebrate

Dinosaurs appear to have gone extinct over a relatively short period of geologic time. There is mounting evidence that the cause of the extinction was an impact of a stellar body on earth that resulted in a cloud of particulate matter that circled the earth for some period of time. This cloud of suspended material may have resulted in the cooling of the earth and a substantial reduction in the photosynthetic activity necessary to maintain biological organization. Which of the following is (are) true of Archaeopteryx? a. it had feathers b. it had clawed fingers c. it had teeth d. it had a long bony tail e. it existed about 150 million years ago f. it had a paper-thin jaw similar to that of modern birds g. it was found in the Burgess Shale h. it existed at the time of Pangaea i. it had teeth and a long tail, features not characteristic of birds j. it evolved from a lineage of flying fish k. it was unknown to Charles Darwin l. it had feathers resembling those of modern birds m. it had a beak and lacked teeth, characteristics shared with modern birds n. it had a long bony tail, as do modern reptiles o. it was a part of the Edicarian fauna p. Charles Darwin knew of the animal and used it to support his theory d. it had a expanded keel (sternum) possibly for the attachment of robust flight muscle

6 The early diversification of mammals on earth occurred when today's continents were conjoined into one large land mass called: a. Laurasia b. Gondwana c. Pangaea 7 Which appear first in the fossil record a. reptiles b. amphibians c. birds d. mammals Which of the following are true? a. The ancestors of the mammals living at about 65 m.y.a were reptiles other than dinosaurs c. Following the mass extinction of dinosaurs about 65 m.y.a, some reptiles evolved into mammals 9 At the time of the dinosaurs, there were no mammals on earth. of most dinosaurs. Mammals first appear after the extinction

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Animals can be distinguished from other eukaryotes because a. only animals have homeotic genes b. only animals have cell walls composed of collagen c. only animals evolved from a protistan ancestor d. only animals have homeobox-containing genes e. no animals reproduce asexually f. only animals have Hox genes g. only animals have muscle cells h. only animals have nerve cells i. only animals have tight and gap junctions and desmosomes

11 Humans may be distinguished from lobsters (or nematodes, or flatworms, or earthworms or rabbits or sponges) because only humans a. undergo gastrulation during their early development b. are bilaterally symmetrical c. have an ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm d. the fate of the opening formed by gastrulation is to eventually become the mouth e. undergo ecdysis f. have fossils in deposits of the Ediacaran period g. have flagellated sperm cells h. have digits with skin ridges 12 Sponges may be distinguished from lobsters (or nematodes, or flatworms, or earthworms or rabbits) because only sponges a. undergo gastrulation during their early development b. are bilaterally symmetrical c. have an ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm d. the fate of the opening formed by gastrulation is to eventually become the mouth e. undergo ecdysis f. have fossils in deposits of the Ediacaran period g. have flagallated sperm cells h. have a hydrostatic skeleton i. lack nerves j. may be hermaphrodites k. have a medusa phase l. segmented bodies m. are radially symmetrical 13 Insects may be distinguished from lobsters (or nematodes, or flatworms, or starfish or earthworms (roundworms) or crustaceans or rabbits) because only insects a. undergo gastrulation during their early development b. are bilaterally symmetrical c. have an ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm d. the fate of the opening formed by gastrulation is to eventually become the mouth e. undergo ecdysis f. have fossils in deposits of the Ediacaran period g. have flagellated sperm cells h. have a hydrostatic skeleton i. lack nerves j. may be hermaphrodites k. have a medusa phase l. segmented bodies m. are radially symmetrical Once invertebrates colonized land, they a. evolved an exoskeleton b. evolved gills c. evolved a heart d. evolved legs e. evolved wings Features typical of insects include a. a segmented body plan b. two pairs of wings c. that they undergo metamorphosis as they grow and become sexually mature d. they have a skeleton of chitin e. book lungs for gas exchange f. that most reproduce parthenogenetically Amphibians evolved from a lineage of fish. a. eggs with water-tight membranes Pre-adaptations of those proto-amphibians include:

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b. c. 17

a rib cage and diaphragm for respiration limb appendages that facilitate locomotion on land

Support for the theory that vertebrates evolved from a lineage of urochordate-like organisms (that is, something like a sea squirt) includes the observation that, like modern vertebrates, a sea squirt a. larva has a longitudinal, flexible rod that provides skeletal support b. adult has a cranium c. larva has a hollow nerve cord positioned on the back or the organism d. adult has a lateral line system (organ) e. larva has pharyngeal slits in the region just posterior to the mouth f. adult has a cartilaginous skeleton g. larva has a muscular tail h. adult has a swim bladder 18 Consider a. they b. what say they c. they d. they 19 Following the mass extinction of amphibians, ____________________became the ecologically dominant and highly diverse group to replace them. a. reptiles b. amphibians c. insects d. mammals e. arthropods 20 Mammals and extant birds share which of the following characteristics a. endothermy b. descent from reptiles c. a dorsal, hollow nerve cord d. teeth specialized for diverse diets e. oviparity f. viviparity g. ovoviviparous h. internal fertilization In addition to skeletal differences, cartilaginous fishes can be distinguished from bony fishes by the a. presence of a cranium only in bony fishes b. presence of a lateral line only in bony fishes c. presence of unpaired fins only in cartilaginous fishes d. presence of a swimbladder only in cartilaginous fishes e. presence of a notochord only in cartilaginous fish 22 Which of the following is true of bony fish and cartilaginous fish. a. cartilaginous fish predated bony fish b. only cartilaginous fish have a swim bladder c. the skeleton of cartilaginous fish is more dense than is the skeleton of bony fish d. of the two groups, only the bony fish lay eggs e. land vertebrates evolved from bony fish f. only bony fish have a lateral line system 23 Features typical of molluscs (clams, clams, snails, octopuses, squids) include a. a segmented body plan b. radial symmetry c. that they undergo metamorphosis as they grow and become sexually mature d. they lack a nervous system e. a shell of calcium carbonate the platypus and the echidna. are more closely related to placental mammals than to marsupial mammals issues from the females reproductive tract at birth are eggs, not motile young. are oviparous. have fir, a distinguishing characteristic of mammals, but do not nurse their young. are cold-blooded That is to

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HOMINID/HOMINOID EVOLUTION

Which of the following is (are) correct? a. Neanderthal is conspecific (a member of the same species) with modern humans but represents a different race b. The genus Australopithicus is now thought to be the immediate ancestor of the genus Homo c. Current evidence indicates that Homo erectus was the first hominid to migrate out of Africa eventually resulting in populations in what is now Europe, Asia, the Middle East, as well as in Africa. The bulk of the fossil and molecular evidence suggests that from H. erectus in these various regions, various races of Homo sapiens eventually evolved. d. That the closest living relatives of the genus Homo all live in Africa, supports the prevailing theory that the genus Homo first evolved in Africa e. The Piltdown Man is the oldest representative of modern humans. Which of the following is/are correct? a. humans and gorillas evolved from chimpanzees b. Australopithicus afarensis is an ancestor of great apes c. Australopithicus afarensis is represented by "Lucy" d. the genera Homo and Australopithecus evolved from chimpanzees e. Australopithecus coexisted with the ancestor of gorillas and chimpanzees f. Australopithicus afarensis is an ancestor of Homo sapiens g. Australopithicus afarensis was known to Darwin h. Australopithicus afarensis is extinct

Humans and other primates are closely related evolutionarily. The greatest support for this comes from the fact that both chimps and humans: a. use ATP as an energy molecule b. have a genetic sex determination scheme wherein the presence of a Y chromosome denotes a male c. use atmospheric oxygen as an electron receptor in electron transport chains d. have DNA with introns e. have chromatin in the nucleus of cells f. have four limbs g. have placentas h. are bilaterally symmetrical i. have backbones j. have almost identical karyotypes k. have biological clocks l. are mammals m. have digits placed in such a fashion that they can grasp Extant apes include which of the following/ a. chimpanzees b. gibbons c. monkeys d. lemurs e. orangutans

5 The a. b. c. d. e. f. genus Australopithicus is now thought to be the immediate ancestor of chimpanzees gorillas humans marsupials rhesus monkeys the genus Homo